Maternal Newborn Final
How long does lochia serosa last?
4 to 10 days
what does GTPAL stand for?
G-gravitidy T-term births 38 weeks or more P-preterm viability to 37 weeks A-abortion/miscarriage L-living children
A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the ER at 12 weeks of gestation with mild vaginal bleeding, back pain, and moderate cramping. On examination, her cervix is noted to be dilated to 7 cm. with membranes bulging at the cervical opening. What type of spontaneous abortion would this be classified as? a. inevitable b. incomplete c. threatened d. missed
a
A gravid, married client, 24 weeks' gestation, is found to have bacterial vaginosis. Her health care practitioner has ordered metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat the problem. Which of the following educational information is important for the nurse to provide the woman at this time? a. The woman must be careful to observe for signs of preterm labor. b. The woman must advise her partner to seek therapy as soon as possible. c. A common side effect of the medicine is a copious vaginal discharge. d. A repeat culture should be taken two weeks after completing the therapy.
a
A maternity nurse is caring for a client with abruptio placentae and is monitoring the client for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation? a. Swelling of the calf in one leg b. Prolonged clotting times c. Decreased platelet count d. Petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria
a
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is providing education to a client who is in the 8th week of gestation. The client states that she does not like milk. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium? a. Dark green, leafy vegetables b. Deep red or orange vegetables c. White breads and rice d. Meat, poultry, and fish
a
A nurse in the antepartum clinic is assessing a client's adaptation to pregnancy. The client states that she is, "happy one minute and crying the next". The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of which of the following? a. emotional liability b. focusing phase c. cognitive restructuring d. couvade syndrome
a
A nurse is assessing a client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication? a. Fever b. Hypothermia c. Constipation d. Muscle weakness
a
A nurse is caring for a client during the first trimester of pregnancy. After reviewing the client's blood work, the nurse notices she does not have immunity to rubella. Which of the following times should the nurse understand is recommended for rubella immunization? a. shortly after giving birth b. in the third trimester c. immediately d. during her next attempt to get pregnant
a
A nurse is caring for a client who becomes unresponsive upon delivery of the placenta. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Determine respiratory function b. Increase the IV fluid rate c. Access emergency medications cart d. Collect a maternal blood sample for coagulopathy studies
a
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an early indicator of hypovolemia caused by hemorrhage? a. Increasing pulse and decreasing blood pressure b. Dizziness and increasing respiratory rate c. Cool, clammy skin, and pale mucous membranes d. Altered mental status and level of consciousness
a
A nurse is reviewing the record of a woman who has just been told that she is pregnant. The physician has documented the presence of Goodell's sign. The nurse determines this sign refers to which of the following? a. A softening of the tip of the cervix b. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse c. Enlargement of the uterus d. A softening of the lower uterus
a
A nurse is taking a birth history assessment on a client who is 8 weeks' gestation and has one child who was born at 38 weeks. Which is consistent with this birth history? a. primipara b. primigravida c. nullipara d. multipara
a
A nurse is treating a client at 30 weeks of gestation for severe preeclampsia with magnesium sulfate and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification? a. Ambulate twice daily b. Fluid restriction c. Obtain a daily weight d. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour
a
A nurse midwife is examining a client who is a primigravida at 42 weeks of gestation and states that she believes she is in labor. Which of the following findings confirm to the nurse that the client is in true labor? a. Cervical dilation b. Report of pain above the umbilicus c. Brownish vaginal discharge d. Amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault
a
An ultrasound is performed on a client at term gestation who is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. The results of the ultrasound indicate that abruptio placentae is present. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should prepare the client for? a. Delivery of the fetus. b. Strict monitoring of intake and output. c. Complete bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy. d. Weekly monitoring of coagulation studies.
a
During a counseling session on natural family planning techniques, how should the nurse explain the consistency of cervical mucus at the time of ovulation? a. It becomes thin and elastic. b. It becomes opaque and acidic. c. It contains numerous leukocytes to prevent vaginal infections. d. It decreases in quantity in response to body temperature changes
a
Laboring women are often NPO to decrease the risk of which complication? a. Aspiration b. Diarrhea c. Hematoma d. Paralytic ileus
a
On completing a fundal assessment, the nurse notes the fundus is situated laterally in the client's left abdomen. Which of the following actions is appropriate? a. Ask the client to empty her bladder b. Straight catheterize the client immediately c. Call the client's health care provider d. Straight catheterize the client for half of her uterine volume
a
The post-term neonate with meconium-stained amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially monitor for which of the following? a. Respiratory problems b. Gastrointestinal problems c. Integumentary problems d. Elimination problems
a
what is nulligravida?
