Med-Surg Exam 1 NCLEX Qs
11. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. Encourage increased intake of whole grains. b. Increase the patient's intake of fruits and fruit juices. c. Offer high-calorie snacks between meals and at bedtime. d. Assist the patient in choosing foods with high vegetable and mineral content.
ANS: C Eating small amounts more frequently (as occurs with snacking) will increase caloric intake by decreasing the fatigue and feelings of fullness associated with large meals. Patients with COPD should rest before meals. Foods that have a lot of texture like whole grains may take more energy to eat and get absorbed and lead to decreased intake. Although fruits, juices, and vegetables are not contraindicated, foods high in protein are a better choice. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 596 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
31. The nurse takes an admission history on a patient with possible asthma who has new-onset wheezing and shortness of breath. Which information may indicate a need for a change in therapy? a. The patient has chronic inflammatory bowel disease. b. The patient has a history of pneumonia 6 months ago. c. The patient takes propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension. d. The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches.
ANS: C β-Blockers such as propranolol can cause bronchospasm in some patients with asthma. The other information will be documented in the health history but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 576 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
A patient who has required prolonged mechanical ventilation has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: D The pH indicates that the patient has alkalosis and the low PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The other responses are incorrect based on the pH and the normal HCO3.
A patient is having pulmonary-function studies performed. The patient performs a spirometry test, revealing an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding? A) Strong exercise tolerance B) Exhalation volume is normal C) Respiratory infection D) Obstructive lung disease
Ans: Obstructive lung disease Feedback: Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of forced expiration volume in 1 second to forced vital capacity. Obstructive lung disease is apparent when an FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70%.
An older adult patient has been diagnosed with COPD. What characteristic of the patient's current health status would preclude the safe and effective use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)? A) The patient has not yet quit smoking. B) The patient has severe arthritis in her hands. C) The patient requires both corticosteroids and beta2-agonists. D) The patient has cataracts.
Ans: The patient has severe arthritis in her hands. Feedback: Safe and effective MDI use requires the patient to be able to manipulate the device independently, which may be difficult if the patient has arthritis. Smoking does not preclude MDI use. A modest loss of vision does not preclude the use of an MDI and a patient can safely use more than one MDI.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been hospitalized with an acute asthma exacerbation. What drugs should the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient to gain underlying control of persistent asthma? A) Rescue inhalers B) Anti-inflammatory drugs C) Antibiotics D) Antitussives
B) Anti-inflammatory drugs Feedback: Because the underlying pathology of asthma is inflammation, control of persistent asthma is accomplished primarily with regular use of anti-inflammatory medications. Rescue inhalers, antibiotics, and antitussives do not aid in the first-line control of persistent asthma.
For a patient with advance chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange? A- Encouraging the patient to drink three glasses of fluid daily B- Keeping the patient in semi-fowler's position C- Using a high-flow venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribe D- Administering a sedative, as prescribe.
C. The patient with COPD retains carbon dioxide, which inhibits stimulation of breathing by the medullary center in the brain. As a result, low oxygen levels in the blood stimulate respiration, and administering unspecified, unmonitored amounts of oxygen may depress ventilation. To promote adequate gas exchange, the nurse should use a Venturi mask to deliver a specified, controlled amount of oxygen consistently and accurately. Drinking three glasses of fluid daily would not affect gas exchange or be sufficient to liquefy secretions, which are common in COPD. Patients with COPD and respiratory distress should be places in high-Fowler's position and should not receive sedatives or other drugs that may further depress the respiratory center
A nursing is planning the care of a patient with emphysema who will soon be discharged. What teaching should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A) Taking prophylactic antibiotics as ordered B) Adhering to the treatment regimen in order to cure the disease C) Avoiding airplanes, buses, and other crowded public places D) Setting realistic short-term and long-range goals
D) Setting realistic short-term and long-range goals Feedback: A major area of teaching involves setting and accepting realistic short-term and long-range goals. Emphysema is not considered curable and antibiotics are not used on a preventative basis. The patient does not normally need to avoid public places.
