Mastering Quiz: Chapter 8 Recombinant DNA Technology

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cDNA stands for __________. a. copied DNA b. conventional DNA c. complementary DNA d. cloned DNA

c. complementary DNA

Which of the following attaches the target gene to a desired location? a. DNA ligase b. Chromosomal DNA c. Restriction enzymes d. Plasmids

a. DNA ligase

How do the strands separate during PCR? a. The high heat of the denaturation step breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands. b. The primers separate the strands during the annealing step. c. The DNA polymerase breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands. d. The cycling of the temperatures breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands.

a. The high heat of the denaturation step breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands.

What action do restriction enzymes employ? a. They cut DNA. b. They inhibit DNA from being transcribed. c. They facilitate the production of hydrogen bonds. d. They glue two pieces of DNA back together.

a. They cut DNA.

In general, how might recombinant DNA technology be used to prevent a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in a single gene? a. To insert a desirable gene, remove an undesirable gene, or replace a defective gene with a functioning gene b. To remove an undesirable gene c. To insert a desirable gene d. To replace a defective gene with a working gene

a. To insert a desirable gene, remove an undesirable gene, or replace a defective gene with a functioning gene

What is the end goal of PCR? a. To quickly increase the number of copies of a specific DNA sequence b. To increase the pool of different DNA sequences c. To allow cells to make DNA faster, thereby growing faster

a. To quickly increase the number of copies of a specific DNA sequence

PCR stands for a. polymerase chain reaction. b. polymerase copy reaction. c. polymerization copying rapidly.

a. polymerase chain reaction.

In the laboratory, recombinant DNA technologists use restriction enzymes __________. a. to cut specific genes from one organism for the purpose of inserting the genes into the DNA of another organism b. to destroy pathogenic bacteria within a human cell c. as genes d. only as a last resort

a. to cut specific genes from one organism for the purpose of inserting the genes into the DNA of another organism

How are restriction enzymes named? a. Restriction enzymes are usually named after the scientist that discovers them. b. Each is named with letters referring to the genus, species, and strain of the source prokaryote and a Roman numeral denoting the order of its discovery. c. The naming of a restriction enzyme involves several letters corresponding to an amino acid and a Greek letter implying the type of organism on which they act. d. Restriction enzymes are usually titled according to the nucleotide sequence of the restriction site upon which they act.

b. Each is named with letters referring to the genus, species, and strain of the source prokaryote and a Roman numeral denoting the order of its discovery.

Why would a recombinant DNA molecule be inserted into a host cell? a. Restriction enzymes can only be used inside of a cell. b. It can be copied, transcribed, and translated into a desired protein. c. Plasmids cannot be isolated outside of a host cell. d. It can protect the recombinant DNA.

b. It can be copied, transcribed, and translated into a desired protein.

What is a thermocycler? a. The process of cycling through the different temperatures of a PCR reaction 30 times b. The machine that controls the heat of the reaction, cycling between the different temperatures of the different steps during PCR c. The special DNA polymerase, used in a PCR reaction, that can tolerate the high temperatures d. The name for the DNA primers used in a PCR reaction

b. The machine that controls the heat of the reaction, cycling between the different temperatures of the different steps during PCR

What would be the effect of the transfer of glyphosate resistance from a transgenic crop plant to a weed plant? a. The weed plant would be able to produce glyphosphate. b. The weed plant would be unable to be killed by particular herbicides. c. The weed plant would be able to resist insect pests more effectively. d. The transgenic plant would lose its glyphosphate resistance.

b. The weed plant would be unable to be killed by particular herbicides.

What role do restriction enzymes serve in the prokaryotes that produce them? a. They play a role in DNA synthesis during reproduction. b. They destroy viral DNA. c. They provide a means by which different prokaryotic species can share genes. d. They are involved in bacterial apoptosis or cell suicide.

b. They destroy viral DNA.

What is the function of the primers in PCR? a. They provide energy for the DNA polymerization reactions. b. They provide a 3' end for the DNA polymerase. c. They are the monomer building blocks from which the DNA strand is synthesized. d. They polymerize free nucleotides to form the new DNA strands.

b. They provide a 3' end for the DNA polymerase.

