MCAT - Psychological, Social, and Biological Foundations of Behavior (Missed Questions)

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The answer to this question is C. A dopamine agonist enhances the functioning of dopamine in the nervous system. Because the agonist is said to have dose-dependent effects, a positive correlation between the dose and the intensity of euphoria experienced is most likely.

A dopamine agonist is found to have dose-dependent effects. Based on this finding, which correlation is most likely to be supported? A.A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered B.A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered C.A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered D.A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered

A The answer to this question is A because the main requirement was for a test of how quickly a flight cadet can redirect attention, and because the selective listening task fulfilled that requirement and allowed the "modern air force" to test this ability quickly and inexpensively.

A modern air force wanted a standardized test to identify which flight cadets were most likely to acquire proficiency in flying high-performance aircraft. Candidates who failed were either unable to appropriately divide attention among concurrent activities or concurrent signals, or too slow to redirect attention to crucial signals arriving on unattended channels. Therefore, researchers needed a good measure of how quickly and effectively a person can redirect attention. Researchers used a task in which participants were required to focus attention on one of two different messages, presented simultaneously, one to each ear. All stimuli were presented on earphones at a subjectively comfortable loudness level. The study consisted of two phases. In Phase 1, each participant was instructed by a 2500-Hz tone to attend to the right ear or by a 250-Hz tone to attend to the left ear. The indicator tone was presented to the relevant ear. Then either two or four digits were presented to the relevant ear, interspersed in a stream of bisyllabic words. Six digits were presented to the irrelevant ear. Digits were never presented simultaneously in Phase 1. Participants were instructed to repeat immediately any digits they heard in the attended ear. Most errors in Phase 1 were omissions of relevant items, and there was a greater likelihood of omissions when four digits had been presented than with only two. There was no clear difference between the left and right ears in omission errors. Most intrusions of digits from the unattended ear occurred when participants were instructed to attend to the left ear. Phase 2 began when an indicator tone was presented to the ear that had been the relevant ear in Phase 1. Half of the participants (maintain attention condition) were instructed to attend to the same ear as Phase 1. The other half (reorient attention condition) were instructed to attend to the ear that had been the irrelevant ear in Phase 1. Then, after 0, 1, or 2 additional bisyllabic words, three pairs of digits were presented simultaneously to the two ears. The participant had to repeat the triad of digits presented to the relevant ear. There was a strong negative correlation between the number of errors in Phase 2 and the successful completion of pilot training. Redirecting attention from the left ear to the right ear was easier than vice versa. The number of errors in Phase 2 had low correlations with all other tests used for pilot selection. Did the task used in the study fulfill the original need described in the first paragraph? A. Yes, because cadets who completed training on more advanced equipment had performed significantly better on the task than those who dropped out of the training earlier B. No, because performance in Phase 2 of the task did not predict performance on other tests used in pilot selection C. Yes, because cadets' ability to divide attention between simultaneous inputs was predicted by their performance in Phase 1 D. No, because cadets' performance in Phase 1 did not predict their ability to redirect attention in Phase 2

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Social processes that influence human behavior." The answer to this question is C because the amount of time a student takes to help another student in the cafeteria is the only option that represents a measurable indication of the helping response, which is the dependent variable in studies of the bystander effect. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it requires you to identify the most appropriate behavioral measure to use as the dependent variable.

A student is investigating the bystander effect and receives permission to conduct the study in the school cafeteria. What is a potential dependent variable that can be measured by the student? A.The time of day that the experiment is carried out B.The number of people present in the cafeteria C.The amount of time a student takes to assist another student in distress D.The temperature in the cafeteria

A The answer to this question is A because repeating the digits presented to a specific ear is an example of shadowing.

A modern air force wanted a standardized test to identify which flight cadets were most likely to acquire proficiency in flying high-performance aircraft. Candidates who failed were either unable to appropriately divide attention among concurrent activities or concurrent signals, or too slow to redirect attention to crucial signals arriving on unattended channels. Therefore, researchers needed a good measure of how quickly and effectively a person can redirect attention. Researchers used a task in which participants were required to focus attention on one of two different messages, presented simultaneously, one to each ear. All stimuli were presented on earphones at a subjectively comfortable loudness level. The study consisted of two phases. In Phase 1, each participant was instructed by a 2500-Hz tone to attend to the right ear or by a 250-Hz tone to attend to the left ear. The indicator tone was presented to the relevant ear. Then either two or four digits were presented to the relevant ear, interspersed in a stream of bisyllabic words. Six digits were presented to the irrelevant ear. Digits were never presented simultaneously in Phase 1. Participants were instructed to repeat immediately any digits they heard in the attended ear. Most errors in Phase 1 were omissions of relevant items, and there was a greater likelihood of omissions when four digits had been presented than with only two. There was no clear difference between the left and right ears in omission errors. Most intrusions of digits from the unattended ear occurred when participants were instructed to attend to the left ear. Phase 2 began when an indicator tone was presented to the ear that had been the relevant ear in Phase 1. Half of the participants (maintain attention condition) were instructed to attend to the same ear as Phase 1. The other half (reorient attention condition) were instructed to attend to the ear that had been the irrelevant ear in Phase 1. Then, after 0, 1, or 2 additional bisyllabic words, three pairs of digits were presented simultaneously to the two ears. The participant had to repeat the triad of digits presented to the relevant ear. There was a strong negative correlation between the number of errors in Phase 2 and the successful completion of pilot training. Redirecting attention from the left ear to the right ear was easier than vice versa. The number of errors in Phase 2 had low correlations with all other tests used for pilot selection. In Phase 1, the researchers instructed participants to perform which task? A. Shadow the attended ear. B. Shadow the unattended ear. C. Recall the information presented on the attended ear. D. Repress the information presented on the unattended ear.

C The answer to this question is C because it describes a logical prediction/extension of the findings reported in the passage. In fact, it was the primary finding of a follow-up study that used bus drivers as participants. Thus, the selective listening task provides a robust measure of a person's susceptibility to having a change in the orientation of attention cause a transient disruption of attention on any task that demands the ability to redirect attention.

A modern air force wanted a standardized test to identify which flight cadets were most likely to acquire proficiency in flying high-performance aircraft. Candidates who failed were either unable to appropriately divide attention among concurrent activities or concurrent signals, or too slow to redirect attention to crucial signals arriving on unattended channels. Therefore, researchers needed a good measure of how quickly and effectively a person can redirect attention. Researchers used a task in which participants were required to focus attention on one of two different messages, presented simultaneously, one to each ear. All stimuli were presented on earphones at a subjectively comfortable loudness level. The study consisted of two phases. In Phase 1, each participant was instructed by a 2500-Hz tone to attend to the right ear or by a 250-Hz tone to attend to the left ear. The indicator tone was presented to the relevant ear. Then either two or four digits were presented to the relevant ear, interspersed in a stream of bisyllabic words. Six digits were presented to the irrelevant ear. Digits were never presented simultaneously in Phase 1. Participants were instructed to repeat immediately any digits they heard in the attended ear. Most errors in Phase 1 were omissions of relevant items, and there was a greater likelihood of omissions when four digits had been presented than with only two. There was no clear difference between the left and right ears in omission errors. Most intrusions of digits from the unattended ear occurred when participants were instructed to attend to the left ear. Phase 2 began when an indicator tone was presented to the ear that had been the relevant ear in Phase 1. Half of the participants (maintain attention condition) were instructed to attend to the same ear as Phase 1. The other half (reorient attention condition) were instructed to attend to the ear that had been the irrelevant ear in Phase 1. Then, after 0, 1, or 2 additional bisyllabic words, three pairs of digits were presented simultaneously to the two ears. The participant had to repeat the triad of digits presented to the relevant ear. There was a strong negative correlation between the number of errors in Phase 2 and the successful completion of pilot training. Redirecting attention from the left ear to the right ear was easier than vice versa. The number of errors in Phase 2 had low correlations with all other tests used for pilot selection. Researchers conducted a replication of the pilot training study with bus drivers. How accurately will the measure of a person's ability to redirect attention predict accident rates among drivers? The error rates in: A. Phase 1 will be directly related to accident rates. B. Phase 1 will be inversely related to accident rates. C. Phase 2 will be directly related to accident rates. D. Phase 2 will be inversely related to accident rates.

The answer to this question is D. The patient is selectively forgetting distracting elements of his/her life, which indicates a dissociative disorder.

A patient who is experiencing severe marital problems reports having no memory of any life events surrounding the marriage and the spouse. The patient's memory for other life events is intact. This patient is most likely to be diagnosed with: A.a conversion disorder. B.schizophrenia. C.retrograde amnesia. D.a dissociative disorder.

The answer to this question is B. The Hawthorne effect describes changes in research participants as a result of their awareness that they are being observed. The changes to the students' study habits are best explained by the Hawthorne effect, which was first observed among workers. The incorrect options refer to related but distinct concepts. A self-fulfilling prophecy is an individual's internalization of a label that leads to a fulfillment of that label. Impression management refers to individuals actively managing how they are perceived by others. The Thomas theorem states that if an individual believes something to be real, then it is real in its consequences.

A researcher conducts observational research on the study habits of college students. When students are aware of the researcher's presence, they are more attentive, focused, and structured. When students are not aware of the researcher's presence, they are inattentive, unfocused, and distracted. Which concept best describes this phenomenon? A.Impression management B.The Hawthorne effect C.Self-fulfilling prophecy D.The Thomas theorem

The answer to this question is D. The purpose of the study was to determine how anxiety disorders affect escape learning, and this option is the only one that refers to an empirical observation of escape behavior.