A 45-year-old man with asthma is brought to the emergency department by automobile. He is short of breath and appears frightened. During the initial nursing assessment, which clinical manifestation might be present as an early manifestation during an exacerbation of asthma? 1- Anxiety 2- Cyanosis 3- Bradycardia 4- Hypercapnia
1- Anxiety An early manifestation during an asthma attack is anxiety because the patient is acutely aware of the inability to get sufficient air to breathe. He will be hypoxic early on with decreased PaCO2 and increased pH as he is hyperventilating. If cyanosis occurs, it is a later sign. The pulse and blood pressure will be increased.
While teaching a patient with asthma about the appropriate use of a peak flow meter, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do? 1- Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. 2- Use the flow meter each morning after taking medications to evaluate their effectiveness. 3- Increase the doses of the long-term control medication if the peak flow numbers decrease. 4- Empty the lungs and then inhale quickly through the mouthpiece to measure how fast air can be inhaled.
1- Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. It is important to keep track of peak flow readings daily, especially when the patient's symptoms are getting worse. The patient should have specific directions as to when to call the physician based on personal peak flow numbers. Peak flow is measured by exhaling into the flow meter and should be assessed before and after medications to evaluate their effectiveness.
The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. In patients with asthma, the nurse assesses for which etiologic factor for this nursing diagnosis? 1- Work of breathing 2- Fear of suffocation 3- Effects of medications 4- Anxiety and restlessness
1- Work of breathing When the patient does not have sufficient gas exchange to engage in activity, the etiologic factor is often the work of breathing. When patients with asthma do not have effective respirations, they use all available energy to breathe and have little left over for purposeful activity. Fear of suffocation, effects of medications or anxiety, and restlessness are not etiologies for activity intolerance for a patient with asthma.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient in the emergency department admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The patient has received a β-adrenergic bronchodilator and supplemental oxygen. If the patient's condition does not improve, the nurse should anticipate what as the most likely next step in treatment? IV fluids 1- Biofeedback therapy 2- Systemic corticosteroids 3- Pulmonary function testing 4- Systemic corticosteroids
2- Systemic corticosteroids Systemic corticosteroids speed the resolution of asthma exacerbations and are indicated if the initial response to the β-adrenergic bronchodilator is insufficient. IV fluids may be used, but not to improve ventilation. Biofeedback therapy and pulmonary function testing may be used after recovery to assist the patient and monitor the asthma.
A nurse has been asked to give a workshop on COPD for a local community group. The nurse emphasizes the importance of smoking cessation because smoking has what pathophysiologic effect? A) Increases the amount of mucus production B) Destabilizes hemoglobin C) Shrinks the alveoli in the lungs D) Collapses the alveoli in the lungs
A) Increases the amount of mucus production Feedback: Smoking irritates the goblet cells and mucous glands, causing an increased accumulation of mucus, which, in turn, produces more irritation, infection, and damage to the lung.
An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the following symptoms first? A- Altered mental status and dehydration B- Fever and chills C- Hemoptysis and dyspnea D- Pleuritic chest pain and cough
A. Fever, chills, hemoptysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered mental status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.
What two organs in the body serve as a compensatory function to maintain acid base balance? A. Kidneys and Lungs B. Lungs and Spleen C. Heart and Liver D. Gallbladder and Appendix
A. Kidneys and Lungs Rationale: The carbonic acid concentration is controlled by the amount of carbon dioxide excreted by the lungs. The bicarbonate concentration is controlled by the kidneys, which selectively retain or excrete bicarbonate in response to the body's needs.
A patient who is comatose is admitted to the hospital with an unknown history. Respirations are deep and rapid. Arterial blood gas levels on admission are pH, 7.20; PaCO2, 21 mm Hg; PaO2, 92 mm Hg; and HCO3-, 8. You interpret these laboratory values to indicate: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis The low pH indicates acidosis. The low PaCO2 is caused by the hyperventilation, either from primary respiratory alkalosis (not compatible with the measured pH) or as a compensation for metabolic acidosis. The low HCO3- indicates metabolic acidosis or compensation for respiratory alkalosis (again, not compatible with the measured pH). Thus metabolic acidosis is the correct interpretation.
The major effect of acidosis is overexcitement of the central nervous system: A. True B. False C. Both Acidosis and Alkalosis result in overexcitement of the central nervous system.
