IPP Exam 3
The nurse is teaching a patient how to sit with crutches. In which order will the nurse present the instructions starting with the first step? 1. Place both crutches in one hand. 2. Grasp arm of chair with free hand. 3. Completely lower self into chair. 4. Transfer weight to crutches and unaffected leg.
1, 4, 2, 3 A patient is sitting in a chair with crutches. Both crutches are held in one hand. The patient then transfers weight to the crutches and the unaffected leg. Next, the patient grasps the arm of the chair with the free hand and begins to lower self into chair. Finally, the patient completely lowers self into chair.
Which of the following assessments do you perform routinely when an older adult is receiving 0.9% NS? 1. Auscultate dependent portions of lungs 2. Check clarity and color of urine 3. Assess muscle strength and gait 4. Check skin turgor over sternum or shin
1. Auscultate dependent portions of lungs Excessive or too-rapid infusion of 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) causes extracellular fluid volume (ECV) excess with pulmonary vessel congestion and potential pulmonary edema, especially in older adults, who cannot adapt as rapidly to increased vascular volume. Overload of intravenous normal saline eventually increases urine volume if kidneys are functioning but may not change urine color. Assessment of muscle strength is appropriate for potassium imbalances, not ECV imbalances. Skin turgor is not a reliable assessment of ECV deficit in older adults.
Which of these activities can you delegate to nursing assistants (UAP) ? (Select all that apply) 1. Measuring oral intake and urine output 2. Preparing IV tubing for routine change 3. Reporting an IV bag is getting low in fluid 4. Changing an IV bag when it is out
1. Measuring oral intake and urine output 3. Reporting an IV bag is getting low in fluid
a nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. in what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client? 1. ask the client if he can bear weight 2. use the stand-pivot technique to move the client to the chair 3. position the chair on the left side of the bed 4. have the client sit and dangle his feet at the bedside
1. ask the client is he can bear weight 3. position the chair on the left side of the bed 4. have the client sit and dangle his feet at the bedside 2. use the stand-pivot technique to move the client to the chair
Put in order crutch walking up the stairs: If NOT allowed to place weight on the affected leg, hop up with the unaffected leg. Bring the affected leg and the crutches up beside the unaffected leg. Push down on the stair rail and the crutches and step up with the unaffected leg. Hold onto rail with one hand and crutches with the other hand.
1.) Hold onto rail with one hand and crutches with the other hand. 2.) Push down on the stair rail and the crutches and step up with the unaffected leg. 3.) If NOT allowed to place weight on the affected leg, hop up with the unaffected leg. 4.) Bring the affected leg and the crutches up beside the unaffected leg. 5.) Remember, the unaffected leg goes up first and the crutches move with the affected leg. Crutch first, then Unaffected UCU (Upstairs 1Crutch, 2Unaffected)
Put in order crutch walking down the stairs: Bring the unaffected leg down. Remember the affected leg goes down first and the crutches move with the affected leg Place the affected leg and the crutches down on the step below; support weight by leaning on the crutches and the stair rail.
1.) Place the affected leg and the crutches down on the step below; support weight by leaning on the crutches and the stair rail. 2.) Bring the unaffected leg down. 3.) Remember the affected leg goes down first and the crutches move with the affected leg 1 A w/Crutches
The nurse needs to move a patient up in bed using a drawsheet. The nurse has another nurse helping. In which order will the nurses perform the steps, beginning with the first one? 1. Grasp the drawsheet firmly near the patient. 2. Move the patient and drawsheet to the desired position. 3. Position one nurse at each side of the bed. 4. Place the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh. 5. Place your feet apart with a forward-backward stance. 6. Flex knees and hips and on count of three shift weight from the front to back leg.
3, 4, 1, 5, 6, 2 Assisting a patient up in bed with a drawsheet (two or three nurses): (1) Place the patient supine with the head of the bed flat. A nurse stands on each side of the bed. (2) Remove the pillow from under the patient's head and shoulders and place it at the head of the bed. (3) Turn the patient side to side to place the drawsheet under the patient, extending it from shoulders to thighs. (4) Return the patient to the supine position. (5) Fanfold the drawsheet on both sides, with each nurse grasping firmly near the patient. (6) Nurses place their feet apart with a forward-backward stance. Nurses should flex knees and hips. On the count of three, nurses should shift their weight from front to back leg and move the patient and drawsheet to the desired position in the bed.
Which of these defining characteristics is consistent with fluid volume deficit? 1. A 1 lb weight loss, pale yellow urine 2. Engorged neck veins when upright, bradycardia 3. Dry mucous membranes, thready pulse, tachycardia 4. Bounding radial pulse, flat neck veins when supine
3. Dry mucous membranes, thready pulse, tachycardia The nursing diagnosis fluid volume deficit includes extracellular fluid volume (ECV) deficit, hypernatremia, and clinical dehydration. ECV deficit is characterized by dry mucous membranes, thready pulse, and tachycardia, among other indicators. Weight loss of 1 lb (0.5 kg) in 1 week could indicate fat loss instead of fluid loss. ECV deficit causes dark yellow urine rather than pale yellow, which is normal.
simple, comfortable device used for precise oxygen delivery. Attach it to a humidified oxygen source with a flow rate up to 6 L/min (24% to 40% oxygen). Flow rates equal to or greater than 4 L/min have a drying effect on the mucosa and thus need to be humidified. A Nasal Cannula B Simple face mask C Partial rebreather mask DNon rebreather mask E Venturi Mask
A Nasal Cannula
a nurse is teaching a client whose left leg is in a cast about using crutches. which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the teaching? A. "when descending stairs, I will first shift my weight to my right leg." B. "I should place my crutches 12 inches in front and to side of each foot." C. "as I sit down, I will hold one crutch in each hand." D. "I will make sure the should rests are snug against my armpits."
A. "when descending stairs, I will first shift my weight to my right leg."
a nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? the client receiving: A. 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask B. 21% oxygen via mechanical ventilation C. 40% oxygen via tracheotomy collar D. 4 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula
A. 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask
You notice a respiratory change in your immobilized postoperative patient. The change you note is most consistent with: A. atelectasis. B. hypertension. C. orthostatic hypotension. D. coagulation of blood.
A. atelectasis.
a nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. the nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects? A. auscultate lung sounds B. masure urine output C. monitor blood pressure readings D. monitor serum electrolyte levels
A. auscultate lung sounds
A nurse on rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. to avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use? A. bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client's hands on the nurse's shoulder, and the nurses hands under the client's axillae B. have the client lock hands around the nurse's neck to the client will feel more secure during the transfer C. place the bed in an elevated position so that the client's hips are at the same level as the nurse's hips, making the center of gravity the same for both individuals D. bend at the waist while maintain a wde stance. Lift the client to a standing position, and then pivot the client toward the air
A. bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client's hands on the nurse's shoulder, and the nurses hands under the client's axillae
a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for a home oxygen concentrator. which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and his family? (Select all that apply) A. check the cord routinely from frays or tearing B. keep the unit at least 4 feet away from a gas stove C. consider purchasing a generator for power backup D. observe for signs of hypoxia E. select synthetic clothing and bedding
A. check the cord routinely from frays or tearing C. consider purchasing a generator for power backup D. observe for signs of hypoxia
a nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 week. the nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention? A. erythema on pressure points B. lower-extremity pulse strength on 2+ C. fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day D. a bowel movement every other day
A. erythema on pressure points
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should: A. place the bed in a high horizontal position B. make sure the side rails are down C. ask the client to roll as far as possible onto her side D. place the bed in semi-fowler's position
A. place the bed in a high horizontal position
a nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm prior to initiating IV fluid therapy. which of the following intervention should the nurse implement to prevent infection? A. thread the IV catheter so that the hub rest at the insertion site B. shave excess hair from around the insertion site C. cleanse the site with hydrogen peroxide before IV catheter insertion D. palpate the site carefully just before inserting the IV catheter
A. thread the IV catheter so that the hub rest at the insertion site
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should: A. use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady B. allow the client to walk unsupervised with a walker C. encourage the client to shuffle when walking D. walk 2 feet behind the client in case of a fall
A. use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady
The nurse is caring for a patient with impaired physical mobility. Which potential complications will the nurse monitor for in this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Footdrop b. Somnolence c. Hypostatic pneumonia d. Impaired skin integrity e. Increased socialization
ANS: A, C, D Immobility leads to complications such as hypostatic pneumonia. Other possible complications include footdrop and impaired skin integrity. Interruptions in the sleep-wake cycle and social isolation are more common complications than somnolence or increased socialization.
