LAB CE QUESTIONS FOR BLOOD BANK
How soon must granulocyte concentrates be administered after donation? a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 3 days d) 30 days
A
In an emergency release why do blood bankers seldom encounter patients who have experienced HTR from transfusion of uncrossmatched RBCs? a) incidence of unexpected RBC antibodies is relatively low b) they usually receive group O Rh negative RBCs a HTR will never occur is O neg RBCs are transfused. c) they hemorrhage so severly that incompatible RBCs "bleed out" before a reaction occurs d) some patients have cold reactive antibodies that do not react at body temperature
A
The DAT is most unreliable when diagnosing HDFN due to what blood group system? a) ABO b) Duffy c) Rh d) Kidd
A
The majority of Lewis antibodies are from which class? a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
A
The primary antibody response takes an average of how many days? a) 1-3 b)3-4 c)5-10 d)14-21
A
What sugar confirmation is necessary as a base attachment for other sugars to produce ABO antigens? a) galactose plus fucose b) Glucose plus fucose c) N-acytelgalactosamine plus fucose d) D-galactose plus fucose
A
Which of the following criteria for donor RBC should be used for an exchange transfusion related to both anti-D and ABO HDFN? a) Reconstituted with group O FFP b) negative for Hgb F c) reconstituted with cryprecipitate d) irradiated
A
Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the immediate outcomes of a kidney transplant? a) ABO compatibility b) HLA compatibility c) Rh compatibility d) other blood group system compatibility
A
Which of the following patients are at risk for TV-GVHD and require irradiated cellular blood components? a) immunocompromised patients including neonates less than 4 months of age and patients receiving chemotherapy b) post-surgical recipients of pre-operatively donated autologous blood components c) patients with chronic anemias who are frequently transfused with cellular blood products d) patients with a history or urticarial (allergic) reactions to transfused blood products
A
addition of LISS in the IAT does what? a) lowers zeta potential b) increase zeta potential c) bind IgG antibodies attached to patients red cells d) bind IgM antibodies in patients serum or plasma
A
what is the minimum volume of Rh positive blood cells that would be needed to produce anti-D in an Rh negative person? a) <0.1 mL b) 1 mL c) 5mL d) >10 mL
A
which of the following transfusion reactions can a diagnosis be more firmly established by evaluating B-type natriuretic peptides (BNP) levels before and after transfusion? a) TACO b) delayed HTR c) transfusion associated sepsis d) Allergic transfusion reactions
A
compared to plasma frozen within 8 hours of collection frozen plasma within 24 hours of collection will likely have reduced levels of factor? a) II b) VIII c) X d) XI
B
mom is O + baby is A + with a 1+ DAT which of the following would be most useful to investigate the positive DAT and should be done first? a) test an eluate prepared from newborns red cells against an antibody ID panel at IAT b) test newborns plasma against A1 red cells and group O antibody screen at IAT c) test newborns plasma against mothers red cells at IAT d) test newborns plasma against fathers red cells at IAT
B
proteolytic enzyme techniques may be useful in identifying which of the following antigen groups a) Kell b) Kidd c) MNS d) Duffy
B
what is the most common Rh haplotype among whites? a) Dce b) DCe c) DcE d) dce
B
After performing an antibody panel on a selected cell panel, you still can't rule out S and Fyb. It appears that the patient has anti-e and anti-jkb but they are only reacting microscopically. what technique would be the best way to strengthen the suspected antibodies? a) Lui freeze thaw technique b) prewarm panel c) enzyme panel d) saline replacement technique
C
All of the following serological results may occur in a patient having an HTR due to a clinically significant Rh antibody such as anti-c EXCEPT: a) optimal reaction at 37C or AHG b) Preference to react with RBCs expressing a double dose of Rh antigen c) binding complement d) positive DAT
C
Almost all individuals possess which Lutheran antigen profile? a) Lu a- b- b) Lu a+ b- c) Lu a- b+ d) Lu a+ b+
C
In which group is Type B blood found in the highest frequency? a) African Americans b) Coccus c) Asians d) Hispanics
C
Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed RBCs? a) WAIHA b) CAIHA c) IgA defeciency with anti-IgA d) multiple RBC alloantibodies
C
The A1 subgroup represents approx. how much of the group A humans? a) 23-30 b)50-60 c) 75-80 d)95-98
C
