MCAT 4.15

Weber's Law

predicts that the difference threshold, or the just-noticeable difference, will be a constant ratio of the original stimulus for all stimulus magnitudes

can enzymes bind to more than one substrate?

some enzymes bind to more than one substrate

The internal working model that sets expectations about self and others is an example of: An insight A critical period A cognitive schema A heuristic

A cognitive schema Schemas are knowledge structures that determine one's expectations in different context, including social interactions.

carbonic anhydrase

An enzyme present in erythrocytes (as well as in other places) that catalyzes the conversion of CO2 and H2O into carbonic acid (H2CO3). and ultimately H+ with HCO3

Michaelis-Menten Model

E + S -> ES (complex) -> E + P

What are the rules of VSEPR theory?

I. draw a dot structure to show valence electrons II. count the number of "electron clouds" surrounding the central atom III. predict the geometry of the electron clouds around the central atom IV. ignore any lone pairs and predict the geometry of the molecule/ion

blood pressure equation

Parteriol-Pvenous = (stroke volume x heart rate) x resistance delta P = Q x R

How can proteins be classified?

Peptide - chain of <50 amino acids Oligopeptide - chain of 20 amino acids

What is true about peptide bonds?

Peptide bonds are amide functional groups with a nitrogen bound to a carbonyl carbon

Average rate of reaction

The change in the concentration, mass or volume of the reactants or products over a period of time during the reaction.

lub (1st heart sound or S1)

The closing of the AV (tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral) valves creates this heart sound. the pulmonary and aortic valves just opened

hyperpolarization/inhibitory potential

The movement of the membrane potential of a cell away from rest potential in a more negative direction.

Heritability

The proportion of variation among individuals that we can attribute to genes. The heritability of a trait may vary, depending on the range of populations and environments studied. genetic variability / total variability think nature vs nurture

What is the function of the following brain regions? Parietal lobe Hippocampus Prefrontal cortex Amygdala

The primary function of the parietal lobe is the integration of sensory information The hippocampus is involved in memory and coding The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive functioning and decision making The amygdala is involved in emotional encoding

spacial summation

The summation of graded potentials from several sources in order to achieve threshold activation of an action potential

positive cooperative binding

The tendency of the protein subunits of hemoglobin to affect each other's oxygen binding such that each bound oxygen molecule increases the likelihood of further oxygen binding.

electric potential energy

U=qV

How did the denaturing agents used in Anfinseni's Experiment work?

Urea is used to break down the ionic bonds and non-covalent bonds such as hydrogen bonds that hold the secondary structure and parts of the tertiary structure together Beta-mercaptoethanol to break down the covalent bonds,--the disulfide bonds--that hold the secondary and some parts of the tertiary structure together. An oxidation-reduction reaction is used to break the disulfide bridges

Fischer projection of beta-D-glucose

When a molecules is depicted in the Fischer projection, all the groups on the right-hand side will be below the plan of the ring structure, and the groups on the left-hand side will be above the plane

reliability

a measure of the consistency with which a measuring device reports the same value for the same measured event

agonist

a molecule that, by binding to a receptor site, stimulates a response

temporal summation

adding together of graded potentials in time

oxidation reaction

an addition of oxygen

homotropic inhibitor

an allosteric regulator that is also the substrate for a given enzyme

heterotropic inhibitor

an allosteric regulator that is not the substrate for a given enzyme

What is stasis?

backflow of urine in the ureter or in the kidney leads to increased risk of infection women also tend to have more urinary tract infections because they have a shorter urethra.

antagonist

binds to receptor and blocks it from binding the ligand, rendering it non-functional

Mysophobia

fear of dirt and germs

What happens during renal artery stenosis?

filtration decreases as the diameter of the afferent arterioles decreases and the diameter of the efferent arterioles increases

What are the functions of the 3 types of cells in the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus

granular cells - secrete proteolytic enzyme, renin; controls blood volume and pressure macula densa cells - found on proximal convoluted tubules; sense the concentration of NaCl in the distal convoluted tubule; stimulates granular cells to secrete renin agranular cells - function not yet known

juxtaglomerular apparatus

in the nephron, the complex of cells from the distal tubule and the afferent arteriole which helps regulate blood pressure by secreting renin in response to blood pressure changes in the kidney; located near the glomerulus

enzyme regulation

inhibitors attach by non-covalent bonds so can detach easily

Vmax

maximum initial velocity or rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.

dextrorotatory

molecules that rotates plane-polarized light in a clockwise direction (+)

inner hair cells

neurons in the cochlea; responsible for auditory transduction

incomplete regeneration

newly formed tissue is not identical in structure or function to the tissue that has been injured or lost

postive symptoms

not present in unaffected individuals, but present in affected individuals

emic approach

one that takes the interpretations of situations by the individuals under study as matters of fact

electric field lines

point in the direction of the electric field vector (away from positive, and towards negative)

reliabilty of a test

test-retest comparisons provide info about reliability

explicit memory

the act of consciously or intentionally retrieving past experiences

equilibrium potential for K+

the membrane reaches a voltage at which there is equilibrium between the concentration gradient that moves K+ out and the electrical gradient that moves K+ in -90 mV

Mead's theory of self

the perception of consciousness as an object develops over the course of childhood as the individual learns to take the point of view of specific others in specific contexts and eventually internalizes the generalized other

How does urine move through the kidneys?

the renal calyx (p. calyces) first part urine will be present the renal pelvis is where renal calyces collect together urine exits the kidneys through the ureter into the bladder

Active site of an enzyme

there are side chains that are catalytic and responsible for stabilizing the transition state the environment in the active site is often nonpolar, unless water is needed in the induced fit reaction

working memory

visuo-spatial sketchpad = mental rotation and navigation tasks phonological loop = verbal tasks episodic buffer = working with info from episodic memory central executive control all aforementioned processes

What is renal clearance?

volume of plasma cleared of a particular substance in a given time

Why is binding energy needed to separate nucleons (subatomic particles in the nucleus)?

Nuclear strong forces are stronger than electrostatic forces and acts over short distances

How does the neutron to proton ratio indicate stability in atoms?

Nuclei that have a small number of protons (z < 20) have stable nuclei when the n/z ratio is 1

What connects the renal artery and vein in the kidney?

The kidney has 2 capillary beds (called portal system) to work together vasa recta brings oxygen to the kidneys peritubular capillaries collect nutrients that the kidneys will filter

What molecules participate in hydrogen bonding?

Hydrogen bonds are formed between electronegative atoms (F, O, and N), and a hydrogen atom that is covalently bound to an electronegative atom.

Hydrolysis

Hydrolysis is energetically favorable so it is spontaneous but it's extremely low under physiological conditions so it catalyzed by peptidases or proteases that decrease the energy barrier of the reaction Can occur by proteolysis which involves specific cleaving by proteins that cut cleave peptide bonds between certain amino acids - ie. trypsin Acid hydrolysis is a nonspecific way of hydrolysis that involves increasing heat

Traumatic brain injury (TBI) can negatively affect upper motor neuron control. Which of the following is an upper motor neuron sign (an indication of damage to upper motor neurons)? Hyporeflexia Hypotonia Hypertrophy Muscle atrophy

Hypertrophy Damage to lower motor neurons tends to result in atrophy, hypotonia, and hyporeflexia. Upper motor, neuron signs include muscle, hypertrophy, hyperreflexia, and hypertonia.

irreversible inhibitors

chemically and covalently bind to active site; rendering it permanently inactive

Reaction Quotient for: aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD

Q = [C]^c[D]^d/[A]^a[B]^b Q does not refer to equilibrium concentrations while K does If Q = K, the reaction is at equilibrium (ΔG = 0). If Q > K, the reactants are favored. If Q < K, the products are favored

A student remembers that carbocations can be stabilized by moving double bonds. Which term properly describes this stabilizing property of multiple resonance structures? allylic carbon inducibility connectivity conjugation

conjugation Conjugation allows for the delocalization of charges by allowing a pi bond to exist between adjacent carbons

right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid valve)

connects right atrium to right ventricle closes during contraction of the right ventricle

pulmonary valve

connects right ventricle to pulmonary artery opens during the contraction of the right ventricle to allow blood to flow to the lungs

left atrioventricular (bicuspid, mitral) valve

connects the left atrium and left ventricle closes during contraction of left ventricle

aortic valve

connects the left ventricle to the aorta opens during contraction of left ventricle

five-factor model (Big Five)

conscientiousness agreeableness neuroticism openness to experience extroversion think CANOE

Where does a VSD most commonly occur?

interventricular septum = the wall between the ventricles - membranous - muscular VSD - ventricular septal defect is more common in the membranous part of the interventricular septum

frameshift mutation

involves the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in the DNA sequence

When other biomolecules are unavailable, acetoacetic acid can be used as a fuel source in all of the following organs EXCEPT the: heart liver brain muscles

liver Acetoacetic acid is a ketone body. Ketone bodies can be used as fuel in the brain, the heart, and muscles, but they cannot be used in the liver because it lacks the necessary enzymes to convert ketone bodies to ATP. This is because ketone bodies are produced in the liver when blood glucose is low

order of early developmental milestones during embryogenesis

morula -> blastula -> gastrula After the first cell divisions occur, the embryo consists of a solid ball of cells known as a morula. Then a hollow center forms, creating the blastula. Finally, as the cells begin to differentiate into the three germ layers, the embryo is considered a gastrula.

coenzymes

organic molecules that are required by an anzyme to function, but are not covalently bound they are differentiated from prosthetic groups because they are loosely bound to the enzyme, whereas prosthetic groups are tightly bound

rate constant, rate law

to increase the rate of a reaction, an enzyme must increase the rate constant k

magnitude of electric field

E=kq/r^2

Name the interactions between polypeptides in the quaternary structure

Polypeptide chains are held together by disulfide bridges, van der Waals forces, ionic bonds, and disulfide bonds

steric number (SN)

# of atoms bonded to central atom + # of lone pairs on central atom

capacitance

# of ions that can be stored along the membrane less charge is stored at the myelin sheaths

What is the equation that represents an isoelectric point?

(pKa1 + pKa2) / 2 = pI the pKa's of the amino acids that correspond to the ionic and neutral forms need to be known in order to determine which pka's to plug into the equation

What is the rate of blood filtration through the renal capsule (glomerular filtration rate)?

125 mL/min

regulation of phosphorylation

- net negative charge - hydrogen bond properties - kinetics is adjustable - abundancy of ATP - amplification of effects - releases large amount of free energy - phosphorylation is reversible

Eysenck's concept of personality

-Theory proposes that extraversion, neuroticism, and or psychoticism (superego traits) are from biological basis think PEN

Kohlberg's Heinz Dilemma

-a scenario that is often discussed in the context of determining in which of Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning an individual might be.

Lineweaver-Burk Plot

-double reciprocal of michaelis menten -x int: is -1/Km -y int: 1/vmax

dielectric material

-insulator (air, glass, plastic) -introduced b/w the plates of a capacitor - increases capacitance by a factor called dielectric constant (k)

A metal surface has a work function of 7.05 x 10^-19J. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 500nm and is projected on the surface for three hours. How many electrons will be ejected from the surface during the three hours the light is projected? 360 0 120 60

0 E = hc/ lambda E = (6.626 x 10^-34 Js)(3.000 x 10^8 m/s) / 500 x 10^-9 m E = 3.98 x 10^-19 J The photoelectric effect refers to the omission of electrons from the metal surface when the surface is struck by a photon with energy higher than the work function of the metal. Here, the energy of the incident photon is less than that of the work function, meaning that no electrons will be ejected. A photon with energy less than that of the work function will never eject electrons .

When is ADH released?

1. solute concentration in blood increases (increased blood concentration/osmolarity)* 2. blood volume decreases 3. decrease in blood pressure detected by baroreceptors in aortic arch and carotid arteries 4. presence of angiotensin II

Distance Formula

1/2at^2 assuming initial position and velocity = 0

What is the renal clearance for a substance that is freely filtered, fully reabsorbed, and not secreted?