a woman who has never been pregnant
what are some probable signs of pregnancy?
abdominal enlargement hegars sign chadwicks sign gooddells sign braxton hicks positive test fetal outline
What are some preumptive signs of pregnancy?
amenorrhea fatigue N/V urinary frequency breast changes quickening uterine enlargement
4. A sexually active 19-year-old presents to the clinic with yellow-green, frothy vaginal discharge with foul discharge. Upon exam, her cervix has strawberry spots and bleeds easily. What medication would the nurse expect to give? a. ampicillin b. metronidazole c. penicillin d. fluconazole
b
A client arrives at a birthing center in active labor. Her membranes are still intact and the nurse-midwife prepares to perform an amniotomy. A nurse who is assisting the nurse-midwife explains to the client that after this procedure she will most likely have? a. Less pressure on her cervix b. Increased efficiency of contractions c. Decreased number of contractions d. The need for increased maternal blood pressure monitoring
b
A nurse in a health clinic is reviewing contraceptive use with a group of adolescent clients. Which of the following statements by an adolescent reflects an understanding of the teaching? a. "A water-soluble lubricant should not be used with condoms." b. " A diaphragm should stay in place 6 hrs after intercourse, but no more than 24 hrs." c. "Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne." d. " A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month."
b
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and who asks about the signs that precede the onset of labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor? a. Decreased vaginal discharge b. A surge of energy c. Quickening d. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg.
b
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. The client is at 39 weeks of gestation and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of oxytocin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion. b. Continue monitoring the client. c. Request that the provider assesses the client. d. Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance fluid.
b
A nurse is beginning to care for a client in labor. The physician has prescribed an IV infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin). The nurse ensures that which of the following is implemented before initiating the infusion? a. Placing the client on complete bed rest b. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring c. An IV infusion of antibiotics d. Placing a code cart at the client's bedside
b
A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication? a. increased fetal movement b. premature rupture of membranes c. upper abdominal discomfort d. urinary frequency
b
A nurse is caring for a client who is gravid 3, para 2, and in active labor. The fetal head is at 3+ station after a vaginal examination. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Prepare to administer oxytocin b. Observe for crowning c. Observe for presence of nuchal cord d. Apply fundal pressure
b
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds. A vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor? a. Active b. Transition c. Latent d. Descent
b
A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is scheduled to undergo an amniocentesis. The nurse should know which of the following as a sign of fetal lung maturity? a. Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) ratio 1:3 b. Lecithin/Sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio 2:1 c. Kleihauer-Betke test ratio 2:1 d. Lecithin/Sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio 3:1
b
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis in her left calf. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Administer aspirin for pain b. Maintain the client on bedrest c. Massage the affected leg every 12 hours d. Apply cold compresses to the affected calf
b
A nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client has a healthy 5-year old child that has delivered at 37 weeks and tells the nurse she doesn't have any history of abortion or fetal demise. The nurse would document the GTPAL for this client as: a. G=3, T=2, P=0, A= 0, L=1 b. G=2, T=0, P=1, A=0, L=1 c. G=1, T=1, P=1, A=0, L=1 d. G=2, T=1, P=0, A=0, L=1
b
A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in labor and reports severe pressure and pain in the lower back. The nurse notes that the fetal head is in a posterior position. The nurse should identify which of the following is the best nonpharmacological intervention to perform to relieve the client's discomfort? a. Back rub b. Counter-pressure c. Playing music d. Foot massage
b
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class on warning signs during pregnancy. She teaches the class how to calculate 'kick counts'. Which statement demonstrates a misunderstanding by the class? a. "I will record the number of movements or kicks." b. "I need to lie flat on my back to perform the procedure." c. "If I count fewer than 10 kicks in a 2-hour period, I should count the kicks again over the next 2 hours." d. "I should place my hands on the largest part of my abdomen and concentrate on the fetal movements to count the kicks."
b
A postpartum nurse is assessing a mother who delivered a healthy newborn infant by cesarean section. The nurse is assessing for signs and symptoms of deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse note if deep venous thrombosis was present? a. Paleness of the calf area b. Calf tenderness c. Coolness of the calf area d. Palpable dorsalis pedis pulses
b
A primipara woman is in the dependent, taking-in stage of psychosocial recovery and adjustment following birth. The nurse recognizes the needs of the woman during this stage should include? a. Foster an active role in the baby's care. b. Allow time for the mother to reflect on the events of the birth experience. c. Provide tools to help deal with "baby blues". d. Promote the resumption of the family as a unit.