A researcher is interested in how anxiety disorders affect escape learning. Which procedure is most appropriate for assessing the dependent variable in this study? A.Having the participants fill out a validated questionnaire that screens for anxiety disorders B.Having a trained practitioner assess the participants for anxiety disorders C.Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to avoid a response that results in an electric shock when the electric shock is signaled with a tone D.Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electric shock

The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is D because the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, or linguistic relativity, is the only option associated with the claim in the stem. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to demonstrate your knowledge of a foundational concept in behavioral science.

A researcher suggests that the benefits of bilingualism are related to the idea that the structure of language affects the perceptions of its speakers. This researcher is referring to which concept? A.Weber's Law B.The nativist hypothesis C.Schacter-Singer theory D.Linguistic relativity

According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which group of participants are most likely dealing with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation? Adolescents Young adults Adults A.I only B.III only C.I and II only D.II and III only

The answer to this question is C because promoting social welfare indicates moral reasoning at the postconventional level, according to Kohlberg's theory.

According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level? A. To gain acceptance B. To follow rules C. To promote social welfare D. To avoid disapproval

The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is B because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on the role of classical conditioning, which is most closely related to the behaviorist approach. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to recognize a scientific concept from behavioral science.

According to some researchers, interoceptive awareness contributes to maintenance factors for PD. Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Another maintenance factor for PD is the misappraisal of bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 2), such as interpreting bodily sensations as signs of imminent death or loss of control. Some researchers suggest that such misappraisals are largely responsible for the excessive panic and fear that PD patients experience during a panic attack. Maintenance Factor 1 is most closely related to which approach to psychological disorders? A.Psychodynamic B.Behaviorist C.Trait D.Humanistic

The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is D because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on classical conditioning of a fear response to bodily sensations, whereas Maintenance Factor 2 focuses on cognitive appraisal (interpretation) of bodily sensations. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to recognize two scientific concepts from behavioral science.

According to some researchers, interoceptive awareness contributes to maintenance factors for PD. Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Another maintenance factor for PD is the misappraisal of bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 2), such as interpreting bodily sensations as signs of imminent death or loss of control. Some researchers suggest that such misappraisals are largely responsible for the excessive panic and fear that PD patients experience during a panic attack. Which two processes best summarize maintenance factors 1 and 2, respectively? A.Operant conditioning and top-down processes B.Classical conditioning and affective processes C.Operant conditioning and physiological processes D.Classical conditioning and cognitive processes

After initially learning to ride a bike, riding a bike becomes easy for an individual. Each time the individual rides a bike thereafter, what type of memory is being used? A.Semantic B.Episodic C.Explicit D.Procedural

The answer to this question is B. As with a group affected by groupthink, an individual's confirmation bias causes the person to seek, and attend to, only information that confirms his or her existing point of view and to ignore disconfirming evidence.

Although the study examines a specific bias in group decision-making, similar biases can influence individual decision-making. Which of the following individual-level effect is most similar to groupthink? A.Self-serving bias B.Confirmation bias C.Hindsight bias D.Response bias

The answer to this question is B. In the acquisition phase of the fear conditioning paradigm, a stimulus (light) that is neutral with respect to the freezing response is associated with an unconditioned stimulus (in this case, foot shock) over a series of trials, until the neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned response (freezing behavior in response to the light).

The answer to this question is A because AD is associated with a build-up of Aβ and NFT levels in certain brain regions. Therefore, the researchers would most likely overexpress both Aβ and NFT in the genetically modified mice to create a good mouse model for AD.

Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a disorder characterized by declining cognition and clinical symptoms such as increased fear and anxiety. AD symptoms are also associated with neuronal pathologies. To better understand the underlying neuronal mechanisms mediating the clinical symptoms of AD, researchers used a mouse model of AD. Researchers conducted a study using control mice (non-modified genes) and genetically engineered mice (modified genes) with altered expression of the genes coding for the β-amyloid (Aβ) and neurofibrillary tangle (NFT) proteins. Mice were administered either saline (control) or encenicline, an acetylcholine agonist. Freezing behavior, which is induced by fear and defined as a complete cessation of all movement, was measured in mice. A fear conditioning paradigm was used whereby in the first phase, foot shock, which induces fear in mice, was paired with a bright light for many trials. In the second stage, only the light stimulus was presented, which induced fear, and the percentage of time spent freezing was measured. Results are shown in Figure 1. Spatial working memory was also tested, and results indicated that, overall, genetically modified mice performed significantly more poorly on the task compared to control mice. Researchers then measured the expression levels of Aβ and NFT in the amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal cortex, brain regions known to regulate fear and memory processing. Compared to control mice, the genetically modified mice were more likely to exhibit which expression levels of Aβ and NFT? A.Higher expression levels of both Aβ and NFT in the brain regions examined in the study B.Lower expression levels of both Aβ and NFT in the brain regions examined in the study C.Lower expression levels of Aβ, but higher expression levels of NFT in the brain regions examined in the study D.Higher expression levels of Aβ, but lower expression levels of NFT in the brain regions examined in the study

The answer to this question is B. The most important information in the question is the reference to a similar amount of income. Horizontal mobility describes a situation in which an individual changes some aspect of social identity (from employed to unemployed, for example) but maintains the same relative status (income remains the same).

An individual loses his job and obtains a similar amount of income through social security disability insurance. Which type of social mobility best characterizes the situation? A.Exchange mobility B.Horizontal mobility C.Downward mobility D.Upward mobility

Solution: The correct answer is C. This Sociology question is covered by content in the "Social interactions" category. The correct answer is C. Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single role. As applied to the question, the tension that the cultural liaison experiences is between different responsibilities within the same occupational role. If the tension existed between different roles that a single individual held, then it would be considered role conflict. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to identify the concept that describes an experience relevant to a group from the passage.

Because cultural liaisons work closely with physicians and are advocates for patients, which phenomenon are cultural liaisons most likely to experience? A.Network redundancy because of the amount of people with whom they come into contact B.Homogeneity because they will see the same patients over and over C.Role strain because of their collegiality with physicians and their responsibility to patients D.Role conflict because of their status as a non-medical professional in a clinic setting

The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is D because spreading activation suggests that, when a concept is activated, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to use your knowledge of a theory from behavioral science to make a prediction.

Categorical bias refers to people's tendency to judge the physical distance between objects from the same category as being smaller compared to the distance between objects from different categories. Seven-, nine-, and eleven-year-old children and a group of adults were recruited to participate in a study of categorical bias. In the training phase, each participant was presented with 20 objects in a box and was asked to study the location of these objects. The training objects were selected from four categories: vehicles, animals, food, and clothing. There were two different types of training conditions. The participants in the simultaneous condition were presented with all the training objects all at once and were asked to study their locations simultaneously. The participants in the serial condition were presented with the training objects one at a time. Testing began immediately after the training. The objects were removed from the box, and the participants were asked to position the objects in the empty box exactly as they were arranged in the training phase. The researchers were interested in whether the participants showed categorical bias, which was measured by central placement error. To assess this, the researchers first calculated the central point between objects of the same category based on their original locations during training. The central placement error was determined based on the errors participants made in placing objects from the same category nearer to the central point than their original locations.

The answer to this question is A because, in the serial condition, the objects are presented to the participants one at a time, which might result in better memory for events at the beginning of the series (a primacy effect)

The answer to this question is C. The amygdala plays a role in intense emotional reactions.

Compared to non-anxious participants, socially anxious participants reading negative peer evaluations are more likely to show enhanced activation in which brain region due to intense emotional responses? A.Thalamus B.Cerebellum C.Amygdala D.Medulla oblongata

The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is D because the cerebellum is most likely to be involved in the execution of a coordinated motor task. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to relate a particular structure to its function in the performance of a specific behavior.

Damage to which nervous system structure is most likely to cause problems in the participants' ability to perform the synchronous behaviors in studies 1 and 2? A.Hippocampus B.Hypothalamus C.Cochlea D.Cerebellum

The correct answer is option B. Both studies found an association between exposures to the Stroke Belt at an earlier age and the risk of stroke at a later age. The life course approach, a holistic perspective that calls attention to developmental processes and other experiences across a person's life, is consistent with findings from both studies that earlier life exposures can influence later disease risk.

Researchers have known for decades that stroke incidence differs across regions of the United States. In particular, several states in the southeastern U.S. have been labeled the Stroke Belt (SB), due to the region's high risk of stroke. Previous research has found an association between stroke incidence and residence at the time of stroke, but studies are also investigating the relationship between stroke incidence and earlier exposure to the SB. Study 1 Researchers assessed whether SB residence in childhood was linked to excess risk of stroke in adulthood. Data were from a longitudinal survey of adults over 50 years old. Participants reported their current state of residence and their primary state of residence during childhood. SB residence during childhood predicted excess risk of first stroke, regardless of current state of residence. The excess risk remained after statistical adjustment for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. The researchers concluded these findings were consistent with other studies that suggest a link between early development and physiological or behavioral changes that increase the risk of stroke decades later. The researchers also considered the hypothesis that genetic predispositions to stroke may be more likely among people living in the SB. To test this hypothesis, they proposed follow-up studies using twins who were born in SB states but who were adopted into different families. Study 2 Researchers designed a study with more specific measures of SB exposure. Data were from a longitudinal survey that tracked stroke incidence among adults over 45 years old. Participants were asked to provide a detailed residential history from birth until the present. These responses were used to test associations between stroke incidence and: (1) SB exposure at specific age ranges, and (2) length of time in the SB. Results showed that specific age ranges and length of time were both associated with increased stroke risk. After adjusting for demographic factors, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risks, the strongest association with stroke incidence was found for SB exposure during adolescence (ages 13-18). The researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. Based on the passage, the researchers in studies 1 and 2 are most likely to support which sociological perspective on health or illness? A. The medicalization of illness B. The life course approach to health C. The socioeconomic gradient in health D. The social construction of illness

A (This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is A because, based on the standardization system used to score IQ, the Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are "normalized" to a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. So 68% of the scores will be between 85 and 115. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to demonstrate your knowledge of the normal distribution of IQ scores.)