A. True Rationale: ABG's are blood tests that are useful in identifying the cause and extent of the acid-base disturbance and in guiding and monitoring treatment.
43. Which finding in a patient hospitalized with bronchiectasis is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Cough productive of bloody, purulent mucus b. Scattered rhonchi and wheezes heard bilaterally c. Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute while ambulating in hallway d. Complaint of sharp chest pain with deep breathing
ANS: A Hemoptysis may indicate life-threatening hemorrhage and should be reported immediately to the health care provider. The other findings are frequently noted in patients with bronchiectasis and may need further assessment but are not indicators of life-threatening complications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 607 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Which is the nurse's priority intervention for a confused client who is to start oxygen therapy? a. Determine which method of oxygen delivery the client will best tolerate. b. Instruct the client about the importance of leaving the oxygen delivery device on. c. Explain to the client that he will not be allowed to smoke while receiving oxygen. d. Monitor the client's ability to tolerate removal of oxygen while eating.
ANS: A Oxygen therapy is usually delivered by nasal cannula or mask unless the hypoxemia does not improve with these delivery devices. The client who is confused may not tolerate a face mask. Check the skin under the device and under the elastic band, especially around the ears, for areas of redness or skin breakdown. The confused client cannot receive instruction about the oxygen delivery device or not smoking.
35. A patient who is experiencing an asthma attack develops bradycardia and a decrease in wheezing. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Document changes in respiratory status. c. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. Administer IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).
ANS: A The patient's assessment indicates impending respiratory failure, and the nurse should prepare to assist with intubation and mechanical ventilation after notifying the health care provider. IV corticosteroids require several hours before having any effect on respiratory status. The patient will not be able to cough or deep breathe effectively. Documentation is not a priority at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 565 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
A patient has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: A The pH and HCO3 indicate that the patient has a metabolic acidosis. The ABGs are inconsistent with the other responses.
38. The nurse in the emergency department receives arterial blood gas results for four recently admitted patients with obstructive pulmonary disease. Which patient will require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. 22-year-old with ABG results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and PaO2 58 mm Hg b. 34-year-old with ABG results: pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, and PaO2 65 mm Hg c. 45-year-old with ABG results: pH 7.34, PaCO2 33 mm Hg, and PaO2 80 mm Hg d. 65-year-old with ABG results: pH 7.31, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, and PaO2 64 mm Hg
ANS: A The pH, PaCO2, and PaO2 indicate that the patient has severe uncompensated respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. Rapid action will be required to prevent increasing hypoxemia and correct the acidosis. The other patients also should be assessed as quickly as possible but do not require interventions as quickly as the 22-year-old. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 566 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
A patient was admitted for a bowel obstruction and has had a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction for the past 3 days. The patient's respiratory rate has decreased to 12 breaths per minute. The nurse would expect the patient to have which of the following arterial blood gas values? a) pH 7.78, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L b) pH 7.52, PaCO2 48 mm Hg, HCO3- 28 mEq/L c) pH 7.35, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L d) pH 7.25, PaCO2 47 mm Hg, HCO3- 29 mEq/L
ANS: B Compensated metabolic alkalosis should show alkalosis pH and HCO3- (metabolic) values, with a slightly acidic CO2 (compensatory respiratory acidosis). In this case, pH 7.52 is alkaline (normal = 7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2is acidic (normal 35 to 45 mm Hg), and HCO3- is elevated (normal = 22 to 26 mEq/L). A result of pH 7.78, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L is uncompensated metabolic alkalosis. pH 7.35, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L is within normal limits. pH 7.25, PaCO2 47 mm Hg, HCO3- 29 mEq/L is compensated respiratory acidosis.
42. The nurse receives a change-of-shift report on the following patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with loud expiratory wheezes b. A patient with a respiratory rate of 38/minute c. A patient who has a cough productive of thick, green mucus d. A patient with jugular venous distention and peripheral edema
ANS: B A respiratory rate of 38/minute indicates severe respiratory distress, and the patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent possible respiratory arrest. The other patients also need assessment as soon as possible, but they do not need to be assessed as urgently as the tachypneic patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 576 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
14. Which finding by the nurse for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange will be most useful in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment? a. Even, unlabored respirations b. Pulse oximetry reading of 92% c. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute d. Absence of wheezes, rhonchi, or crackles
ANS: B For the nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange, the best data for evaluation are arterial blood gases (ABGs) or pulse oximetry. The other data may indicate either improvement or impending respiratory failure caused by fatigue. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 598 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
28. The nurse provides dietary teaching for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a low body mass index (BMI). Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will drink lots of fluids with my meals." b. "I can have ice cream as a snack every day." c. "I will exercise for 15 minutes before meals." d. "I will decrease my intake of meat and poultry."
