Med Surg Ch. 36 HIV/AIDS patient management

A client with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea and dehydration. The physician suspects an infection with Cryptosporidium. What type of specimen should be collected to confirm this diagnosis?

Stool specimen for ova and parasites A stool specimen for ova and parasites will give a definitive diagnosis. The organism is spread by the fecal-oral route from contaminated water, food, or human or animal waste. Those infected can lose from 10 to 20 L of fluid per day. Losing this magnitude of fluid quickly leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

A client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) infusion. The client asks the nurse about the infusion's administration and its adverse effects. Which condition should the nurse instruct this client to report immediately?

Tickle in the throat Continually assess the client for adverse reactions; be especially aware of complaints of a tickle or lump in the throat, which could be the precursor to laryngospasm that precedes bronchoconstriction.

Antiretroviral medications should be offered to clients with T-cell counts less than

350 cells/mm3. In general, antiretroviral medications should be offered to individuals with a T-cell count less than 350 cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 100,000 copies/mL.

A client with severe combined immunodeficiency is to receive a hematopoietic stem cell transplant. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be started?

Immunosuppressive agents For a client undergoing a hematopoietic stem cell transplant, immunosuppression is started to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow. Antibiotic therapy may or may not be indicated. Chest physiotherapy would be appropriate for clients with ataxia-telangiectasis who have chronic lung disase. Anticoagulation would not be used.

The nurse's base knowledge of primary immunodeficiencies includes which of the following statements?

Primary immunodeficiencies develop early in life after protection from maternal antibodies decreases. These disorders may involve one or more components of the immune system. Primary immunodeficiencies are seen primarily in infants and young children. Primary immunodeficiencies are rare disorders with genetic origins. Without treatment, infants and children with these disorders seldom survive to adulthood.

The two types of inherited B-cell deficiencies result from lack of differentiation of B cells. These types result from which two of the following deficiencies? Choose the two that apply.

-Mature B-cells -Plasma cells Two types of inherited B-cell deficiencies exist. The first type results from lack of differentiation of B-cell precursors into mature B cells. As a result, plasma cells are absent, and the germinal centers from all lymphatic tissues disappear, leading to a complete absence of antibody production against invading bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.

Which condition is an early manifestation of HIV encephalopathy?

Headache Early manifestations of HIV encephalopathy include headache, memory deficits, difficulty concentrating, progressive confusion, psychomotor slowing, apathy, and ataxia. Later stages include hyperreflexia, a vacant stare, and hallucinations.

The term used to define the amount of virus in the body after the initial immune response subsides is

viral set point. The amount of virus in the body after the initial immune response subsides is referred to as the viral set point, which results in an equilibrium between HIV levels and the immune response that may be elicited. During the primary infection period, the window period occurs because a person is infected with HIV but negative on the HIV antibody blood test. The period from infection with HIV to the development of antibodies to HIV is known as the primary infection stage. The amount of virus in circulation and the number of infected cells equals the rate of viral clearance.

A client is beginning highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The client demonstrates an understanding of the need for follow up when he schedules a return visit for viral load testing at which time?

6 weeks Viral load tests are measured immediately before initiating antiretroviral therapy and then again in 2 to 8 weeks. In most clients, adherence to a regimen of potent antiretroviral agents should result in a large decrease in the viral load by 2 to 8 weeks. Therefore, a return visit at 6 weeks would be in this time frame. By 16 to 20 weeks, the viral load should continue to decline, dropping below detectable levels.

A client is presenting an anaphylactic response to unknowingly ingesting nuts at a family celebration. What type of hypersensitivity did this client exhibit?

type I There are four types of hypersensitivity responses, three of which are immediate. This is an example of Type I, atopic or anaphylactic, which is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies.

A nurse is preparing to adminster intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) to a client. Which of the following would the nurse expect to administer as ordered before initiating the infusion? Select all that apply.

-Acetaminophen -Diphenhydramine -Corticosteroid Before administering IVIG, the nurse would premedicate the client with acetaminophen and diphenhydramein as orderded 30 minutes before the start of the infusion. Corticosteroids also may be used to prevent possible severe reactions in clients perceived to be at risk. Odansetron is used to control nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Ranitidine is used to reduce gastric acid secretion.

A client is diagnosed with severe combined immunodficiency (SCID). Which of the following would the nurse expect to integrate into the client's plan of care?

