LS23L Final (Romina)

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

The organ responsible for producing bile, a substance that aids fat digestion, is Choose one answer. a. The Liver b. The Large intestine c. The Pancreas d. The Stomach e. The cecum

Choose one answer. a. The Liver

What type of blank should be used for cell density assay?

LB Blank

all except which of the following reagents should be kept on ice when not being used

Na2Co3 solution

In which of the following does spermatogenesis occur? Choose one answer. a. Leydig cells b. Seminiferous tubule c. Prostate gland d. Bulbourethral gland e. Vas deferens

b. Seminiferous tubule

Which of the following is located above the diaphragm, in the thoracic cavity? Choose one answer. a. Distal bronchi. b. Pancreas. c. Right-most lobe of liver. d. Proximal duodenum. e. Spleen.

a. Distal bronchi.

In the B-galactosidase assay, it is important to measure the density of E. coli cells because Choose one answer. a. E. coli densities vary among cultures and with time, which will affect estimates of b-galactosidase production rates. b. ONPG production by E. coli is a function of cell density. c. we are measuring per cell cleavage of X-gal in relation to culture conditions and time. d. the transformation efficiency of E. coli cells is low. e. the lac operon is induced only in a small percentage of cells in a culture.

a. E. coli densities vary among cultures and with time, which will affect estimates of b-galactosidase production rates.

In the DNA isolation and amplification lab, the Primer3 program was used to generate primer pairs. Choose the best answer from the following about primer design: Choose one answer. a. If one primer has a much higher melting temperature than the other, one strand of the target mtDNA sequence will be amplified more than the other. b. A good primer should have the same sequence as the template strand of the mtDNA. c. A good primer should be composed of an equal number of all 4 deoxynucleotide triphosphates. d. The primers in a primer pair should have similar sequences so that they can anneal to each other. e. A good primer should anneal to a region of the mtDNA sequence with a high level of variability in order to identify the individual's specific haplotype.

a. If one primer has a much higher melting temperature than the other, one strand of the target mtDNA sequence will be amplified more than the other.

What organ during the rat dissection was bloody and needed to be cut out before we cut open the rib cages? Choose one answer. a. Liver b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Stomach e. Heart

a. Liver

Does the mitochondrial DNA sequence amplified in the experiment code for functional proteins? Choose one answer. a. No. The sequence is located in the control region, which does not code for functional proteins. b. Yes. The sequence must code for functional proteins for it be be amplified by PCR. c. No. Mitochondrial DNA does not code for functional proteins. d. Yes. All DNA codes for functional proteins. e. No. DNA does not code for functional proteins, only RNA does.

a. No. The sequence is located in the control region, which does not code for functional proteins.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding SDS-PAGE and agarose gel? Choose one answer. a. The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel. b. Both SDS-PAGE and DNA agarose gel migrate toward the positive pole based on size. c. SDS-PAGE creates higher resolution than agarose gel. d. SDS-PAGE and agarose gel are used for both proteins and DNa. e. Brightness, as a result of SDS-PAGE, might not be even; however, brightness, as a result of agarose gel, is an indication of DNA molecule size.

a. The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel.

How were the proteins in the SDS-PAGE lab visualized? Choose one answer. a. The polypeptides were covalently bound to a fluorescent tag that made them visible under UV light. b. The gel was stained with ethidium bromide making the polypeptides visible under a UV light. c. No treatment was necessary, polypeptides are visible naturally under UV light. d. The polypeptides were stained with Coomassie blue making them visible under UV light. e. The polypeptides were stained with ONPG making them visible under UV light.

a. The polypeptides were covalently bound to a fluorescent tag that made them visible under UV light.

Rats differ from humans in all of the following ways except: Choose one answer. a. Males have two prostate glands b. The adrenal glands sit on the anterior end of each kidney c. They have a cecum to digest celluose d. The uterus in the females is divided into two horns e. The liver is divided into four lobes

b. The adrenal glands sit on the anterior end of each kidney

Other than ddNTPs, DNA Polymerase, and purified plasmid DNA, what should be added to reaction tubes in the sanger method of sequencing? What type of gel should be used to load the samples? Choose one answer. a. The primer with a 5' fluorescent tag attached to it needs to be added. Polyacrylamide gel to be used to load the samples. b. A primer without a fluorescent tag should be added. Polyacrlamide gel to be used to load the samples. c. A primer with a fluorescent tag attached to a 3' end should be added. Agarose gel should be used to load the samples. d. Another polymerase should be added. Agarose gel should be used to load the samples. e. No primer needs to be added. Aaarose gel should be used to load the samples.

a. The primer with a 5' fluorescent tag attached to it needs to be added. Polyacrylamide gel to be used to load the samples.