125mL/min will be filtered back into the body the filtrate (urine) will contain none of this substance the renal clearance will be 0 mL/min ie. glucose and amino acids

What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy level? 12 14 10 32

14 The principal quantum number (n) represents the main energy level the electron is found in. In this case the value of n is 4. The Azimuthal Quantum Number (l) represents the shape of the subshell the electron is found in. The possible values for l are (n-1). For n = 4, l values can be 0, 1, and 2, and 3. However, since the l value is 3, it is referring to the f subshell. For any f subshell, the number of orbitals is 7. Each orbital has 2 electrons. Therefore, the maximum number of electrons that can be found in a 4f subshell is 14

What is the conversion from m^3 to cm^3

1m^3 = 100cm^3

acetyl CoA and succinyl CoA

2 carbons and 3 carbons

blood osmolarity

285-295 mOsm/kg CV: <265 or >320 gives information about fluid and electrolyte balance in the blood

Zwitterions are amphoteric, meaning that they can act as both acids and bases. At what pH are amino acids predominantly in their Zwitterion form? 2<pH<9 8<pH<12 1<pH<4 pH = 7

2<pH<9 Zwitterions are dipolar molecules, meaning they possess both a positive and a negative charge. They do not necessarily have a net neutral charge. The pKa of an amino acid's carboxyl terminus is ~2, at which point the carboxylic acid is deprotonated and left with a negative charge. The amino terminus remains positively charged until its pKa at pH ~9.10. Therefore, between pH=2 and pH=9, amino acids are usually found with a negatively charged carboxyl terminus and a positively charged amino terminus, making them Zwitterions

What are the 3 layers of the heart?

3 layers: endocardium - holds ventricles and atriums myocardium - contractile muscle; energy use pericardium - has an inner layer and an outer layer; between there is a little fluid, not cells - visceral/epicardium pericardium = inner gap - parietal pericardium = outer gap - pericardial cavity = in between visceral and pericardial; lubricate the heart as it contracts

According to Bohr model of the atom, the radius of an electrons orbit is proportional to n^2. What is the ratio of the n =2 and n=3 radii, according to this model? 2/3 3/2 4/9 9/4

4/9 The Bohr model predict electron radius to be equal to r x n^2 where n is the quantum number and are is the Bohr radius (5.3 x 10^-11). In the ratio between radii, r will cancel out, giving us 2^2 / 3^2

pyranose

A six-membered ring sugar ie. glucose

parasomnia

A sleep disorder characterized by abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep

What is a solvation shell?

A solvation shell describes a layer of solvent around a protein that can encourage folding to a specific conformation

furanose

A five-membered ring sugar ie. fructose

beta glycosidic linkage

A linkage between two monosaccharides where the linkage occurs above the molecules. It is indigestible by most organisms.

alpha glycosidic linkage

A linkage between two monosaccharides where the linkage occurs below the molecules. It is indigestible by most organisms.

psychoanalytic theory

A theory developed by Freud that attempts to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by focusing on unconscious determinants of behavior it focuses on childhood experiences and repressed deisires

An astronomer is observing the emission spectrum of a star to see what gases it contains. What does an emission spectrum look like? A continuous spectrum with dark lines at wavelengths where a gas emits light A non-continuous spectrum with bright lines at wavelengths where a gas emits light A non-continuous spectrum with bright lines at wavelengths where a gas absorbs light A continuous spectrum with ddark lines at wavelengths where a gas absorbs light

A non-continuous spectrum with bright lines at wavelengths where a gas emits light The emitted light comes from transitions between energy levels in the atom. The energy levels are quantized, meaning only certain wavelengths of light are emitted. This leads to a spectrum that only has a few bright lines where light is emitted (non-continuous)

test charge

A particle (designated q) with either a positive or negative charge set down within an electric field generated by a point charge

Provide an explanation for the following terms of operant conditioning Positive reinforcer Negative reinforcer Positive punisher Negative punisher

A positive reinforcer increases the frequency of the preceding behavior by introducing and appetitive stimulus A negative reinforcer increases the frequency of the preceding behavior by removing an aversive stimulus A positive punisher decreases the frequency of the proceeding behavior by introducing an aversive stimulus A negative punisher decreases the frequency of the proceeding behavior by removing an appetitive stimulus in

Where X represents the conjugate base, which of the acids listed is expected to have the weakest H-X bond? A)Acid A, pKa = 4.10 B)Acid B, pKa = 4.75 C)Acid C, pKb = 9.63 D)Acid D, pKb = 10.90

Acid D, pKb = 10.90 The stronger the bond is between an acidic hydrogen and its conjugate base, the weaker that acid will be. Strong acids are expected to have relatively weaker H-X bonds (smaller bond dissociation energies) than weaker acids (larger bond dissociation energies). A strong acid is defined by the extent to which it dissociates in water. The relationship between Ka and Kb is defined by the dissociation of water: Kw = 1 x 10^14 = KaKb pKw = 14 = pKa + pKb the pKb values given in the answer choices can be converted to pKa values for direct comparison

Regarding the innervation of the lungs, there are two main types of receptors: beta-2 adrenergic receptors (B2) and muscarinic receptors (M). Suppose an individual on a hike encountered a bear. How would this affect lung physiology? Activation of M receptors, causing bronchoconstriction Inhibition of M receptors, causing bronchoconstriction Inhibition of B2 receptors, causing bronchodilation Activation of B2 receptors, causing bronchodilation

Activation of B2 receptors, causing bronchodilation Recall that adrenergic receptors are a part of the sympathetic nervous system, and that muscarinic receptors are part of the parasympathetic nervous system. Also, recall that activation of the sympathetic nervous system occurs during stressful fight or flight events, such as encountering a bear on a hike. The activation of the parasympathetic nervous system occurs when the body is at rest. If an individual encountered a bear on a hike, they would likely become stressed, and their sympathetic nervous system would be activated. Because B2 receptors are adrenergic, they would be activated, as they are part of the sympathetic nervous system. Bronchodilation is the dilation of the airways, which makes breathing easier. It makes sense that sympathetic stimulation would activate bronchodilation, as an individual in a stressful situation, may need to breathe more easily in order to respond to the cause of the stressful situation.

For the successful completion of a neural reflex, there are neurons that relay information into the spinal cord and neurons that send information from the spinal cord to target destinations in the body. What is the name of the neurons that relate information into the spinal cord, and the name of neurons that send information from the spinal cord, respectively? Dorsal neurons and afferent neurons Afferent neurons and efferent neurons Efferent neurons and afferent neurons Dorsal neurons and efferent neurons

Afferent neurons and efferent neurons Neurons going into the spinal cord, are termed, afferent, neurons, and nerves exiting the spinal cord are termed, efferent neurons. A mnemonic to remember this is that exit and efferent both start with E

Which condition provides the best example of medicalization? Cancer Diabetes Alcoholism Hypertension

Alcoholism Medicalization refers to the re-categorization of a condition as a medical problem that requires diagnosis and treatment by medical experts. Alcoholism provides a classic case of medicalization, as alcohol abuse has transitioned from what was once considered a problem of individual moral character to being considered a treatable medical condition today .

Niels Bohr conducted an experiment to deduce the quantized nature of Hydrogen's energy levels. In this experiment, a white light is shined through a sample of Hydrogen gas. The light then goes through a prism that separates the various wavelengths of light. What will be observed in the screen? An emission spectrum with dark lines where Hydrogen is emitting light An absorption spectrum with bright lines where Hydrogen is absorbing light An absorption spectrum with dark lines where Hydrogen is absorbing light An emission spectrum with bright lines where Hydrogen is emitting light

An absorption spectrum with dark lines where Hydrogen is absorbing light In this experiment, the light is being shined through the Hydrogen sample. Specific wavelengths of light then get absorbed as they travel through the sample, and the unabsorbed light will be refracted (separated by wavelength) by the prism and be visible on the screen. Dark lines will appear at the places where the absorbed wavelengths' light would have been. Emission would give the opposite result. For emission, we would run a current through the Hydrogen gas, which would excite the Hydrogen. It would fall back down to the ground state and emit a light of specific wavelengths, with most of the wavelengths of visible light not appearing on the screen

Identify the term that is correctly defined? A peptide is any structure containing amide bonds An oligopeptide is composed of 2 to 20 amino acid residues A protein is a long, unbranched chain of amino acids

An oligopeptide is composed of 2 to 20 amino acid residues Oligo means few, so an oligopeptide is a peptide composed of a few amino acid residues. Peptide is a general term that refers to a short amino acid chain with up to 50 amino acid residues that are connected to each other by amide bonds. A peptide is a structure consisting of up to 50 amino acid residues A protein is a functional macro molecule containing one or more polypeptide chains A polypeptide is a long, and branch chain that is longer than an oligopeptide

What are the intracellular ion concentrations of K+ and Na+ for a resting neuron?

At rest, the concentration of K+ is much higher inside the cell, while the concentration of Na+ is much higher outside the cell. These gradients are maintained by the sodium potassium pump, which uses ATP to move Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.

What are beta sheets?

Beta sheets are formed by beta strands which are seconds of a peptide chain that line up next to each other in a parallel or antiparallel orientation H-bonds between carbonyl oxygen on one strand and an amino hydrogen on the other strand

What parts of the kidney are in the renal cortex?

Bowman's capsule proximal convoluted tubule distal convoluted tubule glomerulus

Serum albumin is produced by the liver to maintain blood osmolarity. Low albumin levels can stem from proteins in both the liver and the kidneys. Which part of the kidneys may be dysfunctional in a person with low albumin levels? afferent arterioles Bowman's capsule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubule

Bowman's capsule Filtration of blood occurs in the renal corpsucle. Hydrostatic pressure forces water, ions, amino acids, glucose, and other small molecules into Bowman's capsule. However, an endothelial-capsular filtration membrane keeps red blood cells, large-sized proteins, and medium-sized proteins out of the filtrate. Albumin is a large protein that should not pass through this membrane, but problems with the filtration involving Bowman's capsule could allow albumin to pass into the filtrate, Low albumin levels would thus be caused by albumin excretion into urine. While the proximal convoluted tubule absorbs glucose, amino acids, and other solutes, it will not have transporters for proteins like albumin because albumin should not be present in filtrate

A student has heard that carbon-14 is an unstable isotope, and will decay to form nitrogen-14, but is unsure how the atom's net charge changes during this beta decay. How does the carbon-14 atom's charge change in this process, if at all? A: the formerly neutral carbon-14 becomes an anion B: the formerly cationic carbon-14 becomes neutral C: the formerly neutral carbon-14 becomes a cation D: the neutral carbon-14 remains neutral

C: the formerly neutral carbon-14 becomes a cation Although carbon-14 is an unstable isotope and will decay, it is neutral before it decays. In a beta decay, a neutron becomes a proton as the neutron emits an electron. Because the negative electron is lost, the atom gains a +1 charge, becoming cationic

Of the following ions, which will have the smallest radius in a mass spectrometer Carbon - 12 nitrogen - 14 oxygen - 16 potassium- 19

Carbon-12 As the radius increases, mass increases

Carbon-12 and carbon-13 are both stable isotopes, whereas carbon-14 is not. Why is carbon-14 less stable, and what type of decay will it undergo? Carbon-14 has an N/Z ratio of 4/3, which is significantly greater than 1; it will undergo positron emission Carbon-14 has an N/Z ratio of 3/4, which is significantly less than 1; it will undergo positron mission Carbon-14 has an N/Z ratio of 4/3, which is significantly greater than 1; it will undergo beta decay Carbon-14 has an N/Z ratio of 3/4, which is significantly less than 1; it will undergo beta decay

Carbon-14 has an N/Z ratio of 4/3, which is significantly greater than 1; it will undergo beta decay Nuclei with an N/Z ratio greater than 1 can undergo beta decay. Through beta decay, a neutron emits an electron, and the neutron becomes a proton. This will cause N to decrease and Z to increase, resulting in an N/Z ratio closer to 1 Nuclei with N/Z less than 1 undergo positron emission. Through positron emission, a proton emits a positron, and the proton becomes a neutron. This will cause N to increase and Z to decrease, resulting in an N/Z ratio closer to 1

What structural feature(s) is(are) most important to the functioning of a detergent? Specific configuration of numerous chirality centers Multiple hydrolysable linkages Combination of large hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions Presence of reducing sugar

Combination of large hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions The combination of large hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions allows detergents to function in liberating a protein from a membrane so that it might be isolated

bacterial conjugation

Conjugation can only occur from an F+ cell (with mobile plasmids) to an F- cell

Contraction of the diaphragm results in: Decreased intrathoracic, pressure and inhalation Decreased intrathoracic, pressure and exhalation Increased intrathoracic, pressure and inhalation Increased intrathoracic, pressure and exhalation

Decreased intrathoracic, pressure and inhalation Diaphragm contraction result in increased thoracic, volume and reduced intrathoracic pressure, which causes inhalation

A fossil is known to be 7,400 years old. If the fossil started with 30g of carbon-14, how much nitrogen-14 is present? (half life of 5,730 years) A: 12 B: 7 C: 23 D:18

D:18 Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years, during which half of the carbon-14 in a sample becomes nitrogen-14. This means after 5370 years, there will be 15g of carbon left, and 15g of nitrogen. After 11640 years, there will be 7.5g of carbon left and 22.5g of nitrogen 7400 years is between 1 and 2 half-lives, so there will be between 15g and 22.5g of nitrogen. This makes 18g the best answer

Due to the assertion that the look on varmint, influences adolescents' norms and values, the ecological perspective is most similar to which sociological theory? Social strain theory Disengagement theory Differential association theory Labeling theory

Differential association theory Differential association theory focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment. The ecological perspective focuses on the risk factors in an adolescents local environment. Therefore, both approaches focus on how an individuals social environment might impact their norms and values. Strain theory describes how people react to social constraints to achieving goals. Disengagement theory describes how old are people disengage from society. Labeling theory specifically focuses on how deviant behaviors in the past have long-term stigmatizing impacts on individuals.