Which assessments will alert the nurse that a patient's IV has infiltrated? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema of the extremity near the insertion site b. Reddish streak proximal to the insertion site c. Skin discolored or pale in appearance d. Pain and warmth at the insertion site e. Palpable venous cord f. Skin cool to the touch
ANS: A, C, F Infiltration results in skin that is edematous near the IV insertion site. Skin is cool to the touch and may be pale or discolored. Pain, warmth, erythema, a reddish streak, and a palpable venous cord are all symptoms of phlebitis.
A nurse is working in a facility that uses no-lift policies. Which benefits will the nurse observe in the facility? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduced number of work-related injuries b. Increased musculoskeletal accidents c. Reduced safety of patients d. Improved health of nurses e. Increased indirect costs
ANS: A, D Implementing evidence-based interventions and programs (e.g., lift teams) reduces the number of work-related injuries, which improves the health of the nurse and reduces indirect costs to the health care facility (e.g., workers' compensation and replacing injured workers). Knowing the movements and functions of muscles in maintaining posture and movement and implementing evidence-based knowledge about safe patient handling are essential to protecting the safety of both the patient and the nurse.
Upon assessment a nurse discovers that a patient has erythema. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Consult a dietitian. b. Increase fiber in the diet. c. Place on chest physiotherapy. d. Increase frequency of turning. e. Place on pressure-relieving mattress.
ANS: A, D, E If skin shows areas of erythema and breakdown, increase the frequency of turning and repositioning; place the turning schedule above the patient's bed; implement other activities per agency skin care policy or protocol (e.g., assess more frequently, consult dietitian, place patient on pressure-relieving mattress). Increased fiber will help constipation. Chest physiotherapy is for respiratory complications.
A nurse is preparing to move a patient who is able to assist. Which principles will the nurse consider when planning for safe patient handling? (Select all that apply.) a. Keep the body's center of gravity high. b. Face the direction of the movement. c. Keep the base of support narrow. d. Use the under-axilla technique. e. Use proper body mechanics. f. Use arms and legs.
ANS: B, E, F When a patient is able to assist, remember the following principles: The wider the base of support, the greater the stability of the nurse; the lower the center of gravity, the greater the stability of the nurse; facing the direction of movement prevents abnormal twisting of the spine. The use of assistive equipment and continued use of proper body mechanics significantly reduces the risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Use arms and legs (not back) because the leg muscles are stronger, larger muscles capable of greater work without injury. The under-axilla technique is physically stressful for nurses and uncomfortable for patients.
The nurse is providing care to a patient who is bedridden. The nurse raises the height of the bed. What is the rationale for the nurse's action? a. Narrows the nurse's base of support. b. Allows the nurse to bring feet closer together. c. Prevents a shift in the nurse's base of support. d. Shifts the nurse's center of gravity farther away from the base of support.
ANS: C Prevents a shift in the nurse's base of support Raising the height of the bed when performing a procedure prevents bending too far at the waist and shifting the base of support. Balance is maintained by proper body alignment and posture through two simple techniques. First, widen the base of support by separating the feet to a comfortable distance. Second, increase balance by bringing the center of gravity closer to the base of support.
You teach patients to replace sweat, vomiting, or diarrhea fluid losses with which type of fluid? 1. Tap water or bottled water 2. Fluid that has sodium (salt) in it 3. Fluid that has K+ and HCO3− in it 4. Coffee or tea, whichever they prefer
Answer: 2. Body fluid losses remove sodium-containing fluid from the body and can cause extracellular fluid volume deficit unless both the sodium and the water are replaced.
Assessment findings that are consistent with IV infiltration are: (Select all that apply) 1. Edema and pain 2. Streak formation 3. Pain and erythema 4. Pallor and coolness 5. Numbness and pain
Answer: 1, 4. Inadvertent fluid leakage into the interstitial compartment around an IV site can cause swelling, pain from the pressure, pale color, and coolness of the infiltrated area.
You assess four patients. Which patient is at greatest risk for the development of hypocalcemia? 1. 56-year-old with acute kidney renal failure 2. 40-year-old with appendicitis 3. 28-year-old who has acute pancreatitis 4. 65-year-old with hypertension and asthma
Answer: 3. People who have acute pancreatitis frequently develop hypocalcemia because calcium binds to undigested fat in their feces and is excreted. This is called steatorrhea. This process decreases absorption of dietary calcium and also increases calcium output by preventing resorption of calcium contained in gastrointestinal fluids.
The health care provider's order is 1000 mL 0.9% NaCl with 20 mEq K+ intravenously over 8 hours. Which assessment finding causes you to clarify the order with the health care provider before hanging this fluid? 1. Flat neck veins 2. Tachycardia 3. Hypotension 4. Oliguria
Answer: 4. Administration of KCl (increased K+ intake) to a person who has oliguria (decreased K+ output) can cause hyperkalemia.
used for short-term oxygen therapy. It fits loosely and delivers oxygen concentrations from 35% to 50% FIO2. This is contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention because retention can be worsened. Flow rates should be 5 L or more to avoid rebreathing exhaled carbon dioxide retained in the mask. A Nasal Cannula B Simple face mask C Partial rebreather mask DNon rebreather mask E Venturi Mask
B Simple face mask
a nurse is educating a client who has a terminal illness about her request to decline resuscitation in her living will. the client asks that would happen if she arrived at the emergency department and had difficulty breathing. which of the following responses should the nurse provide? A. "we will determine the durable power of attorney for health care form has designated." B. "we will apply oxygen through a tube in your nose." C. "we will ask if you have changed your mind." D. "we will insert a breathing tube while we evaluate your condition."
B. "we will apply oxygen through a tube in your nose."
A client has just been transferred from the postanesthesia care unit following abdominal surgery. To prevent atelectasis, which measure does the nurse plan to include in the client's care? A. Administer 40% oxygen via humidified face mask. B. Have the client use the incentive spirometer q1 to 2 hr while awake. C. Restrict fluids while the intravenous line remains in place. D. Maintain patency of the nasogastric tube until bowel sounds return.
B. Have the client use the incentive spirometer q1 to 2 hr while awake.
Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and must use crutches. When reinforcing teaching about the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should A. keep his elbows extended. B. be able to bear weight on both legs. C. support the majority of his weight in the axillae. D. hold the affected extremity up off the ground.
