Lesson 12/Chapter 27: Human Development and Inheritance

A ________ is used to show all possible combinations of genes that can result from a given parental cross. a. family tree b. karyotype c. phenotype d. Punnett square e. pedigree

Punnett square

Progesterone calms the myometrium and prevents contraction. What factor does not antagonize progesterone and trigger labor and delivery? a. rising oxytocin levels lead to uterine contractions b. rising estrogen levels increase sensitivity c. distortion of the myometrium d. distortion of the cervix e. relaxation of the cervix

Relaxation of the cervix

The hormone that increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during pregnancy is a. human chorionic gonadotropin b. human placental lactogen c. oxytocin d. relaxin e. progesterone

Relaxin

Name the disorder characterized by each of the following chromosome patterns: (1) XO and (2) XXY. (Module 27.17B) a. (1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Down syndrome b. (1) Down syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome c. (1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome d. (1) Turner syndrome; (2) Klinefelter syndrome e. (1) Turner syndrome; (2) Down syndrome

(1) Turner syndrome; (2) Klinefelter syndrome

Indicate the type of inheritance involved in each of the following situations: (1) children who exhibit the trait have at least one parent who also exhibits it; (2) children exhibit the trait even though neither parent exhibits it; and (3) the trait is expressed equally in daughters and sons. (Module 27.16C) a. (1) polygenic inheritance; (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) sex-linked inheritance b. (1) simple inheritance (dominant); (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance c. (1) simple inheritance (recessive); (2) simple inheritance (incomplete dominance); (3) autosomal inheritance d. (1) simple inheritance (recessive); (2) simple inheritance (dominant); (3) autosomal inheritance e. (1) sex-linked inheritance (dominant); (2) sex-linked inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance

(1) simple inheritance (dominant); (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance

The infancy stage of life is considered to be over when the baby reaches ________ of age. a. 18 months b. 6 months c. 2 years d. 1 month e. 1 year

1 year

The trophoblast has many of the characteristics of ________ cells. a. cardiac b. cancer c. infectious d. smooth muscle e. None of these answers are correct

Cancer

Identify the structure labeled "7." a. placenta b. amnion c. endometrium d. myometrium e. chorion

Chorion

The extra-embryonic membrane that forms the fetal portion of the placenta is the a. amnion b. chorion c. yolk sac d. allantois

Chorion

The mesoderm and the cytotrophoblast combine to form the a. amnion b. amniotic sac c. chorion d. allantois e. None of these answers are correct

Chorion

Identify what process is occurring at the structure labeled "6." a. cleavage b. fertilization c. migration d. gastrulation e. ovulation

Cleavage

The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called a. implantation b. embryogenesis c. placentation d. blastulation e. cleavage

Cleavage

Which of the following is not part of fertilization? a. completion of meiosis II b. completion of meiosis I c. oocyte activation d. amphimixis e. release of acrosomal enzymes

Completion of meiosis I

The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the ________ stage. a. placental b. fetal c. emergence d. expulsion e. dilation

Expulsion

In pregnancy, expansion of the uterus results from a. hypertrophy of smooth muscle cells b. increased production of additional smooth muscle cells

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle cells

A pre-embryo that consists of a solid ball of cells is known as what type of structure? (Module 27.3A) a. morula b. blastocyst c. cytotrophoblast d. trophoblast e. blastomere

Morula

After 3 days, a pre-embryo becomes a solid ball of cells known as a a. morula b. chorion c. blastomere d. blastocyst e. lacuna

Morula

The ectoderm forms a. the urinary system b. the lining of the stomach and small intestine c. blood d. neural tissues e. muscle

Neural tissues

Which of the following does not occur during the first trimester? a. separation of blastomeres to form monozygotic twins b. cleavage c. implantation d. gastrulation e. organs become functional

Organs become functional

Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of a. estrogen b. relaxin c. oxytocin d. chorionic gonadotropin e. progesterone

Oxytocin

Which hormone stimulates the milk let-down reflex? a. relaxin b. oxytocin c. GnRH d. estrogen e. progesterone

Oxytocin

The traits of an individual controlled by his or her genotype are his or her a. genotypical inheritances b. karyotype c. alleles d. phenotype e. epigenome

Phenotype

The placenta is expelled from the uterus during the ________ stage of labor. a. contraction b. dilation c. afterbirth d. expulsion e. placental

Placental

The "P" in the abbreviation SNP stands for a. prenatal b. placental c. phenotype d. polymorphism e. pronucleus

Polymorphism

What is postnatal development? (Module 27.1C) a. Postnatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. b. Postnatal development refers to the events of the first and second trimesters. c. Postnatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity. d. Postnatal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. e. Postnatal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization.

Postnatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity

What is postnatal development? (Module 27.1C) a. Postnatal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. b. Postnatal development refers to the events of the first and second trimesters. c. Postnatal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. d. Postnatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. e. Postnatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity.

Postnatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity

During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by ________, produced by the placenta. a. prostaglandins b. estrogen c. oxytocin d. inhibin e. progesterone

Progesterone

The placenta is not a source of which of the following hormones? a. placental lactogen b. prolactin c. relaxin d. progesterone e. hCG

Prolactin

List and describe the factors involved in initiating labor contractions. (Module 27.10A) a. Falling levels of estrogen and prosterone cause cervical dilation and the shedding of the functional layer which causes myometrial contractions. b. Decreasing estrogen levels causes cervical dilation and endometrial contractions. c. Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and the myometrium triggers release of oxytocin. d. Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of inhibin. e. Inhibin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of prolactin.

Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and the myometrium triggers release of oxytocin

The clinical term for "growing old" is a. senility b. maturation c. senescence d. apoptosis e. aging

Senescence

The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium a. initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition b. stimulate smooth muscle contractions c. initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands d. constrict the cervix e. None of these answers are correct

Stimulate smooth muscle contractions

During implantation, the a. entire trophoblast becomes syncytial b. syncytial trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium c. maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst d. inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients e. inner cell mass begins to form the placenta

Syncytial trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium

How can you tell that the karyotype shown here is male? (Module 27.14C) a. The 23rd pair of chromosomes is YO. b. The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY. c. The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XX. d. The 23rd pair of chromosomes is YY. e. There are only 22 pairs of chromosomes.

The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY

Describe the chorionic villi. (Module 27.6A) a. The chorionic villi form the yolk sac. b. The chorionic villi are structures that extend into the maternal tissues through which maternal blood flows. c. The chorionic villi contain fluid that surrounds and cushions the embryo or fetus. d. The chorionic villi forms the umbilical cord. e. The chorionic villi forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the amniotic fluid.

The chorionic villi are structures that extend into the maternal tissues through which maternal blood flows

Each of the following statements concerning development is true except a. the first trimester is when the fetus first looks distinctively human. b. embryonic development includes the events that occur in the first 2 months. c. organ development is complete by the end of the 6th month. d. fetal development occurs from the 9th week until birth. e. postnatal development begins at birth.

The first trimester is when the fetus first looks distinctively human

The trait "freckles" operates through strict dominance. What would be the phenotype of a person who is heterozygous for this trait? (Module 27.15C) a. The person would have the dominant allele for freckles but the phenotype would be "no freckles." b. The person would not have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be "no freckles." c. The person would have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be "freckles." d. The person would have only dominant alleles for freckles but the phenotype would be "no freckles." e. The person would not have the dominant allele for freckles but the phenotype would be "freckles."

The person would have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be "freckles."

Describe the placenta. (Module 27.5C) a. The placenta is a layer of cells that surround the yolk sac. b. The placenta contains fluid that surrounds and cushions the embryo or fetus. c. The placenta forms the interface between the blastocoele and the amniotic cavity. d. The placenta forms the interface between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast. e. The placenta forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the maternal system.

The placenta forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the maternal system

Describe the trophoblast. (Module 27.3B) a. The trophoblast is a pre-embryo at the four-cell stage b. The trophoblast is a solid ball of cells c. The trophoblast is the inner cavity within the blastocyst d. The trophoblast is the fluid-filled chamber filled with amniotic fluid e. The trophoblast is the cell layer surrounding the blastocyst

The trophoblast is the cell layer surrounding the blastocyst

By the end of gestation, which of the following has not occurred? a. The kidney's GFR has increased 2 fold b. The bladder size has been reduced c. The uterus has increased in size by 10 fold d. Maternal blood volume has increased 50% e. Maternal nutritional requirements has increased 30%

The uterus has increased in size by 10 fold

The period of gestation that is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and fat deposition is the ________ trimester. a. first b. second c. third

Third

A fetus undergoes its largest absolute weight gain during which trimester? (Module 27.8C) a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester

Third trimester

During gastrulation, a. blastomeres form b. the placenta penetrates the endometrium c. the neural tube closes d. the blastomeres fuse e. three germ layers are formed