The resting potential of a neuron is primarily a result of the: Release of Neuro transmitters from the axon Distribution of ions across the plasma cell membrane Action of Neuro transmitters on the postsynaptic receptor Active transport of Ca^2+ ions across the plasma cell membrane

Distribution of ions across the plasma cell membrane Membrane potential refers to the difference in charge distribution on opposing sides of a cell membrane. Within a neuron, the resting potential is determined by the normal, uneven distribution of ions between the outside, and the inside of a cell.

Why is cysteine spelled with an e in the reduced form and spelled cystine in the oxidized form?

Disulfide bridges are from from a reducing to an oxidizing reaction between cysteine residues in a polypeptide chain. The extra cellular space is an oxidizing environment so will favor the formation of disulfide bridges. The intracelular space is a reducing environment so disulfide bridges do not form. Antioxidants are present inside the cell and prevent any oxiding reactions

What happens during alpha decay, beta decay, positron emission, electron capture, and gamma decay?

During alpha decay, a helium atom is ejected from an unstable atom. A helium atom has 2 neutrons and 2 protons. During beta decay, an electron is ejected from an unstable atom. A neutron is converted to a proton by releasing an electron During positron emission, a positron can be ejected that has a +1 charge and is also not a nucleon. A proton is converted to a neutron by releasing a positive charge During electron capture, an atom takes in an electron and combines it with one of the protons found in the nucleus to to form a neutron. An electron and a proton are destroyed but a neutron is created. Gamma radiation is released During gamma decay, a gamma ray is ejected from an unstable atom. A gamma ray has no charge and is not a nucleon. It decays an element into its ground state

Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom explains the different atomic emission spectrum lines. Lyman, Balmer, and Paschen series are all groups of emission lines based on this model. How do these three series differ? Each series specifies the wavelength emitted when electron drops down a specific number of orbitals, decreasing by exactly one, two, or three orbitals, respectively Each series specifies the wavelength emitted when an electron drops down a specific number of orbitals, decreasing by exactly 2, three, or four orbitals, respectively Each series specifies the wave lengths emitted when an electron drops from a higher energy level to the second, third, and fourth energy level, respectively Each series specifies the wave lengths emitted when an electron drops from higher energy levels to the first, second, and third energy level, respectively

Each series specifies the wave lengths emitted when an electron drops from higher energy levels to the first, second, and third energy level, respectively The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains lines that show which wave links will be emitted by the hydrogens electron when it transitions from higher to lower energy levels. These are categorized into different series, based on which energy level the electron is falling to: the Lyman series is when the electrons energy level falls to n=1, the Balmer series is when the electrons energy levels fall to n=2, and the Paschen series is when the electrons energy level falls to n=3

What is electric force?

Electric force = [kq(1)q(2)] / r^2 = ma(c), where k is 9 x 10^9 , and q(1) is the elemental charge of a proton which is the same as that of an electron and represented by 1.6 x 10^-19 Coulombs or J/eV r(n) = n^2 x r(1), where r is the radius of the energy state/shell and n is the integer of excitation of an electron The mass of an electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg

Define electric potential energy

Electric potential energy = [q(1) x q(2)] / 4pi x E(initial) x r, where r is a certain distance of an electron from the nucleus In the ground state, an electron has negative electric potential energy

How can you use VSEPR to predict the shape of a molecule?

Electron clouds are furthest apart when they point in opposite directions so the configuration will be linear and 180º

Bohr model electron energy levels can be described by E(n) = E(1) / n^2, where E, is the energy of an electron in the n=1 level. As n increases, what happens to the energy of the electron? Electron energy increases since is E(1) negative Electron energy decreases since E(1) is positive Electron energy increases since E(1) is positive Electron energy decreases since E(1) is negative

Electron energy increases since is E(1) negative E(1) Is negative because electrons have a negative potential energy when they are around the nucleus (it takes energy to remove them). Because E(1) is negative, as n increases, the value of E(n) becomes a smaller negative number, signifying an increase in energy.

Km

substrate concentration at 1/2 Vmax measures how readily an enzyme interacts with its substrate

A major obstacle to obtaining useful energy from a nuclear fusion reactor is containment of the fuel at the very high temperatures required for fusion. The reason such high temperatures are required is to: Eliminate the strong nuclear force Remove electrical charge from reactants Decrease the density of the fuel Enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force

Enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force The probability of fusion increases with the decrease in the average distance between fuel particles that enables attractive nuclear forces to overcome the repelling nuclear forces acting at a medium and long distances. An increase in the temperature is equivalent to an increase in the root-mean-square speed of the fuel particles that will travel the average distance between fuel reactants in smaller times. The associated increase in the kinetic energy of the particles relative to the center of mass of the nuclear fuel system essentially correlates with a decrease in the electrostatic potential barrier that repels particles of the same electric charge. In turn, this increases the probability to of particles to undergo the tunnel effect by penetrating the electrostatic barrier. These combined effects enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force

Which cells express digestive enzymes? Enterocytes of duodenal villi Epithelial cells of the colon lining Perinatal cells of the stomach lining Bile-producing hepatocytes of the liver

Enterocytes of duodenal villi Enterocytes are the intestinal cells that produce enzymes that digest disaccharide.

solubility product constant (Ksp)

Equals the product of the concentrations of the ions each raised to a power equal to the coefficient of the ion in the dissociation equation.

What are fibrous proteins?

Fibrous proteins play a structural role in the body ie. alpha keratin - these subunits consist of two polypeptides with right handed alpha helices that intertwine to form a left-handed supercoil called the alpha-coiled coil

When calculating the heat necessary for a phase change of a substance, what are the mathematical steps to take?

First find how much heat energy is needed to get to the boiling/freezing point, then find how much energy it takes to get the mass of that substance at the boiling point to change phase Q=mCΔT then Q=mL (where L is the latent heat of fusion or vaporization)

An emission spectrum has a line at 656nm that involves the n=2 and n=3 energy levels. The spectrum also has a line at 486nm. Which of the following is a possible transition for this line? From n=4 to n=2 From n=2 to n=4 From n=4 to n=3 From n=3 to n=4

From n=4 to n=2 The line at 656nm is part of the emission spectrum. This means light is being emitted from a hydrogen atom, or energy is being given off. This means the transition must be from a higher energy level to a lower energy level. n=3 has a higher energy than n=2, so it must be an n=3 to n=2 transition. The line at 486nm is still part of the emission spectrum, so it must also be from a higher to a lower energy level. A wave with a wavelength of 486nm is hiring energy than one with a 656nm wave length, so the energy difference must be greater than the n=3 to n=2 transition. n=4 to n=2 is the only transition with a greater energy difference listed that also represents emitting light

biological predispositions

Genetically programmed tendencies to acquire classically conditioned fear responses to potentially life-threatening stimuli

The Strecker synthesis is often conducted to produce racemic mixtures of methionine. Which of the following is not a starting component for the Strecker synthesis? Aldehyde and ketone Grignard Reagent Ammonia Potassium cyanide

Grignard Reagent The Strecker Synthesis is a preparation of alpha-aminonitriles, which are versatile intermediates for the synthesis of amino acids via hydrolysis for the nitrile Ammonia is used as the precursor for the amino group. Potassium cyanide is the precursor for the carboxylic aicd group. An aldehyde of ketone serves as a scaffold for the amino and carboxylic acid groups. The Grignard Reagent is the only thing listed not need for the Strecker Synthesis reaction.

When does an atom or nucleus decide to decay?

Half-life varies inversely with the decay constant "alpha" N = N(initial) x e^-"alpha" x t, where N is the number of unstable nuclei that have not decayed at time t and alpha is the decay constant t(1/2) = ln(2) / "alpha", where t(1/2) is half-life

How can you determine if a reaction is under kinetic or thermodynamic control?

High temperatures promote formation of the thermodynamic product, while low temperatures promote formation of the kinetic product. A reaction under kinetic control has a lower activation energy; for this reason, the reaction is bale to occur at low temperatures, however, a less stable product will form (kinetic product) A reaction under thermodynamic control will only occur at high temperatures; this allows for the formation of a lower energy, more stable product (thermodynamic product)

What are the properties of special amino acids?

Histidine has a pKa of 6.5 so it can stabilize and destabilize a substrate at the active site of a protein Proline has a side chain that forms an alkyl group with the second nitrogen of the amino group. It has a secondary alpha amino group. Proline introduces kinks in the alpha helix Glycine is achiral because it's R group is hydrogen. It also introduces kinks in the alpha helix Cysteines form disulfide bridges with interactions between its thiol.

Nerves and jacks are essential components of the nervous system. Which of the following about nerves and tracks are true? I. Both nerves and tracks are multiple neurons' axons bundled together. II. Nerves and tracks can contains sensory neurons or motor neurons. III. Nerves and tracks can only contains one type of information. I only II only I, II, and III I and II only

I and II only Both nerves and tracts are multiple neurons is axons bundled together. Nerves contains sensory neurons, motor, neurons, or a mix of the two, but only tracks can only carry one type of information.

Several quantum numbers are required to describe an electron in an atom. One of these is the principle quantum number. When the principle quantum number increases, which of the following is always true? I. the energy level increases II the average distance from the nucleus increases III. the angular momentum increases

I and II only Angular momentum is the second quantum number, represented by l. The greater n, the more possible values l can have and the larger maximum value l can have. However, l can still have a value of 0 at every level of n, so this does not l aways increase with increasing n.

Oleoresin capsicum is an ingredient used in bear mace. After this is sprayed in the face of a human, TRPV1 receptors in that individual become activated. If TRVP1 receptors are specific to nociceptors and thermoreceptors, which of the following sensations will the recipient experience as a result of these receptors becoming activated? I. Pain. II. Heat. III. Vibration. I, II, III I and II only II only I only

I and II only Nociceptors are involved in the sensation of pain while thermoreceptors are involved in the sensation of temperature. Mechanoreceptors are involved in the sensation of touch, pressure, and vibration.

Motor unit recruitment is the activation of additional mold or units to allow for greater force of contraction of the activated muscle. A group of scientist compares the frequency of neural input to the size of contractile force, and biceps muscles. Which of the following would contribute to a greater force of contraction? I. Higher frequency of action potentials. II. Larger motor unit. III. Higher type 2: type 1 muscle fiber ratio. I and II only I and III only I, II, and III II and III only

I, II, and III High frequency of action potentials will result in a stronger muscle contraction. A motor unit is a motor, neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers that it innervates. Therefore, a large motor unit is composed of a motor neuron with many skeletal muscle fibers. It makes sense that the larger the motor unit, the more skeletal muscle fibers there are, and the greater force of contraction.

An unspecified virus uses RNA as its genetic material. This viral RNA could possibly lead to the synthesis of which of the following? I. cDNA II. mRNA III. proteins II only I only I and III only I, II, and III

I, II, and III Viruses use a living host cell to replicate their own genetic material Retroviruses are a subtype of virus that use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to create a strand of cDNA from an mRNA template strand. The cDNA is then incorporated into the host cell's DNA, where it is eventually replicated. RNA viruses also use mRNA as a template strand. However, unlike retroviruses, RNA viruses use a host cell's machinery to carry out translation or RNA replication. This results in new proteins and mRNA respectively

Why is infrared radiation less likely to eject electrons from the middle surface than visible light? I. It has a higher wavelength than visible light. II. It has a lower frequency than visible light. III. It has lower energy than visible light.

I, II, and III Infrared radiation has a higher wavelength and visible light. Since frequency is directly proportional to energy and wavelength is inversely proportional to energy, infrared radiation will be less likely to eject electrons as it will have lower energy. Remember that a lower energy corresponds with a low frequency and a high wavelength.

What are the jobs of the heart?