Full scale IQ scores at age 6 Cocaine exposure: 82.6 ± 13.1 Control: 84.2 ± 12.9 p values = 0.55 Interpretation of intelligence test scores is based on the assumption that the scores are normally distributed within a population such that: A. more than two-thirds of children will score between 85 and 115. B. a quarter of all children will perform poorly on least one component of the exam. C. significantly more children will score at the extremes of the scoring distribution than in the middle. D. only exceptionally gifted children would have IQ scores above 85 by age 6; perfect test scores are rare during early childhood.

The answer to this question is D because it describes a latent, or unintended, function. Because the expected function of yoga is not specifically smoking cessation, its utility as a cessation therapy is a latent function of the social activity. The sociological paradigm of functionalism makes a distinction between manifest, or intended, and latent, or unintended, functions of social activities. From the functionalist perspective, almost all social actions have both manifest functions and latent functions, both of which are connected to overall social stability. The other response options with the question are better linked to the conflict or symbolic interactionist perspectives in sociology.

How would a structural functionalist interpret the efficacy of yoga as part of a smoking cessation therapy? A.Yoga provides an alternate understanding of healthful practices that enables the individual to better understand his or her personal needs and motives. B.Yoga provides an inexpensive therapy option for those lacking the financial resources necessary for more expensive medical interventions. C.The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy stems from the transformation of the individual's self-concept as a nonsmoker. D.The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy is an unintended, though beneficial, outcome of a yoga practice.

The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is B because early memory research with adults led to the belief that the capacity of working memory was between 5 and 9 items. The so-called "magic number 7 ± 2" was the name George Miller (1956) gave to this estimate. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to demonstrate your understanding of a foundational concept in behavioral science.

If adults performed the block tapping task as a measure of working memory capacity, they would most likely replicate sequences of what length correctly? A.9 plus or minus 1 B.7 plus or minus 2 C.10 plus or minus 1 D.16 plus or minus 2

The correct answer is D. This is a Sociology question based on content found in the "Social interactions" category. The correct answer is D. The study in the passage calls attention to the interplay of individual attitudes and overall organizational culture. Given the results of the study, it is expected that minority group members would be more likely to experience unfair treatment when individual bias is allowed to exist in an organization. The incorrect options do not address the combination of individual factors and organizational culture; only the correct answer brings these aspects of the study together. Because the question assesses your ability to understand and synthesize the study results, it is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question.

If gender and race are considered in decision-making processes in the workplace, it can lead to discrimination and inequality. This inequality includes hiring and firing practices, amount of pay, and opportunities for advancement. More than 60,000 complaints citing employer bias and racial or gender discrimination were filed with the Ohio Civil Rights Committee (OCRC) from 1988 to 2003. Researchers used these data to study the dynamics of workplace discrimination. For Sample 1, they compiled 15,175 claims that were found to be justified with supporting evidence by the OCRC. The researchers divided justifiable claims into five categories: exclusion (not being hired), expulsion (getting fired), promotion, demotion, and harassment on the job (overt antagonism, neglect, or differential treatment). These data are shown in Table 1. Race Gender Exclusion 5% 4% Expulsion 56% 55% Promotion 7% 4% Demotion 2% 3% Harassment 30% 34% For Sample 2, the researchers used a random subsample of 740 cases for an in-depth analysis of the claims to examine how inequality in the workplace is created and maintained. They concluded that gatekeeping actors, such as workplace supervisors, are driven by preset cultural views and stereotypes. The gatekeeping actors operate within an organizational structure where procedures and rules allow them the flexibility to act on stereotypes. Thus, they recreate status hierarchies within work organizations and engage in discriminatory practices that harm women and minorities. If this study were replicated, which hypothesis would most likely be supported? A.Regular employees with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. B.Workplace supervisors with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. C.Organizational culture is the primary determinant of whether minority populations are excluded from a workplace. D.The interplay between a supervisor's stereotypical views and an organization that fosters those stereotypes would be more detrimental to minority group members.

The correct answer is C. This is a Sociology question that is covered by the content category "Demographic characteristics and processes." The correct answer is C, because the study in the passage takes a mixed methods approach. The research design employs both a quantitative component (the statistical analysis of the total claims) and a qualitative component (the in-depth analysis of a subset of cases). Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology. Because the question requires you to identify the best description of the research design, it is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question.

If gender and race are considered in decision-making processes in the workplace, it can lead to discrimination and inequality. This inequality includes hiring and firing practices, amount of pay, and opportunities for advancement. More than 60,000 complaints citing employer bias and racial or gender discrimination were filed with the Ohio Civil Rights Committee (OCRC) from 1988 to 2003. Researchers used these data to study the dynamics of workplace discrimination. For Sample 1, they compiled 15,175 claims that were found to be justified with supporting evidence by the OCRC. The researchers divided justifiable claims into five categories: exclusion (not being hired), expulsion (getting fired), promotion, demotion, and harassment on the job (overt antagonism, neglect, or differential treatment). These data are shown in Table 1. Race Gender Exclusion 5% 4% Expulsion 56% 55% Promotion 7% 4% Demotion 2% 3% Harassment 30% 34% For Sample 2, the researchers used a random subsample of 740 cases for an in-depth analysis of the claims to examine how inequality in the workplace is created and maintained. They concluded that gatekeeping actors, such as workplace supervisors, are driven by preset cultural views and stereotypes. The gatekeeping actors operate within an organizational structure where procedures and rules allow them the flexibility to act on stereotypes. Thus, they recreate status hierarchies within work organizations and engage in discriminatory practices that harm women and minorities. The research in the passage is best described as a: A.qualitative study. B.quantitative study. C.mixed-methods study. D.case study.

The answer to the question is A because the occipital lobes are responsible for vision, including color vision.

If the researchers monitored the cortical activity of the baboons as they viewed the color patches, they would most likely find increased activity in the: A.occipital cortex. B.temporal cortex. C.somatosensory cortex. D.motor cortex.

The answer to this question is C. Those in the social identity condition exhibited more groupthink symptoms than those in the interpersonal condition. They make more rationalizations, introduce fewer facts, and discuss risks less frequently. Pressures to reach consensus and stifle dissent are key to groupthink, and thus a group norm that encouraged dissent and critical evaluation would address the central problem of groupthink.

In Study 2, researchers conducted a study with 320 undergraduates to investigate which of the two conditions, interpersonal or social identity, influenced groupthink more. For the interpersonal condition, participants were recruited in existing four-person friendship groups, while for the social identity condition, participants were randomly assigned to four-person groups. Once assigned, participants in the social identity groups were asked to imagine that they had just won a student election. They were given five minutes to choose a name for their group that was displayed and reflected the policies the group would endorse. Groups in both conditions selected one of their four members to be the group leader. The group leaders were given instructions separately to advocate for a specific position in the discussion. Groups were provided with pro and con arguments for the closing of a respected campus movie theater and they were given 25 minutes to reach a decision. All discussions were recorded. Following completion of the decision-making process, participants completed a questionnaire assessing the presence of groupthink symptoms in the group. The recorded group discussions were analyzed for evidence of decision-making effectiveness. Participants in the social identity condition, compared to interpersonal condition, were more likely to report deference to the leader, self-censorship, and more pressure to agree. During the discussions, participants in the social identity condition groups were more likely to exhibit groupthink symptoms such as making more rationalizations, introducing fewer facts, and discussing risks less frequently. Based on the findings in Study 2, which strategy for decision-making groups would be most likely to prevent groupthink? A.Make certain that all decision-making groups are made up of groups of friends. B.Whenever possible, avoid the selection of a group leader through popular vote. C.Encourage a group norm of critical evaluation and dissent in decision-making. D.Require decision-making groups to verify that groupthink did not influence their decision.

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Attitude and behavior change." The answer to this question is C because it states the method that is usually used, in operant conditioning studies, to operationally define the subject's motivational state. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires an understanding of how behavior is observed in order to operationally define an organism's motivational state.

In operant conditioning studies, the subject's motivational state is most typically operationally defined by: A. observing the subject's behavior over a long period of time. B. using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes. C. depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time. D. using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like.

The correct answer is B. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Social inequality." The correct answer is B. Neighborhoods that are segregated by socioeconomic status create increased social distance to the extent that people from different backgrounds have trouble relating to each other's experiences. The correct answer succinctly explains this by referring to closed networks and social boundaries that exist across neighborhoods. Because the question requires you to evaluate explanations and select the response with the most likely implications for physician-patient interactions, it is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question.