B. be able to bear weight on both legs.
a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refused to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. which of the following is the nurse's priority action? A. request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometer B. determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer C. document the client's refusal to participate in health restorative activities D. administer a pain medication to the client
B. determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
a nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. the client's respirations are noisy from secretions in her airway and she is hors of breath. which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. turn the client every 4 hours B. elevate the head of the client's bed C. hold oral care D. increase the room's temperature
B. elevate the head of the client's bed
A nurse is caring for a 5 year old child returning from the surgical suite following an exploratory laparotomy and removal of a ruptured appendix. when writing the child's nursing care plan, the nurse lists the priority intervention as: A. offering opioid analgesics every 2-3 hours B. having the child turn, cough, and breath deeply every 2 hours C. observing the incision for redness and drainage every 2 hours D. making sure the child's parents stay with the child
B. having the child turn, cough, and breath deeply every 2 hours
a nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. which of the following actions should the nurse include? A. regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with the top of the ball inside the flow meter B. regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate no more than 6 L/min C. make sure the reservoir bag of the partial rebreathing mask remains deflated D. use petroleum jelly to lubricate the client's nares, face, and lips
B. regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate no more than 6 L/min
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client: A. says he understands but does not want to demonstrate the procedure B. reports severe pain C. asks the nurse how often deep breathing should be done after surgery D. tells the nurse that this exercise will probably be painful after surgery
B. reports severe pain
An assistive personnel reports that a client's intravenous (IV) infusion has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client's infusion line and insertion site? A. The infusion slows or stops while the tubing is not kinked. B. The area around the injection site feels warm when touched. C. Swelling, hardness, or pain located around the insertion site. D. blood fails to return in the tubing when the bottle lowered.
B. the area around the infection site feels warm when touched
simple mask with a reservoir bag that should be at least one third to one half full on inspiration and delivers from 40% to 70% FIO2 with a flow rate of 6 to 10 L/min. The flow rate should be a minimum of 10 L/min and deliver FIO2 of 60% to 80%. Frequently inspect the reservoir bag to make sure that it is inflated. If it is deflated, the patient is breathing large amounts of exhaled carbon dioxide. High-flow oxygen systems should be humidified. A Nasal Cannula B Simple face mask C Partial rebreather mask D Non rebreather mask E Venturi Mask
C Partial rebreather mask
a nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home? A. "I'll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen tank." B. "I'll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I'm using my oxygen." C. "I'll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order." D. "I'll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don't knock it over."
C. "I'll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order."
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer how many times per hour? A. Eight to 12 B. One to two C. Four to five D. 15 to 20
C. Four to five
a nurse is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. after securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the nurse take next? A. rock the client up to a standing position B. pivot on the foot that is farthest from the chair C. assess the client for orthostatic hypotension D. apply a gait belt to the client
C. assess the client for orthostatic hypotension
a nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful? A. increase in hematocrit B. increase in respiratory rate C. decrease in heart rate D. decrease in capillary refill time
C. decrease in heart rate
a nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first? A. reduce dietary sodium B. administer a loop diuretic C. evaluate electrolytes D. restrict intake of oral fluids
C. evaluate electrolytes
a nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client? A. side-lying B. supine C. semi-fowlers D. trendelenburg
C. semi-fowlers
a nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. which of the following filings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration? A. purulent exudate B. warmth C. skin blanching D. bleeding
C. skin blanching
a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter. after which of the following observations should the runs remove the IV catheter? A. small air bubbles are in the IV tubing B. IV flow stops when the client bends her arm C. swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site D. blood is visible in the IV catheter and tubing
C. swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site
It has a one-way valves that prevent exhaled air from returning to the reservoir bag. The flow rate should be a minimum of 10 L/min and deliver FIO2 of 60% to 80%. Frequently inspect the reservoir bag to make sure that it is inflated. If it is deflated, the patient is breathing large amounts of exhaled carbon dioxide. High-flow oxygen systems should be humidified. A Nasal Cannula B Simple face mask C Partial rebreather mask D Non rebreather mask E Venturi Mask
D Non rebreather mask
a nurse is planning range-of-motion exercises for a client. the nurse understands that active ROM is perfumed before passive ROM because: A. passive ROM determines muscle power B. passive ROM is used to determine limitations of movement C. active ROM determines muscle power D. active ROM is used to determine limitation of movement
D. active ROM is used to determine limitation of movement
A nurse overseeing an assistive personnel (AP) instructs the AP to include a draw sheet on the occupied bed she is making. The nurse explains that the purpose of the draw sheet is to A. absorb urine, feces, and bodily secretions. B. promote warmth and comfort. C. give the bed a neat appearance. D. aid in positioning the client.
D. aid in positioning the client.
nurse receives report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. when the nurse performs the initial assessment, he notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hours. which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. reposition the client B. document the client's IV intake in the medical record C. requisen a new IV fluid prescription D. check the IV tubing for obstruction
D. check the IV tubing for obstruction
a nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown? A. place the client in high-fowlers position B. increase the client's intake of carbohydrates C. massage the reddened areas with unscented lotion D. have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions
D. have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions
A client who reports shortness of breath requests the nurse's help in changing position. In addition to repositioning the client, the nurse should give highest priority A. giving the client a back rub to help her relax. B. notifying the charge nurse that the client is short of breath. C. putting the client on 15-min checks. D. observing the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations.
D. observing the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations. Before initiating 15-min checks, calling the provider, or giving a back rub, the nurse should assess the client. Following the assessment, one or more of the other actions may be appropriate. TEST-TAKING STRATEGY: With a priority-setting question where all the options appear correct, but various stages of the nursing process (assessment, intervention, evaluation) are reflected in the options, rely on the nursing process to help set priorities. Assessment comes first, followed by analysis, planning, intervention, and evaluation.
A client is being discharged to home with oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. which instruction should the nurse give to the client and family? A. use battery-operated equipment for personal care B. apply mineral oil to protect the facial skin from irritation C.remove the television set from the client's bedroom D. wear clothing to avoid static electricity
D. wear clothing to avoid static electricity
delivers higher oxygen concentrations of 24% to 60% with oxygen flow rates of 4 to 12 L/min, depending on the flow-control meter selected. A Nasal Cannula B Simple face mask C Partial rebreather mask DNon rebreather mask E Venturi Mask
E Venturi Mask
The health care provider has ordered a hypotonic intravenous (IV) solution to be administered. Which IV bag will the nurse prepare? a. 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS) b. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS) c. Lactated Ringer's (LR) d. Dextrose 5% in Lactated Ringer's (D5LR)
a. 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS) 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution. NS and LR are isotonic. D5LR is hypertonic.
A nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment finding should cause a nurse to further assess for extracellular fluid volume deficit? a. Moist mucous membranes b. Postural hypotension c. Supple skin turgor d. Pitting edema
b. Postural hypotension Physical examination findings of deficit include postural hypotension, tachycardia, thready pulse, dry mucous membranes, and poor skin turgor. Pitting edema indicates that the patient may be retaining excess extracellular fluid.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) asks the nurse why clubbing occurs. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic? a. "Your disease doesn't send enough oxygen to your fingers." b. "Your disease affects both your lungs and your heart, and not enough blood is being pumped." c. "Your disease will be helped if you pursed-lip breathe." d. "Your disease often makes patients lose mental status."
a. "Your disease doesn't send enough oxygen to your fingers." Clubbing of the nail bed can occur with COPD and other diseases that cause prolonged oxygen deficiency or chronic hypoxemia. Pursed-lipped breathing helps the alveoli stay open but is not the cause of clubbing. Loss of mental status is not a normal finding with COPD and will not result in clubbing. Low oxygen and not low circulating blood volume is the problem in COPD that results in clubbing.
A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient with hypercapnia wearing an oxygen mask b. A patient with a chest tube ambulating with the chest tube unclamped c. A patient with thick secretions being tracheal suctioned first and then orally d. A patient with a new tracheostomy and tracheostomy obturator at bedside
a. A patient with hypercapnia wearing an oxygen mask The mask is contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia) because retention can be worsened; the nurse must see this patient first to correct the problem. All the rest are using correct procedures and do not need to be seen first. A chest tube should not be clamped when ambulating. Clamping a chest tube is contraindicated when ambulating or transporting a patient. Clamping can result in a tension pneumothorax. Use nasotracheal suctioning before pharyngeal suctioning whenever possible. The mouth and pharynx contain more bacteria than the trachea. Keep tracheostomy obturator at bedside with a fresh (new) tracheostomy to facilitate reinsertion of the outer cannula if dislodged.