The restriction enzyme KpnII probably originated __________. a. from a virus b. as the product of recombination between a bacterium and a plant c. as the second discovered restriction enzymes from Klebsiella pneumoniae bacterium d. from Escherichia coli, one of the most widely studied bacteria

c. as the second discovered restriction enzymes from Klebsiella pneumoniae bacterium

Four different fluorescent dyes are used in automated DNA sequencing because __________. a. the process involves four different steps b. there are four different nucleotides in DNA c. there are four different types of DNA that can be sequenced using the procedure d. DNA molecules are cut into four pieces during the process

b. there are four different nucleotides in DNA

In which direction does DNA polymerase synthesize the new DNA strand? a. Both 5' to 3' and 3' to 5' b. 3' to 5' c. 5' to 3'

c. 5' to 3'

What is the temperature used for the extension step? a. 60 °C b. 94 °C c. 72 °C

c. 72 °C

Which of the following statements concerning sticky-ended fragments is most likely to be true? a. Sticky-ended fragments will never be more than two nucleotide bases long. b. The sticky-ended fragments are much harder to join together than blunt-ended fragments. c. Complementary sticky-ended fragments were probably cut by the same restriction enzyme. d. Sticky-ended fragments have the ability to join any other sticky fragment, regardless of whether or not it is complementary.

c. Complementary sticky-ended fragments were probably cut by the same restriction enzyme.

Why is DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus ideal for PCR? a. It can synthesize DNA 5' to 3' and 3' to 5'. b. It does not require energy to polymerize DNA. c. It can withstand the high temperatures associated with PCR. d. It does not require primers.

c. It can withstand the high temperatures associated with PCR.

How do restriction enzymes cut DNA sequences? a. They have the ability to cut DNA randomly. b. They cut DNA at sequences that have lots of adenine bases. c. They cut DNA at sites, called recognition sites, that have specific nucleotide sequences.

c. They cut DNA at sites, called recognition sites, that have specific nucleotide sequences.

Although blunt-ended DNA fragments are more difficult to join back together than are sticky ends, blunt ends have an advantage in that __________. a. blunt-ended fragments can be used to make recombinant DNA between two different species b. they form many more hydrogen bonds than sticky-ended fragments c. they can be recombined with blunt fragments produced by different restriction enzymes d. once joined to another blunt-ended fragment, the DNA can never be cut again

c. they can be recombined with blunt fragments produced by different restriction enzymes

What provides the energy for DNA polymerization in a PCR reaction? a. Primers b. Template DNA c. DNA polymerase d. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates

d. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates

Which of the following would be a likely cutting sequence for a restriction enzyme? a. GGAATC b. GATTAG c. GAAGAA d. GTTAAC

d. GTTAAC

__________ can be used to advise prospective parents about their risk of transmitting genetic disorders, such as Huntington's Disease, to their offspring. a. Vaccine production b. Polymerase chain reaction c. Gene therapy d. Genetic screening

d. Genetic screening

Which of the following is an application that uses PCR? a. Providing enough DNA for cloning into another organism b. Sequencing a gene c. Diagnosing a disease d. Sequencing a gene, diagnosing a disease, and providing enough DNA for cloning into another organism

d. Sequencing a gene, diagnosing a disease, and providing enough DNA for cloning into another organism

All restriction sites are palindromic. What does this mean? a. It means that a restriction site may be targeted by any of the restriction enzymes. b. It means that the restriction sites are the same for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. c. The restriction sites are always five nucleotide base pairs in length. d. The nucleotide sequences at the restriction sites are the same when read forward or backward.

d. The nucleotide sequences at the restriction sites are the same when read forward or backward.

Which of the following is NOT involved in the process of DNA fingerprinting? a. cutting a DNA sample with restriction enzymes b. using PCR to make multiple copies of a DNA sample c. gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments d. addition of fluorescent nucleotides to a DNA sample

d. addition of fluorescent nucleotides to a DNA sample

Put the following events in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule in the correct order: a. ligation of desired gene to plasmid DNA b. introduction of the plasmid into bacteria c. restriction enzymes cut gene of interest and plasmid DNA d. growth of cells on an antibiotic-containing medium a. b, c, a, d b. a, d, c, b c. d, a, b, c d. c, a, b, d

d. c, a, b, d

What is the sequence of the temperatures of a typical PCR reaction? a. 72 °C, 60 °C, 94 °C b. 94 °C, 72 °C, 60 °C c. 72 °C, 94 °C, 60 °C d. 60 °C, 72 °C, 94 °C e. 94 °C, 60 °C, 72 °C

e. 94 °C, 60 °C, 72 °C


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