Neighborhood-level socioeconomic inequalities are most likely to affect physician-patient interactions through which phenomenon? A.Status hierarchies rely on socioeconomic differences above other master status characteristics. B.Physical boundaries create social boundaries and closed networks which develop their own cultures. C.Socioeconomic inequalities create role conflict in physicians who are trained to treat all patients equally. D.The physician-patient relationship is not subject to the same external forces that govern other relationships.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This Sociology question is covered by the content category "Social interactions." The answer to this question is B, social network analysis. Used in some epidemiological studies, social network analysis is the method described in the question. It involves the mapping of social relationships among individuals. Because the question asks you to understand and identify a social science research method, it is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question.

Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals? A.Social support analysis B.Social network analysis C.Social stratification analysis D.Social reproduction analysis

The answer to this question is A. Participants answered state self-esteem items before and after peer evaluations. Thus, subjects acted as their own controls.

Over time, individuals internalize the opinions of others into a fairly stable pattern of self-worth, known as trait self-esteem. They also experience temporary fluctuations in esteem depending on current circumstances, known as state self-esteem. In young adolescents, state self-esteem is relatively unstable and can be influenced by peers. It is unclear whether social anxiety and depression are correlates of peer-influenced self-esteem. Researchers investigated the influence of peer evaluations in 10- to 13-year-old participants. Participants were first administered self-report measures to assess social anxiety and depressive symptoms. They were also administered a state self-esteem questionnaire assessing their sense of worth at the present time (Time 1). After completion of self-report measures, participants were told that they would be participating in an online contest with peers from different schools. First, each participant answered personal questions on a computer screen such as qualities they like and dislike about themselves. They were told that their answers and their pictures would be posted on a webpage to be viewed by a panel of peer judges. After a brief waiting period, photographs of the judges appeared on a screen, along with their comments for each participant, consisting of 4 sentences each. In the approval condition, three of the four sentences were positive (such as "I would like to be friends with this person"), and one sentence was neutral (such as "I think this person likes reading"). In the disapproval condition, one sentence was neutral and the others were negative (such as "I would not like to be friends with this person"). After reading the feedback, participants completed the state self-esteem questionnaire again (Time 2). Results indicated that participants with high social anxiety experienced significantly stronger increases in state self-esteem following peer approval than those with low social anxiety. Participants with high social anxiety also showed significantly stronger decreases in state self-esteem following peer disapproval compared to those with low social anxiety. Depressive symptoms did not produce changes in state self-esteem in either the peer approval or disapproval condition. Which statement is accurate regarding the research design of the study? A.Measures of state self-esteem allowed participants to act as their own controls. B.State and trait self-esteem were assessed to investigate influences on peer evaluation. C.The study's design is longitudinal since state self-esteem was assessed at Time 1 and Time 2. D.Participants were randomly assigned to the social anxiety and depressive symptoms groups.

The correct answer is C. This Sociology question falls under the content category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is option C because the median splits the sample distribution of values in half. Thus, a median of 25 can be described as half the sample having a BMI over 25 and half having a BMI under 25. The statements in the other options do not correctly describe the sample data in the question. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because you are asked to show an understanding of descriptive statistics by interpreting the mean and median.

Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? A.More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25. B.The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30. C.Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. D.More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is D because it is the only option that describes a perceptual experience that results from a form of top down processing (i.e., context effects), but is neither a perceptual illusion nor the result of one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to demonstrate your ability to recognize a perceptual phenomenon that does not result from the kinds of organizational processes explained by Gestalt principles.

Psychologists have investigated how humans organize their perceptual experiences in ways that allow them to quickly understand the meaning of those experiences. However, in many cases, people's perceptions of objects, scenes, and events in the world differ from the stimulus that is registered by the sensory receptors. One example of the human tendency for perceptual organization is evident in Panel D of Figure 1. People tend to see the items arranged in columns of squares and circles, rather than rows of alternating shapes. Figure 1 Four illustrations of perceptual organization Humans experience a variety of visual illusions, highlighting that their perception of the world can differ from how the world really is. For example, the introduction of other stimuli around the perimeter of two central dots, as shown in Panel A, can lead to the misperception of the central dot in the left half of the figure as being smaller than the central dot in the right half of the figure. Similarly, when looking at the image in Panel B, people tend to believe that there are more white dots in the array than black dots, even though the number of dots of each color is the same. Finally, people will report seeing things that do not really exist, such as the bright, illusory triangle pointing downward in Panel C. Perceptual illusions can contribute to decisional errors, because people may not realize that they have misperceived critical features of stimuli. Researchers are studying how people's reliance on their perceptual experience leads them to make choices that are influenced by such factors. Which of the following experiences is NOT related to any of the principles of perceptual organization that are described in the passage? A. Seeing a portion of food served on a large plate as being smaller than the same portion of food served on a small plate B. Seeing birds flying in the same direction as being part of an integrated flock C. Seeing cars lined up in a parking lot as being in long rows, rather than in pairs facing each other with a gap between each pair D. Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained

The answer to this question is B because Gestalt psychology was the theoretical approach that emphasized the idea that the ways in which people's perceptual experience is organized result from how human brains are organized.

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Sensing the environment." The answer to this question is D because the proximal stimulus is the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors (e.g., the pattern of light falling on the retina), which is referred to in the first paragraph. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to understand the distinction between the distal stimulus and the proximal stimulus.

Remembering past personal events, such as state of residence in childhood (asked of participants in Study 1) and residential history since birth (asked of participants in Study 2), requires retrieval of episodic information from memory. For some of the participants in both studies, decay is likely to affect the retrieval of that information from memory (probably more so with the detailed residential history in Study 2). If this information is not accurately reported by some participants, it will affect the validity of the measures of Stroke Belt exposure.

Researchers have known for decades that stroke incidence differs across regions of the United States. In particular, several states in the southeastern U.S. have been labeled the Stroke Belt (SB), due to the region's high risk of stroke. Previous research has found an association between stroke incidence and residence at the time of stroke, but studies are also investigating the relationship between stroke incidence and earlier exposure to the SB. Study 1 Researchers assessed whether SB residence in childhood was linked to excess risk of stroke in adulthood. Data were from a longitudinal survey of adults over 50 years old. Participants reported their current state of residence and their primary state of residence during childhood. SB residence during childhood predicted excess risk of first stroke, regardless of current state of residence. The excess risk remained after statistical adjustment for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. The researchers concluded these findings were consistent with other studies that suggest a link between early development and physiological or behavioral changes that increase the risk of stroke decades later. The researchers also considered the hypothesis that genetic predispositions to stroke may be more likely among people living in the SB. To test this hypothesis, they proposed follow-up studies using twins who were born in SB states but who were adopted into different families. Study 2 Researchers designed a study with more specific measures of SB exposure. Data were from a longitudinal survey that tracked stroke incidence among adults over 45 years old. Participants were asked to provide a detailed residential history from birth until the present. These responses were used to test associations between stroke incidence and: (1) SB exposure at specific age ranges, and (2) length of time in the SB. Results showed that specific age ranges and length of time were both associated with increased stroke risk. After adjusting for demographic factors, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risks, the strongest association with stroke incidence was found for SB exposure during adolescence (ages 13-18). The researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. Which memory process is most likely to affect the validity of participants' responses to the survey questions described in studies 1 and 2? A. Proactive interference B. Source amnesia C. Decay in episodic memory D. Decay in semantic memory

The answer to this question is D. When people study new material, any new information introduced between the initial learning (i.e., encoding) and retrieval, such as viewing a movie, will interfere with memory consolidation.

Research has shown that when individuals study material right before going to sleep, they perform better on a recall measure upon awakening compared to individuals who study and then watch a movie before going to sleep. Which memory construct provides the most likely explanation for these results? A.Misinformation B.Primacy C.Spreading activation D.Interference

D The answer to this question is D because the capacity for retrieving general information (i.e., semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging.

Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person's: A. capacity for acquiring new declarative information. B. capacity for controlling his or her memory processes. C. ability to cope with Alzheimer's Disease. D. ability to retrieve general information.

The answer to this question is C. The study cited in the question refers to the conclusion that attitudes of health providers often overlooked the consequences of discrimination and poverty in explaining their patients' behavior. This statement suggests the need to consider situational explanations of patient behavior. The other possible answers are other types of psychological explanations, but none is suggested by the statement about provider attitudes.

Research shows demographic variation in the rates of alcohol, tobacco, and drug use among adolescents in the United States. For example, White and Hispanic high school students are more likely than Black high school students to report binge drinking (defined as consuming five or more alcoholic drinks within a couple of hours for men; four or more drinks within a couple of hours for women) on at least one occasion within the past 30 days. Interventions that target substance use in adolescents are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors that could lead to dependence. Although psychoactive drugs vary in terms of their risk of dependence, one of the factors associated with substance use disorders (SUD) in adolescents is the strong desire to ingest a drug (or other substance). Research also shows that access to SUD treatment among adolescents differs by race or ethnicity. Studies of disparities in SUD treatment explore levels of analysis that range from school and community dynamics to preferences and interactions among individuals. Behavioral health services for adolescents are usually received either at school or at the request of school personnel. Some studies have found that schools exhibit subtle and often unintentional differences in SUD treatment referrals based on students' race or ethnicity. Communities with limited access to behavioral health services are sometimes able to compensate with extensive social ties among community members. These ties provide various forms of assistance that reduce the strain on families coping with a SUD problem in an adolescent. Other research has found that racial and ethnic minority groups may be reluctant to label certain behaviors as symptoms that require professional care. At the individual level, some researchers have hypothesized that racial and ethnic minority youth with higher levels of self-efficacy may avoid discussions of behavioral health issues with others. SUD treatment disparities could also be related to patient-provider interactions. In a study of healthcare provider attitudes, researchers concluded that providers often overlooked the consequences of discrimination and poverty in explaining their patients' behaviors. The provider attitudes study referenced at the end of the passage suggests that healthcare providers sometimes fail to consider which type of explanation of behavior? A.Dispositional B.Cognitive C.Situational D.Affective

A The answer to this question is A because cocaine is a stimulant it would have a physiological effect similar to stress and hence glucose metabolism is expected to increase. B is incorrect because transport of cocaine to the fetal circulation does not indicate whether the drug is pharmacologically active in the fetus. C is incorrect because the fetus may not be mature enough to feel pain. In any case, pain relief is associated with heroin, not cocaine. D is incorrect because, if the receptors were internalized, dopamine could not be pharmacologically active. Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the outside, not inside, of neurons.

