LABce exam sim
What is the CORRECT blood-to-anticoagulant ratio in blue top (sodium citrate) tubes used for coagulation tests? 4:1 5:1 9:1 10:1
9:1
Which of the following is NOT a way hemoglobinopathies can be caused? Deletion of a globin chain. Substitution of amino acids in a globin chain. Deletion of an amino acid in a globin chain. Addition of an amino acid in a globin chain.
Deletion of a globin chain.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the various non-molecular methods used for influenza testing? Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) staining on specimen smears can provide rapid results but are dependent on the availability of trained personnel to accurately interpret the smears. The shell vial methodology provides a more rapid result that meets all clinical needs. Traditional viral culture provides both rapid and sensitive results. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or immunochromatographic membrane techniques provide both rapid and very sensitive alternatives.
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) staining on specimen smears can provide rapid results but are dependent on the availability of trained personnel to accurately interpret the smears.
Which one of the following statements about endocytosis is incorrect? Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis in endocytosis, the cell membrane invaginates and isolates a foreign particle in a vesicle. Endocytosis is a mechanism for viruses to enter cells Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macromolecules inside.
Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macromolecules inside.
Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies in bleeding patients? Fresh Frozen Plasma Red Blood Cells Cryoprecipitate Whole Blood
Fresh Frozen Plasma
The fibrinolytic system may be activated by which one of the following? Streptokinase Streptolysin Fibrin EDTA
Streptokinase
Skin and mucous membranes are important components of what part of the immune system? Cell mediated immunity Adaptive immunity Innate immunity Acquired immunity
Innate immunity
Each of the following tests is helpful in the species identification of Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT: thermostable endonuclease deoxyribonuclease modified dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) test tube coagulase test
modified dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) test
Hypochromic
would present with a low MCHC (less than 32g/dL) these cells appear as spherocytes and lack or have a decreased central pallor.
modified dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) test
this test is used to differentiate members of the Micrococcus genus. which are modified oxidase positive
The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Accurately identifies the presence of disease Accurately identifies the absence of disease Has many false-positives Has few false-negatives
Accurately identifies the absence of disease
The primary antibody response takes an average of how many days? 1-3 days 3-4 days 5-10 days 14-21 days
5-10 days
Recovery studies will show whether a method is able to accurately measure an analyte. In a recovery experiment, a small aliquot of concentrated analyte is added (spiked) into a patient sample (matrix) and then measured by the method being evaluated. If all the precautions were observed when preparing the samples, what would be the recovery percentage for the following example (to the nearest whole number)? baseline = 7.50 mg/dL; patient sample = 8.35 mg/dL (added analyte = 0.95 mg/dL); recovered = 0.85 mg/dL 89% 56% 111% 33%
89%
Suppose a patient with stiffness in her fingers has a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test with a centromere pattern at a 1:1280 titer. What is the most likely diagnosis? Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Rheumatoid arthritis Sjogren's syndrome CREST syndrome
CREST syndrome
Ammonia is BEST characterized as being: a waste product of amino acid and protein metabolism obtained from hydrolysis of urea in the kidney obtained from ingested carbohydrates an odor common to urine
a wast product of amino acid and protein metabolsim
Which of the following refers to the most common procedure for donating whole blood for use by the general poplulation? Autologous donation hemapheresis directed donation allogeneic donation
allogeneic donation
which analyte should be increased in the presence of pancreatitis? uric acid aldolase amylase troponin
amylase
All of the following statements are characteristic of the role of C-reactive protein (CRP) except? activates complement binds the factor H to initiate alternate complement pathway exhibits pro-inflammatory characteristics initiates opsonization
binds the factor H to initiate alternate complement pathway
increased serum uric acid levels are associated with
gout
Codocytes
target cells
Regarding specimens for legal testing, which one of the following is false? chain of custody must be maintained at all times sealed collection kits should be opened in the presence of the donor individual use an alcohol prep pad when cleaning the phlebotomy site prior to collecting a blood alcohol specimen. carefully follow instructions in the collection kit, as you may be called to testify as to how you collected the specimen, and documented its authenticity.
use an alcohol prep pad when cleaning the phlebotomy site prior to collecting a blood alcohol specimen.