After running an electrophoresis experiment, various methods are used to visualize the electrophoresed molecules. In the SDS-PAGE lab, what method of visualization was used to allow us to see the protein bands? Choose one answer. a. UV illumination alone since the proteins were already pre-labeled with FITC, a covalently attached florescent tag. b. Ethidium Bromide staining followed by illumination with UV light c. Florescent-tagged antibodies specific from each of the proteins were added to the gel to enable visualization d. No visualization method was necessary since the bands could be seen with the unaided eye e. Immersion of the gel in Coomassie blue, an intense stain which binds the proteins

a. UV illumination alone since the proteins were already pre-labeled with FITC, a covalently attached florescent tag.

After running an electrophoresis experiment, various methods are used to visualize the electrophoresed molecules. In the SDS-PAGE lab, what method of visualization was used to allow us to see the protein bands? Choose one answer. a. UV illumination alone since the proteins were already pre-labeled with FITC, a covalently attached florescent tag. b. Florescent-tagged antibodies specific from each of the proteins were added to the gel to enable visualization c. Immersion of the gel in Coomassie blue, an intense stain which binds the proteins d. Ethidium Bromide staining followed by illumination with UV light e. No visualization method was necessary since the bands could be seen with the unaided eye

a. UV illumination alone since the proteins were already pre-labeled with FITC, a covalently attached florescent tag.

The prostate gland is ________ to the urinary bladder Choose one answer. a. Ventral b. Dorsal c. Anterior d. None of the above e. Superior

a. Ventral

Why did we use an agarose gel instead of a polyacrylamide gel to determine if the PCR of our mitochondrial DNA had worked? Choose one answer. a. because high resolution was not needed since we were just looking for a band around 500bp. b. because agarose is not toxic. c. because polyacrylamide gels run slower. d. because polyacrylamide has low resolution. e. because polyacrylamide cannot be used for DNA.

a. because high resolution was not needed since we were just looking for a band around 500bp.

In the beta-galactosidase assay, units of enzyme activity a. described the amount of beta-galactosidase produced per E. coli cell per minute. b. described the amount of ONPG produced per E. coli cell per minute. c. described the amount of lactase produced per E. coli cell per minute. d. was a good indicator of beta-galactosidase activity, because it did NOT consider cell density. e. described the amount of o-nitrophenol produced per E. coli cell per minute.

a. described the amount of beta-galactosidase produced per E. coli cell per minute.

How can one detect DNA after running it through a gel? Choose one answer. a. introduce ethidium bromide, which will fluoresce under UV b. place the gel into a transilluminator to see the bands c. allow it to bind to a fluorescent tag, which will fluoresce under UV d. introduce a dye, which can bind to the DNA and will appear as a band e. measure the distance that each of the bands traveled

a. introduce ethidium bromide, which will fluoresce under UV

In a male rat, the prostate gland is: Choose one answer. a. posterior to the seminal vesicles. b. posterior to the vas deferens. c. posterior to the bulbourethral gland. d. posterior to the testes. e. posterior to the epididymis.

a. posterior to the seminal vesicles.

Which of the following is not true? Choose one answer. a. prostate produces a fluid that produces acid to balance the alkalinity of the environment b. testes are endocrine glands which produces testosterone c. epididymis stores sperm which was made in the testes d. pancreas produces insulin which permits the cells to absorb glucose e. maturation of the sperm occurs in the epididymis

a. prostate produces a fluid that produces acid to balance the alkalinity of the environment

which of the following procedures should be done in the hood

add chloroform for enzymatic assay

What do the numbers 1, 4, 6 in succession going down the volume indicator convert to if using the P20? Choose one answer. a. 0.146 mililiters b. 14.6 microliters c. 1.46 microliters d. 146 microliters e. 14.6 mililiters

b. 14.6 microliters

Which of the following lies in the thoracic cavity? Choose one answer. a. Lungs b. All of these c. Heart d. Trachea e. Esophagus

b. All of these

Which of the following is true of the rat reproductive system? Choose one answer. a. The prostate gland lies inside the scrotum and produces sperm which then travels down the seminal vesicles b. Fallopian tubes are small and highly coiled and lead from the ovaries to the uteri c. The right and left sides of the uteri join at the bladder and then branch off to connect at two different points to the vagina d. The epididymis lies on the surface of the testis and carries sperm to the vas deferens and then back to the testis e. The vas deferens carries sperm from the prostate gland to the scrotum then to the epididymis

b. Fallopian tubes are small and highly coiled and lead from the ovaries to the uteri

After setting up and running an experiment in the metabolism lab, what the false statement regarding what a good experiment should entail? Choose one answer. a. It is critical that the proposed hypothesis can be answered definitely. b. More than one variable can be changed and tested in a good concise experiment. c. The fish tested with the control should be reused and be tested with the experimental environment. d. A plausible and testable hypothesis should be considered beforestarting the experiment. e. there should be a control group and an experimental group.

b. More than one variable can be changed and tested in a good concise experiment.

