Lab 2.1: Module 02 Penetration Testing Techniques, ITN 260 Midterm, Lab 7.2: Module 07 Implementing a Public Key Infrastructure, Lab 7.1: Module 07 Security Assessment Techniques, Module 03: Quiz, Module 02: Quiz - Threat Management and Cybersecurity…
KEYLOGGER
Spyware that silently captures and stored each keystroke that a user types on the computer's keyboard
Which of the following statements are true for a zero-day attack?
These are the correct statements regarding a zero-day attack. A zero-day attack is impossible to detect as it exploits unknown vulnerabilities. (True) A zero-day vulnerability can be an example of an unknown threat. (True) Explanation: A zero-day attack is impossible to detect as it exploits unknown vulnerabilities. (True): Zero-day attacks take advantage of software vulnerabilities that are unknown to the vendor or the public. Because these vulnerabilities are not yet discovered or patched, traditional security measures may not be effective in detecting or preventing such attacks. This makes it challenging to detect and defend against zero-day attacks until a patch or solution is developed. A zero-day vulnerability can be an example of an unknown threat. (True): Zero-day vulnerabilities represent unknown threats because they are flaws in software that are not yet known to the software developer or the wider community. Attackers exploit these vulnerabilities before they are discovered and patched, making them a type of threat that is not yet recognized or addressed by security measures. Explanation: Zero-day attacks exploit undisclosed vulnerabilities, making detection difficult, and zero-day vulnerabilities, as unknown threats, are flaws in software exploited by attackers before discovery and patching. The other statements (2 and 3) were marked as false because: A zero-day vulnerability can only be discovered when the software is deployed. (False): Zero-day vulnerabilities can be discovered by researchers, attackers, or security professionals before the software is widely deployed. The term "zero-day" refers to the fact that developers have zero days to fix the issue once it becomes publicly known. A zero-day vulnerability can only exist within operating systems. (False): Zero-day vulnerabilities can exist in variou
LAYERED SECURITY
Creating multiple layers of security defenses through which an attacker must penetrate.
Which of the following is a condition that is shown as a result when it does not exist?
False Positive Note: A false positive is a condition that is shown as a result when it does not exist. The vulnerabilities that are missed by a vulnerability scanner are considered a false positive. A true positive is when the vulnerability scanner correctly catches the vulnerability. There is nothing called negative negative.
Which of the following code provides instructions to the hardware?
Firmware
PINNING
Hard-coding a digital certificate within a program that is using the certificate
Which of the following testing strategies will be performed by a gradual process of gaining access to a network component, infrastructure, or an application layer to minimize detection? Security Assessment Lateral Movement Penetration Testing Security Testing
Lateral Movement
CERTIFICATE CHAINING
Linking several certificates together to establish trust between all the certificates involved
VIRUS
Malicious computer code that reproduces itself on the same computer
CRYPTO MALWARE
Malware that encrypts all the files on the device so that they cannot be opened
ALGORITHM
Procedures based on a mathematical formula used to encrypt and decrypt that data
HIGH RESILIENCY
The ability to quickly recover from resource vs. security constraints
NONREPUDIATION
The process of proving that a user performed an action
KEYEXCHANGE
The process of sending and receiving secure cryptographic keys
TAILGATING
When an unauthorized individual enters a restricted-access building by following an authorized user
Which of the following is also known as a "dot dot slash" attack?
path traversal
WORM
A malicious program that uses a computer network to replicate
ADWARE
A software program that delivers advertising content in a manner that is unexpected and unwanted by the user
EPHEMERAL KEYW
A temporary key that is used only once before it is discarded
HASH
An algorithm that creates a unique digital fingerprint called a digest
SESSION HIJACKING
An attack in which an attacker attempts to impersonate the user by using the user's session token
ZERO DAY
An attack in which there are no days of warning
PRIVLEDGE ESCALATION
An attack that exploits vulnerability in software to gain access to resources that the user normally would b restricted from accessing
Which type of attack occurs if an application overruns the allocated buffer boundary and writes to adjacent memory locations?
