Med Surg Ch. 46 Upper GI
A nurse is teaching a client who has experienced an episode of acute gastritis and knows further education is necessary when the client makes the following statement:
"My appetite should come back tomorrow." The gastric mucosa is capable of repairing itself after an episode of gastritis. As a rule, the client recovers in about 1 day, although the appetite may be diminished for an additional 2 or 3 days. Acute gastritis is also managed by instructing the client to refrain from alcohol and food until symptoms subside. When the client can take nourishment by mouth, a nonirritating diet is recommended.
A client admitted for treatment of a gastric ulcer is being prepared for discharge. The client will follow a regimen of antacid therapy. Discharge teaching should include which instructions? Choose all that apply.
-"Continue to take antacids even if your symptoms subside." -"You may be prescribed H2-receptor antagonists for up to 1 year." The client is advised to adhere to and complete the medication regimen to ensure complete healing of the ulcer. Because most clients become symptom-free within 1 week, the nurse stresses the importance of following the prescribed regimen so that the healing process can continue uninterrupted and the return of chronic ulcer symptoms can be prevented. Maintenance dosages of H2-receptor antagonists are usually recommended for 1 year. Taking antacids concomitantly with other drugs should be avoided. For best results antacids should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Antacids will not make the client sleepy.
Morbid obesity is defined as being how many pounds over the person's ideal body weight?
100 Morbid obesity is a term applied to people who are more than two times their ideal body weight or whose body weight index (BMI) exceeds 30 kg/m2. Another definition of morbid obesity is body weight that is more than 100 pounds greater than the ideal body weight.
A nursing student is preparing a teaching plan about peptic ulcer disease. The student knows to include teaching about the percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding. The percentage is
15% Fifteen percent of clients with peptic ulcer experience bleeding.
A client with gastric cancer is scheduled to undergo a Billroth II procedure. The client's spouse asks how much of the client's stomach will be removed. Which of the following would be the most accurate response from the nurse?
Approximately 75% The Billroth II is a wide resection that involves removing approximately 75% of the stomach and decreases the possibility of lymph node spread or metastatic recurrence.
The health care provider prescribes a combination of three drugs to treat peptic ulcer disease. The nurse, preparing to review the drug actions and side effects with the patient, understands that the triple combination should be in which order?
Bismuth salts, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors Refer to Table 23-1 in the text to review the recommended triple combination.
A client with gastric cancer is having a resection. What is the nursing management priority for this client?
Correcting nutritional deficits Clients with gastric cancer commonly have nutritional deficits and may have cachexia. Therefore, correcting nutritional deficits is a top priority. Discharge planning before surgery is important, but correcting the nutritional deficits is a higher priority. Radiation therapy hasn't been proven effective for gastric cancer, and teaching about it preoperatively wouldn't be appropriate. Preventing DVT isn't a high priority before surgery, but it assumes greater importance after surgery.
A patient is complaining of diarrhea after having bariatric surgery. What nonpharmacologic treatment can the nurse suggest to decrease the incidence of diarrhea?
Decrease the fat content in the diet. Patients may complain of either diarrhea or constipation postprocedure. Diarrhea is more common an occurrence post bariatric surgery, particularly after malabsorptive procedures (Mechanick et al., 2008). Both may be prevented if the patient consumes a nutritious diet that is high in fiber. Steatorrhea also may occur as a result of rapid gastric emptying, which prevents adequate mixing with pancreatic and biliary secretions. In mild cases, reducing the intake of fat and administering an antimotility medication (e.g., loperamide [Imodium]) may control symptoms.
Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders?
Duodenal ulcers Familial tendency also may be a significant predisposing factor. People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than are those with blood type A, B, or AB. Blood type is not a predisposing factor for gastric cancer, esophageal varices, and diverticulitis.
A physician suspects that a client has peptic ulcer disease. With which of the following diagnostic procedures would the nurse most likely prepare to assist?
Endoscopy Barium study of the upper GI tract may show an ulcer; however, endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic procedure because it allows direct visualization of inflammatory changes, ulcers, and lesions. Through endoscopy, a biopsy of the gastric mucosa and of any suspicious lesions can be obtained. Endoscopy may reveal lesions that, because of their size or location, are not evident on x-ray studies. Less invasive diagnostic measures for detecting H. pylori include serologic testing for antibodies against the H. pylori antigen, stool antigen test, and urea breath test.