Three germ layers are formed

Identify the stage labeled "12." a. zygote b. trophoblast c. blastocyst d. morula e. cytotrophoblast

Trophoblast

A child born with one lone X chromosome will have a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Klinefelter's syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner's syndrome e. acromegaly

Turner's syndrome

Deoxygenated blood is carried to the placenta by the a. umbilical vein b. umbilical arteries

Umbilical arteries

Identify the structure labeled "3." a. placenta b. yolk sac c. myometrium d. amniotic cavity e. umbilical cord

Umbilical cord

The ________ is formed by a portion of the allantois, blood vessels, and remnants of the yolk sac. a. amnion b. umbilical cord c. body stalk d. placenta e. chorion

Umbilical cord

Which of the following is not one of the extra-embryonic membranes? a. yolk sac b. chorion c. umbilical cord d. allantois e. amnion

Umbilical cord

Identify the structure connecting the fetus to the placenta, and name the extra-embryonic membrane from which it is derived. (Module 27.6C) a. umbilical cord; chorion b. yolk sac; chorion c. yolk sac; allantois d. umbilical cord; allantois e. umbilical cord; amnion

Umbilical cord; allantois

Oxygenated blood is carried away from the placenta by the a. umbilical vein b. umbilical arteries

Umbilical vein

The embryonic heart starts beating as blood begins to flow through chorionic vessels at approximately ________ of development. a. week 2 b. day 12 c. week 3 d. the second trimester e. day 3

Week 3

The extra-embryonic membrane that forms blood cells is the a. amnion b. allantois c. yolk sac d. chorion

Yolk sac

Name the four extra-embryonic membranes. (Module 27.5A) a. yolk sac, amnion, blastocoele, and the trophoblast b. amnion, placenta, umbilical stalk, and chorion c. blastodisc, embryonic disc, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast d. endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, gastroderm e. yolk sac, amnion, allantois, and the chorion

Yolk sac, amnion, allantois, and the chorion

How many chromosomes are contained within a human zygote? (Module 27.2B) a. 23 b. 32 c. 64 d. 8 e. 46

46

How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain? a. 23 b. 46 c. 22 d. 92 e. 44

46

Contact of a sperm with the oocyte membrane does not cause a. oocyte activation b. a decrease in calcium released from the oocyte c. completion of the second meiosis d. membrane fusion e. formation of the second polar body

A decrease in calcium released from the oocyte

Why does a mother's blood volume increase during pregnancy? (Module 27.9B) a. A mother's blood volume increases to keep up with the increase in GFR. b. A mother's blood volume increases due to the weight of the fetus. c. A mother's blood volume increases to accommodate for flow through the placenta. d. A mother's blood volume increases to strengthen the immune system. e. A mother's blood volume increases to keep up with her increase in tidal volume.

A mother's blood volume increases to accommodate for flow through the placenta

Define single nucleotide polymorphism. (Module 27.17A) a. A single nucleotide polymorphism is a missing chromosome in a set. b. A single nucleotide polymorphism is when a single nucleotide controls the allele's phenotypic expression. c. A single nucleotide polymorphism is a truncated chromosome. d. A single nucleotide polymorphism is the presence of a single gene at one locus. e. A single nucleotide polymorphism is a variation in a single base pair in a DNA sequence

A single nucleotide polymorphism is a variation in a single base pair in a DNA sequence

All of the following occur during pregnancy except a. a woman's respiratory rate and tidal volume increase b. maternal blood volume increases c. a woman's glomerular filtration rate increases d. a woman's bladder capacity increases e. maternal nutrient requirements increase

A woman's bladder capacity increases

Which of the following is a puberty-related change caused by increased testosterone levels? a. accelerated bone deposition and skeletal growth b. loss of terminal hairs on the face and chest c. thinning of the vocal folds d. decreased erythropoiesis e. replication of skeletal muscle fibers

Accelerated bone deposition and skeletal growth

Why are numerous sperm required to fertilize a secondary oocyte? (Module 27.2C) a. Multiple sperm are needed because the male pronucleus is smaller than the female pronucleus. b. Multiple sperm are needed to increase the extracellular calcium levels. c. Multiple sperm are needed to have the required number of chromosomes for the zygote. d. Acrosomal enzymes from multiple sperm are needed to penetrate the corona radiata. e. Multiple sperm are needed to provide organelles to the zygote.