Buffer Overflow
LOGIC BOMB
Computer code that lies dormant until it is triggered by a specific logical event
WEAK CONFIGURATION
Configuration options that provide limited security choices
Which of the following is known as out-of-the-box configuration?
Default settings
UNDOCUMENTED ASSETS
Devices that are not formally identified or documented in an enterprise
A root CA should always be kept online. [TRUE/FALSE]
FALSE
URL HIJACKING
Fake sites that are spelled similar
RSA
The most common asymmetric cryptography algorithm
KEY STRENGTH
The resiliency of a key to resist attacks
SYSTEM SPRAWL
The widespread proliferation of devices across an enterprise
Which of the following is a full knowledge penetration testing? Black Box Testing Red Box Testing Gray Box Testing White Box Testing
White Box Testing
For which of the following Windows versions, Microsoft has stopped providing support services?
Windows XP Windows 7 Windows 8 Windows 8.1
Which of the following enables attackers to inject client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users?
cross site scripting
An application lists all the files and subdirectories in its web folder. This indicates which of the following weaknesses on the application?
directory listing
Which of the following provides unauthorized access to another user's system resources or application files at the same level/role within an organization?
horizontal privilege esculation
DIFFIE-HELLMAN
A key exchange that requires all partners to agree upon a large prime number and related integer so that the same key can be separately created
SOCIAL ENGINEERING
A means of gathering information for and attack by relying on the weaknesses of individuals
CONFUSION
A means to thwart statistical analysis so that the key does not relate in a simple way to the cipher text
INITIALIZATION VECTOR
A nonce that is selected in a non-predictable way
SPEARPHISING
A phishing attack that targets only specific users
WHALING
A phishing attack that targets only wealthy individuals
What term best describes the link to the device platform that allows a developer to access resources at a higher level.
API
TUNNEL MODE
An IPsec mode that encrypts both the header and the data portion
TRANSPORT MODE
An IPsec mode that encrypts only the data portion (payload) of each packet yet leaves the header unencrypted
AUTHENTICATION HEADER
An IPsec protocol that authenticates that packets received were sent from the source
INJECTION ATTACK
An attack that introduces new input to exploit a vulnerability
REPLAY
An attack that makes a copy of the transmission before sending it to the recipient
DNS POISONING
An attack that substitutes DNS addresses so that the computer is automatically redirected to an attacker's device
COLLISION ATTACK
An attempt to find two input strings of a hash function that produce the same hash result
In which of the following tests does the tester not need to have prior knowledge of the system's internal design or features? Black Box Testing Gray Box Testing White Box Testing Red Box Testing
Black Box Testing
Which of the following allows organizations to identify and remediate vulnerabilities before the public is aware of it, thus reducing the spread and intensity of abuse? Bug Bounty Enumeration Discovery Vulnerability Mapping
Bug Bounty
CRYPTO MODULES
Cryptography modules that are invoked by crypto service providers
INSIDERS
Employees, contractors, and business partners who can be responsible for an attack
Before a user requests a certificate from a CA, which of the following tasks must be completed?
Generate private and public keys
STEGANOGRAPHY
Hiding the existence of data within another type of file, such as an image file
CLICK JACKING
Hijacking a mouse click
IP SPOOFING
Imitating another computer by means of changing the IP address
MAC SPOOFING
Imitating another computer by means of changing the MAC address
Which of the following type of vulnerability scan can also attempt to exploit the vulnerabilities?
Intrusive Note: An intrusive vulnerability scan can also attempt to exploit the vulnerabilities. That is why it is always advisable not to use intrusive scans on production systems and live applications. In a non-intrusive vulnerability scan, the scanner only looks for the vulnerabilities. You can run a credentialed scan only from an administrative account. A non-credentialed scan can be run from any - user or administrative - account.
ROOTKIT
Malware that hides its presence or the presence of other malware
RANSOMEWARE
Malware that prevents a user's device from properly and fully functioning until a fee is paid
Which of the following method of threat hunting includes disrupt, deny, destroy, and degrade actions?
Maneuvering Note: Using maneuvering, you may: -Disrupt -Deny -Degrade -Destroy -Manipulate These actions are performed on the information and resources of the other parties. Threat feed is a real-time information feed about threats. It can help tighten security controls in your organization. A security advisory is a document that narrates a specific vulnerability found in a product. Intelligence fusion is collating intelligence and information from various sources.