Which is a true statement regarding the nursing considerations in administration of metronidazole?
It leaves a metallic taste in the mouth. Metronidazole leaves a metallic taste in the mouth. It may cause anorexia and should be given with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset. Metronidazole increases the blood-thinning effects of warfarin.
Which is a true statement regarding gastric cancer?
Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Men have a higher incidence of gastric cancer. The prognosis is poor because the diagnosis is usually made late because most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage. Most cases of gastric cancer are discovered only after local invasion has advanced or metastases are present.
The nurse in the ED admits a client with suspected gastric outlet obstruction. The client's symptoms include nausea and vomiting. The nurse anticipates that the physician will issue which order?
Nasogastric tube insertion The nurse anticipates an order for nasogastric tube insertion to decompress the stomach. Pelvic x-ray, oral contrast, and stool specimens are not indicated at this time.
Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer?
Removal of the tumor There is no successful treatment for gastric carcinoma except removal of the tumor. If the tumor can be removed while it is still localized to the stomach, the patient may be cured. If the tumor has spread beyond the area that can be excised, cure is less likely.
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is at risk for which vitamin deficiency?
Vitamin B12 Clients with chronic gastritis from vitamin deficiency usually have evidence of malabsorption of vitamin B12 caused by the production of antibodies that interfere with the binding of vitamin B12 to intrinsic factor. However, some clients with chronic gastritis have no symptoms. Vitamins A, C, and E are not affected by gastritis.
The nurse is creating a discharge plan of care for a client with a peptic ulcer. The nurse tells the client to avoid
decaffeinated coffee. The nurse should include avoidance of decaffeinated coffee in the client's discharge teaching plan. Decaffeinated coffee is avoided to keep from overstimulating acid secretion.
The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) consists of severe peptic ulcers, extreme gastric hyperacidity, and gastrin-secreting benign or malignant tumors of the pancreas. The nurse recognizes that an agent that is used to decrease bleeding and decrease gastric acid secretions is
octreotide (Sandostatin) For patients with ZES, hypersecretion of acid may be controlled with high doses of H2 receptor antagonists. These clients may require twice the normal dose, and dosages usually need to be increased with prolonged use. Octreotide (Sandostatin), a medication that suppresses gastrin levels, also may be prescribed.
The nurse is conducting a community education program on peptic ulcer disease prevention. The nurse includes that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is:
gram-negative bacteria. The nurse should include that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is gram-negative bacteria (Helicobacter pylori).
Which is an accurate statement regarding gastric cancer?
The incidence of stomach cancer continues to decrease in the United States. While the incidence in the United States continues to decrease, gastric cancer still accounts for 10,700 deaths annually. While gastric cancer deaths occasionally occur in younger people, most occur in people older than 40 years of age. Males have a higher incidence of gastric cancers than females. More accurately, a diet high in smoked foods and low in fruits and vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer.
A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed?
A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum.
After teaching a client who has had a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?
"I need to drink 8 ounces of water before eating." After a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, the client should not drink fluids with meals, withholding fluids for 15 minutes before eating to 90 minutes after eating. Chewing foods slowly and thoroughly, keeping total serving sizes to less than 1 cup, and choosing foods such as breads, cereals, and grains that provide less than 2 g of fiber per serving.
A client has a family history of stomach cancer. Which of the following factors would further increase the client's risk for developing gastric cancer? Select all that apply.
-Age 55 years -Previous infection with H. pylori The typical client with gastric cancer is between 40 and 70 years, but gastric cancer can occur in younger people. Men have a higher incidence of gastric cancer than women. Native Americans, Hispanic Americans, and African Americans are twice as likely as Caucasian Americans to develop gastric cancer. A diet high in smoked, salted, or pickled foods and low in fruits and vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer. Other factors related to the incidence of gastric cancer include chronic inflammation of the stomach, H. pylori infection, pernicious anemia, smoking, achlorhydria, gastric ulcers, subtotal gastrectomy more than 20 years ago, and genetics.
A client has recently been diagnosed with gastric cancer. He has a history of tobacco use and was diagnosed 10 years ago with pernicious anemia. He and his family are shocked about the possibility of this diagnosis because he has been asymptomatic prior to recent complaints of pain and multiple gastrointestinal symptoms. On palpation, the nurse notes two signs that confirm metastasis to the liver. Which of the following are signs? Choose all that apply.