Which of the following is not a part of the digestive system of a rat? Choose one answer. a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Spleen d. Stomach e. Duodenum

c. Spleen

Which of the following statements is true? Choose one answer. a. The pancreas is ventral to the stomach b. The fallopian tubes lie inferior to the ovaries c. The liver is superior to the diaphragm d. The prostate gland is dorsal to the bladder e. The pancreas lies lateral to the spleen

b. The fallopian tubes lie inferior to the ovaries

What observation can be made about the size of the two ventricles? Choose one answer. a. The right ventricle is significantly larger than the left because it is required to pump blood into the systemic circulation for the rest of the body b. The left ventricle is significantly larger than the right because it is required to pump blood into the systemic circulation for the rest of the body c. The right ventricle is significantly larger than the left because it is required to pump blood into the pulmonary circulation for the lungs d. The left ventricle is significantly larger than the right because it is required to pump blood into the pulmonary circulation for the lungs e. They are of equal size because they possess the same elementary function of pumping blood out of the heart

b. The left ventricle is significantly larger than the right because it is required to pump blood into the systemic circulation for the rest of the body

In the PCR lab, what is the purpose of the Chelex solution? Choose one answer. a. To distinguish mitochondrial DNA from nuclear DNa. b. To prevent DNA degradation. c. To produce more enzymes. d. To denature proteins. e. To disrupt cell walls.

b. To prevent DNA degradation.

Using a compound microscope, you are examining slides of different tissue samples. On one slide, you observe that the cells stain pink and purple. There is a layer of ciliated columnar epithelium cells and goblet cells. What tissue type are you looking at? Choose one answer. a. Muscle b. Trachea c. Bone d. Lung e. Thymus

b. Trachea

All of the following are true regarding DNA isolation and amplification except: Choose one answer. a. Chelax prevents DNA degradation by binding all of the Mg2+. b. We looked at a protein-coding region that can collect many mutations without losing function. c. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited just from the mother because the mitochondria in the sperm is destroyed after fertilization. d. The sequencing primer in PCR is specific to a region that needs to be amplified. e. Taq Polymerase is used in PCR because it is heat resistant and can resist degradation.

b. We looked at a protein-coding region that can collect many mutations without losing function.

Which of the following organs is match incorrectly with it's system: Choose one answer. a. urethras- excretory system b. bulbo-urethral glands- excretory system c. uterus- reproductive system d. stomach - digestive system e. ileum- digestive system

b. bulbo-urethral glands- excretory system

In the female rat, the anus is ________ to the vaginal orifice Choose one answer. a. anterior b. dorsal c. posterior d. ventral e. central

b. dorsal

Question 12 Which of the following is the correct order of the path that food follows in the rat?s digestive sytem? Choose one answer. a. esophagus, ileocolic valve, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, large intestine b. esophagus, pyloric valve, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, large intestine c. esophagus, stomach, ileum, jejunum, duodenum, large intestine d. duodenum, ileum, jejunum, pyloric valve, large intestine e. large intestine, esophagus, duodenum, ileum, jejunum

b. esophagus, pyloric valve, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, large intestine

Which anatomical term describes the position of the ear pinnae relative to the nose in both rats and humans? Choose one answer. a. inferior b. lateral c. caudal d. ventral e. anterior

b. lateral

In the Agarose Gel Electrophoresis and Molecular Clocks lab, we analyze a Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) product by using _____________. Choose one answer. a. agarose gel electrophoresis to find out the exact intensity of the unknown DNA b. spectrophotometry to provide a quantitative measure of the concentration of DNA c. only two of these d. all of these e. phylogenetic trees to determine the rate of change of the DNA sequence

b. spectrophotometry to provide a quantitative measure of the concentration

In this lab, an SDS-PAGE technique was performed to analyze protein subunits. What was the main function of polyacrylamide in this lab? Choose one answer. a. It allowed for the breakdown of covalent disulfide bonds. b. It provided the positive electrical charge for the proteins to migrate through the chamber. c. It was the gel matrix in which the proteins were able to migrate based on their size. d. It functioned as a buffer solution for the chamber in which the SDS-PAGE was being performed. e. Polyacrylamide was the fluorescent tag which all of the proteins subunits had been covalently linked to.

c. It was the gel matrix in which the proteins were able to migrate based on their size.

Which of the following is true about PCR? Choose one answer. a. PCR is simply an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction repeated many times. b. PCR stands for polypeptide chain reaction. c. PCR is used to amplify the region we want to sequence. d. PCR used double stranded DNAs, usually 20-35 bases long, called primers.

c. PCR is used to amplify the region we want to sequence.