I. systemic flow II pulmonary flow

Different thicknesses of axons and mileage sheets, cause different speeds at which neural information is transmitted. Order the following from the fastest to the slowest transmission of speed. I. Thick axon with myelin sheaths. II. Thin axon with myelin sheaths. III. Sin axon with no myelin sheath. Ii>I>III III>II>I II>III>I I>II>III

I>II>III The transmission of neural signals increases with increasing the thickness of axons. Additionally, myelin sheaths increase the speed of neural transmission by insulating axons.

Reflexes, such as the knee-jerk reflex, don't involve the cerebrum. Which of the following explains how one is aware of their reflexes? I. There is a need sense of knowing outside of the nervous system. II. The sensory neuron in the reflex also branches to go to the CNS; it just doesn't need the CNS input for the action to occur. III. There is other sensory information received once the reflex is occurring. I, II, and III III only II only II and III only

II and III only There are two ways that we are aware of our reflexes, the original sensory neuron in the reflex also sends a signal to the CNS, and once the reflex occurs, the sensory neurons in that area, send a signal to the CNS

Ejection fraction can be calculated by dividing stroke volume (the volume of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction) by end diastolic volume (the amount of blood in the heart's left ventricle before contraction). Which of the following would directly contribute to a decrease in an individual's ejection fraction? I. regurgitation of the tricuspid valve II. narrowing of the aortic valve III. hypertrophy of the left ventricle

II only The tricuspid valve is located on the right side of the heart, and so would not directly contribute to a change in ejection fraction If the aortic valve were to narrow, it would be more difficult for blood to leave the heart during systole, which would decrease stroke volume, effectively decreasing ejection fraction Hypertrophy or the enlargement of the left ventricle may actually increase rather than decrease ejection fraction by providing a stronger contractile force with which to pump blood out of the heart

A student is studying chirality. Which of the following will always prevent a molecule with chiral centers from being a chiral molecule I. having multiple chiral centers II. having a plane of symmetry in the molecule III. having the same 4 elements bound to different chiral centers

II only A molecule having an internal plane of symmetry means that any rotation of plane-polarized light would be cancelled out, leaving any molecule with an internal plane of symmetry achiral, even if it has chiral centers. The symmetry would cause the mirror image to be superimposable

Which of the following could be increased to increase the catalytic efficiency of enzymes? I. increase Km II increase Kcat III. increase Vo

II only The equation for enzymatic efficiency is Kcat / Km Therefore, in order to increase the catalytic efficiency of an enzyme, we could either increase its Kcat or decrease its Km. It is also helpful to remember that Kcat = Vmax / [E]

Which of the following factors always determines whether a synaptic transmission is excitatory or inhibitory? I. the location of the presynaptic neuron II. the neurotransmitter III. the type of neurotransmitter

III only Excitatory and inhibitory transmission happen all over the body, so the location of the presynaptic neuron does not determine the kind of message it sends While the identity of the neurotransmitter is important in determining an impulse's effect, some, like acetylcholine and dopamine can be both excitatory and inhibitory. Therefore, it is the type of neurotransmitter receptor that ultimately determines the effect of a transmission

Why is the electron configuration for Chromium [Ar]4s1 3d5 instead of [Ar]4s2 3d4?

In accordance with Hund's rule, it is more stable for all 3d orbitals and the 4s orbital to be half-filled than to completely fill the 4s orbital and leave on 3d orbital empty. In general, transition metals like Chromium will partially fill their highest s orbital if they are able to half-fill or completely fill their highest d orbital.

Describe the S and R configurations of the proteins

In determining the R and S configurations of amino acid side chains, the nitrogen in the amino group is normally labeled 1, the carbonyl carbon is labeled 2, the R group is labeled 3 because it is normally a carbon attached to another carbon, and the H is labeled 4 Majority of the L-isomers have the S configuration

Why are most peptide bonds found in the trans configuration?

In most cases, trans peptide bonds are energetically favorable than cis because there is no steric hindrance. Only the alpha carbon in between the amino and carboxyl groups of the joined amino acids can rotate because it is a single bond and not stabilized by resonance

Describe the interactions associated with the quaternary structure of a protein

In the quaternary structure, each polypeptide is called a subunit. ie. a group of 4 polypeptides would be termed "tetramer," any group of polypeptides more than 4 are termed "multimers."

An experimenter studying the photoelectric effect on a magnesium plate, wants to increase the number of electrons ejected from the metal surface in a given amount of time. Which of the following changes should he make to achieve this goal? Increase the wave length of photons Decrease the frequency of photons Increase the number of photons Increase the frequency of photons

Increase the number of photons Energy is directly proportional to frequency and inversely proportional to wave length. Increasing the frequency will increase the energy and therefore, the velocity of the ejected electrons will be greater. Whereas, increasing the wavelength would decrease the energy and the velocity of electrons. Both wavelength and frequency affect the velocity, but not the number of electrons ejected. In order to increase the number of electrons ejected, the experimenter has to increase the number of photons striking the surface

How can various factors affect the four levels of protein folding?

Increasing the temperature of a protein can destroy all levels of the protein accept the primary structure. If the pH of a protein is changed, the tertiary and quaternary structures are affected because the ionic bond formation is disrupted Chemical denaturing disrupt hydrogen bonds, so all levels of protein except the primary structure are affected Enzymes can break the peptide bonds between amino acids and are therefore the only mechanism by which a protein's primary structure can be affected

Which biochemical technique requires a pH gradient? Limited proteolysis Southern blotting Isoelectric focusing SDS-PAGE

Isoelectric focusing Isoelectric, focusing separates proteins based on their pIs. The technique uses an electric field and a pH gradient, which causes proteins to stop moving at a pH equal to their pI

A 34 year old man has had a series of brief relationships with several romantic partners, but has never established a close, intimate relationship with a partner. According to Ericksons theory of psychosocial development, which outcome best describes this example. Despair Isolation Role confusion Stagnation

Isolation The man is in the intimacy, versus isolation stage, and given his lack of success, and experiencing a close, intimate relationship, would be experiencing the outcome of isolation. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, despair is an outcome for the stage experienced in late adulthood. Role confusion is an outcome for the stage. Experienced by adolescence. Stagnation is an outcome for the stage experienced in middle adulthood And

One of the dangers of x-rays is that they can ionize atoms. X-rays have enough energy to ionize electrons from the inner core electrons of an atom. How would this affect the zeff of Argon (before a valance electron fills the hole left by the inner core electron)? It would increase by about 1 It cannot be determined It would stay the same It would decrease by about 1

It would increase by about 1 Effective nuclear charge (zeff) is the attraction experienced by an outer shell electron for the nucleus. It is the charge of the protons in the nucleus minus that of the inner core electrons (the electrons between the protons and the outer shell) If there is one less inner core electron, then the effective nuclear charge will increase by one

What is the photoelectric effect?

KE(photoelectron)= E(photon)-E(initial), where E(initial) represents the work function The work function represents how much energy you need to free an electron. If the energy of the photon is lower than the work function, you do not get the photoelectron. You have to have a high enough energy photon in order to produce a photoelectron E(photon) = hv = hc/"lambda", where h is Planck's constant valued at 6.626x10^-34 , and c is the speed of light valued at 2.998 x 10^8

When 656 nm light is absorbed by a hydrogen atom, an electron transitions from n =2 to n = 3. What occurs when the electron relaxes back down to the ground state? Light with a wavelength of 656 nm is absorbed Light with a wavelength of 656 nm is emitted Light with a wavelength of greater than 656 nm is emitted Light with a wavelength of less than 656 nm is emitted

Light with a wavelength of less than 656 nm is emitted The questions stem describes the transition of an electron from a low to high energy state. The transition back to the low energy ground state (n=1) is from n = 3 to n =1, and this releases a photon. That is a bigger difference than that between the aforementioned n =2 and n = 3, so the light emitted will be higher in energy. For waves, having a higher energy means having a shorter wavelength, so the light emitted will have a shorter wavelength.

Secondary structure

Local regions of protein folding Alpha helixes and beta pleated sheets are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino groups and carbonyl groups in the backbone of the amino acid chain Backbone interactions Amino hydrogen of one amino acid and carbonyl oxygen on an amino acid 4 residues down the chain Can be 4 to 40 amino acids long, on average 10 residues, and 3 helical turns

depolarization

Loss of a state of polarity; loss or reduction of negative membrane potential

The motor unit is a physiological structure that serves as the connection between the nervous and musculoskeletal systems. What are the components of a motor unit? Upper motor neuron, and all skeletal muscle cells that the upper motor neuron synapses on Upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron Upper motor, neuron, blower, motor, neuron, and all skeletal muscle cells that the lower motor neurons synapses on Lower motor neuron and all skeletal muscle cells that the lower motor neurons synapses on

Lower motor neuron and all skeletal muscle cells that the lower motor neurons synapses on The motor unit consists of one lower motor, neuron and all skeletal muscle cells that its axon terminals synapse on

What is the difference between the predicted mass and the actual mass of a nucleus?

Mass defect (in amu): converted into energy that is released when the nucleus is formed The energy lost (or the nuclear binding energy) can be calculated by E=mc^2, where E is in J, m is in kg, and c is in m/s 1 amu = 1.66054 x 10^-27 kg

Prostaglandins

Modified fatty acids that are produced by a wide range of cells and released locally. also considered paracrine hormones

People tend to form, social and romantic relationships with individuals that they see frequently. Which construct is most likely to explain this tendency? Looking-glass self Mere exposure effect Social comparison Social facilitation

Mere exposure effect Mere exposure effect refers to the preference for familiar stimuli over novel stimuli. When individuals develop a romantic attraction to people, they see frequently, this may be due to the mere exposure effect. Looking-glass effect refers to an individual basing, their sense of self, and how they think others perceive them. This tendency is associated with one's self-concept, rather than attraction to potential romantic partners . Social comparison occurs when individuals compare themselves favorably or unfavorably to their social contacts. Well, this phenomenon can impact ones self-esteem, it is not directly related to romantic attraction. Social facilitation occurs when the presence of an audience improves performance on a well practice task. This construct is not related to romantic attraction.

Vitamin B deficiencies can manifest in a variety of symptoms, including fatigue, depression, headaches, and inflammation. Vitamin B3 (niacin) is a precursor for ___ and vitamin B5 is a precursor for ___ inside the body. NAD; CoA CoA; FAD CoA; NAD NAD; FAD

NAD; CoA NAD is an electron carrier that is essential for glycolysis. Coenzyme A is also an essential biochemical molecule that carries carbon molecules to the TCA cycle during aerobic respiration. Vitamin B3 (niacin) is a precursor for NAD and vitamin B5 is a precursor for CoA inside the body

synaptic depolarization

Na into membrane: EPSP -more likely to cause postsynaptic action potential

A researcher investigates one mechanism of protein folding and solvation layer formation. The protein studies is rich in phenylalanine and leucine amino acids. When the protein is submerged in an aqueous solution, the water molecules in the solvation layer cannot form hydrogen bonds with the protein's side chain. What will most likely result from the occurrence of this phenomenon? Water molecules will form multiple solvation layers around the protein Nearby water molecules will rearrange themselves in order to maximize hydrogen bonding Nearby water molecules will rearrange themselves in order to minimize hydrogen bonding The water molecules rearrange and do not hydrogen bond with the protein's side chain

Nearby water molecules will rearrange themselves in order to maximize hydrogen bonding This phenomenon occurs because phenylalanine and leucine are both hydrophobic amino acids, and will therefore orient themselves towards the interior of the protein to avoid contact with water. At the same time, water molecules surrounding the protein will orient themselves to maximize contact with hydrophobic residues in order to maximize hydrogen bonding

Morphological changes associated with elevated stress or exercise are examples of: Lesions Maturation Neural transmission Neural plasticity

Neural plasticity Neural plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to modify itself, functionally, and structurally, in response to experience or injury. A lesion is an area of tissue that has been damaged via injury or illness. Maturation is the expected development associated with the gradual unfolding of one's genetic blueprint. Neural transmission refers to communication between neurons.

Explain protein directionality

New amino acids are added to the carbonyl chain An amino group is present at the start of a sequence (N-terminus)

In contrast to chemical messengers and classical endocrine, signaling systems, chemical messengers in paracrine and autocrine signaling systems are: Secreted by neurons only Not likely to bind cell receptors Usually transported by ducts Not transported by blood vessels

Not transported by blood vessels Endocrine signals are released into the blood in order to impact tissue scattered throughout the body. By contrast, paracrine and autocrine, chemical messengers act locally. Paracrine, chemical messengers, act on cells near the cell that secretes the messenger, and autocrine chemical messengers act on the same cell that secretes the messenger. Therefore, paracrine and autocrine factors, do not need to be taken up in the blood to act on distant tissues.