A nurse is caring for a diabetic patient with a bowel obstruction and has orders to ensure that the volume of intake matches the output. In the past 4 hours, the patient received dextrose 5% with 0.9% sodium chloride through a 22-gauge catheter infusing at 150 mL/hr and has eaten 200 mL of ice chips. The patient also has an NG suction tube set to low continuous suction that had 300-mL output. The patient has voided 400 mL of urine. After reporting these values to the health care provider, which order does the nurse anticipate? a. Add a potassium supplement to replace loss from output. b. Decrease the rate of intravenous fluids to 100 mL/hr. c. Administer a diuretic to prevent fluid volume excess. d. Discontinue the nasogastric suctioning.
a. Add a potassium supplement to replace loss from output. The total fluid intake and output equals 700 mL, which meets the provider goals. Patients with nasogastric suctioning are at risk for potassium deficit, so the nurse would anticipate a potassium supplement to correct this condition. Remember to record half the volume of ice chips when calculating intake. The other measures would be unnecessary because the net fluid volume is equal.
Four patients arrive at the emergency department at the same time. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. An infant with temperature of 102.2° F and diarrhea for 3 days b. A teenager with a sprained ankle and excessive edema c. A middle-aged adult with abdominal pain who is moaning and holding her stomach d. An older adult with nausea and vomiting for 3 days with blood pressure 112/60
a. An infant with temperature of 102.2° F and diarrhea for 3 days The infant should be seen first. An infant's proportion of total body water (70% to 80% total body weight) is greater than that of children or adults. Infants and young children have greater water needs and immature kidneys. They are at greater risk for extracellular volume deficit and hypernatremia because body water loss is proportionately greater per kilogram of weight. A teenager with excessive edema from a sprained ankle can wait. A middle-aged adult moaning in pain can wait as can an older adult with a blood pressure of 112/60.
The nurse is caring for a patient who needs oxygen via a nasal cannula. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel? a. Applying the nasal cannula b. Adjusting the oxygen flow c. Assessing lung sounds d. Setting up the oxygen
a. Applying the nasal cannula The skill of applying (not adjusting oxygen flow) a nasal cannula or oxygen mask can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). The nurse is responsible for assessing the patient's respiratory system, response to oxygen therapy, and setup of oxygen therapy, including adjustment of oxygen flow rate.
A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion and finds that the patient is anxiously fidgeting in bed. The patient is afebrile and dyspneic. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lung bases and sees jugular vein distention. On which transfusion complication will the nurse focus interventions? a. Fluid volume overload b. Hemolytic reaction c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septicemia
a. Fluid volume overload The signs and symptoms are concurrent with fluid volume overload. Anaphylactic shock would have presented with urticaria, dyspnea, and hypotension. Septicemia would include a fever. A hemolytic reaction would consist of flank pain, chills, and fever.
The nurse administers an intravenous (IV) hypertonic solution to a patient. In which direction will the fluid shift? a. From intracellular to extracellular b. From extracellular to intracellular c. From intravascular to intracellular d. From intravascular to interstitial
a. From intracellular to extracellular Hypertonic solutions will move fluid from the intracellular to the extracellular (intravascular). A hypertonic solution has a concentration greater than normal body fluids, so water will shift out of cells because of the osmotic pull of the extra particles. Movement of water from the extracellular (intravascular) into cells (intracellular) occurs when hypotonic fluids are administered. Distribution of fluid between intravascular and interstitial spaces occurs by filtration, the net sum of hydrostatic and osmotic pressures.
The nurse is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the nurse recommend? a. High protein, high calorie b. High carbohydrate, low fat c. High vitamin A, high vitamin E d. Fluid restricted, bland
a. High protein, high calorie Because the body needs protein to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores, give the immobilized patient a high-protein, high-calorie diet. A high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet is not beneficial for an immobilized patient. Vitamins B and C are needed rather than A and E. Fluid restriction can be detrimental to the immobilized patient; this can lead to dehydration. A bland diet is not necessary for immobilized patients.
A patient has dehydration. While planning care, the nurse considers that the majority of the patient's total water volume exists in with compartment? a. Intracellular b. Extracellular c. Intravascular d. Transcellular
a. Intracellular Intracellular (inside the cells) fluid accounts for approximately two thirds of total body water. Extracellular (outside the cells) is approximately one third of the total body water. Intravascular fluid (liquid portion of the blood) and transcellular fluid are two major divisions of the extracellular compartment.
A nurse is working in a facility that follows a comprehensive safe patient-handling program. Which finding will alert the nurse to intervene? a. Mechanical lifts are in a locked closet. b. Algorithms for patient handling are available. c. Ergonomic assessment protocols are being followed. d. A no-lift policy is in place with adherence by all staff.
a. Mechanical lifts are in a locked closet. The nurse will follow up when lifts are not kept in convenient locations. Comprehensive safe patient-handling programs include the following elements: an ergonomics assessment protocol for health care environments, patient assessment criteria, algorithms for patient handling and movement, special equipment kept in convenient locations to help transfer patients, back injury resource nurses, an "after-action review" that allows the health care team to apply knowledge about moving patients safely in different settings, and a no-lift policy.
The nurse is preparing to move a patient to a wheelchair. Which action indicates the nurse is following recommendations for safe patient handling? a. Mentally reviews the transfer steps before beginning b. Uses own strength to transfer the patient c. Focuses solely on body mechanics d. Bases decisions on intuition
a. Mentally reviews the transfer steps before beginning Safe patient handling includes mentally reviewing the transfer steps before beginning the procedure to ensure both the patient's and your safety. Use the patient's strength when lifting, transferring, or moving when possible. Body mechanics alone do not protect the nurse from injury to the musculoskeletal system when moving, lifting, or transferring patients. After completing the assessment, nurses use an algorithm to guide decisions about safe patient handling.
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving 2 L/min of oxygen. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for the nurse to administer the oxygen? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Non-rebreather mask d. Partial non-rebreather mask
a. Nasal cannula Nasal cannulas deliver oxygen from 1 to 6 L/min. All other devices (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial non-rebreather mask) are intended for flow rates greater than 6 L/min.
The nurse is teaching about the process of passively moving water from an area of lower particle concentration to an area of higher particle concentration. Which process is the nurse describing? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Active transport
a. Osmosis The process of moving water from an area of low particle concentration to an area of higher particle concentration is known as osmosis. Filtration is mediated by fluid pressure from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure. Diffusion is passive movement of electrolytes or other particles down the concentration gradient (from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration). Active transport requires energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to move electrolytes across cell membranes against the concentration gradient (from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration).
A nurse delegates a position change to a nursing assistive personnel. The nurse instructs the NAP to place the patient in the lateral position. Which finding by the nurse indicates a correct outcome? a. Patient is lying on side. b. Patient is lying on back. c. Patient is lying semiprone. d. Patient is lying on abdomen.
a. Patient is lying on side. In the side-lying (or lateral) position the patient rests on the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder. Patients in the supine position rest on their backs. Sims' position is semiprone. The patient in the prone position lies face or chest down on the abdomen.
A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel? a. Recording intake and output b. Regulating intravenous flow rate c. Starting peripheral intravenous therapy d.Changing a peripheral intravenous dressing
a. Recording intake and output A nursing assistive personnel (NAP) can record intake and output. An RN cannot delegate regulating flow rate, starting an IV, or changing an IV dressing to an NAP.