b
A woman with HPV is likely to present with which nursing assessment finding? a. profuse, pus filled vaginal discharge b. cluster of genital warts c. single painless ulcer d. multiple vesicles on gentitalia
b
In which of the following clinical situations would it be appropriate for an obstetrician to order a labor nurse to perform an amnioinfusion? a. Placental abruption b. Meconium-stained fluid c. Polyhydramnios d. Late decelerations
b
The maternity nurse is preparing for the admission of a client in the third trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing vaginal bleeding and has a suspected diagnosis of placenta previa. The nurse reviews the health care provider's orders and should question which order? a. Prepare the client for an ultrasound. b. Obtain equipment for a vaginal examination. c. Prepare to draw a hemoglobin and hematocrit blood sample. d. Obtain equipment for external electronic fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring
b
The nurse has been working with a laboring client and notes that she has been pushing effectively for 1 hour. What is the client's primary physiological need at this time? a. Ambulation b. Rest between contractions c. Change positions frequently d. Consume oral food and fluids
b
The nurse is admitting a pregnant client to the labor room and attaches an external electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen. After attachment of the electronic fetal monitor, what is the next nursing action? a. Identify the types of accelerations. b. Assess the baseline fetal heart rate (FHR). c. Determine the intensity of the contractions. d. Determine the frequency of the contractions.
b
The nurse is assessing the midline episiotomy on a woman who delivered 2 days ago. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to see? a. Moderate drainage from the episiotomy site b. Approximated edges of episiotomy site c. Bruising of the episiotomy site d. Red, swollen area around the episiotomy site
b
The nurse is preparing to assess the uterine fundus of a client in the immediate postpartum period. After locating the fundus, the nurse notes that the uterus feels soft and boggy. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Elevate the client's legs b. Massage the fundus until it is firm c. Ask the client to turn on her left side d. Encourage the client to get plenty of rest
b
The nurse turns off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion after a period of hyperstimulation. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the nurse's action was effective? a. Intensity moderate b. Frequency every 3 minutes c. Duration 120 seconds d. Attitude flexed
b
When the rupture of membranes (ROM) occurs, the nurse understands the immediate needs of the client are based upon what? a. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of labor. b. ROM removes the fetus' most effective defense against infection. c. Nursing care is determined by fetal viability and gestational age. d. PROM is associated with malpresentation and possible incompetent cervix.
b
A nurse is teaching a woman who has just had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted. Which of the following is a risk associated with this kind of contraception? (select all that apply) a. breast cancer b. uterine perforation c. toxic shock syndrome d. pelvic inflammatory disease
b and d
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild contractions. The nurse knows that which of the following are risk factors associated with preterm labor? (Select all that apply) a. Obesity b. Chronic hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hydramnios e. Maternal age over 30 years
b d, c
A client is seen in the antenatal clinic for her 24-week prenatal appointment. The results of her 1-hr Glucola screening test is 130 mg/dL. The nurse knows that the priority teaching is? a. Instructions on daily kick counts b. Education on self-administration of insulin c. Instructions for a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test d. Education about exercise during pregnancy
c
A new client is seen at the prenatal clinic and says she thinks she is pregnant. The first day of her last menstrual period was April 1, 2019. What is her EDD? a. december 30, 2019 b. january 1, 2020 c. january 8, 2020 d. december 8, 2019
c
A nurse at an antenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea and vomiting and scant, prune-colored discharge. She has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect a. Hyperemesis gravidarum b. Threatened abortion c. Hydatidiform mole d. Preterm labor
c
A nurse is admitting a client with severe preeclampsia. The nurse knows that HELLP syndrome is diagnosed by? a. Onset of seizure activity b. Pulmonary and cardiac involvement c. Laboratory tests d. Addition of proteinuria
c
A nurse is assessing fetal heart tones for a client who is pregnant. The nurse has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the nurse apply the ultrasound transducer in order to assess the fetal heart rate? a. Left upper quadrant b. Right upper quadrant c. Left lower quadrant d. Right lower quadrant
c
A nurse is caring for a client during a Nonstress test. At the end of a 30-min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings. The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15/min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following interpretations of these findings should the nurse make? a. a reactive test b. a positive test c. a nonreactive test d. a negative test
c
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation and has been unable to control her gestational diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the provider for which of the following medications for the client? a. Acarbose b. Repaglinide c. Glyburide d. Glipizide
c
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 42 weeks of gestation and in active labor. Which of the following findings is the fetus at risk for? a. Intrauterine growth restriction b. Hyperglycemia c. Meconium aspiration d. Polyhydramnios
c
A nurse is instructing a client about the dangers of oral contraceptives. The nurse determines the client understands the teaching when the client states the need to report the following? a. breast tenderness b. headaches c. shortness of breath d. headaches
c
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a cesarean birth 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. "You can resume sexual activity in 1 week." b. "You won't need to do Kegel exercises since you had a cesarean." c. "You can still become pregnant if you are breastfeeding." d. "You are safe to start adding sit-ups to your exercise routine in 2 weeks."