Research using animal models indicates that cocaine exposure during pregnancy: (1) reduces oxygen levels and blood flow to the uterus, (2) interferes with neural proliferation and synaptogenesis, (3) alters functioning of three neurotransmitters (dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine) in the offspring during gestation, and thereafter, (4) impairs post-weaning discrimination learning and attention skills. Researchers hypothesized that cocaine is pharmacologically active in the primate fetal brain when pregnant primates are administered cocaine at doses typically used by human drug users. Which experimental observation best supports their hypothesis? A. Glucose metabolism in the fetal brain increased. B. Imaging studies showed that cocaine entered the fetal circulation. C. The fetus had an increase in tolerance to pain. D. Imaging studies showed increased internalization of dopamine receptors.

B The answer to this question is B, because this is the mechanism by which neurotransmitters function. A is incorrect because neurotransmitters are manufactured in neurons. C is incorrect because neurotransmitters are exocytosed from presynaptic neurons into a synaptic cleft. The receptors for the neurotransmitters are located on the postsynaptic neuron; therefore they are not distributed within the cerebrospinal fluid. D is incorrect because electrical synapses, which have gap junctions, do not involve neurotransmitters.

Research using animal models indicates that cocaine exposure during pregnancy: (1) reduces oxygen levels and blood flow to the uterus, (2) interferes with neural proliferation and synaptogenesis, (3) alters functioning of three neurotransmitters (dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine) in the offspring during gestation, and thereafter, (4) impairs post-weaning discrimination learning and attention skills. Which characteristic collectively best describes the three molecules that are functionally altered in offspring as a result of fetal exposure to cocaine? Each molecule: A. is only manufactured in endocrine glands throughout the body. B. binds to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane within the CNS. C. is distributed to target neurons within the cerebrospinal fluid. D. transmits signals between two neurons at a faster speed than through gap junctions.

The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is B because seeing squares light up on the computer screen would register with visual sensors, forming a sensory memory before working memory is activated. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to demonstrate your understanding of a foundational concept in behavioral science.

Researchers examined whether adding gaming elements to a computerized working memory task for children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) was beneficial. Fifty-one children between 7 and 12 years of age with ADHD were randomly assigned to a computer task with either a non-gaming or gaming format. In the non-gaming condition, squares on a four-by-four grid lit up in random order on a screen. Participants were asked to replicate the pattern by clicking their computer mouse on the squares in the same sequence. Trial difficulty was adjusted depending on participants' performance. In the gaming condition, animated figures were added. Points were earned by responding correctly, which strengthened participants' efforts and weakened animated opponents. Points were lost by responding incorrectly, strengthening the opponents' power. Trials of varying difficulty were presented randomly to participants. The training session for each condition lasted 35 minutes. After 15 minutes, participants were given a choice to continue playing the game or read a magazine. Data were collected once weekly for three weeks. Participants' working memory capacity for visual-spatial information was assessed with a block-tapping task. A researcher tapped 3-dimensional blocks in a specific sequence that participants were asked to replicate. Motivation was assessed in three ways. First, the computer tracked how many grid sequences the participants attempted to solve. Second, absence time was recorded when each participant was not interacting with the mouse. Third, participants answered an exit questionnaire asking how much they liked the task and whether they would like to have it at home. Results indicated that participants in the gaming condition spent more time playing the game, attempted to replicate more sequences, and made fewer errors. These participants also earned higher scores on the block-tapping task compared to children in the non-gaming condition. The same participants were also more likely to report liking the game and wanting a version to play at home. Which type of memory would most likely be activated first during the computer task, before working memory is activated? A.Implicit memory B.Sensory memory C.Short-term memory D.Episodic memory

The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is A. In the gaming task, each correct response increased the player's strength and weakened the opponent. Each incorrect response weakened the player and increased the opponent's strength. The gains and losses of points provided immediate feedback, which shaped subsequent performance. Response B is incorrect because the presence or absence of animated figures was not contingent on the participant's responses. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to use your understanding of a basic behavioral science concept to draw a conclusion.

Researchers examined whether adding gaming elements to a computerized working memory task for children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) was beneficial. Fifty-one children between 7 and 12 years of age with ADHD were randomly assigned to a computer task with either a non-gaming or gaming format. In the non-gaming condition, squares on a four-by-four grid lit up in random order on a screen. Participants were asked to replicate the pattern by clicking their computer mouse on the squares in the same sequence. Trial difficulty was adjusted depending on participants' performance. In the gaming condition, animated figures were added. Points were earned by responding correctly, which strengthened participants' efforts and weakened animated opponents. Points were lost by responding incorrectly, strengthening the opponents' power. Trials of varying difficulty were presented randomly to participants. The training session for each condition lasted 35 minutes. After 15 minutes, participants were given a choice to continue playing the game or read a magazine. Data were collected once weekly for three weeks. Participants' working memory capacity for visual-spatial information was assessed with a block-tapping task. A researcher tapped 3-dimensional blocks in a specific sequence that participants were asked to replicate. Motivation was assessed in three ways. First, the computer tracked how many grid sequences the participants attempted to solve. Second, absence time was recorded when each participant was not interacting with the mouse. Third, participants answered an exit questionnaire asking how much they liked the task and whether they would like to have it at home. Results indicated that participants in the gaming condition spent more time playing the game, attempted to replicate more sequences, and made fewer errors. These participants also earned higher scores on the block-tapping task compared to children in the non-gaming condition. The same participants were also more likely to report liking the game and wanting a version to play at home. Based on the study, which extrinsic factor most likely accounts for the motivational differences between groups? A.Rewards and losses tied to memory performance for the gaming group B.The presence of animated characters in the visual display for the gaming group C.The opportunity to stop playing the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups D.The opportunity to state they disliked the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment," in relation to psychological development. The question refers to the conclusion in Study 1, which suggests a link between early development (prenatal, infancy, or childhood) and physiological or behavioral changes that increase stroke risk decades later. This conclusion in the passage is most directly relevant to the concept of sensitive period (also referred to as a critical period), which identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Sociology question that draws on content from the "Social interactions" content category. It requires Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving to select the public health strategy that is most consistent with the researchers' conclusion in Study 2. The correct answer is option A. Based on the Study 2 findings, the researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. This conclusion suggests targeting the formation of norms during adolescence. Relationships and interactions in adolescents' social networks will establish norms related to health that may become long-standing. Targeting the formation of health behaviors could involve the norms in adolescents' peer networks, family networks, and community networks. The incorrect options, although potentially valuable interventions, do not target sociological factors that are directly relevant to the researchers' conclusion in Study 2.

Researchers have known for decades that stroke incidence differs across regions of the United States. In particular, several states in the southeastern U.S. have been labeled the Stroke Belt (SB), due to the region's high risk of stroke. Previous research has found an association between stroke incidence and residence at the time of stroke, but studies are also investigating the relationship between stroke incidence and earlier exposure to the SB. Study 1 Researchers assessed whether SB residence in childhood was linked to excess risk of stroke in adulthood. Data were from a longitudinal survey of adults over 50 years old. Participants reported their current state of residence and their primary state of residence during childhood. SB residence during childhood predicted excess risk of first stroke, regardless of current state of residence. The excess risk remained after statistical adjustment for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. The researchers concluded these findings were consistent with other studies that suggest a link between early development and physiological or behavioral changes that increase the risk of stroke decades later. The researchers also considered the hypothesis that genetic predispositions to stroke may be more likely among people living in the SB. To test this hypothesis, they proposed follow-up studies using twins who were born in SB states but who were adopted into different families. Study 2 Researchers designed a study with more specific measures of SB exposure. Data were from a longitudinal survey that tracked stroke incidence among adults over 45 years old. Participants were asked to provide a detailed residential history from birth until the present. These responses were used to test associations between stroke incidence and: (1) SB exposure at specific age ranges, and (2) length of time in the SB. Results showed that specific age ranges and length of time were both associated with increased stroke risk. After adjusting for demographic factors, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risks, the strongest association with stroke incidence was found for SB exposure during adolescence (ages 13-18). The researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. The researchers' conclusion in Study 2 is most consistent with which public health strategy in SB states? A. Targeting the formation of health behaviors in social networks B. Eliminating prejudice and ethnocentrism in health care delivery C. Reducing role conflict and supporting psychosocial development D. Increasing social and cultural capital in low income communities

The correct answer is option D. Studies 1 and 2 were first described with unadjusted results, followed by results after adjusting for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. Statistical adjustment refers to controlling for variables that could affect the relationship between the independent variable (in this case, Stroke Belt residence) and the dependent variable (stroke incidence). Possible control variables based on the description in the study include race/ethnicity (a demographic characteristic) and education (an aspect of socioeconomic status), as identified in the correct answer.