Acrosomal enzymes from multiple sperm are needed to penetrate the corona radiata

The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as a. childhood b. adolescence c. the neonatal stage d. maturity e. infancy

Adolescence

Identify the stage labeled "8." a. early morula b. zygote c. blastomere d. advanced morula e. trophoblast

Advanced morula

Identify the structure labeled "6." a. placenta b. myometrium c. chorion d. amnion e. umbilical cord

Amnion

The extra-embryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the a. yolk sac b. amnion c. allantois d. All of the answers are correct e. None of these answers are correct

Amnion

Identify the structure labeled "5." a. amnion b. chorion c. placenta d. endometrium e. amniotic cavity

Amniotic cavity

The individual cells produced by cleavage are called a. blastocytes b. blastomeres c. blastocysts d. zygotes e. embryos

Blastomeres

Endoderm + mesoderm = which extra-embryonic membrane(s)? a. chorion b. amnion c. allantois d. yolk sac e. both yolk sac and allantois

Both yolk sac and allantois

In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are a. determined by a double pair of alleles b. determined by interactions among several genes c. always controlled by genes on the same chromosome d. determined by multiple copies of a single gene e. determined by the genes on the Y chromosome

Determined by interactions among several genes

The gradual modification of anatomical structures during the period from conception to maturity is a. development b. differentiation c. embryogenesis d. capacitation e. All of the answers are correct

Development

The first stage of labor is the ________ stage. a. contraction b. expulsion c. placental d. neonate e. dilation

Dilation

Trisomy 21 is the clinical term for a. Down syndrome b. Klinefelter syndrome c. fetal alcohol syndrome d. Marfan's syndrome e. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Down syndrome

Distinguish among embryonic, fetal, and prenatal development. (Module 27.1B) a. Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development refers to the events of the third trimester. Prenatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity. b. Embryonic development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Fetal development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. c. Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. d. Embryonic development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Fetal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development. e. Embryonic development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Fetal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development.

Embryonic development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Fetal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development

Which of the following hormones is the cause of most puberty-related changes in a female? a. oxytocin b. progesterone c. relaxin d. chorionic gonadotropin e. estrogen

Estrogen

Which chemicals are primarily responsible for initiating contractions of true labor? (Module 27.10B) a. LH and oxytocin b. prolactin c. estrogens and oxytocin stimulate the production of prostaglandins d. progesterone e. relaxin and inhibin

Estrogens and oxytocin stimulate the production of prostaglandins

Define fertilization. (Module 27.2A) a. Fertilization is the ejection of the secondary oocyte from the ovary. b. Fertilization is the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a sperm to form a zygote. c. Fertilization is the journey the oocyte travels through the uterine tube to reach the uterus. d. Fertilization is the ejection of the primary oocyte from the ovary. e. Fertilization is the attachment of a zygote to the uterine wall.

Fertilization is the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a sperm to form a zygote.

Embryonic and early fetal development occurs in the ________ trimester. a. first b. second c. third

First

The period of gestation when the rudiments of all major organ systems are established is the ________ trimester. a. first b. second c. third

First

Completion of cytokinesis does not lead to a. formation of a polar body b. completion of cleavage c. production of two blastomeres d. initiation of interphase e. division of the cytoplasm into two portions

Formation of a polar body

By day 12 of embryonic development, mesoderm begins to form through a. embryogenesis b. gastrulation c. mitosis d. meiosis e. None of these answers are correct

Gastrulation

Describe the process that forms the primary germ layers and cite the layer that contributes to nearly all body systems. (Module 27.4A) a. Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The mesoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. b. Formation of the primitive streak gives rise to the primary germ layers. The endoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. c, Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The endoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. d. Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The ectoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. e. Formation of the primitive streak gives rise to the primary germ layers. The ectoderm contributes to nearly all body systems

Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The mesoderm contributes to nearly all body systems

A person's original chromosomes and their component genes constitute that person's a. allele b. phenotype c. locus d. genotype e. autosomal inheritance

Genotype

________ is the time spent in growing within the uterus. a. Gastrulation b. Development c. Gestation d. Pregnancy e. Embryonization

Gestation

Define gestation. (Module 27.1A) a. Gestation is the moment of fertilization b. Gestation is the time of development during the first and second trimesters c. Gestation is the time of development during the third trimester d. Gestation is the time a developing embryo and fetus spends in the uterus e. Gestation is the time after fertilization until implantation.