All of the following are true regarding the regulation of transcription of the lac operon except: Choose one answer. a. Lactose causes the lac repressor to change comformation so it gets off of the operator. b. RNA polymerase is stopped by the lac repressor when no lacotse is present. c. RNA Polymerase initially attaches to the operator. d. The transcribed I gene leads to the creation of mRNA that encodes the Lac repressor protein. e. The transcribed Z gene leads to the creation of mRNA that encodes beta-galactosidase.

c. RNA Polymerase initially attaches to the operator.

Rats differ from humans in all of the following ways except: Choose one answer. a. The liver is divided into four lobes b. Males have two prostate glands c. The adrenal glands sit on the anterior end of each kidney d. They have a cecum to digest celluose e. The uterus in the females is divided into two horns

c. The adrenal glands sit on the anterior

Which one of these statements is incorrect? Choose one answer. a. The heart is medial to the arm b. The pancreas is superior to the small intestines c. The diaphragm is inferior and medial to the digestive tract d. The esophagus is superior and medial to the stomach e. Fingers are lateral to the shoulder

c. The diaphragm is inferior and medial to the digestive tract

Which of the following is true regarding the abdominal cavity of the rat? Choose one answer. a. Most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients takes place in the stomach b. The long tube connecting the mouth to the stomach, generally known as the food passageway, is called the trachea c. The pyloric valve is surrounded by smooth muscles, preventing the food in the small intestine from going back to the stomach d. There are three main portions of the small intestine: the duodenum, jejunum, and the ileum, where the jejunum is inferior to the ileum e. In the posterior portion of the abdominal cavity is the liver, which is divided into four lobes

c. The pyloric valve is surrounded by smooth muscles, preventing the food in the small intestine from going back to the stomach

Which of the following can be located in the thoracic cavity? Choose one answer. a. Duodenum b. Caecum c. Trachea d. Bulbo-urethral glands e. Spleen

c. Trachea

All of the following are true regarding DNA isolation and amplification except: Choose one answer. a. Chelax prevents DNA degradation by binding all of the Mg2+. b. The sequencing primer in PCR is specific to a region that needs to be amplified. c. We looked at a protein-coding region that can collect many mutations without losing function. d. Taq Polymerase is used in PCR because it is heat resistant and can resist degradation. e. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited just from the mother because the mitochondria in the sperm is destroyed after

c. We looked at a protein-coding region that can collect many mutations without losing function.

Which of the following is false regarding polymerase chain reaction? Choose one answer. a. a mismatch on the 3' end of the primer prevents RNA polymerase from extending DNA b. the forward strand is the template strand for the forward primer c. a good primer anneals to a hypervariable region d. the reverse primer anneals to the antisense strand e. human RNA polymerase would be denatured in each cycle of PCR

c. a good primer anneals to a hypervariable region

Which of the following is in the thoracic cavity? Choose one answer. a. pancreas b. liver c. heart d. ileum e. small intestine

c. heart

What is the main structural difference between a slide containing adipose tissue and a slide containing lung tissue? Choose one answer. a. adipocytes are not nucleated while lung cells are b. lung cells and adipocytes are stained different colors. c. lung tissue is less dense to facilitate gas exchange. d. lung tissue is more dense to prevent air from escaping the lungs. e. adipocytes are poly-nucleated while lung cells are mono-nucleated.

c. lung tissue is less dense to facilitate gas exchange.

If you are to measure 55 uL of a liquid for an experiment, which pipette should you use and what value should be displayed on its window? Choose one answer. a. p200: 550 b. p20: 550 c. p200: 055 d. p20: 055 e. p1000: 055

c. p200: 055

You are analyzing a tissue from a mammalian species. Some of the characteristics you notice are multinucleated cells, striations, and fairly compacted cells. Which of the following tissues best fits this analysis? Choose one answer. a. blood b. bone c. skeletal muscle d. neural e. lung

c. skeletal muscle

During gel electrophoresis a. DNA migrates toward the negative pole. b. the distance a DNA fragment migrates is related linearly to its length in bases. c. the distances the DNA fragments in the ladder (marker) migrate when plotted against their respective sizes, do not result in a linear graph. d. the distance a DNA fragment migrates is proportional to the DNA fragment's length. e. DNA migration is fostered

c. the distances the DNA fragments in the ladder (marker) migrate when plotted against their respective sizes, do not result in a linear graph.

