mam phys ch17
Match the following: A) Hemoglobin B) Factor VIII C) Agglutination D) Monocyte E) Neutrophil Protein capable of changing shape and color in the presence of O2.
A
Match the following: A) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2 B) Erythropoietin C) Spectrin D) Heparin E) Interleukins and CSFs Produced by platelets.
A
7) With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see ________. A) increased white blood cell count B) decreased hematocrit C) increased hematocrit D) decreased white blood cell count
C
9) Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when ________. A) hemoglobin levels are lowest B) plasma levels are highest C) hematocrit is highest D) HbA1C levels are lowest
C
A person exhibiting suppression of immunity, clotting disorder as well as low oxygen carrying capacity is likely suffering which of the following? A) pernicious anemia B) hemorrhagic anemia C) aplastic anemia D) iron deficiency anemia
C
Match the following: A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Electrolytes D) Organic nutrients Ions in the plasma like sodium, potassium and chloride ions.
C
Match the following: A) Alpha and beta globulins B) Albumin C) Gamma globulins D) Fibrinogen Antibodies released by plasma cells during immune response.
C
Match the following: A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Erythrocyte Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules.
C
Match the following: A) Embolism B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Leukemia Condition in which blood has abnormally low oxygen-carrying capacity.
C
Match the following: A) Hemoglobin B) Factor VIII C) Agglutination D) Monocyte E) Neutrophil Adverse reaction of donor blood cells with recipient plasma.
C
Match the following: A) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2 B) Erythropoietin C) Spectrin D) Heparin E) Interleukins and CSFs A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane.
C
11) People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________. A) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria B) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait C) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait D) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
D
13) A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________. A) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation B) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells C) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus D) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
D
14) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________. A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells B) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells C) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells
D
16) Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening? A) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure B) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity C) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure D) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
D
19) What is the average normal pH range of blood? A) 4.65-4.75 B) 8.35-8.45 C) 7.75-7.85 D) 7.35-7.45
D
22) Which blood type is generally called the universal donor? A) A B) B C) AB D) O
D
25) Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________. A) clotting ability of the blood B) rate of platelet formation C) WBC ability to defend the body against disease D) rate of erythrocyte formation
D
26) An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________. A) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O B) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O C) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts D) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
D
29) No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________. A) eosinophils B) neutrophils C) basophils D) monocytes
D
31) Which of the following is not a structural characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions? A) produces energy anaerobically B) few organelles provide room for more hemoglobin C) biconcave shape D) mitotically active
D
32) A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. A) polycythemia B) sickle-cell anemia C) aplastic anemia D) pernicious anemia
D
33) Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders? A) vitamin K deficiency B) a defect in the clotting cascade C) thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets D) excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
D
8) With a patient administered an injection of colony stimulating factor (CSF) you would expect to see ________. A) decreased Red blood cell count B) decreased white blood cell count C) increased Red blood cell count D) increased white blood cell count
D
Match the following: A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Electrolytes D) Organic nutrients Material absorbed from the digestive tract. Including simple sugars, amino acids and fatty acids.
D
Match the following: A) Alpha and beta globulins B) Albumin C) Gamma globulins D) Fibrinogen Necessary for coagulation.
D
Match the following: A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Erythrocyte Largest of the WBCs; crucial in defense against viruses; associated with chronic infections.
D
Match the following: A) Embolism B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Leukemia Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels.
D
Match the following: A) Hemoglobin B) Factor VIII C) Agglutination D) Monocyte E) Neutrophil White blood cell without cytoplasmic granules.
D
Match the following: A) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2 B) Erythropoietin C) Spectrin D) Heparin E) Interleukins and CSFs Natural anticoagulant found in basophils.
D
What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood?
The buffy coat is a layer of centrifuged whole blood that contains leukocytes and platelets.
A man of Mediterranean ancestry goes to his doctor with the following symptoms. He is very tired all of the time. He has difficulty catching his breath after even mild exercise. His doctor orders the following tests: CBC, hematocrit, differential WBC count. The tests show immature erythrocytes, fragile erythrocytes, and less than 2 million RBCs per cubic millimeter. What would be a tentative diagnosis and suggested treatment?
The diagnosis is thalassemia. The treatment is blood transfusion and chelation therapy to remove excessive iron accumulate from transfusions.
A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?
The differential count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types (a valuable diagnostic tool). The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs.
Why are the two pathways of blood clotting referred to as the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways?
The factors required to initiate clotting are present within the blood in the intrinsic pathway and outside the blood in the extrinsic pathway.