Gestation is the time a developing embryo and fetus spends in the uterus

Which of the following does not describe non-sex chromosomes? a. genetically identical b. haploid c. diploid d. produced by mitosis e. called somatic cells

Haploid

Which of the following traits is a sex-linked inheritance? a. albino pigmentation b. hemophilia c. Huntington's disease d. sickle cell anemia e. red hair

Hemphilia

If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait. a. homologous b. polygenic c. autosomal d. heterozygous e. homozygous

Heterozygous

A blastocyst is a(n) a. origin of the urinary bladder b. extra-embryonic membrane c. portion of the placenta d. solid ball of cells e. hollow ball of cell

Hollow ball of cells

If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is ________ for the trait. a. homozygous b. polygenic c. autosomal d. homologous e. heterozygous

Homozygous

The presence of which hormone in the urine provides a reliable indicator of pregnancy, as detected by home pregnancy tests? (Module 27.7B) a. placental prolactin b. human placental lactogen c. human chorionic gonadotrophin d. relaxin e. LH

Human chorionic gonadotrophin

Differentiate between simple inheritance and polygenic inheritance. (Module 27.15B) a. In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. b. In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci. c. In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. d. In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. e. In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by only one parent. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by both parents

In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes

Compare strict dominance with codominance. (Module 27.16A) a. In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, heterozygous alleles produce a phenotype that is intermediate to the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous for one allele or the other. b. In strict dominance, heterozygous alleles produce a phenotype that is intermediate to the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous for one allele or the other. In codominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. c. In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait. d. In strict dominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait. In codominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. e. In strict dominance, only the dominant allele is even present so the only phenotype expressed is that of the dominant allele. In codominance, only the recessive allele is even present so the only phenotype expressed is that of the recessive allele.

In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait

Name the three major interacting hormonal events associated with the onset of puberty. (Module 27.13A) a. Increased hypothalamic LH production, anterior pituitary release of estrogen and testosterone, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes. b. Increased GnRH production, increased LH and decreased FSH production, activation of ovaries and testes by LH. c. Increased hypothalamic estrogen and testosterone production, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes. d. Decreased GnRH production due to estrogen and testosterone negative feedback, decrease in LH and FSH release by the anterior pituitary gland, and decreased LH and FSH sensitivity by the ovaries and testes. e. Increased GnRH production, increased sensitivity of the anterior pituitary to GnRH and the subsequent release of LH and FSH, and increased sensitivity of ovaries and testes to LH and FSH.

Increased GnRH production, increased sensitivity of the anterior pituitary to GnRH and the subsequent release of LH and FSH, and increased sensitivity of ovaries and testes to LH and FSH

List the major changes that occur in maternal systems during pregnancy. (Module 27.9A) a. increased immune function, increased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased nutrient requirements and decreased thermoregulation b. increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, increased blood volume and GFR, increased nutrient requirements, and increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands c. increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased nutrient requirements, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased size of the uterus and mammary glands. d. decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased blood volume, increased GFR and nutrient requirements, increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands e. decreased immune function, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume

Increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, increased blood volume and GFR, increased nutrient requirements, and increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands

Which of the following descriptors regarding the trophoblast is false? a. has both a syncytial and cellular component b. causes maternal blood vessels to break down c. absorbs nutrients released by degenerating endometrial glands d. is derived from the inner cell mass e. spreads into the endometrium

Is derived from the inner cell mass

All of the following are true of the allantois except a. it projects into the umbilical stalk b. it acts as the fetal bone marrow c. part will develop as the urinary bladder d. it derives partly from mesoderm e. it derives partly from endoderm

It acts as the fetal bone marrow

A zygote whose genotype is XY will develop as a a. male b. female

Male

Why are sex-linked traits expressed more frequently in males than in females? (Module 27.16B) a. Males have more chromosomes than females b. Males have more sex chromosomes than females c. Males have fewer chromosomes than females d. Males have a smaller Y chromosome that contains fewer genes that correspond to the larger X chromosome e. Males have a larger Y chromosome that contains more genes that correspond to the smaller X chromosome

Males have a smaller Y chromosome that contains fewer genes that correspond to the larger X chromosome

The region known as the primitive streak is the site of a. ectoderm formation b. amnion formation c. endoderm formation d. migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm e. migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm

Migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm

Molly is homozygous for the dominant black hair trait. Therefore, a. Molly is a carrier for the black hair trait. b. Molly has black hair. c. Molly has red hair. d. Molly's hair color cannot be determined from this information.

Molly has black hair