What type of specimen is used for testing cyclosporines levels? whole blood serum plasma urine
whole blood
After experiencing extreme jaundice, abdominal pain, and vomiting from extensive hepatocelluar damage, a patient's hepatic function panel is analyzed in the laboratory. The result of the ALT is too high for the instrument to read. Since the instrument does not perform automatic dilutions for ALT, the laboratorian performs a dilution using 100 microliters of patient sample to 400 microliters of diluent. The result now reads 369 U/L. How should the laboratorian report this patient's ALT result? 369 U/L 1476 U/L 1845 U/L 738 U/L
1845 U/L
Following a major trauma event, a family of four walks into your donor center hoping to donate blood. Which one of the following individuals may donate blood today? 14-year-old girl who received an ear piercing 6 weeks ago. A 53-year-old man who worked and resided in the United Kingdom from 1983-1989. A 49-year-old woman who donated whoe blood 5 weeks ago.A 22-year-old woman using oral contraceptives.
22-year-old woman using oral contraceptives.
When the body compensates for a respiratory or metabolic disorder, the MAIN goal is to achieve: Correct carbonic acid level, since it is the most important system in the body A normal pH Normal pO2 and pCO2 for normal respiration Correct bicarbonate level, since it is the most important system in the body
A normal PH
The laboratory test used to determine the presence of neural tube defects is: L/S ratio Amniotic fluid creatinine Sweat chloride test Alpha-fetoprotein
Alpha-fetoprotein
If a patient is determined to have type B blood, what antibody would be found in his/her serum? Anti-A Anti-B Anti-A and Anti-B Anti-O
Anti-A
In post-hepatic jaundice, why is urobilinogen decreased? Because there is a decrease in bilirubin being metabolized Because there is an increase in bilirubin being metabolized Because the liver is not conjugating bilirubin Because there is a blockage of conjugated bilirubin being excreted from the liver to intestine
Because there is a blockage of conjugated bilirubin being excreted from the liver to intestine
Which of the following statements concerning vancomycin resistance in Enterococci is TRUE? Van A and Van C are the most clinically significant phenotypes Van B confers intrinsic low level resistance to vancomycin only. High level vancomycin resistance is characteristic of E. gallinarum and E. casseliflavus Both ampicillin and vancomycin resistance are found more frequently in E. Faecium than in E. faecalis
Both ampicillin and vancomycin resistance are found more frequently in E. Faecium than in E. faecalis
Which of the following conditions is associated with the Epstein-Barr Virus? Measles Burkitt's lymphoma Mumps Chicken pox
Burkitt's lymphoma
Which of the the following bioterrorism agent categories is the easiest to spread, has the ability to cause major harm, panic, and death, and carries the highest level of risk with regard to national security? Category A Category B Category C Category D
Category A
A lipid panel consists of which of the following tests? Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, CO2 AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase, Total Protein, Albumin, Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin Cholesterol, Lipoprotein, HDL, Triglycerides Glucose, BUN, Creatinine, Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, CO2, Calcium, Albumin, Phosphorus
Cholesterol, Lipoprotein, HDL, Triglycerides
Which of the following statements regarding coagulation disorders is correct? Hemophilia A and B are usually acquired disorders. Damage to the kidneys can cause hemostatic dysfunction as the kidneys are the primary site for clotting factor production. Clotting factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K-dependent. Factor IX deficiency is the most common inherited coagulation factor deficiency
Clotting factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K-dependent.
Which statement about bacterial culture for Clostridioides (Clostridium) difficile is TRUE? Routine bacteriological media will provide adequate recovery. The culture is specific for toxigenic strains. Culture on appropriate media provides an effective means of recovering the organism. Culture for C. difficile provides desirable turnaround times.
Culture on appropriate media provides an effective means of recovering the organism.
Which of the following is the recommended method for preparing a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample for a differential count? Cytocentrifugation Concentration of cells by traditional centrifugation Manual smear methods Use of hemocytometer
Cytocentrifugation
All of the following forms of microscopy are commonly used in the clinical laboratory, EXCEPT? Brightfield microscopy Light microscopy Electron microscopy Fluorescence microscopy
Electron microscopy
5% sheep blood agar will support the growth of most strains of the following organisms, EXCEPT: Haemophilus spp. Staphylococcus aureus Bacillus anthracis Listeria monocytogenes
Haemophilus spp.