An elderly patient tells the nurse that she has been very tired lately and has difficulty walking to her mailbox without getting very short of breath. The nurse notes the mucous membranes are pale. The patient states that since her husband died three months ago, she has not been eating well. The physician confirms that she has iron-deficiency anemia. How are the patient's clinical manifestations and iron-deficiency anemia related?
Without iron as a source material, the red bone marrow cannot manufacture sufficient hemoglobin to meet demand. The clinical manifestations are directly attributed to the reduction in the amount of oxygen available to tissues. Anemic individuals are fatigued, often pale, short of breath, and chilly.
The group of blood disorders in which blood oxygen levels are inadequate to support normal metabolism is called ________.
anemia
When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces to fight infection, they change to a different type of cell called ________.
macrophage(s)
List the granulocytes and describe the appearance of their granules in a typical blood smear.
neutrophils: pale, indistinct; eosinophils: red; basophils: dark purple.
When diagnosing an iron deficiency one of the first tests is a red blood cell count. Why is this so?
Iron is mostly stored in hemoglobin of RBCs. Additional free ions are bound to protein-iron molecules like ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin. Ferritin and hemosiderin molecules are stored in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow. Transferrin transports iron in the blood.
The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
False
The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
False
The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.
False
White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.
True
Match the following: A) Alpha and beta globulins B) Albumin C) Gamma globulins D) Fibrinogen Transport proteins like transferrin (that carries iron ions) or others that bind to lipids or fat-soluble vitamins.
A
Match the following: A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Erythrocyte Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin.
A
Match the following: A) Embolism B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Leukemia Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream.
A
23) Which of the statements below is an incorrect or false statement? A) Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion. B) When a transfusion reaction occurs, the oxygen-carrying capacity of the transfused blood cells is disrupted and the clumping of RBCs in small vessels hinders blood flow to tissues beyond those points. C) Transfusion of incompatible blood can be fatal. D) Unique to the ABO blood group is the presence in the plasma of preformed antibodies.
A
30) Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis? A) fibrinolysis B) vascular spasm C) platelet plug formation D) coagulation
A
35) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. B) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive. C) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells. D) His blood lacks Rh factor.
A
A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________. A) a bacterial infection B) a viral infection C) anemia D) polycythemia
A
Match the following: A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Electrolytes D) Organic nutrients Makes up most of plasma protein.
A
Match the following: A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Electrolytes D) Organic nutrients The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure.
A
10) Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage? A) prolonged or excessive fever B) living at higher altitude C) dehydration D) injection with erythropoietin (EPO)
A
12) Lipids (either nutrients or hormones) are insoluble in water but are found traveling in the plasma of the blood. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? A) Lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins B) Lipids are carried only in the lymph which is primarily composed of unsaturated fats C) Lipids are carried inside blood cells D) Enzymes in the plasma convert lipids to soluble forms.
A
15) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________. A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells C) platelets are larger than red blood cells D) platelets are larger than white blood cells
A
18) Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs? A) granulosis B) diapedesis C) positive chemotaxis D) ameboid motion
A
A 52-year-old woman was diagnosed with leukemia and has been receiving chemotherapy as an outpatient. She tells the RN that she hasn't been feeling well. The patient's skin is warm to the touch and she has a low-grade fever of 100.2°F. The neutrophil blood count is less than 1000/μl. The nurse is concerned about the possibility of infection because of the neutropenia and low-grade fever. Explain why.
A low-grade fever in someone who has neutropenia is a major concern for survival. Neutropenia is a concern because of the neutrophil's role in phagocytosis. This patient has a decreased ability to fight off infection and cannot respond by quickly developing more white blood cells the way a normal patient would.
36) Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia? A) malaria B) vigorous exercise C) prolonged exposure to cold D) travel at high altitude
C
39) What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production? A) liver B) brain C) kidney D) pancreas
C
If a person has AB type blood which of the ABO blood types can they receive as a transfusion?
All (A, B, AB and O)
17) If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except ________. A) lower plasma levels B) lower immunity C) higher blood viscosity D) higher hematocrit
B
21) Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? A) normoblast B) hemocytoblast C) polymorphonuclear cell D) megakaryocyte
B
3) Which of the following would provide no benefit to a person suffering any one of the various types of anemia? A) treatment with synthetic erythropoietin B) supplemental bilirubin injection C) supplemental oxygen delivered by mask D) blood transfusion
B
34) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes? A) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood. B) They are nucleated. C) They are phagocytic. D) They have cytoplasmic granules.