In the rat dissection lab, inflating the lungs required inserting an air-filled syringe into what tube-like structure connecting to the lungs? Choose one answer. a. sphincter b. alveolus c. trachea d. bronchioles e. esophagus

c. trachea

Which of the following statements is true about ONPG used in the biochemical assay lab? Choose one answer. a. all of these b. ONPG has a similar structure to lactose. c. two of these d. ONPG is a compound that is naturally present in all bacterial cells. (it is artificial e. B-galactosidase cleaves ONPG to produce o-nitrophenol, which is a yellow compound that can be used as an indicator of b-galactosidase activity.

c. two of these

In the histology lab, two slides that commonly get confused are the liver tissue and the blood cell tissue. What are some main differences to look for when distinguishing these two types of tissues? Choose one answer. a. Liver tissue is characterized by concentric circles whereas blood tissue is characterized by a striated appearance. b. Since the liver acts in production of immune cells and white blood cells, various types of cells will show up in comparison to the uniform appearance of the blood cell tissue. c.Liver tissue helps detoxification in various cells that do have a nuclei, whereas blood cells lack a nuclei d. Blood cells are involved in detoxification and thus will have more types of cells than the liver tissue. e. Blood cells have nuclei that will show up on the slide, whereas cells in liver tissue lack nuclei.

c.Liver tissue helps detoxification in various cells that do have a nuclei, whereas blood cells lack a nuclei

partially disrupts the cell membrane to allow substrate to enter the cell

chloroform

Forensic laboratories occasionally use mitochondrial DNA comparison in order to establish identification of individuals, human remains, and more notably, older unidentified skeletal remains. Which of the following reasons best serves as an advantage when using mtDNA as opposed to nuclear DNA during such analyses? Choose one answer. a. Mitochondrial DNA is very stable since it is both linear and double-stranded. b. none of these c. all of these d. A greater number of copies of mtDNA per cell increase the chance of obtaining a useful sample. e. Mitochondrial DNA is heat resistant and is rarely susceptible to mutations.

d. A greater number of copies of mtDNA per cell increase the chance of obtaining a useful sample.

If a student completes the lab correctly, but forgets to add chloroform to his cells in the LB + lactose solution, what results should he expect at the end of the lab? Choose one answer. a. B-gal will not be transcribed and the solution will be yellow. b. B-gal will be transcribed and the solution will be yellow. c. The Lac Operon will not function and there will be no reaction. d. B-gal will be transcribed and the solution will be colorless. e. B-gal will not be transcribed and the solution will be colorless.

d. B-gal will be transcribed and the solution will be colorless.

How does the method of gel filtration differ from that of SDS-Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE)? Choose one answer. a. Gel filtration breaks disulfide bonds so that proteins separate into individual subunits, while SDS-PAGE keeps disulfide bonds intact and allows visualization of the entire protein using electrophoresis. b. Gel filtration keeps the protein in its native, intact form, while SDS-PAGE uses an electrical current to break disulfide bonds between protein subunits. c. Gel filtration breaks noncovalent linkages between protein subunits, while SDS-PAGE breaks both noncovalent linkages and disulfide bonds between subunits. d. Gel filtration provides an estimate of the molecular weight of a protein in its native, intact form, while SDS-PAGE denatures proteins by disrupting noncovalent linkages between the subunits. e. Both gel filtration and SDS-PAGE break disulfide bonds between protein subunits, but SDS-PAGE also denatures proteins by breaking noncovalent linkages between subunits.

d. Gel filtration provides an estimate of the molecular weight of a protein in its native, intact form, while SDS-PAGE denatures proteins by disrupting noncovalent linkages between the subunits.

Which of the following is false? Choose one answer. a. Mitochondrial DNA sequence can be used to probe our maternal lineage. b. A good primer will hybridize to highly conserved areas of this region. c. The D-loop region is a good choice because it is a control region and can thus accumulate more mutations without affecting function. d. In PCR, RNA polymerase is used to make copies of the region between the primers. e. In PCR amplification, changes in temperature are used for DNA denaturation and hybridization to primers.*

d. In PCR, RNA polymerase is used to make copies of the region between the primers.

Why does a cross-section of the thymus look like and why? Choose one answer. a. It is full of air spaces and has a lot of thin layers of cells for gas to be stored in the air spaces. b. It looks like a big tube and it is full of air inside because it functions in the circulatory system. c. It has long thin cells with multiple nuclei for muscle contractions. d. It has cells with lots of nuclei for it's function in the immune system. e. It has lots of very small circular cells that are very tiny and have no nuclei for transportation purposes.

d. It has cells with lots of nuclei for it's function in the immune system. think (T-cells) for Thymus

In testing for b-galactosidase, why do we see a low level activity of the enzyme at the 20 minute time interval and a much higher activity of the enzyme at the 70 minute time interval when lactose is present? Choose one answer. a. We only see low level activity because the lac operon is leaky. b. These results are not accurate and something must be wrong in the experiment set-up. c. It takes time for the bacteria to replicate and increase their cell density. d. It takes time for the bacteria to be induced into making the enzyme. e. It takes time for lactose permease to bring lactose into the cell for the enzyme to come into contact with the substrate to cleave it.

d. It takes time for the bacteria to be induced into making the enzyme.