I ate postsynaptic cell has a resting membrane potential of -65mV with a threshold potential of -55mV. Will an action potential be generated by a single stimulus that lowers the membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell by 15 mV? Yes, because the stimulus caused the membrane potential to exceed the threshold potential No, because the stimulus hyperpolarized the membrane, producing an inhibitory effect Yes, because the stimulus had an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic membrane No, because the depolarizing effect of the stimulus did not exceed the threshold potential

No, because the stimulus hyperpolarized the membrane, producing an inhibitory effect In order for a postsynaptic cell to produce an action potential, its membrane potential must reach a threshold potential. In the describes cell, this requires a shift in membrane potential from -65mV (its resting membrane potential) to -55mV (its threshold potential). This will be achieved by a depolarizating stimulus, which increases membrane potential. However, the describe stimulus will hyperpolarize the membrane by shifting the membrane potential from -65mV to -80mV. The resulting hyperpolarization is associated with inhibition of the postsynaptic cell and an inability of the cell to generate an action potential.

How are nonbonding electrons positioned in trigonal planar VSEPR arrangments?

Non-bonding pairs of electrons are placed in equatorial positions of trigonal bypyramids to minimize electron pair repulsion

Alpha 1 receptors are commonly found on arterials and responds strongly to sympathetic stimulation. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely to bind to an alpha 1 receptor? Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Dopamine Histamine

Norepinephrine Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by the sympathetic nervous system, while acetylcholine is released by the parasympathetic nervous system. Because alpha-1 receptors respond to sympathetic stimulation, they are more likely to bind norepinephrine than the neurotransmitters in the other answer choices.

If a researcher defined the concept of religiosity as the frequency of individual engages, in religious meetings, rituals, or practices, the researcher has created a(n): Hypothetical definition Conceptual definition Thematic definition Operational definition

Operational definition Operationalization refers to have an abstract concept as a variable is observed through different measurements. The use of different measurements, such as the frequency of attending religious rituals, is the operationalize the abstract concept of religiosity. A hypothesis require is the definition of the expected relationship between two or more variables. Conceptualization refers to the stage in a study where the researcher describes the social dynamics related to a concept. A Research theme refers to the larger area of research for a study.

Magnetic resonance imaging MRI is a noninvasive test that can produce detailed images of the brain and spinal cord. Using an MRI, physician would be able to see gray matter in which parts of the brain and spinal cord, respectively? Outside, outside Inside, outside Outside, inside Inside, inside

Outside, inside The brain contains gray matter on his outside and white matter inside of it. The spinal cord nerve is the reverse, with a gray matter on the inside and white matter on the outside.

Which molecule is not formed during the steps of glycolysis? Fructose 6-phosphate Oxaloacetate Pyruvate 2-phosphoglycerate

Oxaloacetate Oxaloacetate is formed during the citric acid cycle

point charge

Point charges undergo uniform circular motion in a uniform electric field

What makes peptide bonds so stable?

Peptide bonds cannot rotate because of its resonance structures Participates in a covalent bond Primary structure is resistant to external pressures

How are prions formed and transmitted?

Prions are formed when mutations take place, misfolding of proteins can occur. If a protein that normally has more alpha helices than beta sheets is mutated to have a high content of beta-pleated sheets, protein aggregates can form with beta sheets of other infectious proteins --> amyloid fibers. However, the mechanism by which a normal protein is infected by a misfolded protein is still unclear

What makes proline unique?

Proline is rarely found in alpha helices because it causes a kink in the amino acid chain. It is found at the turn of beta-pleated sheets

Which proton is most acidic?

Protons on the alpha carbon adjacent to a carbonyl exhibit a dramatic increase in acidity. This is due mostly to resonance in the conjugate base, which stabilizes the carbanion formed by the abstraction of the proton. The more effective the resonance stabilization, the stronger the acidity of the original proton.

What function group transformation occurs in the product of the reaction catalyzed by Na+-NQR? RC(=O)R —> RCH(OH)R ROPO3^2- —> ROH + Pi RC(=O)NHR' —> RCOOH + R'NH2 RC(=O)OR' —> RCOOH + R'OH

RC(=O)R —> RCH(OH)R This is the two-electron reduction of a ketone to an alcohol, which is the reaction catalyzed by Na+-NQR The other reactions are catalyzed by phosphatase, protease, or amities, or an esterase, respectively

Provided description for the following defense mechanisms Projection Rationalization Reaction formation Emotional displacement

Reaction formation Reaction formation involves minimizing uncomfortable thoughts or emotions by overemphasizing their opposite. Projection occurs when someone attributes unacceptable thoughts or behaviors within themselves to another person. Rationalization involves creating a seemingly logical explanation for otherwise unacceptable behavior. Emotional displacement involves shifting the focus of emotion from a less to more acceptable target.

What are resonance forms?

Resonance forms are the different combinations of possible Lewis structures. Only electrons are moved. Atoms are never moved. Resonance forms exist in a combination of all forms. Stable resonance forms contribute most to the final Lewis dot structure of the molecule

How much energy is needed to separate the subatomic particles of an atom?

Rest mass energy + binding energy = sum individual of energies of subatomic particles m(atom) x c^2 + binding energy = [2 x m(proton) x c^2] + [2 x m(electron) x c^2] + [2 x m(neutron) x c^2] NOTE: this is an endothermic process and rest mass energy is represented by E=mc^2

What are the violations of central dogma?

Reverse transcription - making DNA from an RNA template Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that generates complementary DNA (cDNA) - ie. HIV retroviruses RNA viruses have their genetic info stored as RNA. Their entire genome can used my host cell machinery as if it was mRNA so it is directly translated into protein or it can serve as a template strand for another RNA strand that is then translated into protein Non-coding RNA (ncRNA) - a functional molecule that's skips the last step of being translated into a protein and can directly perform functions within the cell as an RNA molecule (ie. tRNA and rRNA Epigenetics - the study of heritable changes in gene activity that are not caused by changes in DNA sequence - the same DNA sequence can be modified, resulting in a different phenotype without changes to the underlying sequence - DNA methylation and his tone modification

When caring for a family member with advanced cancer, caregivers are often faced with the demands of completing many tasks for the patient while maintaining employment and other personal responsibilities. This situation describes which role dynamic? Role conflict Role adjustment Role strain Role engulfment

Role conflict Role conflict occurs when the separate rules that an individual occupies come into conflict. Role adjustment refers to the process of an individual taking up a new social role. Role strain refers to the stress an individual experiences due to the competing demands within the same social role. Role engulfment would have occurred if the care role was a dominant sense of identity

Weber's, characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy suggest that most formal organizations will: Train employees to conduct a variety of tasks Select employees based on technical qualifications Require employees to seek consensus and decisions Evaluate employees based on individualized criteria

Select employees based on technical qualifications Employment in a formal organization is based on technical qualifications; therefore, this option is consistent with the characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy. According to weber's conceptualization of ideal bureaucracy, a formal organization requires specialization in a limited number of tasks. Decisions in ideal bureaucracies are based on an organizational hierarchy. Evaluation of performance and skills and ideal bureaucracies are based on standardized rules and procedures.

The categorization aspect of the cognitive functioning assessment involves which type of memory? Sensory memory Short term memory Episodic memory Semantic memory

Semantic memory Semantic memory is memory for facts and knowledge. Sensory memory is the system of memory which preserved information in its original sensory form, typically only for a fraction of a second information is only maintained in short term memory for approximately 20 seconds, unless it is actively rehearsed. Episodic memory is long term memory for personally experienced events.

Motor units are not all the same size, meaning that they don't all have the same number of muscle cells per unit. Which muscles, smaller, or larger, will have smaller motor units and why? Large muscles, to allow for more precise, muscular control. Large muscles, to produce a greater contractile force Smaller muscles, to produce greater contractile force Smaller muscles, to allow for more precise, muscular control

Smaller muscles, to allow for more precise, muscular control Smaller muscles typically have smaller motor units (less fibers controlled by each neuron) in order to execute more precise movements, such as those of the muscles controlling the eyeballs

Ganglia are structures in the peripheral nervous system. What is a ganglion made of? Dendrites of neurons Somas of neurons Complete neurons Axons of neurons

Somas of neurons Ganglia are structures that are made up of the Solmaz of neurons

The muscle stretch reflex contains multiple neuronal components. Which of the following correctly describes a neuron found in a muscle spindle? Somatosensory, efferent Motor, efferent Somatosensory, afferent Motor, afferent

Somatosensory, afferent The muscle spindle is a group of proprioceptor's that detect changes in the length of a muscle. Because they relay sensations detected in the periphery, they are categorized as somatosensory neurons. Because they bring sensory information from the outside world into the nervous system, they are defined as afferent. Motor neurons transmit information from the nervous system to muscles in order to control movement. Efferent neurons are responsible for releasing signals from the nervous system in order to carry out an action.

conformational isomers

Stereoisomers that differ by rotation about one or more single bonds, usually represented using Newman projections.

Steric hindrance is an example of what type of interaction? Intermolecular Steric hindrance is an neither intramolecular nor an intermolecular interaction Steric hindrance can be both an intermolecular or an intramolecular interaction Intramolecular

Steric hindrance can be both an intermolecular or an intramolecular interaction Steric hindrance describes the increase in energy caused by atoms coming close together Steric hindrance can be manifested in orgo rxns, where it may cause one rxn to proceed over another (ie. elimination vs substitution) OR within a single molecule to determine the most stable conformer (ie. Newman projections)

movement of sulfur through viruses

Sulfur is incorporated into viral protein, orimarily the protein coat. It will not be incorporated into iral nucelic acid, which contains no sulfur. WHen bacreriophage viruses infect cells, the protein coat remains outisde the cell and the viral nucleic acids are injected into the cell. The radioactivity would be recovered from the protein coat, outside the cell, and not inside the cell

How does the tertiary structure form?

Tertiary structure results from side chain interactions Secondary structure results from the backbone of the amino acid chain Interactions of the tertiary structure: - Ionic bonds between two charged, polar amino acids - Tendency of nonpolar amino acids to group together - hydrophobic interactions - Covalent bonds - disulfide bonds created by an oxidation reaction. ie. in the lab, reducing agents like beta-mercaptoethanol are used to do this. these are the strongest interactions because they are more stable.

How do enzymes affect the Gibs free energy?

The Gibb's free energy will be the same

If only [I] is increased, then [ESI] or [EI] increases. This is an example of: The Bose-Einstein Principle The Heisenberg uncertainty principle The Le Chatelier principle The Pauli exclusion principle

The Le Chatelier principle The Bose Einstein principle states that a collection of atoms called close to absolute zero will coalesce into a single quantum state The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that one cannot know both a moment and position of an object with absolute certainty Le Chatelier's principle states that in a reversible process, the application of stress to the system will cause the system to respond in a way that will relieve the stress. In this case, the reversible process is E + I forming EI or ES + I forming ESI. In either case, increasing [E]induces stress of the system, and the system believes that dress by converting I to either more EI or ESI. The poly exclusion principle states that two or more identical, fermions, electrons, cannot occupy the same quantum state

proprioception

The ability to tell where one's body is in space. The unconscious perception of movement and spatial orientation arising stimuli within the body itself. These stimuli are detected by nerves within the body itslef as well as by the semicircular canals of the inner ear. These semicircular canals are sensitive to rotational acceleration.

Why is L and D configuration of an amino acid so important?

The amino group is to the left of the alpha carbon in the L-amino acids. Think left. It is the only one found I the human body The amino group is to the right of the alpha carbon in the D-amino acids

What is the average weight of an amino acid?

The average molecular weight of an amino acid is ~110 Da

dub (2nd heart sounds or S2)

The closing of the pulmonary and aortic valves creates this heart sound. the tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral valves just opened

Because steric number is related to hybridization, it can also give insight into the geometry of an atom. What does a steric number of four reveal about the molecular geometry surrounding that atom? The geometry cannot be linear The geometry may be trigonal pyramidal The geometry is tetrahedral The bond angles are all 109.5º

The geometry may be trigonal pyramidal A steric number of 4 tells us that the geometry is either tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal, bent, or linear Each geometry has a different number of lone pairs, 0, 1, 2, and 3 respectively. The bond angle is also decreasing slightly for each geometry except linear, which only has one bond (think of HCl, the Cl has a steric number of 4)

Why are amino acids more stable as reactants than when they form products in peptide bond formation?