To prevent Rh alloimmunization in pregnancy between mother and fetus, it is recommended to initiate RhIg prophylaxis when? a) Rh positive pregnant females post pardum b) Rh negative pregnant females antenatal in the 1st trimester c) Rh negative pregnant females antenatal in the 3rd trimester d) Rh positive pregnant females after delivery of an Rh positive fetus
C
What is the maximum number of WBCs that may be present in a 95% apheresis platelet unit that has been leukocyte-reduced? a) 1.0*10^10 b)3.0*10^11 c)5.0*10^6 d)5.5*10^10
C
What is the most frequent disease complication of blood transfusions? a) CMV b) syphilis c) hepatitis d) HIV
C
What is the reason for this discrepancy in a newborn? Anti-A: neg Anti-B: neg A1-cells: neg B cells: neg a) RBCs are totally coated with antibody b) the newborn is missing antigens c) the babies antigens are undeveloped d) unable to determine
C
Which of the following donors is acceptable? a) pulse: 105 b) bp: 200/90 c) bp: 110/72 d) temp: 38.3 C
C
Which of the following must be reported to the FDA because of biological product deviation? a) unit issued with an incorrect expiration date b) nurse in ICU misidentified a patient and transfused Rh positive blood to Rh negative patient c) wrong specimen was used to crossmatch a unit and the unit was issued d) donor reports information that is disqualifying based on revised questions. previous units have been distributed
C
Which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage? a) Rosette test b) Kleihauer-betke c)flow cytometry d) AHG testing
C
once a seal on a unit of packed red blood cells is opened how long can the unit be stored in the refrigerator prior to administration? a) 4 hrs b) 12hrs c) 24 hrs d) 48 hrs
C
which of the following is the cause of the most serve life threatening HTR? a) anti-D b) anti-M c) anti-A, anti-B, anti- AB d) anti-Fya
C
which one of these would cause a donor to be differed? a) Hgb 13.0 g/dL b) pulse 75 c) diastolic bp of 110mmHg d) temp of 99.3 F
C
Donated red cell units contain which substance to stabilize the pH during storage? a) dextrose b) adenine c) citrate d) sodium biphosphate
D
If a patient has a bombay phenotype they can be transfused with a) AB RBCs b) O RBCs in an emergency c) O neg d) bombay
D
In which of the following sections of CFR Title 21 Good manufacturing practices would you find requirements for quality control testing of donor units of platelets? a) 21 CFR 211.22 Responsibilities of quality control unit b) 21 CFR 211.80 control of components drug product containers and closures c) 21 CFR 606.140 laboratory controls d) CFR 640.25 platelets-general requirements
D
Which of the following blood components will provide the best source of fibrinogen for a patient with hypofibrinogenemia? a) whole blood b) FFP c) platelets d) cryoprecipitate
D
The concentration of sodium chloride in isotonic solution is? a) 8.5% b) 0.85% c) 0.08% d) 85%
B
What is the first line of treatment for moderate to severe hemophilia A? a) Platelets b) Lymphosized Factor VIII concentrate c) Factor IX complex d) Cryoprecipitated AHF
B
What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions? a) testing errors b) clerical errors c) donor IgG immune antibodies d) blood administered errors
B
Why is it dangerous to transfuse a blood group O person with a unit of blood group A? a) patient will make antibodies to the type A blood b) group A blood may become the prominent blood group c) Patient's anti-O would destroy donor cells with severe consequences for the patient d) patient's anti-A would destroy the donor cells with severe consequences to the patient
D
all of the following are required to be in a machine-readable format on a blood component label except: a) ABO Rh of the donor b) product code c) collection facility d) outdate
D
plasma exchange is the current treatment for all of the following except? a) WAIHA b) HUS c) TTP d) pernicious anemia
D
which of the following genotypes is found in the highest frequency in the white population/ a) CDe/cDe b) cDE/ce c) cDE/cE d)CDe/ce
D
What is the shelf life of whole blood collected with CPDA-1/ a) 21 days b) 28 days c) 35 days d) 48 days
C
which of the following consequences of severe HDFN is most associated with neonatal death before or shortly after birth? a) enlarged liver b) enlarged sleen c) cardiac failure d) hyperbilirubinemia
C
which of the following is considered an indication for RhIG administration in postpartum women? a) long term protection b) antibody blocking c) passive protection d) acquired immunity
C
in the Kleinhauer-betke test a maternal blood smear is treated with acid and then stained with counterstain, the fetal cells contain fetal Hgb which is resistant to acid and will remain pink. since the calculated volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage is an estimate how many additional RhIg vials need to be added for the dose? a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 3
A