ANS: B High-calorie foods like ice cream are an appropriate snack for patients with COPD. Fluid intake of 3 L/day is recommended, but fluids should be taken between meals rather than with meals to improve oral intake of solid foods. The patient should avoid exercise for an hour before meals to prevent fatigue while eating. Meat and dairy products are high in protein and are good choices for the patient with COPD. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 595-596 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
18. A patient is receiving 35% oxygen via a Venturi mask. To ensure the correct amount of oxygen delivery, which action by the nurse is most important? a. Teach the patient to keep mask on at all times. b. Keep the air entrainment ports clean and unobstructed. c. Give a high enough flow rate to keep the bag from collapsing. d. Drain moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing every hour.
ANS: B The air entrainment ports regulate the oxygen percentage delivered to the patient, so they must be unobstructed. A high oxygen flow rate is needed when giving oxygen by partial rebreather or non-rebreather masks. Draining oxygen tubing is necessary when caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. The mask is uncomfortable and can be removed when the patient eats. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 591 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
16. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).What is the best way for the nurse to determine the appropriate oxygen flow rate? a. Minimize oxygen use to avoid oxygen dependency. b. Maintain the pulse oximetry level at 90% or greater. c. Administer oxygen according to the patient's level of dyspnea. d. Avoid administration of oxygen at a rate of more than 2 L/minute.
ANS: B The best way to determine the appropriate oxygen flow rate is by monitoring the patient's oxygenation either by arterial blood gases (ABGs) or pulse oximetry. An oxygen saturation of 90% indicates adequate blood oxygen level without the danger of suppressing the respiratory drive. For patients with an exacerbation of COPD, an oxygen flow rate of 2 L/min may not be adequate. Because oxygen use improves survival rate in patients with COPD, there is no concern about oxygen dependency. The patient's perceived dyspnea level may be affected by other factors (such as anxiety) besides blood oxygen level. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 589 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
5. The emergency department nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of therapy for a patient who has received treatment during an asthma attack. Which assessment finding is the best indicator that the therapy has been effective? a. No wheezes are audible. b. Oxygen saturation is >90%. c. Accessory muscle use has decreased. d. Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
ANS: B The goal for treatment of an asthma attack is to keep the oxygen saturation >90%. The other patient data may occur when the patient is too fatigued to continue with the increased work of breathing required in an asthma attack. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 569 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
40. The clinic nurse makes a follow-up telephone call to a patient with asthma. The patient reports having a baseline peak flow reading of 600 L/minute and the current peak flow is 420 L/minute. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Tell the patient to go to the hospital emergency department. b. Instruct the patient to use the prescribed albuterol (Proventil). c. Ask about recent exposure to any new allergens or asthma triggers. d. Question the patient about use of the prescribed inhaled corticosteroids.
ANS: B The patient's peak flow is 70% of normal, indicating a need for immediate use of short-acting β2-adrenergic SABA medications. Assessing for correct use of medications or exposure to allergens also is appropriate, but would not address the current decrease in peak flow. Because the patient is currently in the yellow zone, hospitalization is not needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 580 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
A patient with a lower respiratory infection has pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 20 mEq/L. The physician has been notified. Which is the priority nursing intervention for this patient? a) Check the color of the patient's urine output. b) Place the patient in Trendelenburg position. c) Encourage the patient to increase respirations. d) Place the patient in high Fowler's position.
ANS: C The patient has respiratory acidosis from CO2 retention. Increasing rate and depth of respiration will allow the patient to blow off excess carbon dioxide, and this will begin to correct the imbalance. Checking the urine color is not a necessary assessment. The Trendelenburg position likely would make it more difficult for the patient to breathe and should be avoided. Placing the patient in high Fowler's position may make the patient more comfortable, but it is not necessary.