c
A nurse is providing teaching about nonpharmacological pain management to a postpartum client who is experiencing breast engorgement. The nurse should recommend the application of which of the following? a. Purified lanolin cream b. A loose-fitting bra c. Cold cabbage leaves d. Breast shells
c
A nurse is teaching a class on HPV and cervical cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Most HPV infections resolve on their own within 1 to 2 years." b." I can get the HPV vaccination to prevent the most common types of HPV that could cause cervical cancer." c. "All genital warts cause cervical cancer." d. "A persistent infection of HPV type 16 or 18 can lead to cervical cancer."
c
A postpartum nurse is preparing to care for a woman who has just delivered a healthy newborn infant. In the immediate postpartum, period the nurse plans to take the woman's vital signs? a. Every 30 minutes during the first hour b. Every hour for the first 2 hours c. Every 15 minutes for the first hour d. Every 5 minutes for the first 30 minutes
c
Fetal distress is occurring with a laboring client. What is the appropriate nursing action? a. Slow the maintenance IV rate. b. Continue the oxytocin drip if infusing. c. Place the client in side-lying position. d. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 3-4 L/min.
c
There are four clients in the labor suite. Each client's labor is being augmented with oxytocin (Pitocin). Which of the women should the nurse monitor carefully for the potential of uterine rupture? a. Age 15, G3 P2, in active labor b. Age 22, G1 P0, eclampsia c. Age 25, G4 P3, last delivery by cesarean section d. Age 32, G2 P1, first baby died during labor
c
A nurse is providing a 20-year-old diagnosed with fibrocystic breast with education about her condition. Which information should be included? (Select all that apply) a. Pain or tenderness is never present with fibrocystic disease. b. The cysts are thought to be hormone related. c. The cysts move freely and can be any size. d. It is not a common finding in women between the ages of 30-50. e. Fibrocystic breast can lead to breast cancer.
c and b
Erythromycin is an antibiotic and is given to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum caused by which bacterial infections? (Select all that apply) a. syphilis b. bacterial vaginosis c. chlamydia d. gonorrhea e. trichomoniasis
c and d
A nurse is reviewing findings of a client's biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should expect which of the following variables to be included in this test? (Select all that apply) a. fetal weight b. fetal breathing movement c. fetal tone d. fetal position e. amniotic fluid volume
c, b, and e
A 32-year-old gravity 1 patient is seen in the emergency room with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. The nurse expects which of the following clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply) a. Right upper quadrant (epigastric) pain b. Scotoma c. Proteinuria 3+ d. BP 140/90 mm Hg e. Facial edema
c, b, e, a
What is a tubal ligation?
cutting, burning or blocking of the fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization
A client in her 29th week of gestation reports dizziness and clamminess when assuming a supine position. During the assessment, the nurse observes there is a marked decrease in the client's blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help alleviate this client's condition? a. keep clients legs slightly elevated b. place the client in an orthopneic position c. keep head of the clients bed slightly elevated d. place the client in the left lateral position
d
A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and is prepared for cesarean delivery. The client is transferred to the delivery room table, and the nurse places the client in the? a. Trendelenburg's position with the legs in stirrups b. Semi-Fowler position with a pillow under the knees c. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated d. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip
d
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is at 11 weeks of gestation and reports that she has had brown discharge over the past 2 weeks. Following an examination by the provider, the client is told that the fetus has died and that the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. What classification of spontaneous abortion would this be and what is the treatment? a. Complete, D&C b. Incomplete, prostaglandins and oxytocin c. Inevitable, D&E d. Missed, D&C
d
A nurse in the labor room is performing a vaginal assessment on a pregnant client in labor. The nurse notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following would be the initial nursing action? a. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position b. Administer oxygen via face mask c. Gently push the cord into the vagina d. Call for assistance and stat page the physician
d
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency room who presents with severe nausea and vomiting and is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. The priority nursing action is? a. Administer total parenteral nutrition. b. Administer an antiemetic. c. Set up percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy. d. Administer IV NS with vitamins and electrolytes
d
A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is seen with this condition? a. No alteration of menses b. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus c. Serum progesterone greater than expected reference range d. Report of severe shoulder pain
d
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor and is encouraging the client to void every 2 hr. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. "A full bladder increases the risk for fetal trauma." b. "A full bladder increases the risk for bladder infection." c. "A distended bladder will be traumatized by frequent pelvic exams." d. "A distended bladder reduces pelvic space needed for birth."