-Ascites -Hepatomegaly The physical examination is usually not helpful in detecting the cancer because most early gastric tumors are not palpable. Advanced gastric cancer may be palpable as a mass. Ascites and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may be apparent if the cancer cells have metastasized to the liver. Palpable nodules around the umbilicus, called Sister Mary Joseph's nodules, are a sign of a GI malignancy, usually a gastric cancer. A distended bladder is not significant. Petechiae at the palpation site is a distractor for the question.
A client with active schizophrenia has developed acute gastritis after ingesting a strongly alkaline solution during a psychotic episode. Corrosion is extensive. Which of the following emergency treatments might the team working with this client use? Select all that apply.
-Diluted lemon juice -Diluted vinegar Emergency treatment consists of diluting and neutralizing the offending agent. To neutralize acids, common antacids (eg, aluminum hydroxide) are used; to neutralize an alkali, diluted lemon juice or diluted vinegar is used. If corrosion is extensive or severe, emetics such as syrup of ipecac and lavage are avoided because of the danger of perforation and damage to the esophagus.
A client has given a confirmed diagnosis of gastric cancer. Two more procedures may be performed to assess tumor depth and lymph node involvement and surgical resectability. Which two are the procedures? Choose the two that apply.
-Computed tomography (CT) -Endoscopic ultrasound Esophagogastroduodenoscopy for biopsy and cytologic washings is the diagnostic study of choice, and a barium x-ray examination of the upper GI tract may also be performed. Endoscopic ultrasound is an important tool to assess tumor depth and any lymph node involvement. Pelvic ultrasound is not used to confirm the diagnosis of gastric cancer.
The nurse reviews dietary guidelines with a patient who had a gastric banding. Which of the following teaching points are included? Select all that apply.
-Do not eat and drink at the same time. -Drink plenty of water, from 90 minutes after each meal to 15 minutes before each meal. -Avoid fruit drinks and soda. Total meal size should be restricted to less than 8 oz or 240 mL. Three meals a day are recommended. Refer to Box 23-2 in the text.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after surgery for peptic ulcer disease. For what potential complications does the nurse know to monitor? Select all that apply.
-Hemorrhage -Perforation -Penetration -Pyloric obstruction Potential complications may include hemorrhage, perforation, penetration, and pyloric obstruction. A client who has had surgery for peptic ulcer disease may have a decreased appetite in the immediate postoperative stage, but it is not something the nurse would monitor for and would not cause cachexia. Inability to clear secretions is generally not a complication of peptic ulcer surgery.
The nurse is aware that hemorrhage is a common complication of peptic ulcer disease. Therefore, assessment for indicators of bleeding is an important nursing responsibility. Which of the following are indicators of bleeding? Select all that apply.
-Melena -Tachypnea -Thirst -Mental confusion Tachycardia and oliguria would be present with bleeding as the body tries to compensate for blood loss.
A client with peptic ulcer disease wants to know nonpharmacologic ways that he can prevent recurrence. Which of the following measures would the nurse recommend? Select all that apply.
-Smoking cessation -Avoidance of alcohol -Following a regular schedule for rest, relaxation, and meals The likelihood of recurrence is reduced if the client avoids smoking, coffee (including decaffeinated coffee) and other caffeinated beverages, and alcohol. It is important to counsel the client to eat meals at regular times and in a relaxed setting and to avoid overeating.
A nurse is monitoring a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? Choose all that apply.
-Tachycardia -Hypotension -A rigid, board-like abdomen Signs and symptoms of perforation include sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain, which may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm; vomiting; collapse (fainting); extremely tender and rigid (board-like) abdomen; and hypotension and tachycardia, indicating shock. Perforation is a surgical emergency.
Which of the following is considered an early symptom of gastric cancer?
Pain relieved by antacids Symptoms of early disease, such as pain relieved by antacids, resemble those of benign ulcers and are seldom definitive. Symptoms of progressive disease include weight loss, bloating after meals, and dyspepsia.
Which of the following medications used for obesity improves cardiovascular disease risk factors in obese patients with metabolic syndrome?
Rimonabant (Acomplia) Acomplia is the newest medication used to treat obesity. It stimulates weight reduction and improves cardiovascular disease risk factors in obese patients with metabolic syndrome. Meridia was recently pulled from the market because of the increased risk of heart attack and stroke associated with this medication. Orlistat, available by prescription and over the counter as Alli, reduces caloric intake by binding to gastric and pancreatic lipase to prevent digestion of fats.