Which laboratory value should the nurse examine when evaluating uncompensated respiratory alkalosis? a) PaO2 b) Anion gap c) PaCO2 d) HCO3-
ANS: C Uncompensated respiratory imbalances are seen in the PaCO2 levels. PaO2 indicates oxygen status. Anion gap is used for metabolic acidosis. HCO3- is used to evaluate compensation for respiratory imbalances or uncompensated metabolic imbalances.
12. The nurse interviews a patient with a new diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which information is most helpful in confirming a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis? a. The patient tells the nurse about a family history of bronchitis. b. The patient's history indicates a 30 pack-year cigarette history. c. The patient complains about a productive cough every winter for 3 months. d. The patient denies having any respiratory problems until the last 12 months.
ANS: C A diagnosis of chronic bronchitis is based on a history of having a productive cough for 3 months for at least 2 consecutive years. There is no family tendency for chronic bronchitis. Although smoking is the major risk factor for chronic bronchitis, a smoking history does not confirm the diagnosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 579 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
3. A patient is scheduled for pulmonary function testing. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for this procedure? a. Give the rescue medication immediately before testing. b. Administer oral corticosteroids 2 hours before the procedure. c. Withhold bronchodilators for 6 to 12 hours before the examination. d. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for several hours before the test.
ANS: C Bronchodilators are held before pulmonary function testing (PFT) so that a baseline assessment of airway function can be determined. Testing is repeated after bronchodilator use to determine whether the decrease in lung function is reversible. There is no need for the patient to be NPO. Oral corticosteroids should be held before PFTs. Rescue medications (which are bronchodilators) would not be given until after the baseline pulmonary function was assessed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 566 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
9. The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which information obtained from the patient would prompt the nurse to consult with the health care provider before administering the prescribed theophylline? a. The patient reports a recent 15-pound weight gain. b. The patient denies any shortness of breath at present. c. The patient takes cimetidine (Tagamet) 150 mg daily. d. The patient complains about coughing up green mucus.
ANS: C Cimetidine interferes with the metabolism of theophylline, and concomitant administration may lead rapidly to theophylline toxicity. The other patient information would not affect whether the theophylline should be administered or not. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 571 | 572 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
21. A patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) tells the nurse, "I wish I were dead! I'm just a burden on everybody." Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Complicated grieving related to expectation of death b. Ineffective coping related to unknown outcome of illness c. Deficient knowledge related to lack of education about COPD d. Chronic low self-esteem related to increased physical dependence
ANS: D The patient's statement about not being able to do anything for himself or herself supports this diagnosis. Although deficient knowledge, complicated grieving, and ineffective coping may also be appropriate diagnoses for patients with COPD, the data for this patient do not support these diagnoses. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 599-600 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with an exacerbation of chronic bronchiectasis. The nurse should expect to assess the patient for which of the following clinical manifestations? A) Copious sputum production B) Pain on inspiration C) Pigeon chest D) Dry cough
Ans: Copious sputum production Feedback: Clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis include hemoptysis, chronic cough, copious purulent sputum, and clubbing of the fingers. Because of the copious production of sputum, the cough is rarely dry. A pigeon chest is not associated with the disease and patients do not normally experience pain on inspiration.
A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations? a. Simple mask b. Non-rebreather mask c. Face tent d. Nasal cannula
Answer B. A non-rebreather mask can deliver levels of the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) as high as 100%. Other modes — simple mask, face tent and nasal cannula — deliver lower levels of FIO2.
The nurse is caring for a male client who recently underwent a tracheostomy. The first priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy is: a. helping him communicate. b. keeping his airway patent. c. encouraging him to perform activities of daily living. d. preventing him from developing an infection.
Answer B. Maintaining a patent airway is the most basic and critical human need. All other interventions are important to the client's well-being but not as important as having sufficient oxygen to breathe
A nurse is caring for a male client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse assesses the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed: a. 1 L/min b. 2 L/min c. 6 L/min d. 10 L/min
Answer B. Oxygen is used cautiously and should not exceed 2 L/min. Because of the long-standing hypercapnia that occurs in emphysema, the respiratory drive is triggered by low oxygen levels rather than increased carbon dioxide levels, as is the case in a normal respiratory system.