Which abnormal hemoglobin may be formed in alpha thalassemia? Hb Bart's Hb Lepore Hb E Hb S
Hb Bart's
A patient admitted to the hospital for ongoing fever produces the following lab results: RBC count: 3.56 x 10(12)L WBC count 57.5 x 10(9)L Platelet count: 375,000/uL differential count: 3 blasts, 10 myelocytes, 6 metamyelocytes, 12 bands, 64 segs, 4 lymphocytes, and 1 monocyte LAP score = 155 Which of the following conditions correlates closely with this patient's results? Leukemoid reaction chronic myelogenous leukemia genetic translocation paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Leukemoid reaction
What are the MAIN functions of the distal convoluted tubules? Balance hydrogen ions and keep the body pH at 6.8 Control aldosterone production and ammonia reabsorption Excrete various antibiotics and uric acid Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances
Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances
What characteristic is usually associated with IgM antibodies directed against red cells? React best at 37oC Appear after heated incubation Are identified using the AHG test React best at room temperature
React best at room temperature
A Staphylococcus species recovered from a CSF shunt culture was found to produce acid from sucrose and maltose and showed alkaline phosphatase activity. The Staphylococcus was also coagulase negative. The most likely identification is: Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus schleiferi Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
A chemical reaction that is utilized by many different analytical methods involves: Fluorometry Glucose oxidase The reduction of NAD to NADH UV spectrophotometry
The reduction of NAD to NADH
An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fl. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fl. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy? Transfusion The specimens are not from the same patient Acute hemorrhage The second specimen was hemolyzed
The specimens are not from the same patient
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of: Hemoglobin Transferrin Ferritin Ceruloplasmin
Transferrin
Which of the following parasites has the longest undulating membrane? Trichomonas vaginalis Trichomonas tenax Trichomonas hominis Dientamoeba fragilis
Trichomonas hominis
A hospitalized patient has a decreased serum copper level and increased urine copper level. This is MOST consistent with: Wilson's disease Addison's disease Parathyroid disease Not clinically significant
Wilson's disease
increased serum troponin levels are associated with
acute myocardial infarction
A routine serum protein electrophoresis with normal proteins results in _____ zones or bands. Five Six Ten Twelve
five
increased serum aldolase levels are associated with
muscular dystrophy
For BEST results, if not tested immediately, a semen sample should remain at which of the following temperatures following collection? 4 ºC Room temperature 37 ºC -40 ºC
37 ºC
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? late stage of salicylate poisoning uncontrolled diabetes mellitus renal failure excessive vomiting
excessive vomiting
The MOST reliable method for determining the appropriate dosage of Rh immune globulin to give to an identified Rh immune globulin candidate after deliver is: Kleihaurer-betke method flow cytometry rosette test panel cells
flow cytometry
Classic automated blood cell counters are based on which of the following technolgies? laser scatter radio frequency unifluidics impedance principle
impedance principle
What is the deferral period from donating blood for someone who is or has taken Tegison© for severe psoriasis? Permanent deferral 1 month following last dose 2 weeks No deferral
permanent deferral
Below is a listing of two commonly used terminology systems for genes and antigens. Use this information to answer this question: If a recipient has anti-c, which donor unit should be selected? Wiener Fisher-Race Ro Dce R1 DCe R2 DcE R DCE r dce r' dCe r" dcE ry dCE
r1ry
All of the following specimen collection methods should be used if urine cultures are also required, EXCEPT? routinely voided "clean catch" catheterized suprapubic aspiration
routinely voided
Which of the following gene translocations is associated with Acute Promyelocytic leukemia (APL)? t(8;21) t(15;17) t(9;11) t(6;9)
t(15;17)
Those agents in Category A are highest-priority because they: Can be easily disseminated or transmitted person-to-person Cause high mortality, with potential for major public health impact Might cause public panic and social disruption Require special action for public health preparedness The agents in Category B have the second highest priority because they: Are moderately easy to disseminate Cause moderate morbidity and low mortality Require specific enhancements of Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance The agents in Category C carry the third highest priority. This group contains emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass spread in the future. Category D is not an actual category.
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