The nurse is creating a plan of care for an obese patient who is suffering from fatigue related to ineffective breathing. Which intervention best addresses a short-term goal the patient could achieve? a. Sleeping on two to three pillows at night b. Limiting the diet to 1500 calories a day c. Running 30 minutes every morning d. Stopping smoking immediately
a. Sleeping on two to three pillows at night To achieve a short-term goal, the nurse should plan a lifestyle change that the patient can make immediately that will have a quick effect. Sleeping on several pillows at night will immediately relieve orthopnea and open the patient's airway, thereby reducing fatigue. Running 30 minutes a day will improve cardiopulmonary health, but a patient needs to build up exercise tolerance. Smoking cessation is another process that many people have difficulty doing immediately. A more realistic short-term goal would be to gradually reduce the number of cigarettes smoked. Limiting caloric intake can help a patient lose weight, but this is a gradual process and is not reasonable for a short-term goal.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results. Which cation will the nurse observe is the most abundant in the blood? a. Sodium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Magnesium
a. Sodium Sodium is the most abundant cation in the blood. Potassium is the predominant intracellular cation. Chloride is an anion (negatively charged) rather than a cation (positively charged). Magnesium is found predominantly inside cells and in bone.
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of the intravenous fluid therapy in a patient with hypernatremia. Which finding indicates goal achievement? a. Urine output increases to 150 mL/hr. b. Systolic and diastolic blood pressure decreases. c. Serum sodium concentration returns to normal. d. Large amounts of emesis and diarrhea decrease.
c. Serum sodium concentration returns to normal. Hypernatremia is diagnosed by elevated serum sodium concentration. Blood pressure is not an accurate indicator of hypernatremia. Emesis and diarrhea will not stop because of intravenous therapy. Urine output is influenced by many factors, including extracellular fluid volume. A large dilute urine output can cause further hypernatremia.
A nurse teaches a patient about atelectasis. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of atelectasis? a. "Atelectasis affects only those with chronic conditions such as emphysema." b. "It is important to do breathing exercises every hour to prevent atelectasis." c. "If I develop atelectasis, I will need a chest tube to drain excess fluid." d. "Hyperventilation will open up my alveoli, preventing atelectasis."
b. "It is important to do breathing exercises every hour to prevent atelectasis." Atelectasis develops when alveoli do not expand. Breathing exercises, especially deep breathing and incentive spirometry, increase lung volume and open the airways, preventing atelectasis. Deep breathing also opens the pores of Kohn between alveoli to allow sharing of oxygen between alveoli. Atelectasis can affect anyone who does not deep breathe. A chest tube is for pneumothorax or hemothorax. It is deep breathing, not hyperventilation, that prevents atelectasis.
A nurse begins infusing a 250-mL bag of IV fluid at 1845 on Monday and programs the pump to infuse at 50 mL/hr. At what time should the infusion be completed? a. 2300 Monday b. 2345 Monday c. 0015 Tuesday d. 0045 Tuesday
b. 2345 Monday 250 mL ÷ 50 mL/hr = 5 hr 1845 + 5 hr = 2345, which would be 2345 on Monday.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is immobile and needs to be turned every 2 hours. The patient has poor lower extremity circulation, and the nurse is concerned about irritation of the patient's toes. Which device will the nurse use? a. Hand rolls b. A foot cradle c. A trapeze bar d. A trochanter roll
b. A foot cradle A foot cradle may be used in patients with poor peripheral circulation as a means of reducing pressure on the tips of a patient's toes. A trochanter roll prevents external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls maintain the thumb in slight adduction and in opposition to the fingers. The trapeze bar is a triangular device that hangs down from a securely fastened overhead bar that is attached to the bedframe. It allows the patient to pull with the upper extremities to raise the trunk off the bed, to assist in transfer from bed to wheelchair, or to perform upper arm exercises.
Which patient will cause the nurse to select a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a care plan? a. A patient who is completely immobile b. A patient who is not completely immobile c. A patient at risk for single-system involvement d. A patient who is at risk for multisystem problems
b. A patient who is not completely immobile The diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility applies to the patient who has some limitation but is not completely immobile. The diagnosis of Risk for disuse syndrome applies to the patient who is immobile and at risk for multisystem problems because of inactivity. Beyond these diagnoses, the list of potential diagnoses is extensive because immobility affects multiple body systems.
A nurse is caring for a patient whose ECG presents with changes characteristic of hypokalemia. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Dry mucous membranes b. Abdominal distention c. Distended neck veins d. Flushed skin
b. Abdominal distention Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia are muscle weakness, abdominal distention, decreased bowel sounds, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Distended neck veins occur in fluid overload. Thready peripheral pulses indicate hypovolemia. Dry mucous membranes and flushed skin are indicative of dehydration and hypernatremia.
The nurse is preparing to lift a patient. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Position a drawsheet under the patient. b. Assess weight and determine assistance needs. c. Delegate the task to a nursing assistive personnel. d. Attempt to manually lift the patient alone before asking for assistance.
b. Assess weight and determine assistance needs. When lifting, assess the weight you will lift, and determine the assistance you will need. The nurse has to assess before positioning a drawsheet or delegating the task. Manual lifting is the last resort, and it is used when the task at hand does not involve lifting most or all of the patient's weight; most facilities have a no-lift policy.
The patient is admitted to a skilled care unit for rehabilitation after the surgical procedure of fixation of a fractured left hip. The patient's nursing diagnosis is Impaired physical mobility related to musculoskeletal impairment from surgery and pain with movement. The patient is able to use a walker but needs assistance ambulating and transferring from the bed to the chair. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient? a. Obtain assistance and physically transfer the patient to the chair. b. Assist with ambulation and measure how far the patient walks. c. Give pain medication after ambulation so the patient will have a clear mind. d. Bring the patient to the cafeteria for group instruction on ambulation.
b. Assist with ambulation and measure how far the patient walks. Assist with walking and measure how far the patient walks to quantify progress. The nurse should allow the patient to do as much for self as possible. Therefore, the nurse should observe the patient transferring from the bed to the chair using the walker and should provide assistance as needed. The patient should be encouraged to use adequate pain medication to decrease the effects of pain and to increase mobility. The patient should be instructed on safe transfer and ambulation techniques in an environment with few distractions, not in the cafeteria.
The nurse is assessing the patient for respiratory complications of immobility. Which action will the nurse take when assessing the respiratory system? a. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle. b. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds. c. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields. d. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.
b. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds. Auscultate the entire lung region to identify diminished breath sounds, crackles, or wheezes. Perform a respiratory assessment at least every 2 hours for patients with restricted activity. Inspect chest wall movements during the full inspiratory-expiratory cycle. Focus auscultation on the dependent lung fields because pulmonary secretions tend to collect in these lower regions.
The nurse receives the patient's most recent blood work results. Which laboratory value is of greatest concern? a. Sodium of 145 mEq/L b. Calcium of 15.5 mg/dL c. Potassium of 3.5 mEq/L d. Chloride of 100 mEq/L
b. Calcium of 15.5 mg/dL Normal calcium range is 8.4 to 10.5 mg/dL; therefore, a value of 15.5 mg/dL is abnormally high and of concern. The rest of the laboratory values are within their normal ranges: sodium 136 to 145 mEq/L; potassium 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L; and chloride 98 to 106 mEq/L.
A nurse is evaluating care of an immobilized patient. Which action will the nurse take? a. Focus on whether the interdisciplinary team is satisfied with the care. b. Compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes in the care plan. c. Involve primarily the patient's family and health care team to determine goal achievement. d. Use objective data solely in determining whether interventions have been successful.
b. Compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes in the care plan. From your perspective as the nurse, you are to evaluate outcomes and response to nursing care and compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes selected during planning. Ask if the patient's expectations (subjective data) of care are being met, and use objective data to determine the success of interventions. Just as it was important to include the patient during the assessment and planning phase of the care plan, it is essential to have the patient's evaluation of the plan of care, not just the patient's family and health care team.