To measure the amount of enzyme activity in a cell, we use a procedurecalled a biochemical assay. To test the activity of b-galactosidase in E. coli cells, why did we need to add ONPG to the three sample tubes? Choose one answer. a. ONPG is the chemical that stops the reaction of b-galactosidase so we can see how much lactose b- galactosidase has cleaved within the 20 and 70 minute time stops b. ONPG is a derivative of lactose that can induce the repressor, letting b-galactosidase be made so we can test for enzyme activity c. ONPG is a yellow compound, and when cleaved with b-galactosidase it becomes colorless; as more ONPG iscleaved by b-galactosidase the color of the sample diminishes so we can see the amount of enzyme activity by taking the OD420 d. ONPG, a derivative of lactose, can be cleaved by b-galactosidase producing a yellow compound making it possible to assay enzyme activity e. we have to have a colored sample for thespectrophotometer to detect OD420 readings; ONPG is a yellow compound so we can use this compound to assay b-galactosidase activity

d. ONPG, a derivative of lactose, can be cleaved by b-galactosidase producing a yellow compound making it possible to assay enzyme activity

Which blood vessel(s) carried blood to the left atrium of the heart? Choose one answer. a. Aorta b. Superior (anterior) vena cava c. All of these d. Pulmonary vein e. Carotid artery

d. Pulmonary vein

Which of the following organs is not located in the thoracic cavity? Choose one answer. a. Salivary Glands b. Right common carotid artery c. Diaphragm d. Rectum e. Lung

d. Rectum

In the rat lab, the cecum connects which of the following two organs? Choose one answer. a. None of the above b. Heart and lungs c. Kidneys and bladder d. Small intestine and large intestine e. Testis and prostate gland

d. Small intestine and large intestine

How were the proteins in the SDS-PAGE lab visualized? Choose one answer. a. The gel was stained with coomassie blue and the proteins could be seen under a UV light. b. The proteins were tagged with ONPG and could be detected with the spectrophotometer. c. The proteins were stained with ethidium bromide and could be seen under a UV light. d. The proteins were linked to a fluorescent tag and could be seen under a UV light. e. The gel was stained with ethidium bromide and the proteins could be seen under a UV light.

d. The proteins were linked to a fluorescent tag and could be seen under a UV light.

From the rat dissection, what did you find to be true? Choose one answer. a. The diaphragm is below the liver, separating the liver from the stomach and intestines. b. The spleen is part of the intestinal tract. c. The urethra connects the bladder to the penis in male rats. d. The right side of the heart is bigger than the left, and the two ventricles are larger than the two atria. e. The lungs are dark red because of its blood storing function.

d. The right side of the heart is bigger than the left, and the two ventricles are larger than the two atria.

Your undergraduate colleague accidentally mislabels tissue samples taken from different parts of a rat. In order to correct his mistake, you make slides from each sample and stain all tissue red and all nuclei blue. Upon analyzing one slide under a compound light microscope, you see many small purple dots. This slide must not be a sample of tissue from the rat's ___________. Choose one answer. a. liver b. lungs c. striated muscle d. blood e. thymus

d. blood

The ____ is the structure that releases bile, which is released into the ______ where the majority of that fat is emulsified Choose one answer. a. stomach/small intestine b. gallblader/large intestine c. spleen/stomach d. gall bladder/small intestine e. pancreas/liver

d. gall bladder/small intestine

Which of the following lies most dorsal in the abdominal cavity? Choose one answer. a. stomach b. small intestine c. large intestine d. kidneys e. liver

d. kidneys

Primers in PCR will always be: Choose one answer. a. RNA hairpin loop b. double-stranded DNA c. double stranded-RNA d. single-stranded DNA e. single-stranded RNA

d. single-stranded DNA

What is the name of the structure that connects the stomach to the small intestine and what is its function? Choose one answer. a. the esophogus spincter and it connects the stomach to the intestine and the esophogus to the stomach b. the pylorus valve and it is the constricted part of the back of the stomach c. the duodenum valve and it is the beginning of the small intestine therefore it helps absorb nutrients d. the pyloric sphincter and it regulates the flow of materials from the stomach to the small intestine e. the pacreatic spincter and it secretes hormones to the pancreas

d. the pyloric sphincter and it regulates the flow of materials from the stomach to the small intestine

What is the purpose of sodium carbonate in the lab

drastically changes the pH to stop enzymatic activity

In lab, B-galactosidase enzyme activity was measured in "units of activity". In order to determine the units of activity, one must be able to measure Choose one answer. a. the volume of the sample assayed. b. E. coli density. c. how long the reaction between B-galactosidase and its substrate was allowed to proceed. d. the concentration of o-nitrophenol. e. All of these.

e. All of these.

From the metabolism lab, if caffeine is added to the water with the fish, the oxygen intake of the fish increases. How does oxygen intake relate to the rate of metabolism? Choose one answer. a. A decrease in oxygen intake represents an increase in rate of metabolism. b. An increase in oxygen intake represents a decrease in the rate of metabolism. c. A decrease in the oxygen level of the water represents a decrease in the rate of metabolism. d. An increase in the oxygen level of the water represents an increase of the rate of metabolism. e. An increase in oxygen intake represents an increase in the rate of metabolism.

e. An increase in oxygen intake represents an increase in the rate of metabolism.