Researchers have known for decades that stroke incidence differs across regions of the United States. In particular, several states in the southeastern U.S. have been labeled the Stroke Belt (SB), due to the region's high risk of stroke. Previous research has found an association between stroke incidence and residence at the time of stroke, but studies are also investigating the relationship between stroke incidence and earlier exposure to the SB. Study 1 Researchers assessed whether SB residence in childhood was linked to excess risk of stroke in adulthood. Data were from a longitudinal survey of adults over 50 years old. Participants reported their current state of residence and their primary state of residence during childhood. SB residence during childhood predicted excess risk of first stroke, regardless of current state of residence. The excess risk remained after statistical adjustment for demographic characteristics, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risk factors. The researchers concluded these findings were consistent with other studies that suggest a link between early development and physiological or behavioral changes that increase the risk of stroke decades later. The researchers also considered the hypothesis that genetic predispositions to stroke may be more likely among people living in the SB. To test this hypothesis, they proposed follow-up studies using twins who were born in SB states but who were adopted into different families. Study 2 Researchers designed a study with more specific measures of SB exposure. Data were from a longitudinal survey that tracked stroke incidence among adults over 45 years old. Participants were asked to provide a detailed residential history from birth until the present. These responses were used to test associations between stroke incidence and: (1) SB exposure at specific age ranges, and (2) length of time in the SB. Results showed that specific age ranges and length of time were both associated with increased stroke risk. After adjusting for demographic factors, socioeconomic status, and cardiovascular risks, the strongest association with stroke incidence was found for SB exposure during adolescence (ages 13-18). The researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing social norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. Which statement best describes the statistical adjustment that was performed in studies 1 and 2? A. The adjustment determined whether the results from the sample were generalizable. B. The researchers controlled for factors such as social capital and cultural capital. C. The adjustment determined whether the measures of stroke risk were reliable. D. The researchers controlled for factors such as race/ethnicity and education.

The answer to this question is B. The strong negative correlation means that, as one variable increases (in this case, people who drink more alcohol), there is an associated decrease in another variable (in this case, internal locus of control, or believing that they control their own fate).

Results from a study indicate that there is a -0.82 correlation between alcohol consumption and internal locus of control. Which statement will most likely be concluded from these findings? A.High alcohol consumption behavior is strongly associated with people perceiving that they control their own fate. B.High alcohol consumption behavior is strongly associated with people perceiving that chance or outside forces control their fate. C.High alcohol consumption behavior causes people to perceive that chance or outside forces determine their fate. D.High alcohol consumption behavior is weakly associated with people perceiving that they control their own fate.

The answer to this question is D. The researchers' suggestion calls for more studies that seek to understand how implicit attitudes about weight affect quality of care. This suggested research would address the relationship between healthcare providers' attitudes and their behaviors. The correct answer provides a research method (observational study) that investigates communication behaviors (relevant to quality of care) with patients who differ based on BMI. Although the incorrect options could each provide valuable data, the focus remains primarily on providers' attitudes. The correct response is consistent with the suggestion in the passage because it examines communication behaviors.

Results showed both implicit and explicit bias against overweight and obese individuals, which varied by participants' gender and body mass index (BMI). On average, female MDs displayed less weight-related bias than male MDs. Strong implicit anti-obesity bias was found among MDs with an underweight, normal weight, and overweight BMI classification. Among MDs with an obese BMI classification, implicit anti-obesity bias was moderate. Overall, patterns of weight bias among MD participants were similar to that of the larger sample of participants from the general public. The researchers suggested that more studies are needed to explore how implicit attitudes about weight might affect healthcare quality. Which research project provides the best application of the researchers' suggestion for future study? A.A survey of clinicians' training in preventing medical conditions related to excess weight B.A focus group that raises clinicians' awareness of implicit bias and weight discrimination in health care C.An experiment that measures changes in clinicians' attitudes after interacting with patients who have different BMIs D.An observational study of clinicians' verbal and nonverbal communication with patients who have different BMIs

The answer to this question is B because the findings related to BMI category suggest in-group versus out-group dynamics. The study found that the level of anti-obesity bias was related to the respondent's BMI category. Bias tends to be directed toward out-group members; thus, it would be expected that weight-related bias would be associated with an individual's BMI category.

Results showed both implicit and explicit bias against overweight and obese individuals, which varied by participants' gender and body mass index (BMI). On average, female MDs displayed less weight-related bias than male MDs. Strong implicit anti-obesity bias was found among MDs with an underweight, normal weight, and overweight BMI classification. Among MDs with an obese BMI classification, implicit anti-obesity bias was moderate. Overall, patterns of weight bias among MD participants were similar to that of the larger sample of participants from the general public. The researchers suggested that more studies are needed to explore how implicit attitudes about weight might affect healthcare quality. Which aspect of social interaction best explains the study's findings related to BMI classification? A.Primary versus secondary group ties B.In-group versus out-group associations C.Front-stage versus back-stage presentations D.Role-taking versus impression management

The answer to this question is A. According to the passage, the United States tends to have less social mobility than its peer countries. This empirical finding from comparative research had led some scholars to question assumptions about opportunity in American society. Such questioning of opportunity would be relevant to the concept of meritocracy, which assumes that opportunity is based on a combination of talent and effort.

Since 1980, the United States has lagged behind most peer countries in life expectancy and many other population health indicators. The United States health disadvantage, relative to other high-income countries with similar social institutions, has been documented in such diverse areas of health as infant mortality, injuries and homicides, adolescent pregnancy, drug-related deaths, obesity and diabetes, heart disease, and disability. The causes of the U.S. health disadvantage are complex, emerging from multiple factors related to social structure and social interaction. Social Structure Factors The proportion of the population with low incomes compared to the median income has been higher in the United States than in peer countries since at least 1980. Similarly, the United States tends to have less social mobility than peer countries. These findings from comparative research have led some scholars to question assumptions about opportunity in American society. Although the United States has a comparatively high median household income, the U.S. income distribution is marked by higher levels of poverty and inequality. The U.S. health disadvantage is also not confined to racial or ethnic minority groups, or to groups with low income or educational attainment, but exists for all social classes and for the non-Hispanic white majority group. Social Interaction Factors Many studies have found that social support can help manage stress and thus protect health. Strong social support in local immigrant communities may partly explain the relatively good health of individuals from some immigrant groups in the United States, when compared to U.S.-born individuals with otherwise similar demographic characteristics. Cross-national differences in social capital have also been suggested as a possible explanation for the U.S. health disadvantage. Although some indicators of social capital, such as rates of volunteering, remain relatively high in the United States, other measures of social trust have declined since the 1970s. Mainly due to limitations in data, however, comparative conclusions about interactional factors like social support and social capital are generally more speculative than those relying on structural factors like poverty and inequality. Based on the passage, findings from comparative studies of social mobility have led some scholars to question which aspect of U.S. society? A.Meritocracy B.Socialization C.Social identity D.Cultural capital

The answer to this question is C. In the section on social interaction factors, it is suggested that strong social support in local immigrant communities may partly explain the relatively good health of individuals from some immigrant groups in the United States (when compared to U.S.-born individuals with otherwise similar demographic characteristics). Immigrant groups that are more assimilated (or as they become assimilated) tend to have worse health outcomes (or lose their previous health advantages) than less assimilated immigrant groups. Thus, the correct response reflects the hypothesis that more assimilated groups are likely to have less social support over time. Reducing that protective factor could thus lead to worse health overall.

Since 1980, the United States has lagged behind most peer countries in life expectancy and many other population health indicators. The United States health disadvantage, relative to other high-income countries with similar social institutions, has been documented in such diverse areas of health as infant mortality, injuries and homicides, adolescent pregnancy, drug-related deaths, obesity and diabetes, heart disease, and disability. The causes of the U.S. health disadvantage are complex, emerging from multiple factors related to social structure and social interaction. Social Structure Factors The proportion of the population with low incomes compared to the median income has been higher in the United States than in peer countries since at least 1980. Similarly, the United States tends to have less social mobility than peer countries. These findings from comparative research have led some scholars to question assumptions about opportunity in American society. Although the United States has a comparatively high median household income, the U.S. income distribution is marked by higher levels of poverty and inequality. The U.S. health disadvantage is also not confined to racial or ethnic minority groups, or to groups with low income or educational attainment, but exists for all social classes and for the non-Hispanic white majority group. Social Interaction Factors Many studies have found that social support can help manage stress and thus protect health. Strong social support in local immigrant communities may partly explain the relatively good health of individuals from some immigrant groups in the United States, when compared to U.S.-born individuals with otherwise similar demographic characteristics. Cross-national differences in social capital have also been suggested as a possible explanation for the U.S. health disadvantage. Although some indicators of social capital, such as rates of volunteering, remain relatively high in the United States, other measures of social trust have declined since the 1970s. Mainly due to limitations in data, however, comparative conclusions about interactional factors like social support and social capital are generally more speculative than those relying on structural factors like poverty and inequality. Which hypothesis of cultural assimilation, social support, and health outcomes is best supported by the passage information about immigrant groups? More assimilated groups will have: A.lower levels of support and better overall health. B.higher levels of support and worse overall health. C.lower levels of support and worse overall health. D.higher levels of support and better overall health.