The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Maintain a narrow base of support. b. Dangle the patient at the bedside. c. Encourage isometric exercises. d. Suggest a high-calcium diet.
b. Dangle the patient at the bedside. To prevent injury, nurses implement interventions that reduce or eliminate the effects of orthostatic hypotension. Mobilize the patient as soon as the physical condition allows, even if this only involves dangling at the bedside or moving to a chair. A wide base of support increases balance. Isometric exercises (i.e., activities that involve muscle tension without muscle shortening) have no beneficial effect on preventing orthostatic hypotension, but they improve activity tolerance. A high-calcium diet can help with osteoporosis but can be detrimental in an immobile patient.
The nurse needs to closely monitor the oxygen status of an older-adult patient undergoing anesthesia because of which age-related change? a. Thinner heart valves cause lipid accumulation and fibrosis. b. Diminished respiratory muscle strength may cause poor chest expansion. c. Alterations in mental status prevent patients' awareness of ineffective breathing. d. An increased number of pacemaker cells make proper anesthesia induction more difficult.
b. Diminished respiratory muscle strength may cause poor chest expansion. Age-related changes in the thorax that occur from ossification of costal cartilage, decreased space between vertebrae, and diminished respiratory muscle strength lead to problems with chest expansion and oxygenation,whereby the patient will have difficulty excreting anesthesia gas. The nurse needs to monitor the patient's oxygen status carefully to make sure the patient does not retain too much of the drug. Older adults experience alterations in cardiac function as a result of calcification of the conduction pathways, thicker and stiffer heart valves caused by lipid accumulation and fibrosis, and a decrease in the number of pacemaker cells in the SA node. Altered mental status is not a normal age-related change; it indicates possible cardiac and/or respiratory problems.
The nurse determines that an older-adult patient is at risk for infection due to decreased immunity. Which plan of care best addresses the prevention of infection for the patient? a. Inform the patient of the importance of finishing the entire dose of antibiotics. b. Encourage the patient to stay up-to-date on all vaccinations. c. Schedule patient to get annual tuberculosis skin testing. d. Create an exercise routine to run 45 minutes every day.
b. Encourage the patient to stay up-to-date on all vaccinations. A nursing care plan for preventative health measures should be reasonable and feasible. Keeping up-to-date on vaccinations is important because vaccine reduces the severity of illnesses and serious complications. Determine if and when the patient has had a pneumococcal or influenza (flu) vaccine. This is especially important when assessing older adults because of their increased risk for respiratory disease. Although it is important to finish the full course of antibiotics, it is not a preventative health measure. Scheduling annual tuberculosis skin tests does not address prevention and is an unreliable indictor of tuberculosis in older patients. The exercise routine should be reasonable to increase compliance; exercise is recommended only 3 to 4 times a week for 30 to 60 minutes, and walking, rather than running, is an efficient method.
The nurse is preparing to transfer an uncooperative patient who does not have upper body strength. Which piece of equipment will be best for the nurses to obtain? a. Drawsheet b. Full body sling c. Overhead trapeze d. Friction-reducing slide sheet
b. Full body sling Using a mechanical lift and full body sling to transfer an uncooperative patient who can bear partial weight or a patient who cannot bear weight and is either uncooperative or does not have upper body strength to move from bed to chair prevents musculoskeletal injuries to health care workers. The nurse should not attempt to move the patient with a drawsheet. The patient does not have upper body strength so an overhead trapeze is not appropriate. A friction-reducing slide sheet that minimizes shearing forces is not as effective as a full body sling.
A nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided hemiparesis who has developed bronchitis and has a heart rate of 105 beats/min, blood pressure of 156/90 mm Hg, and respiration rate of 30 breaths/min. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority? a. Risk for skin breakdown b. Impaired gas exchange c. Activity intolerance d. Risk for infection
b. Impaired gas exchange The most important nursing intervention is to maintain airway and circulation for this patient; therefore, Impaired gas exchange is the first nursing priority. Activity intolerance is a concern but is not the priority in this case. Risk for skin breakdown and Risk for infection are also important but do not address an immediate impairment with physiologic integrity.
The nurse is teaching a patient how to use a cane. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? a. Place the cane at the top of the hip bone. b. Place the cane on the stronger side of the body. c. Place the cane in front of the body and then move the good leg. d. Place the cane 10 to 15 inches in front of the body when walking.
b. Place the cane on the stronger side of the body. Have the patient keep the cane on the stronger side of the body. A person's cane length is equal to the distance between the greater trochanter and the floor. The cane should be moved first and then the weaker leg. For maximum support when walking, the patient places the cane forward 15 to 25 cm (6 to 10 inches), keeping body weight on both legs. The weaker leg is then moved forward to the cane, so body weight is divided between the cane and the stronger leg.
A nurse reviews an immobilized patient's laboratory results and discovers hypercalcemia. Which condition will the nurse monitor for most closely in this patient? a. Hypostatic pneumonia b. Renal calculi c. Pressure ulcers d. Thrombus formation
b. Renal calculi Renal calculi are calcium stones that lodge in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients are at risk for calculi because they frequently have hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia does not lead to hypostatic pneumonia, pressure ulcers, or thrombus formation. Immobility is one cause of hypostatic pneumonia, which is inflammation of the lung from stasis or pooling of secretions. A pressure ulcer is an impairment of the skin that results from prolonged ischemia (decreased blood supply) within tissues. A thrombus is an accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, which sometimes occludes the lumen of the vessel.
A nurse is caring for a patient who was in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in cervical trauma to C4. Which assessment is the priority? a. Pulse b. Respirations c. Temperature d. Blood pressure
b. Respirations Respirations and oxygen saturation are the priorities. Cervical trauma at C3 to C5 usually results in paralysis of the phrenic nerve. When the phrenic nerve is damaged, the diaphragm does not descend properly, thus reducing inspiratory lung volumes and causing hypoxemia. While pulse and blood pressure are important, respirations are the priority. Temperature is not a high priority in this situation.
Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement? a. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge. b. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge. c. The nurse will assist the patient to ambulate in the hall 2 times a day. d. The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge.
b. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge. "The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge" is individualized, realistic, and measurable. "Ambulating briskly on a treadmill" is not realistic for this patient. The option that focuses on the nurse, not the patient, is not a measurable goal; this is an intervention. "The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge" is not measurable because it does not specify the distance. Even though we can see that the patient will ambulate, this does not quantify how far.
A nurse is assessing pressure points in a patient placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe? a.Chin, elbow, hips b.Ileum, clavicle, knees c.Shoulder, anterior iliac spine, ankles d.Occipital region of the head, coccyx, heels
b.Ileum, clavicle, knees In the Sims' position pressure points include the ileum, humerus, clavicle, knees, and ankles. The lateral position pressure points include the ear, shoulder, anterior iliac spine, and ankles. The prone position pressure points include the chin, elbows, female breasts, hips, knees, and toes. Supine position pressure points include the occipital region of the head, vertebrae, coccyx, elbows, and heels.
A patient presents to the emergency department with reports of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 48 hours. The health care provider orders isotonic intravenous (IV) therapy. Which IV will the nurse prepare? a. 0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 NS) b. 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS) c. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS) d. 3% sodium chloride (3% NaCl)
c. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS) Patients with prolonged vomiting and diarrhea become hypovolemic. A solution to replace extracellular volume is 0.9% sodium chloride, which is an isotonic solution. 0.225% and 0.45% sodium chloride are hypotonic. 3% sodium chloride is hypertonic.