After running electrophoresis in an agarose gel, it is treated with ethidium bromide for visualization. Which of the following best describes the action of Ethidium bromide on DNA? Choose one answer. a. Ethidium bromide covalently bonds to DNA and can then be visualized under infrared light. b. Ethidium bromide inserts itself between the base pairs of DNA and can then be visualized using x-rays. c. Ethidium bromide covalently bonds to DNA and can then be visualized under UV light. d. Ethidium bromide uses ionic bonds to bind the DNA and can then be visualized under UV light. e. Ethidium bromide inserts itself between the base pairs of DNA and can then be visualized under UV light.

e. Ethidium bromide inserts itself between the base pairs of DNA and can then be visualized under UV light.

Both SDS-PAGE gel and agarose gel were used in Lab 1 and 4 respectively. What is agarose gel treated with to visualize the bands on the gel under the UV light, and why does the treatment require safety attention? Choose one answer. a. Loading dye ; it is a neuron toxin before polymerization b. A fluorescence tag c. Polyacrylamide; it is a neuron toxin before polymerization d. Chloroform; it is a suspected carcinogen e. Ethidium bromide; it is a suspected carcinogen

e. Ethidium bromide; it is a suspected carcinogen

Which one of the following is not a right statement? Choose one answer. a. In female rats, the urethral opening separate from vaginal orifice. b. In male rats, the scrotum contains testes. c. In male rats, the penis contains opening to urinary and genital organs of the male. d. In female rats, the urinary and genital openings are separate. e. In female rats, the anus is ventral to the vaginal orifice.

e. In female rats, the anus is ventral to the vaginal orifice.

In the Rat Dissection Lab we learned that the Abdominal Cavity includes all of the following body organs: Choose one answer. a. cecum, Spleen, Heart, Kidney and Internal Reproductive organs b. cecum, Spleen, Lungs, Kidney and Pancreas c. Liver, Intestines, Kidney, Internal reproductive organs and Heart d. Liver, Intestines, Spleen, Pancreas and Heart e. Liver, Intestines, Spleen, Kidney, and Internal reproductive organs

e. Liver, Intestines, Spleen, Kidney, and Internal reproductive organs

In order to visualize proteins in a gel, one can use Choose one answer. a. fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC) b. ethidium bromide c. coomassie blue d. ONPG e. More than one of these.

e. More than one of these.

What is a difference between SDS-PAGE and agarose gel electrophoresis? Choose one answer. a. Agarose gel electrophoresis separates on the basis of size while SDS-PAGE separates on the basis of charge. b. Agarose gel electrophoresis can only run DNA and SDS-PAGE can only run proteins. c. Agarose gel electrophoresis can only run proteins and SDS-PAGE can only run DNa. d. SDS-PAGE must be run vertically while agarose gel electrophoresis must be run horizontally. e. SDS-PAGE provides higher resolution results due to smaller pores.

e. SDS-PAGE provides higher resolution results due to smaller pores.

Which statement is incorrect? Choose one answer. a. The stomach, jejunum, and colon are all part of the digestive system. b. The pancreas is located in the bodily cavity that also holds the reproductive organs. c. Not all arteries transport oxygenated blood. d. The heart is one of the organs located in the thoracic cavity. e. Systemic circulation includes the lungs, heart, arteries, and veins.

e. Systemic circulation includes the lungs, heart, arteries, and veins.

In the Biochemical Assay of B-Galactosidase Activity lab, you will be using the spectrometer. Which of the following statements is false regarding the spectrometer in this lab? Choose one answer. a. The absorption of a sample at 600nm is used to determine the cell density. b. A blank should have everything except the compound of interest which absorbs light. c. Your B-Gal blank should be used before measuring the optical density of o-nitrophenol. d. The absorption of a sample at 420nm is used to determine B-Galactosidase Activity. e. The Luria broth blank should be used after measuring the optical density of o-nitrophenol.

e. The Luria broth blank should be used after measuring the optical density of o-nitrophenol.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding SDS-PAGE and agarose gel? Choose one answer. a. Brightness, as a result of SDS-PAGE, might not be even; however, brightness, as a result of agarose gel, is an indication of DNA molecule size. b. Both SDS-PAGE and DNA agarose gel migrate toward the positive pole based on size. c. SDS-PAGE and agarose gel are used for both proteins and DNa. d. SDS-PAGE creates higher resolution than agarose gel. e. The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel.

e. The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel.

In statistics, how does the p-value relate to the observed difference when comparing sample groups? Choose one answer. a. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is accurate. b. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is less than 5%. c. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference can be replicated. d. The p-value is held constant at 0.05 when comparing observed differences between groups. e. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is due to chance.

e. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is due to chance.