which organism is most likely responsible for septic reactions associated with RBC transfusions? a) yersinia enterocolitica b) escherichia coli c) enterobacter species d) streptococcus species
A
which procedure should be followed when one crossmatch out of 5 is incompatible at AHG phase? a) preform DAT on incompatible unit b) check for high-frequency antigens c) wash donor cells and use washed cells for testing d) preform antibody panel using donor serum
A
Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? a) Fever and chills b) Unexplained bleeding from surgical site c) Unexplained drop in hemoglobin d) Transient jaundice
B
Which of the following statements regarding ABO phenotype A2 is true? a) A2 cells contain more antigen per RBC than A1 cells b) A2 antigens are linear and A1 antigens are branched c) A2 RBCs will agglutinate with Anti-A1 lectin d) A2 cells will not agglutinate with Anti-A
B
Which of the following may cause a false negative result with antiglobulin techniques? a) dust or dirt present in the tubes used for AHG testing b) patient or donor blood specimen was collected in silicone gel tubes c) patient or donor blood has a positive DAT d) addition of AHG reagent is delayed 40 minutes or more after final saline wash
D
A 9 year old male in Alaska presents with hemolysis and hematuria, he recently recovered from a flu like virus. the ABO is A+ and DAT reacts at 1+ what blood group antibody would be suspected? a) autoanti-i b) anti-M c) autoanti-P d) anti-H
A
A febrile nonhemolytic transfustion reaction is characterized by which of the following? a) an increase of temperature 1 degree C above 37 during transfusion b) appearance of hives c) fever above 37 degrees C which developes 24 hours later d) a decrease in temperature of less than 2 degrees C below 37 following transfusion
A
All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing except: a) prevent recipient alloimmunization b) verify ABO and Rh c) select proper blood products d) detect antibodies against donor cells
A
An antibody to which platelet antigen is most commonly encountered in the blood bank/ a) HPA-1a b) HPA2a c) HP-3a d) HPA-4a
A
Cord blood is O+ and mother is O neg with negative antibody screen what do you do next? a) issue one vial of RhIg b) perform a Kleinhauer Betke c) nothing d) preform a fetal bleed screen
A
DAT is used to detect: a) antibodies sensitizing red cells b) antibodies in the plasma c) antigens coating red cells d) antigens in the plasma
A
How does RhIg prevent Anti-D production? a) mainly by suppressing the immune system response after exposure to D positive cells b) Mainly by clearing antibody sensitized D negative RBCs from maternal circulation c) Mainly by clearing IgG fetal antibodies from maternal circulation d) Mainly by clearing maternal IgM antibodies from fetal circulation
A
The Most reliable method for determining the appropriate dosage of RhIg to give an identified RhIg candidate after deliver is: a) Kleinhauer-Betke b) flow cytometry c) Rosette test d) Panel cells
B
A patient who demonstrates a history of an allergic reaction from RBC transfusions will benefit from which of the following components? a) frozen RBCs b) washed RBCs c) irratdiated RBCs d) Leukocyte-reduced RBCs
B
A severe hemophiliac, with a Factor VIII activity of less than 1%, is actively bleeding due to a serious accident. The blood product of choice is: a) single-donor plasma b) factor VIII concentrate c) Factor XI concentrate d) cryoprecipitate
B
Approx. how many out of 1 million white people will have the following phenotype? group O K positive and Jka positive a) 10,000 b) 30,000 c) 100,000 d) 600,000
B
Both hemoglobinurina and hemoglobinemia will present in what type of reaction? a) delayed HTR b) acute HTR c) TRALI d) anaphylactic transfusion reactions
B
In the evaluation of a positive DAT result all of the below techniques can be used to dissociate the antibodies from the RBCs EXCEPT: A) EDTA- glycine b) Saline replacement c) cholorquine diphosphate d) murine monoclonal antibodies
B
Leukocyte-reduced blood products may be administered to reduce the risk of febrile reactions and what disease or condition? a) graft vs host disease b) Cytomegalovirus c) Malaria d) Bacteremia
B
Most antibodies present in cord blood are of the _______ origin. a) fetal b) maternal c) paternal d) maternal and paternal
B
Number of vials of 300ug RhIg = volume of fetal bleed/X ml What is the value of X? a) 10 b) 30 c)100 d) 300
B
The "recognition unit" of the classical complement pathway refers to which of the following? a) C5b, C6. C7, C8, C9 b) C1q c) C3a d) C4
B
A patient who recently received a transfusion of three units of red cells is DAT positive with IgG specificity What would be the best method to determine the patients phenotype? a) adsorption and elution b) type and screen c) PCR based assay d) antigen typing
C