A patient is to receive 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride intravenously at a rate of 125 mL/hr. The nurse is using microdrip gravity drip tubing. Which rate will the nurse calculate for the minute flow rate (drops/min)? a. 12 drops/min b. 24 drops/min c. 125 drops/min d. 150 drops/min
c. 125 drops/min Microdrip tubing delivers 60 drops/mL. Calculation for a rate of 125 mL/hr using microdrip tubing: (125 mL/1 hr)(60 drops/1 mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 125 drop/min
The nurse is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury and notices that the patient's hips have a tendency to rotate externally when the patient is supine. Which device will the nurse use to help prevent injury secondary to this rotation? a. Hand rolls b. A trapeze bar c. A trochanter roll d. Hand-wrist splints
c. A trochanter roll A trochanter roll prevents external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls maintain the thumb in slight adduction and in opposition to the fingers. Hand-wrist splints are individually molded for the patient to maintain proper alignment of the thumb and the wrist. The trapeze bar is a triangular device that hangs down from a securely fastened overhead bar that is attached to the bedframe. It allows the patient to pull with the upper extremities to raise the trunk off the bed, to assist in transfer from bed to wheelchair, or to perform upper arm exercises.
The patient reports being tired and weak and lacks energy. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that patient has gained weight, and blood pressure and pulse are elevated after climbing stairs. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse add to the care plan? a. Fatigue b. Ineffective coping c. Activity intolerance d. Decreased cardiac output
c. Activity intolerance You consider nursing diagnoses of Activity intolerance or Fatigue in a patient who reports being tired and weak. Further review of assessed defining characteristics (e.g., abnormal heart rate and verbal report of weakness and the assessment findings occurring during the activity of climbing the stairs) leads to the definitive diagnosis (Activity intolerance). There is no data to support ineffective coping or decreased cardiac output.
Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia in an older-adult patient? a. Discontinue the humidification delivery device to keep excess fluid from lungs. b. Monitor oxygen saturation, and frequently auscultate lung bases. c. Assist the patient to cough, turn, and deep breathe every 2 hours. d. Decrease fluid intake to 300 mL a shift.
c. Assist the patient to cough, turn, and deep breathe every 2 hours. The goal of the nursing action should be the prevention of pneumonia; the action that best addresses this is to cough, turn, and deep breathe to keep secretions from pooling at the base of the lungs. Humidification thins respiratory secretions, making them easier to expel and should be used. Monitoring oxygen status is important but is not a method of prevention. Hydration assists in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia. The best way to maintain thin secretions is to provide a fluid intake of 1500 to 2500 mL/day unless contraindicated by cardiac or renal status. Restricting fluids is contraindicated in this situation since there is no data indicating cardiac or renal disease.
A nurse is caring for a patient with sleep apnea. Which types of ventilator support should the nurse be prepared to administer for this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist-control (AC) b. Pressure support ventilation (PSV) c. Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) d. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) e. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
c. Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) d. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) Ventilatory support is achieved using a variety of modes, including continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). The purpose of CPAP and BiPAP is to maintain a positive airway pressure and improve alveolar ventilation. This prevents or treats atelectasis by inflating the alveoli, reducing pulmonary edema by forcing fluid out of the lungs back into circulation, and improving oxygenation in those with sleep apnea. AC, PSV, and SIMV are invasive mechanical ventilation and are not routinely used on patients with sleep apnea. AC delivers a set tidal volume (VT) with each breath, regardless of whether the breath was triggered by the patient or the ventilator. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation like AC delivers a minimum number of fully assisted breaths per minute that are synchronized with the patient's respiratory effort. Any breaths taken between volume-cycled breaths are not assisted; the volume of these breaths is determined by the patient's strength, effort, and lung mechanics. PSV mode is often combined with SIMV mode: inspiratory pressure is added to spontaneous breaths to overcome the resistance of the endotracheal tube or to help increase the volume of the patient's spontaneous breaths.
A nurse is assessing a patient with activity intolerance for possible orthostatic hypotension. Which finding will help confirm orthostatic hypotension? a. Blood pressure sitting 120/64; blood pressure 140/70 standing b. Blood pressure sitting 126/64; blood pressure 120/58 standing c. Blood pressure sitting 130/60; blood pressure 110/60 standing d. Blood pressure sitting 140/60; blood pressure 130/54 standing
c. Blood pressure sitting 130/60; blood pressure 110/60 standing Orthostatic hypotension results in a drop of 20 mm Hg systolic or more in blood pressure when rising from sitting position (110/60). 120 to 140 means the blood pressure increased rather than dropped. 126 to 120 is only a six points' difference. 140 to 130 is only a 10 points' difference.
The nurse is caring for a patient who cannot bear weight but needs to be transferred from the bed to a chair. The nurse decides to use a transportable hydraulic lift. What will the nurse do? a. Place a horseshoe-shaped base on the opposite side from the chair. b. Remove straps before lowering the patient to the chair. c. Hook longer straps to the bottom of the sling. d. Attach short straps to the bottom of the sling.
c. Hook longer straps to the bottom of the sling. The nurse should attach the hooks on the strap to the holes in the sling. Short straps hook to top holes of the sling; longer straps hook to the bottom of the sling. The horseshoe-shaped base goes under the side of the bed on the side with the chair. Position the patient and lower slowly into the chair in accordance with manufacturer guidelines to safely guide the patient into the back of the chair as the seat descends; then remove the straps and the mechanical/hydraulic lift.
The nurse observes edema in a patient who has venous congestion from right heart failure. Which type of pressure facilitated the formation of the patient's edema? a. Osmotic b. Oncotic c. Hydrostatic d. Concentration
c. Hydrostatic Venous congestion increases capillary hydrostatic pressure. Increased hydrostatic pressure causes edema by causing increased movement of fluid into the interstitial area. Osmotic and oncotic pressures involve the concentrations of solutes and can contribute to edema in other situations, such as inflammation or malnutrition. Concentration pressure is not a nursing term.
A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient whose temperature is 101.2° F. The nurse expects this patient to hyperventilate. Which factor does the nurse remember when planning care for this type of hyperventilation? a. Anxiety over illness b. Decreased drive to breathe c. Increased metabolic demands d. Infection destroying lung tissues
c. Increased metabolic demands Increased body temperature (fever) increases the metabolic rate, thereby increasing carbon dioxide production. The increased carbon dioxide level stimulates an increase in the patient's rate and depth of respiration, causing hyperventilation. Anxiety can cause hyperventilation, but this is not the direct cause from a fever. Sleep causes a decreased respiratory drive; hyperventilation speeds up breathing. The cause of the fever in this question is unknown
While performing an assessment, the nurse hears crackles in the patient's lung fields. The nurse also learns that the patient is sleeping on three pillows to help with the difficulty breathing during the night. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the patient's medical record? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Myocardial ischemia c. Left-sided heart failure d. Right-sided heart failure
c. Left-sided heart failure Left-sided heart failure results in pulmonary congestion, the signs and symptoms of which include shortness of breath, cough, crackles, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat). Right-sided heart failure is systemic and results in peripheral edema, weight gain, and distended neck veins. Atrial fibrillation is often described as an irregularly irregular rhythm; rhythm is irregular because of the multiple pacemaker sites. Myocardial ischemia results when the supply of blood to the myocardium from the coronary arteries is insufficient to meet myocardial oxygen demands, producing angina or myocardial infarction.
A nurse is following the no-lift policy when working to prevent personal injury. Which type of personal back injury is the nurse most likely trying to prevent? a. Thoracic b. Cervical c. Lumbar d. Sacral
c. Lumbar The most common back injury for nurses is strain on the lumbar muscle group, which includes the muscles around the lumbar vertebrae. While cervical, thoracic, and sacral can occur, lumbar is the most common.