Which of the following statement correctly describes the spleen relative to the brain? Choose one answer. a. The spleen is inferior, anterior, and medial to the brain b. The spleen is superior, posterior, and lateral to the brain c. The spleen is superior, anterior, and medial to the brain d. The spleen is inferior, posterior, and medial to the brain e. The spleen is inferior, posterior, and lateral to the brain

e. The spleen is inferior, posterior, and lateral to the brain

Which of the following is NOT true of the kidneys? Choose one answer. a. They are dorsal and anterior to the small intestines b. They are dark in color c. They are embedded in fat d. They are not suspended by a mesentery e. They are connected to the urethra

e. They are connected to the urethra

The description of this slide represents which organ? Use your knowledge from the Histology Lab: "Closely packed purple nucleated cells" Choose one answer. a. Blood b. Adipose (fat) c. Tracheal Epithelium d. Skeletal Muscle e. Thymus

e. Thymus

A student examines many different tissue types under a microscope. Which of the following characteristics would not be observed for the respective tissue types? Choose one answer. a. Striated muscle tissue with multiple nuclei per cell b. Bone tissue with a crystalline structure and visible holes c. Red blood cells with no visible nucleus d. Lung tissue with large spaces for gas exchange e. Thymus cells with no visible DNA staining

e. Thymus cells with no visible DNA staining

Which tissue can best fit this description: "ciliated epithelium borders, open spaces"? Choose one answer. a. Bone Tissue. b. Lung Tissue. c. Thymus Tissue. d. Adipose Tissue. e. Tracheal Tissue.

e. Tracheal Tissue.

If you ran a DNA agarose gel, but you did not see any DNA products under UV. What is possibly a reason to this? Choose one answer. a. You forgot to put FITC (fluorescent tag), hence no fluorescence is seen under UV b. You forgot to put SDS, hence the DNA is not uniformly negatively charged and not denatured. c. You didn't allow the acrylamide to polymerize, so the gel was too loose. d. You didn't provide an air-tight seal over the gel, and bubbles contaminated the gel. e. You forgot to put ethidium bromide in the gel, hence no fluorescence is seen under UV.

e. You forgot to put ethidium bromide in the gel, hence no fluorescence is seen under UV.

How can one detect DNA after running it through a gel? Choose one answer. a. allow it to bind to a fluorescent tag, which will fluoresce under UV b. introduce a dye, which can bind to the DNA and will appear as a band c. measure the distance that each of the bands traveled d. place the gel into a transilluminator to see the bands e. introduce ethidium bromide, which will fluoresce under UV

e. introduce ethidium bromide, which will fluoresce under UV

In the b-galactosidase assay lab, the readings of each sample at 420nm using the spectrophotometer measures the amount of Choose one answer. a. glucose in sample. b. RNA polymerase in sample. c. o-nitrophenol in sample. d. E. coli cells in sample. e. b-galactosidase in sample.

e. o-nitrophenol in sample.

Loggerlite detects the amount of dissolved oxygen in the chamber. For each trial, the datapoints are plotted and a curve is generated. The greater the value of the slope, Choose one answer. a. the lower the rate of carbon dioxide consumption b. none of the above c. the greater the rate of carbon dioxide production d. the lower the rate of oxygen consumption e. the greater the rate of oxygen consumption

e. the greater the rate of oxygen consumption

What is the major difference between a slide containing lung tissue and a slide containing adipose tissue? Choose one answer. a. lung tissue contains cilia to help the air travel through the lungs, while adipose tissue does not b. the lungs contain larger nuclei to support the functions of the cells c. lung tissue contains large air sacs, while adipose tissue is very dense d. the lungs are white, and the adipose tissue cells appear yellow under the microscope. e. the lungs are denser than adipose tissue in order to withstand respiration

e. the lungs are denser than adipose tissue in order to withstand respiration

Which is NOT a function of SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) in SDS-PAGE? Choose one answer. a. to eliminate the effect of shape on the determination of polypeptide size b. to disrupt weak intermolecular interactions. c. to produce a uniform charge: mass ratio among polypeptides d. to denature protein e. to allow visualization of the proteins under UV light

e. to allow visualization of the proteins under UV light

what is the natural substance of b-gal

lactose

What is the purpose of luria broth?

provides nutrient for bacteria growth

what is the purpose of z-buffer in the lab

provides optimum pH for enzymatic reaction

What is the purpose of ONPG in the lab

substrate that gives a yellow color when cleaved


Related study sets

MGMT 490: Exam 1 - Chapter PowerPoints

View Set

Domain 4: Fire Prevention and Protection

View Set

principles of microeconomics final

View Set

marketing chapter 4 (covered in class)

View Set

Series 7 - Regulations: Securities Act of 1934

View Set

Marketing Midterm 25 Review Questions

View Set

Medical Surgical Nursing - Integumentary DIsorders

View Set