The hydrolysis reaction releases energy and the amino acid reactants are more thermodynamically stable than the product. This process is not kinetically favorable because activation energy to break the peptide bonds is high. Peptide bond formation requires the use of ATP. Peptide bonds are kinetically favorable

Which statement is not a plausible application of psychodynamic theory to explain psychological responses to upward comparison? The super ego demands that the individual should either match or surpass the partner on the dimension of comparison The ego fails to satisfy the demands of the super ego, and the individual experiences anxiety The id attempts to use the pleasure principle to resolve the subconscious conflict caused by the super ego The ego uses rationalization by suggesting that the dimension of comparison is an important

The id attempts to use the pleasure principle to resolve the subconscious conflict caused by the super ego While the id does operate, according to the pleasure principle, according to psychodynamic theory, it is the responsibility of the ego and not the id to resolve. Subconscious conflict caused by super ego. The super ego is the structure of personality which houses an individuals conscience, developed via the internalization of parental and societal expectations and values. The super ego demands that one perform to their highest possible standard. The ego is the structure of personality responsible for balancing the conflicting demands of the id and the super ego, when these demands are not met, anxiety is experienced. Rationalization is a defense mechanism, and, according to psychodynamic theory, defense mechanisms are used to reduce anxiety stemming from unconscious conflicts.

Which biological pigments would absorb the longest wave of visible light

The longer the extended double bond system, the longer the wavelength of visible light that will be absorbed

How does pH affect amino acids?

The majority of the cells in our body have a pH of around 4, so the majority of amino acids exist in this zwitterion form

In order to test the efficacy of gas exchange occurring in the lungs, a researcher measures the partial pressure of CO2 and O2 from various locations within the circulatory system. Which of the following pairs of locations could blood be taken from to determine the efficacy of gas exchange? The left ventricle and the radial artery The radial artery and the pulmonary artery The right ventricle and the radial vein The right ventricle and the radial vein A pulmonary artery and the right ventricle

The radial artery and the pulmonary artery Oxygenated blood flows from the lungs to the left atrium, to the left ventricle, through the aorta, and to the arteries, including the radial and coronary arteries. The arteries all contain oxygenated blood, except for the pulmonary artery. It is called an artery since it flows away from the heart, but the pulmonary artery actually flows from the right ventricle to the lungs, and contains deoxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood flows from the veins, through the vena cava, into the right artery and ventricle, then out through the pulmonary artery to the lungs

A student is told by their primary investigator that the second ionization energy is larger that the first, so they should be careful to not apply too much energy or heat to their reaction. Why does the second ionization energy require more energy than the first? The second ionization energy is pullin the electron away from an anion, which requires more energy than a neutral atom would The second ionization energy is pulling the electron away from a closer electron shell The second ionization energy is pulling the electron away from a cation, which requires more energy than a neutral atom would The second ionization energy always faces a higher effective nuclear charge

The second ionization energy is pulling the electron away from a cation, which requires more energy than a neutral atom would A cation is already positiviely charged and somewhat unstable, so it will not "want" to give away another electron, gaining an even larger charge and becoming more unstable Although the cation has already lost an electron, this typically does not change its effective nuclear charge. This only changes when the number of non-valence electrons changes or when the number of protons changes

Some medical conditions, such as HIV aids, I met with Shane and disapproval by segments of society. Public health intervention, such as HIV, testing campaigns, are often conceived as efforts to counteract. The negative attitude associated with those conditions. Based on this description, such interventions are specifically targeting: The stereotype threat associated with conditions such as HIV aids Social integration of those with conditions, such as HIV aids The social stigma associated with conditions, such as HIV aids Discrimination against those with conditions, such as HIV aids

The social stigma associated with conditions, such as HIV aids Stigma refers to negative stereotypes associated with a group in the society. Stigma is bestow, disadvantages to those labeled with the stereotypes, and are often associated with health, ability, personal background, and social background. Shame directed towards HIV aids patients indicate a negative stereotype that would have negative outcomes for the patient, and the public health intervention campaigns most likely seek to address those stigmas. Stereotype threat indicates that an individual might be worried about conforming to a negatively stereotyped role due to their social background. Social segregation refers to the isolation of a community from other communities based on his social background, such as gender, race/ethnicity, and class. Discrimination is the unfair treatment of an individual or community due to their social background. Although discrimination might be a consequence of stigmatization of a social group, the question only describes the negative attitudes, but not discriminatory behavior.

paradoxical sleep

The type of sleep encountered during REM when internally, the brain and body are active; while externally, the body appears calm and inactive

Alkanes are known to have sp3 hybridization, but there are other types of carbons that have less hybridization. How does the character of hybridized orbitals change in those latter carbons? Their p character increases There is no change in the character of the hybridized orbitals Their s character increases Their d character increases

Their s character increases As the hybridization decreases, less orbitals are involved in hybridization. These other types of carbon will be sp2 or sp hybridized The character of hybridized orbitals is the average of the orbital types that combine to make the hybrids. Orbitals that are sp2 hybridized have 33% s character and 67% p character, whereas orbitals that are sp hybridized have 50% s character and 50% p character. Therefore, these other hybridized orbitals will have more s character and less p character.

How does transmutation relate to radioactive decay?

Transmutation = changing one element or isotope into another When z >= 83, the electrostatic repulsive force creates unstable nuclei and promotes radioactive decay

beta = 10log(I/Io)

Typically, sounds wavesspread out in all directions according to the inverse square law. If there is no loss of energy passing through the area of any imaginary sphere surrounding the source must be the same. Since the sphere area grows with the readius squared, the sound level must drop as the inverse of radius squared. The same would apply to light intensity from a light bulb How. logarithmic decibel scale works: multiplying the intensity by 10 causes a +10 change to the decibel number (ie. 90 dB is 10 times more intense than 80 dB, and 110 dB is 1000 times more intense than 80 dB)

How does energy manifest itself when put into a gas?

U = internal energy of a gas = kinetic energy + rotational kinetic energy + vibrational energy (bonded atoms can oscillate) ΔU = Qnet + Wnet if a closed system is not in motion and does not have kinetic energy internal energy is directly proportional to temperature

A meteorite contains an elements with three electrons more than the closest noble gas electron configuration. The element's path through a vacuum is affected by the application of an electric field. Which of the following is most likely the identity of this element? Aluminum Vanadium Calcium Scandium

Vanadium Because the element's path is adjusted by the electric field when traveling in a vacuum, it must be a charged particle. The fact that it is a charged particle with three electrons past a noble gas configuration rules out aluminum and scandium Now, we have to consider the different charges calcium and vanadium would take. Calcium would need a negative charge to have those three electrons, which would be much less likely than vanadium with a +2 charge. This makes vanadium the best answer.

Ammonia boils at 239.81K, hydrofluoric acid has a boiling point of 292.6K, and water has a boiling point of 373.15K. All three molecules exhibit hydrogen bonding and have comparable masses. Why does H20 boil at a higher temperature than HF or NH3? Water's bonds are the most polar Water can form two hydrogen bonds per molecule while HF and NH3 can only form one hydrogen bond per molecule Water can from two hydrogen bonds, which is ideal, while ammonia can form three and hydrofluoric acid can form only one Water is neither acidic nor basic, unlike HF and NH3

Water can form two hydrogen bonds per molecule while HF and NH3 can only form one hydrogen bond per molecule Hydrogen bonds form when hydrigen is bound to N, O, or F, and has a lone pair of electrons to "bond" to. This allows water to form more. hydrogen bonds per molecule than NH3 or HF

How does the Bohr model predict the ionization energy for hydrogen?

When an electron is taken from the 1st energy level to an infinite distance away from the nucleus, it feels no attractive pull. There is no attractive force or electrical potential energy because r is equal to infinity. The kinetic and total energies are also equal to zero. n = 0 and 13.6 eV are needed to take an electron away from attractive pull of the nucleus and to turn it into an ion. The radii and energy levels are quantized E(higher) - E(lower) = E(photon) = hf

Nerve tracts can be defined as a bundle of axons, that connect different areas of the nervous system. Which of the following composers tract? Gray matter, due to the presence of myelin on somas White matter, due to the presence of myelin on somas Gray matter, due to the presence of myelin on axons White matter, due to the presence of myelin on axons

White matter, due to the presence of myelin on axons White matter is most of the myelinated axons of the nervous system, well, gray matter is most of the somas (neuron cell bodies) of the nervous system. Because a tract is composed of axons (which have myelin), it is more likely to be composed of white matter

Which if the following ions would be least deflected in a mass spectrometer? Fe^+2 Al^+3 Zn^+2 Ca^+2

Zn^+2 In the spectrometer separates ions based on their mass to charge ratio in the amount of deflection is inversely proportional to the mass to charge ratio. From the options given above, Al^+3 has the lowest mass to charge ratio and a Zn^+2 has the highest mass to charge ratio therefore, Zn^+2 will be the least deflected in the spectrometer

graded potential

a membrane potential that varies in magnitude in proportion to the intensity of the stimulus decay with time and distance unless there is more input if two graded potentials happen with enough time between them, they will have no effect on each other

representativeness heuristic

a mental shortcut based on reasoning that is related to how representative something sees to be of a category (e.g., how likely is a woman to be a librarian based on how similar she seems to the idea one has of a typical librarian)

action potential

a neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon membrane potential at the trigger zone moved over the threshold they have the same size and duration over an axon

prosthetic group

a non-protein factor that is tightly bound to an enzyme and is necessary for its function can either be organic or inorganic

variable ratio reinforcement

a person is rewarded at a certain overall overage ratio, but the individual ratio of behaviors to reinforcement varies, and is therefore unpredictable to the subject

variable interval reinforcement

a person is rewarded, on average, every nth interval of time, but the interval of time between each individual reinforcement changes

electrophilic addition

a reaction where a pi (double/triple) bond is broken and two sigma (single) bonds are formed

dyadic relationship

a relationship between two people that involves some kind of closeness and mutual affection

Asperberger's Syndrome

a relatively mild autism disorder in which the childh has relatively good verbal language, mild non-verbal language problems, and a restricted range of interests and relationships.

participant observation

a research method in which investigators systematically observe people while joining them in their routine activities

Where will the influence of the synapse be greatest?

a synapse closer to the trigger zone will have a greater effect than a synapse near a dendrite

Vo = Vmax

a zeroth order reaction where an increase in substrate concentration will not affect the rate of the chemical reaction

How do enzymes speed up reactions?

acid-base catalysis - proton transfer covalent catalysis - electron transfer electrostatic catalysis - stabilizing charge proximity and orientation effects - increases successful collision

observed rotation (alpha)

affected by concentration and path length - if the same polarimeter is used, the path length must be the same. but, if a different observed rotation is seen, then the concentration of the molecule must be different

What are the functions of the different structures of the nephron?

afferent arterioles - blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood glomerulus - capillary system; filtration begins here; high pressure forces small/positively charged particles like Na+ and K+; blood is called filtrate Bowman's capsule - contains pores that allow molecules to cross the glomerulus efferent arteriole - carries 80% of the oxygenated blood from the Bowman's capsule to the vasa recta; blood is still called blood plasma vasa recta - supply nutrients to the cells of the kidney, acts to absorbs and secrete some of the things found between the tubule and vessel proximal convoluted tubule - reabsorption and secretion takes place from filtrate to blood plasma Loop of Henle - increase the solute concentration of the renal medulla, increasing osmotic pressure - descending loop of Henle - water exits - ascending loop of Henle - impermeable to water distal convoluted tubule - reabsorbs Na+ and Ca2+ while secreting H+ and K+; it can reabsorb H2O in the presence of ADH collecting duct - permeable to Na+, becomes permeable to water in the presence of ADH and can reabsorb H2O juxtaglomerular appandus - a collection of 3 types of cells found on top of the distal convoluted tubule next to the afferent arteriole; control and regulate the function of the nephron

How does blood volume increase?

aldosterone and angiotensin use sodium reabsorption ADH uses water channels because it functions in portions of the nephron that are non-permeable to water

Approach to problem solving

algorithm - systematic process by which one is guaranteed to arrive at a solution to a problem framing - the way in which a situation is posed can affect decisions made about that situation (involves no strategy-based approach to problem solving) heuristic - techniques that allow an individual to look for an answer to a particular problem (more efficient than algorithms, but they don't guarantee that a solution will be found) insight - refers to a sudden realization of how to solve a given problem

shaping (operant conditioning)

an operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior

cofactors

any nonprotein molecule or ion that is required for the proper functioning of an enzyme - metal ions are coenzymes (organic molecules) cofactors can be permanently bound to the active site or may bind loosely with the substrate during catalysis - lightly bound coenzymes are called prosthetic groups apoenzyme + cofactor <=> holoenzyme

Bernoulli's Principle

as the velocity of a fluid increases, the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases

Why does the heart have valves?