A health care provider counsels a patient about bariatric surgery. He recommends the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The nurse explains to the patient that this procedure involves which of the following?
Separation of the jejunum with an anastomosis The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is recommended for long-term weight loss because it uses a combined restrictive and malabsorptive procedure. Refer to Figure 23-3 (A to D) in the text.
A client is prescribed a histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist. The nurse understands that the following are H2-receptor antagonists. Choose all that apply.
-Nizatidithene (Axid) -Ranitidine (Zantac) -Famotidine (Pepcid) -Cimetidine (Tagamet) H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton-pump inhibitors.
A client with acute gastritis asks the nurse what might have caused the problem. Which of the following are possible causes?
-Dietary indiscretion -Excessive alcohol intake -Radiation therapy Possible causes of gastritis include dietary indiscretion, overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. Allergy medicine and fruit juices are not causes of acute gastritis.
A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions would the nurse give the client?
"Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." Tetracycline may cause a photosensitivity reaction in clients. The nurse should caution the client to use sunscreen when taking this drug. Dairy products can reduce the effectiveness of tetracycline, so the nurse should not advise him or her to take the medication with milk. A metallic taste accompanies administration of metronidazole (Flagyl). Administration of tetracycline does not necessitate driving restrictions.
The nurse determines that teaching for the client with peptic ulcer disease has been effective when the client states:
"I have learned some relaxation strategies that decrease my stress." The nurse assists the client to identify stressful or exhausting situations. A hectic lifestyle and an irregular schedule may aggravate symptoms and interfere with regular meals taken in relaxed settings along with the regular administration of medications. The client may benefit from regular rest periods during the day, at least during the acute phase of the disease. Biofeedback, hypnosis, behavior modification, massage, or acupuncture may be helpful.
Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?
Hemoglobin and hematocrit The nurse assesses for faintness or dizziness and nausea, which may precede or accompany bleeding. It is important to monitor vital signs frequently and to evaluate for tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Other nursing interventions include monitoring the hemoglobin and hematocrit, testing the stool for gross or occult blood, and recording hourly urinary output to detect anuria or oliguria (absence of or decreased urine production). If bleeding cannot be managed by the measures described, other treatment modalities such as endoscopy may be used to halt bleeding and avoid surgical intervention. There is debate regarding how soon endoscopy should be performed. Some clinicians believe endoscopy should be performed within the first 24 hours after hemorrhaging has ceased. Others believe endoscopy may be performed during acute bleeding, as long as the esophageal or gastric area can be visualized (blood may decrease visibility). An upper GI is less accurate than endoscopy and would not reveal a bleed. Arteriography is an invasive study associated with life-threatening complications and would not be used for an initial evaluation.
A nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The client's diagnostic test results were positive for H. pylori bacteria. The doctor has ordered the "triple therapy" regimen. Which of the following is the correct representation of "triple therapy" refers?
Proton-pump inhibitor and two antibiotics Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton-pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori bacteria. Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (eg, metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton-pump inhibitor (eg, lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton-pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol). Research is being conducted to develop a vaccine against H. pylori.
A client experienced extensive burns and 72 hours later has developed an ulcer. Which of the following types of ulcer is most likely in this client?
Curling's ulcer Curling's ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or duodenum.
The nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. The nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage?
Hematemesis The nurse interprets hematemesis as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage from the ulcer. Other signs that can indicate hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria/anuria.
Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor?
Omeprazole Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.
The nurse is evaluating a client's ulcer symptoms to differentiate ulcer as duodenal or gastric. Which symptom should the nurse at attribute to a duodenal ulcer?
Awakening in pain The client with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1 to 2 AM with pain, and ingestion of food brings relief. Vomiting is uncommon in clients with duodenal ulcer. Hemorrhage is less likely in clients with duodenal ulcer than those with gastric ulcer. The client with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.
Which of the following manifestations are associated with a deficiency of vitamin B12? Select all that apply.
-Pernicious anemia -Macrocytic anemia -Thrombocytopenia Decreased vitamin B12 can result in pernicious anemia, macrocytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Decreased iron can result in lethargy and loss of hair.
Which of the following interventions are appropriate for clients with gastritis? Select all that apply.
-Use a calm approach to reduce anxiety. -Discourage cigarette smoking. -Notify the physician of inidicators of hemorrhagic gastritis. The nurse should use a calm approach when answering questions and providing teaching. He or she should discuss smoking cessation and monitor for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis. The client will take nothing by mouth for up to a few days until symptoms subside. The nurse needs to develop an individualized teaching plan for the client that includes information about stress management, diet, and medications.