The answer to this question is D. CBT first addresses maladaptive behaviors through behavior therapy to systematically modify a person's behavior. This is followed by sessions designed to foster cognitive change, through self-assessments.

Smoking cessation programs vary, such as those that rely on the use of medication and alternative methods that do not. Research has shown that 50% to 80% of individuals who attempt to quit smoking will do so without medication. Studies show that women have lower cessation rates than men. Researchers have identified gender-specific concerns that may negatively impact cessation, such as weight gain. Exercise has been proposed as a potential smoking cessation therapy that also addresses the concerns of weight gain. Researchers designed a study to examine the efficacy of yoga as a smoking cessation therapy. Yoga was specifically chosen because it combines a practice of physical postures with a meditative component. Fifty-five female participants were randomly assigned into groups of eight to ten individuals and were then placed in one of two conditions. The experimental condition paired a weekly hour-long cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program for smoking cessation with a twice-weekly, hour-long Vinyasa yoga practice (N = 32). The control condition consisted of CBT for an hour once a week that included discussion of good health practices and decision-making processes (N = 23). Each program lasted eight weeks. In addition to general demographic information, researchers measured smoking history and nicotine dependence along with a range of cognitive variables, including anxiety and depressive symptoms. Baseline measures were assessed at the outset, then measures were assessed immediately post-treatment, and at three- and six-month follow-up assessments. During the study, abstinence from smoking was measured by testing breath carbon monoxide. The results of the study indicated that at the end of the eight-week treatment, yoga participants were more likely to have abstained from smoking for seven days prior to the follow-up. Participants in the experimental condition were also more likely to have successfully abstained at the three- and six-month intervals when compared to the control condition, though these differences were not statistically significant. Yoga participants reported both greater increases in positive affect and greater reductions in negative affect compared to those in the control condition. Which statement accurately represents the application of CBT in the study? In the study, CBT addresses smoking behaviors through: A.examining personal histories for the causal mechanism behind behavior. B.associating negative states with unwanted behavior. C.observation of others in order to model effective and healthy behaviors. D.systematic modification of individual behavior and self-assessments.

The answer to this question is B. The finding focuses on reward-seeking motivation, which is most closely associated with operant conditioning (change in behavior due to past outcomes).

Some studies have found that increases in dopamine activity are associated with increased reward-seeking motivation. This finding suggests an association between dopamine levels and which type of learning? A.Classical conditioning B.Operant conditioning C.Latent learning D.Observational learning

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Sensing the environment." The answer to this question is B because hair cells of the cochlea are specialized mechanoreceptors. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it relates to basic concepts of auditory processing.

Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way? A.Chemically B.Mechanically C.Electrically D.Synaptically

The answer to this question is B. The results show that infant preference for a novel stimulus depends on the age of the infant. Younger infants show preference for lightness-darkness perception but not form perception, and older infants show a preference for form perception. This difference suggests that different types of perceptual organization mature over time.

Studies have shown that infants as young as 3 months of age show elements of perceptual organization. In Study 1, groups of 3- to 4-month-old infants in the United States were tested on their ability to organize visual pattern information based on lightness and darkness. A familiarization-novelty preference procedure was used to test the infants' recognition of previously presented visual patterns. During the familiarization phase, infants were shown visual patterns of squares that were arranged into columns or rows based on the alternation of black and white squares. Immediately following the familiarization phase, infants were shown multiple paired test images, including one similar to (familiar) and one different from (novel) the original images presented. The amount of time that infants looked at each test image was measured, and a mean preference score was calculated based on the percentage of time looking at the novel image. The results indicated that 3- to 4-month-old infants preferred novel perceptual stimuli. In Study 2, 3- to 4-month-old and 6- to 7-month-old infants in the United States were tested on their ability to organize visual pattern information based on form. A familiarization-novelty preference procedure similar to that used in Study 1 was used to test infants' recognition of previously presented visual patterns. During the familiarization phase, infants were shown black visual patterns printed on white cards for 15 seconds. These visual patterns were Xs or Os arranged as columns or rows. Familiar and novel test images were presented and percent looking time at the novel image was calculated. The results indicated that the 3- to 4-month-old infants demonstrated no preference for novel or familiar images, but 6- to 7-month-old infants preferred novel perceptual stimuli. Based on the results of studies 1 and 2, which conclusion about human perceptual development is supported? A.Perceptual organization is innate and constant over time. B.Different types of perceptual organization become functional over time. C.Different types of perceptual organization cannot be reliably measured during infancy due to differences represented in the results. D.Perceptual organization represented in the studies is mainly due to top-down processes.

The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Responding to the world." The answer to this question is C because, according to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, people's response to various stressors is similar. Selye's theory does not make claims about avoidance-avoidance or approach-approach conflicts. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to use your knowledge of a theory from behavioral science to determine how scientific knowledge can be extended.

Studies have shown that the availability of social support, before and after exposure to a stressor, is associated with fewer stress responses. Based on these findings, a research group hypothesized that when exposed to stressors, people will be more inclined to engage in prosocial behaviors (such as sharing and trusting) as a coping mechanism. To test this hypothesis, college-aged male participants were recruited. All the participants were given an anxiety assessment, and five participants who reported unusually high levels of anxiety were dropped. The remaining participants were randomly assigned to either the stress group or the control group. In the first phase of the experiment, the stress group was asked to study a set of slides and give a public presentation, a condition that is considered a social stressor. The control group was asked to study the same set of slides as the stress group but did not have to give a public presentation. A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: A.necessary, because humans respond differently to different types of stressors. B.necessary, because physical stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict, whereas social stressors cause approach-approach conflict. C.unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. D.unnecessary, because both physical stressors and social stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict.

The answer to this question is A. The dependency ratio is a ratio of the number of economically dependent members of the population to the number of economically productive members. The economically dependent are those considered too young or too old to work, whereas the economically productive are the working-age population (approximately between the ages of 18 and 65).

The aging of the U.S. population is most likely to increase: A.the dependency ratio. B.the social gradient in health. C.the life course perspective. D.the intersectionality of medicine.

The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is B because, according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, conservation tasks are mastered during the concrete operations stage, which starts at approximately 7 years and ends around 11 to 12 years. The majority of the 11-year-olds will have completed this stage, which will allow them to judge that pouring water into a taller beaker does not change its quantity. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to use your knowledge of a theory from behavioral science to make a prediction.

The children from the experiment in the passage participate in a separate study using Piaget's water conservation task. They are shown two identical beakers, containing equal amounts of water. The water from one of the containers is poured into a thinner and taller beaker. Which prediction is most likely to be confirmed? A.All three age groups will state that the water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. B.The majority of the 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker. C.The majority of the 9- and 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. D.The majority of the 7-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Sensing the environment." The answer to this question is A because the principle of grouping by similarity states that things that look alike are more likely to be grouped together during perceptual processing. Thus, in this panel, people see columns of the same items. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to recognize an example of grouping by proximity.

The experience that the items in Panel D are arranged in columns is best attributed to which principle of perceptual organization? A. Similarity B. Proximity C. Closure D. Continuity

The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Attitude and behavior change." The answer to this question is C because the patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive and mentions that he no longer goes to meetings for fear of a panic attack. Thus, the frequency of the patient's attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks. Therefore, the panic attacks have been positive punishers. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to recognize a scientific concept from behavioral science.

The following scenarios demonstrate two different patients' responses to the question, "Do you worry about the panic attacks that you experience?" Patient 1: No. They are somewhat unpleasant, but they are the least of my concerns. I am more worried about my daughter and our future. I don't get any sleep most nights. I just lie awake feeling nervous about what would happen to my daughter if something happened to me and my husband. Patient 2: I am terrified of having a panic attack at a meeting. I dread the thought of others noticing how nervous I am. I'm worried that others will think I am weird. I don't go to meetings anymore. For Patient 2, panic attacks act as: A.discriminatory stimuli. B.signaling stimuli. C.positive punishers. D.negative punishers.

The answer to this question is C because cultural values and norms are identified in the passage's reference to local traditions and behavioral standards. In the last paragraph of the passage, it is suggested that differences in the ways that immigrants adopt local traditions and behavioral standards can result in distinct geographic patterns of assimilation.

The geographic distribution of immigrants in the U.S. is uneven, however. Three-fourths of all children of immigrants live in just ten states, and nearly half live in just three states. Variation regarding how immigrants adopt the local traditions and behavioral standards in a region can lead to distinct geographic patterns of assimilation. The way that racial and ethnic groups are defined and understood also varies across the U.S. For immigrants, these racial and ethnic categorizations can be very different from those used in their countries of origin. The description of assimilation patterns in the passage (final paragraph) suggests that there is geographic variation in which pair of concepts? A.Social status and roles B.Social and cultural capital C.Cultural values and norms D.Material and symbolic culture

Solution: The correct answer is B. This Sociology question is covered by content in the category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is B. Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment. Because the question draws on your knowledge of research methods and requires you to distinguish types of methods, it is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question.

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A.Comparative methods B.Ethnographic methods C.Experimental methods D.Survey methods

The answer to this question is C. Social loafing refers to the fact that people are more productive alone than in a group. Research also suggests that individuals are less critical and less creative in groups.