Which of the following terms refers to attacking or taking control of a system through another compromised system? Exploitation Enumeration Vulnerability Mapping Pivoting
Pivoting
Which of the following entity in the certificate authority (CA) hierarchy validates the certificate request from a client?
Registration Authority (RA)
INTEGRITY
Security actions that ensue that the information is correct and no unauthorized person or malicious software has altered the data
Which of the following is used for continuous monitoring of logs?
Security information and event management (SIEM) Note: SIEM provides continuous log monitoring. A firewall allows or denies traffic coming in or going out of a network. IDS detects anomalies in the network traffic. UBA focuses on unusual behavior to minimize the damage. UBA can only detect but cannot prevent an attacker from getting into your network.
Which of the following certificates should you use with a Web server for testing purposes?
Self-Signed
PHISHING
Sending an email or displaying a web announcement that falsely claims to be from a legitimate enterprise in an attempt to trick the user into surrendering private information
BACKDOOR
Software code that gives access to a computer, program of service that circumvents any normal security procedures
MALWARE
Software that enters a computer system without the user's knowledge or consent and then performs an unwanted and usually harmful action
CERTIFICATE AUTHORITY
The entity that is responsible for digital certificates
INTERNAL
The location within an enterprise in which some threat actors perform
SPYWARE
Tracking software that is deployed without the consent or control of the user
TECHNICAL CONTROLS
Using technology that is carried out or managed by device as a basis for controlling the access to and usage of sensitive data.
BLOCK CIPHER
A cipher that manipulates an entire block of plaintext at one time
SELF SIGNED
A signed digital certificate that does not depend upon any higher-level authority for authentication
INPERSONATION
A social engineering attack that involves masquerading as a real or fictitious character and then playing out the role of that person on a victim
software apps installed on a device before the purchase are known as which of the following?
PUP
BLOWFISH
A block cipher that operates on 64-bit blocks and can have a key length from 32 to 448 bits
DEPRECATED ALGORITHM
A cryptographic algorithm that is still available but should not be used because of known vulnerabilities
ANTISPOOFING
A defense used to protect against IP spoofing that imitates another computer's IP address
OBJECT IDENTIFIER
A designator made up of a series of numbers separated with a dot, which names an object or entity
HOAX
A false warning
VULNERABILITY
A flaw or weakness that allows a threat agent to bypass security
Which of the following is achieved by Security Orchestration, Automation, Response (SOAR)?
Automation Note: SOAR automates and orchestrates the manual tasks, thereby strengthening the security posture of an organization. SOAR saves the organization hundreds of man hours of performing repetitive manual tasks. Confidentiality is achieved by encryption. Integrity is achieved by hashing. Availability is achieved by fault tolerance.
Which type of certificate file format contains private and public keys and is protected by a password?
*Personal information exchange (PFX)*
HACTIVISTS
A group of threat actors that is strongly motivated by ideology
STAPLING
A process for verifying the status of a certificate by sending queries at regular intervals to receive a signed time-stamped response
RESOURCE EXHAUSTION
A situation in which a hardware device with limited resources (CPU, memory, file system storage, etc.) is exploited by an attacker who intentionally tries to consume more resources than needed.
RACE CONDITION
A software occurrence when two concurrent threads of execution access a share resource simultaneously, resulting in unintended consequences
MAIL GATEWAY
A system that monitors emails for unwanted content and prevents these messages from being delivered
DIGITAL CERTIFICATE
A technology used to associate a user's identity to a public key and that has been digitally signed by a trusted third party
DIGITAL SENDER
An electronic verification of the sender
SECURE SHELL
An encrypted alternative to the Telnet protocol that is used to access remote computers
BOT
An infected computer that is under the remote control of an attacker for the purpose of launching attacks
PASSIVE IDS
An intrusion detection system that is connected to a port on a switch in which data is fed to it
Footprinting and gathering information about the target is performed in which phase of penetration testing? Discovery Exploitation Enumeration Vulnerability Mapping
Discovery