atrioventricular valves tricuspid - T shaped mitral - M shaped - both have valves to prevent blood from escaping into the atriums via the chordae tendinae and the papillary muscles

basic research

attempts to answer theoretical questions or gather new info

A dramatic change in which variable is most likely to improve health outcomes in countries where mortality rate is high and life expectancy is low? average income healthcare access medical technology physicians per capita

average income Multiple sociology studies, as well as reports by the World Health Organization, suggest that increased income is the single change that has the greatest impact on health outcomes in developing countries. Citizens need wealth either to access a physician at all, or to access the best are. A higher income is associated with a variety of other behaviors that impact health

Researchers have identified a certain prion that causes the human protein abc to misfold by affecting alpha helices. When a cell is infected by this particular prion, what most likely happens to protein abc at the molecular level? beta-sheets replace normal alpha helices, binding to other beta-sheets and causing the proteins to aggregate fewer alpha-helces form than normal, preventing the proteins from assuming their tertiary structure and causing them to aggregate more alpha helices form than normal, binding to other alpha helices and causing the proteins to aggregate alpha helices replace normal beta-sheets, binding to other alpha helices and causing the proteins to aggregate

beta-sheets replace normal alpha helices, binding to other beta-sheets and causing the proteins to aggregate Prions are infectious. agents that cause the proteins of a host cell to misfold and aggregate. One well-known mechanism by which prions cause proteins to aggregate is by replacing normal alpha helices with beta-sheets, which have an increased likelihood of binding to one another. The beta0sheets of these misfolded proteins then bind to the. beta-sheets of other proteins, leading to protein aggregation. In this example, although the prion could potentially cause protein aggregation by increasing or decreasing the number of alpha helices, it is more likely that beta-sheets replace the alpha helices. This has a higher likelihood of protein aggregation

How does blood move through the kidney?

blood enters through the renal artery blood leaves through the renal vein

fetal circulation

blood flow in the ductus anteriosus us from the pulmonary artery to the aorta. The direction of flow is determined by the pressure differential between the right side of the heart (and pulmonary circulation) and the left side of the heart (and systemic circulation). Unlike in adults, the right side of the heart is at a higher pressure during prenatal life than the left side, so blood will shunt from the pulmonary circulation to the systemic circulation through both the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus

How is blood pumped?

both sides of the heart relax and contract at one time there is a unidirectional motion of blood

protein modifications

co-translational - modification that happen to the polypeptide while it is being translated; ie. acetylation = addition of acetyl group to modify behavior post-translational - after translation, often in the Golgi - ie. glycosilation, lipidation - usually occur in the ER or Golgi - ie. phosphorylation - regulates sodium/potassium pump which involves 3 sodium ions and 2 potassium ions and pushes sodium to extracellular and potassium to intracellular space - ie. methylation with histones to turn on or off certain genes - ie. proteolysis meaning to break down proteins, or cut it to activate a zymogen (inactive form of a protein that require covalent modifications to become active) - ie. ubiquitination marks protein for degradation to recycle their components

Coenzymes and cofactors are molecules which are often required to help enzymes function properly. Which of the following most accurately differentiates between coenzyme and cofactor? coenzymes are inorganic; cofactors are organic coenzymes actively participate in catalysis; cofactors are carrier molecules coenzymes are carrier molecules; cofactors actively participate in catalysis coenzymes are organic; cofactors are inorganic

coenzymes are carrier molecules; cofactors actively participate in catalysis coenzymes are organic carrier molecules whereas cofactors actively participate in catalysis. Cofactors and coenzymes can both be organic or inorganic. Vitamins are organic while minerals are inorganic.

What parts of the kidney are in the renal medulla?

collecting duct descending loop of Henle ascending loop of Henle

competitive inhibitors 1

competitive inhibitors do not affect vmax but they do afffect km because they can be overcome with extra substrate

competitive inhibitors 2

competitive inhibitors do not affect vmax but they do afffect km because they can be overcome with extra substrate

types of inhibitors

competitive, noncompetitive, uncompetitive, mixed

inferior colliculi (midbrain)

coordinate movements of the head, eyes, and trunk in response to auditory stimuli part of the auditory pathway and startle reflex

During a decarboxylation reaction, electrons are transferred to allow for the removal of a carboxyl group. What kind of catalysis could an enzyme perform to increase the rate of this reaction? proximity-orientation catalysis electrostatic catalysis covalent catalysis acid-base catalysis

covalent catalysis A covalent catalysis would help this reaction go faster because the enzyme can act as an electron carrier (electron sink) by covalently binding to its target molecule, thus helping with the transfer of electrons

noncompetitive inhibitor

interact allosterically effect is similar to reducing the amount of enzyme present; therefore, reducing vmax does not affect km on a michaelis-menten plot, the vmax is lower

Mutations in the TRPM6 gene coding for magnesium trasnporters can cause low magnesium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron. If cells in the distal convoluted tubule were to accumulate more mutation throughout their DNA creating nonfunctional proteins, what is the likely effect on the nephron? increased water reabsorption decreased glomerular filtration rate decreased oxygenation of renal cells by the vasa recta decreased secretion of protons, ammonia, and urea into the filtrate

decreased secretion of protons, ammonia, and urea into the filtrate The distal convoluted tuule has roles in both secretion and reabsorption. Valuable ions are reabsorbed here, even after the rigorous active transport of ions in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Wastes are also secreted into the filtrate. Wastes include protons, urea, ammonia, and K+. Nonfunctional proteins in DCT cells would likely limit secretion of these wastes The DCT is mostly impermeable to water, so water reabsorption would not be affected by nonfunctional DCT proteins. The glomerulus and vasa recta are not part of the DCT.

A pericardial effusion is the buildup of fluid in the pericardium. Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathophysiology of a pericardial effusion? direct pressure against the endocardium, leading to increased diastolic filling direct pressure against the myocardium, leading to increased diastolic filling direct pressure against the endocardium, leading to decreased systolic filling direct pressure against the myocardium, leading to decreased diastolic filling

direct pressure against the myocardium, leading to decreased diastolic filling The pericardium is the outermost layer of the heart and exists directly outside of the myocardium. Therefore, a pericardial effusion would result in direct pressure against the myocardium, rather than the endocardium, which exists inside of the myocardium. The layers of the heart from the outermost to innermost are the pericardium, myocardium, and endocardium. If the myocardium of the ventricles experiences pressure, it will become more compressed and less able to fill with blood during diastole

applied research

designed to answer or solve practical problems

experimental research

designed to demonstrate cause-and-effect

correlational research

designed to show a relationship that exists between variables

order of reaction

determined by adding the exponents of the rate of the equation r = k[A]^x • [B]^y zeroth order - A->B V=k[A]^0=k first order - when a reactions rate is directly proportional to the reaction concentration second order - A+B->C V=k[A][B]

What aspect of protein bonding affects the heat stability of the proton?

disulfide bonds are covalent, and as such will not melt at high temperatures

protons produced by oxidative phosphorylation

each pair of electrons from NADH result in translocation of 10 proteins while FADH2 electrons results in translocation of 6 protons

What are the functions of the structures in the glomerulus?

endothlial cells contain tiny pores to allow small substances to pass from the arteries to the Bowman's capsule mesangial - modified sooth muscle cells that contract in the glomerulus to speed up or slow down the movement of the blood plasma visceral layer - contains the podocytes, filtration of the blood basement membrane - network of proteins; negative overall charge attracts positively charged particles will be attracted across podocytes - have small extensions that connect with the basement membrane; holes are present between them for movement of particles Juxtaglomerular apparatus; part of the endothelium

keto-enol tautomerization

enolization can lead to racemization equilibrium generally lies on the ketone side because it is thermodynamically more stable than enols/aldehydes enol products with more conjugation are more stable than ketone reactants that are unconjugated hydride anion and LDA lead to complete formation of enolate anion equilibrium favors formation of the weaker acid

anhydrase

enzyme that removes water

Which experimental evidence suggests that purified protein is in its native state? The purified protein: retained both the Compound 1 and (His)6 tags was purified by two separate chromatography steps exhibited a binding affinity for progesterone that was similar to that exhibited by native protein had a nearly identical molecular weight to protein obtained elsewhere

exhibited a binding affinity for progesterone that was similar to that exhibited by native protein The only way to tell for certain that a protein is still in its native state is to compare its functioning to the levels observed for protein believed to be in the native state.

how to estimate km from michaelis-menten plot?

find the reaction point halfway from the Vmax and then determine substrate concentration

symbolic racism

respondents believe that racism is wrong but do not see racism as a significant institutional problem in society since the 1960s

psychosocial development theory

focuses on developmental milestones and overall progression from less advanced states or congnitive abilities to more advanced states or cognitive abilities Erickson said that during early adulthood, most indiviudals pass through a period of conflct between intimacy and isolation that must be resolved successfully. This stage is widely associated with love, intimacy, and the forming of relationships

quanititative measurement

for a test to be a good candidate for quantitiaive measurements, (as opposed to qualitative test where the goal is to determine presence or absence) the observable response must vary substantially and in a consistent direction

How do you determine the formal charge on an atom in the Lewis dot structure?

formal charge = (# VE in free atom) - (# VE in bonded atom) ie. formal charge on nitrogen in NH4+ = 5-4 = +1

Vacuum ultraviolet circular dichroism is an experimental technique used to identify beta-turns in polypeptide chains. Which of the following correctly describes the location and content of beta-turns? found on the interior of proteins, and consist of amino acids with polar R groups found on the interior of proteins, and consist of amino acids with nonpolar R groups found on the surface of proteins, and consist of amino acids with polar R groups found on the surface of proteins, and consist of amino acids with nonpolar R groups

found on the surface of proteins, and consist of amino acids with polar R groups Beta-turns are sharp turns in the amino acid sequence that allow proteins to maintain a compact structure. They are normally located on the surface of proteins. Since most proteins exist in polar solutions such as water, the amino acids that make up the beta-turn are usually polar to interact with the surrounding solution

What are globular proteins?

globular proteins have various functions and are relatively spherical in shape ie. hemoglobin - it is a tetramer. inside each one of the subunits, there is a helper prosthetic group called a heme group that binds to oxygen via an oxidation reaction

Which of the following best describes what is taking place when the rate of the reaction is half of Vmax? none of the active sites on the enzyme are filled with substrate all of the active sites on the enzyme are filled with substrate half of the active sites on the enzyme are filled with substrates half of the active sites on the substrate are filled with enzyme

half of the active sites on the enzyme are filled with substrates The Km represents the concentration of substrate needed for the enzyme to reach half of its maximum velocity. When an enzyme reaches Vmax this means that all the active sites are filled with substrate. Therefore, at half of Vmax, half of the active sites are filled with substrate.

How does Km relate to affinity?

high km = enzyme has low affinity for substrate low km = enzyme has high affinity for substrate

accuracy

how close a measurement is to the true value

How can a peptide bond be broken?

hydrolysis (addition of water)

anhedonia

inability to experience pleasure

reperfusion

increased blood flow to the fetus after a period of relative ischemia

How does increasing or decreasing the vmax or km affect the lineweaver-burk plot?

increasing vmax makes the y intercept smaller decreasing vmax makes the y intercept bigger increasing km makes the x intercept greater but it stays negative decreasing km makes the x intercept small but it stays negative

uncompetitive inhibition

inhibitor binds only to enzyme-substrate complex - locks substrate in enzyme preventing its release (increasing affinity b/w enzyme and preventing the conversion of the substrate into the product) Lower Km and vmax

mutarotation of D-glucose

is the rotation of an alpha D glucose into a Beta D glucose when the cyclic form of the sugar interconverts with the linear form and the stereocenter at the anomeric carbon changes

pressure vs volume diagram

isobaric = constant pressure; area under line equals work done by the gas isothermal = constant temperature; ΔU = 0; expansion if volume increases; compression if volume decreases; PV = N(kb)T isometric/isochoric/isovolumetric = constant temperature; W = 0 so ΔU = Q adiabatic = no heat exchanged so Q = 0; ΔU = W; the curve on a PV diagram is steeper than the isothermal curve

By what means can a substance end up in the filtrate and ultimately released in urine?

it is filtered through the glomerulus and not reabsorbed by the tubules it is not filtered through the glomerulus but is secreted into tubules

rate constant (k) equation

k = Ae^(-Ea/RT) where A is a constant, known as the Arrhenius constant or collision frequency, Ea is the activation energy and T is the temperature in K. decreasing activation energy increases the rate constant enzymes can increase the collision frequency to increase the rate constant enzymes to do not affect the concentration of reactants or products