d
A nurse is providing instructions to a mother who has been diagnosed with mastitis. Which of the following statements if made by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I need to take antibiotics, and I should begin to feel better in 24-48 hours." b. "I can use analgesics to assist in alleviating some of the discomfort." c. "I need to wear a supportive bra to relieve some of the discomfort." d. "I need to stop breastfeeding until this condition resolves."
d
A nurse is reviewing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Use a condom with sexual intercourse. b. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath. c. Wipe from the back to front when performing perineal hygiene. d. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts.
d
A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client before a hysterosalpingography. Which of the following would be a contraindication for this procedure? a. BMI 40.3 b. allergy to penicillin c. temp 37.7 d. allergy to shrimp
d
A nurse is teaching a client about Rh (D) immune globulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will receive this medication if my baby is Rh-negative" b. "I will receive this medication when I am in labor." c. "I will need a second dose of this medication when my baby is 6 weeks old." d. "I will need this medication if I have an amniocentesis."
d
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should increase my protein intake to 60 grams each day." b. "I should drink 1 liter of water each day." c. "I should increase my overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories." d. "I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day."
d
A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant and has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Breastfeed your newborn to provide passive immunity b. Abstain from sexual intercourse throughout the pregnancy. c. You will be in isolation after delivery. d. You should continue to take zidovudine throughout pregnancy.
d
A woman who is in active labor is told by her obstetrician, "Your baby is in the flexed attitude". When she asks the nurse what that means, what should the nurse say? a. The baby is in a breech position. b. The baby is in the horizontal lie. c. The baby's presenting part is engaged. d. The baby's chin is resting on its chest.
d
A woman, seen in the emergency department, is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Before discharge, the nurse should provide the woman with health teaching regarding which of the following? a. endometriosis b. menopause c. ovarian hyperstimulation d. sexually transmitted infections
d
During an amniotomy a client should be observed carefully for signs of? a. Severe pain b. Uterine hypertonicity c. Hypoglycemia d. Umbilical cord prolapse
d
The 7 cardinal movements of labor are adaptations the fetus makes as it progresses through the birth canal. The movement when the head completes a quarter turn to face transverse would be? a. Descent b. Flexion c. Extension d. External rotation
d
The nurse is caring for a 1-day postpartum client. Which client assessment requires the need for follow-up? a. The client who is experiencing afterpains. b. The client who has a pulse rate of 60 bpm. c. The client who has colostrum discharge from both breasts. d. The client who has lochia that is red and foul-smelling.
d
The nurse is caring for a couple who is in the labor/delivery room immediately after the delivery of a dead baby who exhibited visible birth defects. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? a. Discourage the parents from naming the baby. b. Advise the parents that the baby's defects would be too upsetting for them to see. c. Transport the baby to the morgue as soon as possible. d. Give the parents a lock of the baby's hair and a copy of the footprint sheet.
d
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with severe preeclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Select all nursing interventions that apply in the care for the client. a. Monitor maternal vital signs every 2 hours. b. Notify the physician if the respirations are less than 18/minute. c. Monitor renal function and cardiac function closely d. Keep calcium gluconate on hand in case of overdose. e. Monitor deep tendon reflexes hourly. f. Notify the physician if urinary output is less than 30 mL/hour.
d, c, e, f
How long does lochia rubra last?
day 1 to day 3
How long does lochia alba last?
day 11 to week 6
what is chadwicks sign?
deepened violet bluish color of cervix and vaginal mucosa
what are the three positive signs of pregnancy?
fetal heart tones, visualization of fetus on US, fetal movement
what is primipara?
has completed one pregnancy to stage of viability
what is multipara?
has completed two or more pregnancies to stage of viability
What is gravidity?
number of pregnancies
what is hegars sign?
softening and compression of lower uterus
what is goodells sign?
softening of the cervical tip
what are 3 disadvantages of tubal ligation?
-anesthesia risks -irreversible -does not protect against STIs
what are 3 advantages of tubal ligation?
-permanent -can be done immediately after birth -sexual function unaffected
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold's maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow? a. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet. b. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part. c. Identify the attitude of the head. d. determine the location of the fetal back
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d
A couple is considered infertile after how many months of trying to conceive? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 12 months d. 18 months
12 months