Preparation for bone marrow transplantation For a client with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID), the nurse would include in the plan of care preparing the client for a bone transplant. Antifungal agents are used to treat chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis. Granulocyte-stimulating factors would be used to treat immunodeficiency related to phagocytic dysfunction. A thymus graft would be used to treat DiGeorge syndrome.

A client who is HIV positive is receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) that includes a protease inhibitor (PI). The client comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Assessment reveals lipoatrophy of the face and arms. The client states, "I'm thinking the side effects of the drug are worse than the disease. Look what's happening to me." The nurse would most likely identify which nursing diagnosis as the priority?

Disturbed body image related to loss of fat in the face and arms The client is experiencing lipoatrophy, which results in a localized loss of subcutaneous fat in the face (manifested as sinking of the cheeks, eyes, and temples), arms, legs, and buttocks. These changes as well as his statement about the side effects of the drug being worse than the disease indicate that he is concerned about how he appears to others. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image would be the priority. Deficient knowledge, risk for infection, and risk for impaired liver function may be applicable; however, they are not concerns at this time.

When learning about HIV/AIDS, the student should be able to differentiate the two subtypes of virus by which characteristic?

HIV-1 is more prevalent than HIV-2 subtypes Two HIV subtypes have been identified: HIV-1 and HIV-2. HIV-1 mutates easily and frequently, producing multiple substrains that are identified by letters from A through O. HIV-2 is less transmittable, and the interval between initial infection with HIV-2 and development of AIDS is longer. HIV-1 is more prevalent in the United States and in the rest of the world. Western Africa is the primary site of infection with HIV-2. There is no cure for HIV/AIDS; hence, no cure rate. The virus is thought to be a mutation of a simian virus. Transmission of the virus is not a characteristic.

More than 50% of individuals with this disease develop pernicious anemia:

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) More than 50% of clients with CVID develop pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is not associated with the other conditions.

A client that is HIV+ has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia caused by P. jiroveci. What medication does the nurse expect that the client will take for the treatment of this infection?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole To prevent and treat Pneumocystis pneumonia, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is prescribed. The other medications are antifungals and used to treat candidiasis.

The nurse is working with a parent whose child has just been diagnosed with selective immunoglobulin A deficiency. The parent asks the nurse, "Does this mean that my child is going to die?" How should the nurse respond?

"Your child has a mild genetic immune deficiency caused by a lack of immunoglobulin A, a type of antibody that protects against infections of the lining the mouth and digestive tract." Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency is congenital and characterized by a lack of immunoglobulin A, which predisposes clients to recurrent infections, adverse reactions to blood transfusions or immunoglobulin, autoimmune diseases, and hypothyroidism. There is no current treatment.

During a third-trimester transabdominal ultrasound, cardiac anomaly and facial abnormalities are noted in the fetus. Further testing reveals that the thymus gland has failed to develop normally, and the fetus is diagnosed with thymic hypoplasia. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse anticipates careful monitoring for which common manifestation during the first 24 hours of life?

Hypocalcemia The most frequent presenting sign in clients with thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge syndrome) is hypocalcemia that is resistant to standard therapy. It usually occurs within the first 24 hours of life.

A patient had unprotected sex with an HIV-infected person and arrives in the clinic requesting HIV testing. Results determine a negative HIV antibody test and an increased viral load. What stage does the nurse determine the patient is in?

Primary infection The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection, or stage 1. Initially, there is a period during which those who are HIV positive test negative on the HIV antibody blood test, although they are infected and highly infectious, because their viral loads are very high.

A client is prescribed didanosine (Videx) as part of his highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Which instruction would the nurse emphasize with this client?

"Be sure to take this drug about 1/2 hour before or 2 hours after you eat." Didanosine should be taken 30 to 60 minutes before or 2 hours after meals. Other antiretroviral agents, such as abacavir, emtricitabine, or lamivudine can be taken without regard to meals. High-fat meals should be avoided when taking amprenavir. Atazanavir should be taken with food and not with antacids.

A nurse is reviewing treatment options with parents of an infant born with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). The nurse recognizes that the parents understand the teaching based on which statement?