A client returns from the operating room after receiving extensive abdominal surgery. He has 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution infusing via a central line. The physician orders the IV fluid to be infused at 125 mL/hr plus the total output of the previous hour. The drip factor of the tubing is 15 gtt/min, and the output for the previous hour was 75 mL via Foley catheter, 50 mL via nasogastric tube, and 10 mL via Jackson Pratt tube. For how many drops per mintue should the nurse set the IV flow rate to deliver the correct amount of fluid? Enter the correct number ONLY.
65 First, calculate the volume to be infused (in milliliters): 75 mL + 50 mL + 10 mL = 135 mL total output for the previous hour; 135 mL + 125 mL ordered as a constant flow = 260 mL to be infused over the next hour Next use the formula Volume to be infused/Total minutes to be infused x Drip factor = Drops per min In this case, 260 mL divided by 60 min x 15 gtt/min = 65 gtt/min
A physician has written an order for ranitidine (Zantac), 300 mg once daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which time?
At bedtime Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton-pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (eg, metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton-pump inhibitor (eg, lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton-pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol). Research is being conducted to develop a vaccine against H. pylori.
A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Which of the following is the correct position for the nurse to place this client?
Fowler's Placing the client in the Fowler's position after gastric surgery promotes comfort and allows emptying of the stomach.
A client undergoes total gastrectomy. Several hours after surgery, the nurse notes that the client's nasogastric (NG) tube has stopped draining. How should the nurse respond?
Notify the physician. The nurse should notify the physician because an NG tube that fails to drain during the postoperative period may be clogged, which could increase pressure on the suture site because fluid isn't draining adequately. Repositioning or irrigating an NG tube in a client who has undergone gastric surgery can disrupt the anastomosis. Increasing the level of suction may cause trauma to GI mucosa or the suture line.
The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). What information from the nurse would be most accurate about misoprostol?
Prevents ulceration in clients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that protects the gastric mucosa against ulceration and is used in clients who take NSAIDs. Misoprostol should be taken with food. It does not improve emptying of the stomach, and it increases (not decreases) mucus production.
A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake?
Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals After the return of bowel sounds and removal of the nasogastric tube, the nurse may give fluids, followed by food in small portions. Foods are gradually added until the client can eat six small meals a day and drink 120 mL of fluid between meals.
A nurse is providing care for a client recovering from gastric bypass surgery. During assessment, the client exhibits pallor, perspiration, palpitations, headache, and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and drowsiness. The client reports eating 90 minutes ago. The nurse suspects:
Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating. Signs and symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, diarrhea, nausea, and the desire to lie down. Dehiscence of the surgical wound is characterized by pain and a pulling or popping feeling at the surgical site. Peritonitis presents with a rigid, boardlike abdomen, tenderness, and fever. The client's signs and symptoms aren't a normal reaction to surgery.
Which statement correctly identifies a difference between duodenal and gastric ulcers?
Vomiting is uncommon in clients with duodenal ulcers. Vomiting is uncommon in clients diagnosed with duodenal ulcer. Malignancy is associated with a gastric ulcer. Weight gain may occur with a duodenal ulcer. Duodenal ulcers cause hypersecretion of stomach acid.
After a client received a diagnosis of gastric cancer, the surgical team decides that a Billroth II would be the best approach to treatment. The nurse explains to the family that this procedure involves:
Wide resection of the middle and distal portions of the stomach with removal of about 75% of the stomach The Billroth I involves a limited resection and offers a lower cure rate than the Billroth II. The Billroth II procedure is a wider resection that involves removing approximately 75% of the stomach and decreases the possibility of lymph node spread or metastatic recurrence. A proximal subtotal gastrectomy may be performed for a resectable tumor located in the proximal portion of the stomach or cardia. A total gastrectomy or an esophagogastrectomy is usually performed in place of this procedure to achieve a more extensive resection.
A client is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects this client's stools to be:
black and tarry. Black, tarry stools are a sign of bleeding high in the GI tract, as from a gastric ulcer, and result from the action of digestive enzymes on the blood. Vomitus associated with upper GI tract bleeding commonly is described as coffee-ground-like. Clay-colored stools are associated with biliary obstruction. Bright red stools indicate lower GI tract bleeding.