Suppose samples of blood are taken directly from chambers of the human heart. The blood contained in the right ventricle differs from that of the left ventricle because it has: more O2 and lower pH less O2 and higher pH less O2 and lower pH more O2 and higher pH

less O2 and lower pH Blood in the right ventricle has returned from the systemic circulation and is about to head to the lungs where it will drop off the CO2 waste it has picked up from the body cells and pick up more O2 to deliver on its next trip around the body. This "deoxygenated" blood is lower in pH than oxygenated blood due to the CO2 it carries, which is acidic. Blood in the left ventricle is oxygenated. It has returned from the lungs and is about to be pumped out to the body to deliver O2 to tissues

The Michaelis Menten Constant (Km) can be used to assess an enzyme's affinity for a substrate. A _________ Km reflects a __________ affinity for the substrate low; high low; constant high; high low; low

low; high The Km is the substrate concentration at which the rate of an enzymatic reaction is at half of its max value. If there is a low Km, it does not take as much substrate to reach half of the max rxn rate, meaning that an enzyme must have a higher affinity for that substrate

Ainsworth Strange Situation

measures the quality of the attachment relationship. This method involves observing a child's reactions when his/her caregiver leaves the room and when the caregiver returns. (separation anxiety = becoming distressed when parent leaves the room) -Secure Attachment = parent is a secure base to explore from, sad when they leave and happy when they come back -Insecure Attachment Anxious-Ambivalent = often refuse to leave their parent, are very upset when they leave and often angry when they come back Aviodant = seek little contact with their parent, don't care when they leave and avoid them when they come back Disorganized-Disoriented = go back and forth between approaching and avoiding parent, and are often confused whether to seek or avoid them (this often appears in abused children)

What is the single smallest unit of a kidney?

nephron - which is responsible for filtration and collection - it makes up the space between the renal cortex (or shell of the kidney) and the renal medulla inside the cortex

organogenesis

organ formation that takes place during the first two months of prenatal development

Types of enzymes

oxidoreductase - transfering electrons from one molecules transferase - movement of some functional group to another hydrolase - use water to cleave a molecule to its smaller components lyase - catalyze break one molecule into 2 components; generate double bond or ring structure between a molecule to work isomerase - conversion of molecules into its isomer ligase - combination of two molecules to make one

What passes or does not pass through the the three-layer filtration system of the kidneys?

passes through: sodium, urea, potassium, amino acids, glucose, water, small proteins does not pass through: large proteins, red blood cells, platelets

implicit memory

past experiences influence later behavior and performance, even without an effort to remember them or an awareness of the recollection

Minnestoa Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

personality test composed of a series of true/false questions in order to establish a clinical profile of an individual

The active site of cytosolic phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase 1 (PCK1) contains the residue Ser90. What kind of intermolecular interaction is least likely to occur between Ser90 and PCK1's substrates? dipole-dipole phosphodiester bond hydrogen bond electrostatic

phosphodiester bond Enzyme active sites bind substrates reversibly via a variety of noncovalent interactions. A phosphodiester bond is a covalent bond, and is therefore least likely to occur in the active site of Enzyme X

What represents the correct order in which visual cues would have been transmitted from a participant's eye to hiss or her brain?

photoreceptor, [retinal ganglion cell], optic nerve, lateral geniculate nucleus, striate cortex Light activates photoreceptors in the retina, which subsequently transmit info through the optic nerve. The lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus receives visual input from the retina and then sends that info on to the primary visual cortex, also known as the striate cortex

A patient is given the Ishihara Pseudoisochromatic Plate (IPP) test to determine whether he has color vision deficiency. If the test reveals red-green color blindness, which part of the visual system is responsible for this definciency? lens cornea photoreceptors visual cortex

photoreceptors Red/green color deficiencies are casued by a missing pigment in the photoreceptors The primary function of the lends is to focus light on the retina The cornea's primary function is to refract light Color perception is processed by signals in the visual cortex

negative symptoms

present in unaffected individuals but not present in affected individuals

osmotic pressure

pressure that must be applied to prevent osmotic movement across a selectively permeable membrane

uncompetitive inhibitors

prevent an enzyme from converting substrate to product

lineweaver burk plot for enzyme inhibition

process in which a molecule binds to enzymes and inhibits their activity - uncompetitive inhibitors lower both the Vmax and Km. this translates to a constant slope on the lineweaver burk plot with more inhibitor added - competitive inhibitors will not affect the y-int of a lineweaver burk plot, since they do not affect Vmax. they do increase Km, so the slope of the lineweaver burk plot (Km/Vmax) will increase with added competitive inhibitor

What is the difference between reaction rate and rate constant?

rate constant is unchanged by the concentration of reactants but changes with temperature the rate of the reaction changes with concentration of the reactants

non-enzyme proteins

receptors and ion channels - receive / bind to signal molecules (ligand) transport proteins - high concentration = high affinity; low concentration = low affinity; ie. hemoglobin motor proteins - myosin, kinesin, dynein; intracellular transport antibodies - adaptive immune system

What are the two parts of the nephron?

renal corpuscle - houses the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule; responsible for blood filtration via fenestration on the endothelium, the basement membrane, and pedicles of podocytes renal tubule - composed of proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct; concentrates urine and collects it for movement into the bladder

stimming behavior

repetitive or unusual body movement or noises

Provide a more detailed description of blood flow through the heart

right atrium - deoxygenated blood from systemic system --> right ventricle contracts and move deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary arteries of the left lung --> oxygenated blood enters the heart through the left atrium --> the left ventricle has the thickest myocardium so it can create the highest hydrostatic pressure to send blood to the rest of the body

How does blood flow through the heart?

right atrium --> right ventricle --> lungs --> left atrium to left ventricle

What are the phases of the action potential?

rising phase - (depolarization with influx of Na+) peak - ball domains close the opening of the Na+ channel falling phase - (hyperpolarization with K+ leaving) refractory period - absolute (Na+ channels in closed state) then relative (Na+ have become active again but the axon is hyperpolarized); sodium-potassium pump used to move back to resting potential increasing the stimulus increases the frequency of the action potential

In normal amounts, dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine coordinate feelings of pleasure, stress, and fear. In abnormally high amounts, dopamine is associate with: depression Alzheimer's disease schizophrenia Parkinson's disease

schizophrenia Elevated dopamine (or increased sensitivity to dopamine) has been theorized to cause symptoms of schizophrenia. Decreased dopamine due to loss of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia is associated with Parkinson's disease

H NMR

signal types correspond to the number of hydrogens shielding occurs when the functional group of interest is surrounded by electrophilic groups that tightly hold electrons ppm increases with more shielding

meritocracy

social stratification based on personal merit

micelles

spheres of amphipathic molecules, usually lipids, with hydrophilic heads on the surface of the sphere and hydrophobic tails pointed into the center of the spere

specific rotation equation

standard for a given substance observed rotation / [solution (g/mL)] x tube length (dm) [a] = a / (c x l)

non-hydrolyzable lipids

steroids, prostaglandins, and fat-soluble vitamins (cofactors A, D, E, and K)

Gibson's visual cliff

studied the development of a baby's depth perception

sociological perspective

symbolic interactionism sees society as the product of everyday interactions among people social conflict theory sees society as an arena of inequality that generates conflict and change structural functionalism sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to promote stability social exchange theory sees society as a system made up of individuals enganging in basic hedonistic calculations: rewards - costs = outcome

Using voltage clamping, a series of action potentials is introduced to a single dopaminergic neuron, resulting in a gradual increase in the number of dopamine receptors on a single postsynaptic cell. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? sprouting pruning synaptic potentiation synaptic depression

synaptic potentiation Synaptic neuroplasticity refers to changes in the firing rate of the presynaptic neuron resulting in changes in the number of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron of a single synapse. Potentiation is a synaptic neuroplasticity that results in an increase in the number of receptors o the post synaptic neuron while depression results in a decrease Structural plasticity refers to a change in the number of synapses between tho neurons. Sprouting is structural neuroplasticity that results in an increased number of synapses while pruning results in a decrease.

systole and diastole

systole = time between S1 and S2; blood goes to the body diastole = blood refilling from the atrium to the ventricles; between dub and lub

Which area of the cerebral cortex is directly associated with auditory processing? occipital lobe temporal lobe precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe

temporal lobe The temporal lobe contains the primary auditory cortex. The occipital lobe contains the primary visual (or striate) cortex. The precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe is part of the primary motor cortex. The postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe is part of the primary somatosensory cortex

Tonicity

the ability of a surrounding solution to cause a cell to gain or lose water ie. sodium increases tonicity because it is not cell-membrane permeable. this is how aldosterone moves water to the blood by forcing sodium into the nephron

anomeric carbon

the anomeric carbon of a sugar is an invertible epimer when in ring structure, there is stereochemistry associated with that particular carbon position, and that stereochemistry can be either retained or inverted depending on reaction conditions. however, when the carbohydrate is in the acyclic form, the anomeric carbon is in the aldehyde or ketone form and therefore does not exhibit stereochemistry. the epimeric forms do not exist in acyclic carbohydrates an anomeric position on a sugar cannot be an alcohol, as it is in the hemiacetal or ketal oxidation state

saponification reaction

the base promoted ester hydrolysis reaction

valence

the inherent attractiveness or aversiveness of a stimulus, event or situation

availability heuristic

the tendency to rely on readily available examples that are relevant to the topic or decision at hand, neglecting info that is less readily available

What goes on in the loop of henle?

the medulla is salty countercurrent multiplication - the descending and ascending limb go in opposite directions; water reabsorbed passively through descending limb of loop of Henle; ions reabsorbed actively through the ascending loop of Henle interstitium - holds ions in medulla to increase the osmotic pressure

masking hypothesis

the method of extracting ability estimates influences the magnitude of differences observed the result of not separating out the effects of latent cognitive abilities from manifest or higher-order latent abilities

absolute threshold

the minimum intensity of a stimulus required to detect the stimulus 50% of the time

miscegenation

the mixing of racial and ethnic groups in intimate relationships

common neuron resting potential

the neuron is not changing without input -60 mV

What is renal plasma flow?

the normal kidney passes 625mL of blood plasma through the glomerulus every single minute

medial geniculate nucleus

the part of the thalamus that relays auditory signals to the temporal cortex and receives input from the auditory cortex

demand characteristics

the phenomenon by which study participants pick up on subtle or overt clues about the purpose of the study, the hypothesis, or the expectations of the experimenters, and alter their behavior as a result behavior can be altered in a positive way that seeks to please the experimenters and support their hypothesis, or negative way that resists what they perceive to be the purpose of the study or that is designed to undermine the results

saltatory conduction

the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials.

steady state assumption

the rate of formation of ES is equal to the rate of its breakdown

What is the renal clearance for a substance that is freely filtered, not absorbed, fully secreted?

the renal clearance is equal to the renal plasma flow (625mL/min) ie. para amino hippuric acid (PAH)

What is the renal clearance for a substance that is freely filtered, not absorbed, slightly secreted?

the renal clearance will be between 125mL/min and 625mL/min

What is the renal clearance for a substance that is freely filtered, slightly reabsorbed, not secreted?

the renal clearance will be less than the GFR (<125mL/min) but greater than 0mL/min ie. urea which has a renal clearance of about 65mL/min and is reabsorbed to maintain osmolarity in the interstitial medulla

What is the renal clearance for a substance that is freely filtered, not absorbed, and not secreted?

the renal clearance will equal the normal glomerular filtration rate ie. inulin, polysaccharide that is not naturally found in humans

fundamental attribution error

the tendency to overestimate dispositional factors in explaining the behaviors of others

hydrolyzable lipids

triglycerols, phospholipids, sphingolipids, waxes

What is the collection of the renal artery, renal vein, and ureter?

tubes or vessels come out of the hilum (p. hila) of the kidneys

Info about the amino acid content of food is communicated through which taste sensation? bitter sour salty umami

umami bitter tastes are associated with the presence of alkaloids sourness is associated with acidity saltiness is associated with sodium

What is the process of micturition?

ureters attach to the back of the bladder and have valves that prevent urine from flowing back into the kidneys the bladder is lined with transitional epithelial cells that allow the bladder to expand urethra internal urethral sphincter - involuntary sooth muscle that prevents the bladder from leaking urine unless it is really full external urethral sphincter - membranous urethra in female bladder made of skeletal muscle; controls release of urine prostatic urethra --> membranous urethra --> spongy urethra in penis of males

nucleophilic substitution

when a nucleophile or an atom with free electrons attacks an electrophilic carbon and replaces the leaving group

dipole moment equation

µ = Qr µ given in Debyes r given in m Q given in Coulombs

free energy equation

ΔG = ΔGº + RTln [products]/[reactants] pressure shift equilibrium to the side with less moles of gas