"We could have our 10-year-old daughter tested, as the ideal stem cell donor is a human leukocyte antigen-identical sibling." Treatment options for SCID include stem cell and bone marrow transplantation. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is the definitive therapy for SCID; the best outcome is achieved if the disease is recognized and treated early in life. The ideal donor is a human leukocyte antigen-identical sibling.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to pneumocystis pneumonia and increased bronchial secretions for a client with AIDS. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Assist with chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours. The nurse should include interventions such as assisting with and/or performing chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours to prevent stasis of secretions, assist the client to attain the semi- or high Fowler's position to facilitate breathing and airway clearance, allow for frequent rest periods to prevent excessive fatigue, and maintain a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day unless contraindicated.

Which is usually the most important consideration in the decision to initiate antiretroviral therapy?

CD4+ counts The most important consideration in decisions to initiate antiretroviral therapy is CD4+ counts.

During assessment of a patient with Kaposi's sarcoma, the nurse knows to look for the initial sign of:

Deep purple cutaneous lesions. Localized cutaneous lesions may be the first manifestation of this HIV-related malignancy, which appears in 90% of patients as immune function deteriorates. Other symptoms develop over time as the lesions increase in size and spread to other locations.

A client calls the clinic and asks the nurse if using oxymetazoline nasal spray would be alright to relieve the nasal congestion he is experiencing due to seasonal allergies. What instructions should the nurse provide to the client to avoid complications?

Do not overuse the medication as rebound congestion can occur. Overusing oxymetazoline nasal spray can cause rebound congestion. The medication does not cause fungal infection. Corticosteroids should be tapered, but it is not necessary to taper oxymetazoline. Oxymetazoline does not cause sleepiness so the client can operate machinery or drive.

A nurse is working in a support group for clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?

Following safer-sex practices It's essential for clients with AIDS to follow safer-sex practices to prevent transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus. Although it's helpful if clients with AIDS avoid using recreational drugs and alcohol, it's more important that I.V. drug users use clean needles and dispose of used needles for purposes of avoiding transmission. Whether the client with AIDS chooses to tell anyone about the diagnosis is his decision; there is no legal obligation to do so.

Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS?

Herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.

The nurse is aware that the most prevalent cause of immunodeficiency worldwide is

Malnutrition The most prevalent cause of immunodeficiency worldwide is severe malnutrition.

Which is a major manifestation of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

Thrombocytopenia Major symptoms of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome include thrombocytopenia, infections, and malignancies. Ataxia occurs with ataxia-telangiectasia. Episodes of edema in various body parts occur with angioneurotic edema. Bacterial infection occurs with hyperimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome.

The nurse is admitting a client to the unit with a diagnosis of ataxia-telangiectasia. A clinical manifestation is telangiectasia. The nurse would recognize that the client is exhibiting telangiectasia when assessing the presence of what?

Vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels Telangiectasia is the term that refers to vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels. Ataxia refers to uncoordinated muscle movement and is a clinical manifestation of combined B-cell and T-cell deficiencies. Telangiectasia is not peripheral edema, vascular lesions, or urticaria.

What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy?

Viral load Viral load should be measured at baseline and on a regular basis thereafter because viral load is the most important indicator of response to ART. The other tests are not used in this way.

Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through

biopsy. KS is diagnosed through biopsy of the suspected lesions. Visual assessment will not confirm a diagnosis. A computed tomography scan will not assist in determining skin cell changes. Skin scraping is a procedure to collect cells, not to evaluate cells.

A client receiving antiretroviral therapy reports "not urinating enough." What is the nurse's best action?

Assess blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Adverse effects associated with antiretroviral therapy include potential nephrotoxicity. Assessing blood urean nitrogen and creatinine for clients who have decreased urination is appropriate. The other answers will not assist the nurse in determining the client's problem, which should be assessed before intervention are administered.

A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a:

Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. The test is repeated if results are positive. If results of a second ELISA test are positive, the Western blot is performed. The p24 antigen test and the polymerase chain reaction test determine the viral load, and the T4-cell count is not used for diagnostic confirmation of the presence of HIV in the blood.

A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. Why would the physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder?

For their immunosuppressant effects Drug therapy using anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents is the mainstay for alleviating symptoms. Some antineoplastic (cancer) drugs also are used for their immunosuppressant effects. Antineoplastic drugs do not decrease the body's risk of infection; an autoimmune disease is not a neoplastic disease. Drugs are not ordered just so the client has strong drug therapy.