B
37) All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________. A) vitamin K deficiency B) vascular spasm C) liver disease D) severe hypocalcemia
B
38) Hemolytic disease of the newborn will not be possible in which of the following situations listed below? A) if the child is type O positive B) if the father is Rh- C) if the child is Rh+ D) if the father is Rh+
B
5) Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following? A) fever with pain B) loss of blood clotting C) edema (swelling) D) pallor (pale skin)
B
6) Which of the following plasma components is most likely to rise in concentration during an acute infection? A) fibrinogen B) gamma globulins C) platelets D) albumin
B
4) Diabetes can cause a condition called nephrotic syndrome in which a person will suffer a loss of osmotic pressure with fluid from the plasma leaving blood vessels causing Edema (swelling). Which of the following is likely the cause of this condition? A) a loss of intrinsic factor from the plasma via the urine B) a loss of hypoxia-inducible factor via the urine C) release of albumin protein into the urine D) an increase in EPO production by the kidneys
C
Match the following: A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Electrolytes D) Organic nutrients Forms the structural framework of a blood clot.
B
Match the following: A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Electrolytes D) Organic nutrients Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma.
B
Match the following: A) Alpha and beta globulins B) Albumin C) Gamma globulins D) Fibrinogen Main contributor to osmotic pressure.
B
Match the following: A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Erythrocyte Nucleus has two lobes; contains granules of lysosomal enzymes; functions in attacking parasitic worms and plays complex roles in inflammatory diseases like allergies and asthma.
B
Match the following: A) Embolism B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Leukemia Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity.
B
Match the following: A) Hemoglobin B) Factor VIII C) Agglutination D) Monocyte E) Neutrophil Lacking in hemophilia type A.
B
Match the following: A) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2 B) Erythropoietin C) Spectrin D) Heparin E) Interleukins and CSFs Hormone that stimulates production of RBCs.
B
Why is iron not stored or transported in its free form? In what form(s) is it stored or transported in blood?
Because free iron is toxic to body cells, iron is stored within cells as protein-iron complexes such as ferritin and hemosiderin. It is transported loosely bound to a protein called transferrin.
Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue.
Blood develops from mesenchyme which is the same embryonic tissue that develops into all the other types of connective tissue: Therefore it has both solid (cells) and liquid (extracellular) components. The formed elements (cells) are suspended in a nonliving fluid matrix (plasma).
20) The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________. A) hemoglobin A B) hemoglobin B C) hemoglobin F D) hemoglobin S
C
24) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? A) an increased number of RBCs B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen C) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells D) moving to a lower altitude
C
27) When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________. A) A B) B C) O D) AB
C
28) All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________. A) increased blood volume B) high blood pressure C) low blood viscosity D) high hematocrit
C
Match the following: A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Erythrocyte Transports CO2 and oxygen.
E
Match the following: A) Embolism B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Leukemia Cancerous condition involving white blood cells.
E
Match the following: A) Hemoglobin B) Factor VIII C) Agglutination D) Monocyte E) Neutrophil Polymorphonuclear leukocyte.
E
Match the following: A) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2 B) Erythropoietin C) Spectrin D) Heparin E) Interleukins and CSFs Stimulates WBC production.
E
Why is hemoglobin enclosed in erythrocytes rather than existing free in plasma?
Enclosed within erythrocytes, hemoglobin is prevented from breaking into fragments that would leak out of the vascular system through porous capillaries. Additionally, because it's enclosed, hemoglobin cannot contribute to blood viscosity and osmotic pressure.
Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
False
Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.
False
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.
False
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin.
False
Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
False
Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
False
Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes.
False
The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
False
Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh-, her husband is Rh+, and this is their second child?
If the mother was given RhoGAM before or shortly after the birth of the first child, there is little concern, because the RhoGAM prevented the mother from sensitizing herself against her child. If the second child is RH+ and she did not take RhoGAM, there is a chance the second child will develop erythroblastosis fetalis and die before birth.
What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red?
In bright red blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin (oxygenated blood). In dull, dark-red blood, oxygen has been released from the hemoglobin (deoxygenated blood).
List the most common causes of bleeding disorders.
Platelet deficiency (thrombocytopenia); deficiency of procoagulants due to liver disorders; or certain genetic conditions (hemophilias).
List the two general factors that limit normal clot growth to the sight of injury.
Rapid removal of coagulation factors and inhibition of activated clotting factors.
Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.
True
A patient complains of no energy, a chronic sore throat, a low-grade fever, and is tired and achy. His doctor notes an enlarged spleen upon examination. What diagnosis would you expect and what definitive test would you request?
The test would be a differential white blood cell count to look for elevated numbers of monocytes and atypical lymphocytes. The diagnosis would be possible infectious mononucleosis, pending test results.
List three blood tests that might be ordered if anemia is suspected.
The tests for anemia include hematocrit, complete blood count, microscopic study of erythrocytes, and reticulocyte count.
A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
True
All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.
True
Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
True
Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
True
Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.
True
Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
True
Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.
True
Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
True
How many polypeptide chains make up hemoglobin?
four