The nurse is assessing a patient and finds crackles in the lung bases and neck vein distention. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Offer calcium-rich foods. b. Administer diuretic. c. Raise head of bed. d. Increase fluids.
c. Raise head of bed. The patient is in fluid overload. Raising the head of the bed to ease breathing is the first action. Offering calcium-rich foods is for hypocalcemia, not fluid overload. Administering a diuretic is the second action. Increasing fluids is contraindicated and would make the situation worse.
The nurse is evaluating care of a patient for crutches. Which finding indicates a successful outcome? a. The top of the crutch is three to four finger widths from the armpit. b. The elbows are slightly flexed at 30 to 35 degrees when the patient is standing. c. The tip of the crutch is 4 to 6 inches anterior to the front of the patient's shoes. d. The position of the handgrips allows the axilla to support the patient's body weight.
c. The tip of the crutch is 4 to 6 inches anterior to the front of the patient's shoes. When crutches are fitted, the tip of the crutch is 4 to 6 inches anterior to the front of the patient's shoes, and the length of the crutch is two to three finger widths from the axilla. Position the handgrips so the axillae are not supporting the patient's body weight. Pressure on the axillae increases risk to underlying nerves, which sometimes results in partial paralysis of the arm. Determine correct position of the handgrips with the patient upright, supporting weight by the handgrips with the elbows slightly flexed at 20 to 25 degrees.
The health care provider asks the nurse to monitor the fluid volume status of a heart failure patient and a patient at risk for clinical dehydration. Which is the most effective nursing intervention for monitoring both of these patients? a. Assess the patients for edema in extremities. b. Ask the patients to record their intake and output. c. Weigh the patients every morning before breakfast. d. Measure the patients' blood pressures every 4 hours.
c. Weigh the patients every morning before breakfast. An effective measure of fluid retention or loss is daily weights; each kilogram (2.2 pounds) change is equivalent to 1 liter of fluid gained or lost. This measurement should be performed at the same time every day using the same scale and the same amount of clothing. Although intake and output records are important assessment measures, some patients are not able to keep their own records themselves. Blood pressure can decrease with extracellular volume (ECV) deficit but will not necessarily increase with recent ECV excess (heart failure patient). Edema occurs with ECV excess but not with clinical dehydration.
A nurse is assessing the skin of an immobilized patient. What will the nurse do? a.Assess the skin every 4 hours. b.Limit the amount of fluid intake. c.Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale. d.Have special times for inspection so as to not interrupt routine care.
c.Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale. Consistently use a standardized tool, such as the Braden Scale. This identifies patients with a high risk for impaired skin integrity. Skin assessment can be as often as every hour. Limiting fluids can lead to dehydration, increasing skin breakdown. Observe the skin often during routine care.
A nurse is caring for an immobile patient. Which metabolic alteration will the nurse monitor for in this patient? a. Increased appetite b. Increased diarrhea c. Increased metabolic rate d. Altered nutrient metabolism
d. Altered nutrient metabolism Immobility disrupts normal metabolic functioning: decreasing the metabolic rate, altering the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins; causing fluid, electrolyte, and calcium imbalances; and causing gastrointestinal disturbances such as decreased appetite and slowing of peristalsis, leading to constipation.
The patient has the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility related to pain in the left shoulder. Which priority action will the nurse take? a. Encourage the patient to do self-care. b. Keep the patient as mobile as possible. c. Encourage the patient to perform ROM. d. Assist the patient with comfort measures.
d. Assist the patient with comfort measures. The diagnosis related to pain requires the nurse to assist the patient with comfort measures so that the patient is then willing and more able to move. Pain must be controlled so the patient will not be reluctant to initiate movement. The diagnosis related to reluctance to initiate movement requires interventions aimed at keeping the patient as mobile as possible and encouraging the patient to perform self-care and ROM.
The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory problems. Which assessment finding indicates a late sign of hypoxia? a. Elevated blood pressure b. Increased pulse rate c. Restlessness d. Cyanosis
d. Cyanosis Cyanosis, blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the presence of desaturated hemoglobin in capillaries, is a late sign of hypoxia. Elevated blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and restlessness are early signs of hypoxia.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. When the nurse is flushing the patient's peripheral IV, the patient reports pain. Upon assessment, the nurse notices a red streak that is warm to the touch. What is the nurse's initial action? a. Record a phlebitis grade of 4. b. Assign an infiltration grade. c. Apply moist compress. d. Discontinue the IV.
d. Discontinue the IV. The IV site has phlebitis. The nurse should discontinue the IV. The phlebitis score is 3. The site has phlebitis, not infiltration. A moist compress may be needed after the IV is discontinued.
A nurse is providing passive range of motion (ROM) for a patient with impaired mobility. Which technique will the nurse use for each movement? a. Each movement is repeated 5 times by the patient. b. Each movement is performed until the patient experiences pain. c. Each movement is completed quickly and smoothly by the nurse. d. Each movement is moved just to the point of resistance by the nurse.
d. Each movement is moved just to the point of resistance by the nurse. Passive ROM exercises are performed by the nurse. Carry out movements slowly and smoothly, just to the point of resistance; ROM should not cause pain. Never force a joint beyond its capacity. Each movement needs to be repeated 5 times during the session. The patient moves all joints through ROM unassisted in active ROM.
The nurse is assessing a patient with emphysema. Which assessment finding requires further follow-up with the health care provider? a. Increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest b. Accessory muscle used for breathing c. Clubbing of the fingers d. Hemoptysis
d. Hemoptysis Hemoptysis is an abnormal occurrence of emphysema, and further diagnostic studies are needed to determine the cause of blood in the sputum. Clubbing of the fingers, barrel chest (increased anterior-posterior chest diameter), and accessory muscle use are all normal findings in a patient with emphysema.
A nurse is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the nurse take? a. Moves patient's arm in a full circle b. Moves patient's arm cross the body as far as possible c. Moves patient's arm behind body, keeping elbow straight d. Moves patient's arm until thumb is upward and lateral to head with elbow flexed
d. Moves patient's arm until thumb is upward and lateral to head with elbow flexed External rotation: With elbow flexed, move arm until thumb is upward and lateral to head. Circumduction: Move arm in full circle (Circumduction is combination of all movements of ball-and-socket joint.) Adduction: Lower arm sideways and across body as far as possible. Hyperextension: Move arm behind body, keeping elbow straight.
The nurse is caring for an older-adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings? a. These are normal signs of aging. b.These are early signs of dementia. c. These are purely psychological in origin. d. These are common manifestation with UTIs.
d. These are common manifestation with UTIs. The primary symptom of compromised older patients with an acute urinary tract infection or fever is confusion. Acute confusion in older adults is not normal; a thorough nursing assessment is the priority. With the diagnosis of urinary tract infection, these are not early signs of dementia and they are not purely psychological.
A nurse is performing passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting on an at-risk patient. Which finding will indicate goal achievement for the nurse's action? a.Prevention of atelectasis b.Prevention of renal calculi c.Prevention of pressure ulcers d.Prevention of joint contractures
d.Prevention of joint contractures Goal achievement for passive ROM is prevention of joint contractures. Contractures develop in joints not moved periodically through their full ROM. ROM exercises reduce the risk of contractures. Researchers noted that prompt use of splinting with prescribed ROM exercises reduced contractures and improved active range of joint motion in affected lower extremities. Deep breathing and coughing and using an incentive spirometer will help prevent atelectasis. Adequate hydration helps prevent renal calculi and urinary tract infections. Interventions aimed at prevention of pressure ulcers include positioning, skin care, and the use of therapeutic devices to relieve pressure.