To determine the effectiveness of brainstorming, a researcher designs a study in which participants are asked to produce alternatives to an existing marketing strategy on their own or with a group. Which pattern of results is most likely based on research on group processes? A.Groups arrive at the improved alternatives more often than individuals. B.Groups are more likely to critically evaluate alternatives than individuals. C.On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group. D.On average, participants produce more alternatives in a group than alone.

The correct answer is A. This Sociology question is covered by content in the category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is A. Assimilation is related to the process of social integration and generally refers to when new members adopt the main elements of a culture. The other response options each provide an aspect of the definition of assimilation (cultural adaptation, adopting new norms, and relinquishing old norms). However, the answer does NOT describe assimilation. Instead, it speculates about a possible consequence of assimilation. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you have to be able to recognize the major elements of assimilation in order to identify what is not central to the concept.

Which statement does NOT identify an aspect of the concept of assimilation? A.Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health. B.Assimilation is the process of cultural adaptation that results from geographic mobility. C.Assimilation occurs when individuals adopt the cultural norms of a dominant culture. D.Assimilation occurs when individuals relinquish the cultural norms of their childhood.

B The answer to this question is B because Brown and Kulik (1977) coined the term "flashbulb memory" when they found that people claimed to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event.

Under certain circumstances, such as having received news about something traumatic on a particular day, many people claim that they remember every detail of what they were doing when they received the news. Psychologists use which term to describe this unusual phenomenon? A. Repression B. Flashbulb memory C. Recency effect D. Spacing effect

The answer to this question is C. The last sentence of the second paragraph describes how research suggests that Internet responses may have advantages over face-to-face interviews or telephone surveys. For socially sensitive topics such as weight, participants may be more likely to provide socially acceptable answers during interviews or phone surveys. Internet responses do not elicit the same level of social desirability. The other possible answers are related psychological content, but do not explain the comparison made in the passage.

Weight stigma contributes to prejudice and discrimination against overweight or obese individuals and can hinder discussions between physicians and patients. For socially sensitive topics, studies suggest that measures of implicit attitudes may be more strongly correlated with discriminatory behavior than self-reported attitudes. A study examined attitudes about weight among medical doctors (MDs) to estimate the extent of weight-related bias. The researchers derived a subsample of 2000 MDs from a larger convenience sample composed of volunteers from the general public who had completed online attitude assessments. For attitudes on sensitive topics, research suggests that internet responses may have advantages over face-to-face interviews or telephone surveys. Participants completed the Weight Implicit Association Test (IAT), a validated test that consists of a rapid succession of trials on a computer. A participant is presented with an image (faces that have been modified to appear either overweight or thin) and a pair of word attributes (for example, cooperative and stubborn). With a keystroke, the participant quickly selects the attribute that he or she most closely associates with the image. The next trial then begins immediately with a different image and pair of attributes. A shorter response time for a particular combination of image and attribute indicates a stronger link in the participant's mind. In addition to the Weight IAT, the participants also completed an online questionnaire that asked about their background information and assessed their explicit attitudes. The attitudinal questions focused on participants' ideas about how people gain or lose weight, including an item about the relative contribution of genetic, personality, and environmental factors in explaining weight gain or loss. Results showed both implicit and explicit bias against overweight and obese individuals, which varied by participants' gender and body mass index (BMI). On average, female MDs displayed less weight-related bias than male MDs. Strong implicit anti-obesity bias was found among MDs with an underweight, normal weight, and overweight BMI classification. Among MDs with an obese BMI classification, implicit anti-obesity bias was moderate. Overall, patterns of weight bias among MD participants were similar to that of the larger sample of participants from the general public. The researchers suggested that more studies are needed to explore how implicit attitudes about weight might affect healthcare quality. Which concept best explains the comparison made in the passage regarding Internet responses, face-to-face interviews, and telephone surveys (paragraph 2)? A.Selection bias B.Attribution error C.Social desirability D.Stereotype threat

The correct answer is C. This Sociology question uses content in the "Social interactions" category. The correct answer is C. From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered less stable but more intimate. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician-patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician-patient-cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social ties. Because the question assesses your recognition of basic group concepts related to dyads and triads, it is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question.

What is the advantage of including a specially trained cultural liaison as opposed to training physicians in cultural competency? A.Communicating across racial and cultural lines is difficult and requires a trained specialist to do it effectively. B.Physicians are inherently resistant to cultural training because of their medical biases. C.Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group. D.Larger groups facilitate the transfer of information more effectively than smaller groups.

The answer to the question is C because the fovea is directly involved in color sensation and its distribution of receptors varies across different species.

When comparing the color perception of humans and baboons, similarity in which anatomical structure of the eye is most important? A.Optic disc B.Sclera C.Fovea D.Lens

The correct answer is A. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Demographic characteristics and processes." The answer to this question is A, development of affordable housing. Gentrification is the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups. With the arrival of more affluent residents, housing demand increases and generally results in a decrease of affordable housing for lower income residents. In contrast, the other response options present more likely outcomes of gentrification. Because it requires you to make a prediction about demographic change based on a sociological concept, it is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question.

Which effect is LEAST likely to occur with the process of gentrification? A.Development of affordable housing B.Increased neighborhood stratification C.Displacement of lower-income residents D.Expanded tax base for local government

The answer to this question is B. The increasing share of the population over the age of 65 primarily stems from the baby boomers, the post-World War II generation in the United States and Canada. Birth rates were relatively high for almost two decades after World War II. Demographers define the baby boom generation as those individuals born between approximately 1946 and 1964. The baby boom generation is the main sociohistorical factor that explains the projection in the passage about the increasing share of the population over 65 years of age.

Which historical factor primarily accounts for the projected increase in the population aged 65 and older in the United States? A.The increased immigration rate since the 1950s B.The increased fertility rate after World War II C.The sexual revolution of the 1960s and 1970s D.The relative deprivation of the Great Depression

The correct answer is B. This Sociology question falls under the content category "Understanding social structure." The correct answer is B. Conflict theory emphasizes the competition between groups over the allocation of societal resources. It assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages. The correct answer captures these basic elements of conflict theory, while the incorrect options are more consistent with other sociological theories (such as functionalism or interactionism). It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to assess different interpretations and select the response that is most consistent with a specific theory.

Which interpretation of the research findings is consistent with the conflict theory perspective? Status hierarchies facilitate: A.efficiency in the organization, whereas discrimination is a byproduct of these structures. B.the preservation of structural power while being maintained by practices of discrimination. C.effective social interactions, whereas discrimination is a subjective quality of those interactions. D.the necessary operation of the workplace while removing ineffective members by practices of discrimination.

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Sensing the environment." The answer to this question is C because psychophysical testing methods (such as the Method of Limits) directly assess our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties. The nature of the illusions discussed in the passage suggests that individuals would be prone to either over- or under-state the size of items like those in Panel A. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it requires you to understand these research methods and the types of data they can provide.

Which methodology will best show how perceptual illusions impact our judgments of the nature of stimuli such as those in Panel A? A. Partial report technique B. Word association testing C. Psychophysical discrimination testing D. Operational span testing

The answer to this question is D because such patients, who are incapable of interpreting any signals from a nonexistent stomach, do experience hunger (Janowitz & Grossman, 1950)

Which observation disconfirms the theory that the hunger drive is based on a person's interpretation of stomach contractions, while satiety is based on stomach distension? A. Stomach contractions do not correlate with the experience of hunger. B. Stomach distension does not correlate with satiety. C. Rats without stomachs cannot learn mazes when rewarded with food. D. People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger.

B The answer to this question is B because instinctual drift is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. So the learned behavior "drifts" to the organism's species-specific (instinctual) behavior.

Which phenomenon will an animal trainer most likely try to avoid when training a rabbit for a television commercial? A. Operant extinction B. Instinctual drift C. Stimulus generalization D. Partial reinforcement

The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is A because it is ethically practicable to conduct research on people who score high on anxiety. However, having outliers accumulate in the experimental or control condition can lead to confounding or to errors in statistical inference. It may also limit the generalizability of the results. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it requires you to demonstrate your understanding of the ethical guidelines that protect the wellbeing of human participants.

Which statement provides the LEAST likely explanation for why the researchers dropped the highly anxious participants from their sample? A.Ethical committees do not allow research with participants who may have psychological disorders. B.If all the anxious participants get assigned to the stress condition, this may pose a confounding variable. C.Highly anxious participants are not representative of the population and may reduce the generalizability of the findings. D.If all the anxious participants get assigned to the control condition, this may lead to a false rejection of the experimental hypothesis.

The answer to this question is C because it suggests the expansion of medical authority to smoking cessation and identifies a specific medical therapy. Medicalization refers to the taken-for-granted process in which a problem comes to be defined and treated by the social institution of medicine. A behavior undergoes medicalization when both the definition of the problem and the therapy intended to improve it are couched in medical terms. The other options do not suggest the expansion of medical authority or do not describe both problem and solution in medical terms.

Which statement reflects the medicalization of smoking and smoking cessation? A.Smoking is a personal behavior that can be adjusted through individual behavior modification. B.Smoking is an unhealthy behavior that is structurally managed via legislation to reduce overall smoking rates. C.Smoking is an addictive behavior that can be treated via the use of pharmaceutical intervention. D.Smoking is a public health issue that is socially desirable to mitigate through smoking cessation programs.

Which term refers to closed status positions that hinder social mobility? A.Class systems B.Caste systems C.Economic systems D.Financial systems

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