Which of the following would be most appropriate for a male client with an arterial blood gas (ABG) of pH 7.5, PaCO2 26 mm Hg, O2 saturation 96%, HCO3 24 mEq/L, and PaO2 94 mm Hg? a. Administer a prescribed decongestant. b. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag. c. Offer the client fluids frequently. d. Administer prescribed supplemental oxygen.
Answer B. The ABG results reveal respiratory alkalosis. The best intervention to raise the PaCO2 level would be to have the client breathe into a paper bag. All of the other options — such as administering a decongestant, offering fluids frequently, and administering supplemental oxygen — wouldn't raise the lowered PaCO2 level.
On arrival at the intensive care unit, a critically ill female client suffers respiratory arrest and is placed on mechanical ventilation. The physician orders pulse oximetry to monitor the client's arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) noninvasively. Which vital sign abnormality may alter pulse oximetry values? a. Fever b. Tachypnea c. Tachycardia d. Hypotension
Answer D. Hypotension, hypothermia, and vasoconstriction may alter pulse oximetry values by reducing arterial blood flow. Likewise, movement of the finger to which the oximeter is applied may interfere with interpretation of SaO2. All of these conditions limit the usefulness of pulse oximetry. Fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia don't affect pulse oximetry values directly.
A nurse is developing the teaching portion of a care plan for a patient with COPD. What would be the most important component for the nurse to emphasize? A) Smoking up to one-half of a pack of cigarettes weekly is allowable. B) Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage. C) Minor respiratory infections are considered to be self-limited and are not treated. D) Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be clustered in the early morning hours.
B) Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage. Feedback: Environmental risk factors for COPD include prolonged and intense exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals, indoor air pollution, and outdoor air pollution. Smoking cessation should be taught to all patients who are currently smoking. Minor respiratory infections that are of no consequence to the person with normal lungs can produce fatal disturbances in the lungs of the person with emphysema. ADLs should be paced throughout the day to permit patients to perform these without excessive distress
An asthma educator is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with asthma and her family about the use of a peak flow meter. The educator should teach the patient that a peak flow meter measures what value? A) Highest airflow during a forced inspiration B) Highest airflow during a forced expiration C) Airflow during a normal inspiration D) Airflow during a normal expiration
B) Highest airflow during a forced expiration Feedback: Peak flow meters measure the highest airflow during a forced expiration.
A nurse is caring for a young adult patient whose medical history includes an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. This deficiency predisposes the patient to what health problem? A) Pulmonary edema B) Lobular emphysema C) Cystic fibrosis (CF) D) Empyema
B) Lobular emphysema Feedback: A host risk factor for COPD is a deficiency of alpha1-antitrypsin, an enzyme inhibitor that protects the lung parenchyma from injury. This deficiency predisposes young patients to rapid development of lobular emphysema even in the absence of smoking. This deficiency does not influence the patient's risk of pulmonary edema, CF, or empyema.
On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax? A- Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles B- Absence of breaths sound in the right thorax C- Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax D- Bilateral pleural friction rub
B. In pneumothorax, the alveoli are deflated and no air exchange occurs in the lungs. Therefore, breath sounds in the affected lung field are absent. None of the other options are associated with pneumothorax. Bilateral crackles may result from pulmonary congestion, inspiratory wheezes may signal asthma, and a pleural friction rub may indicate pleural inflammation.
A 3 y.o. ♂ is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of asthma and respiratory distress syndrome. The mother of the child reports to the nurse on duty that she has witnessed slight tremors and behavioral changes in her child over the past four days. The attending physician orders routine ABGs following an assessment of the ABCs. The ABG results are pH 7.35, PaCO2 72 mmHg and HCO3 38 mEq/L. What acid-base disorder is shown? A. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Fully Compensated C. Respiratory Alkalosis, Fully Compensated D. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
B. Respiratory Acidosis, Fully Compensated Rationale: The patient has respiratory acidosis (raised carbon dioxide) resulting from asthma and respiratory distress syndrome, with compensation having normal pH value within 7.35to 7.45, increased PaCO2 which is acidic and increased HCO3 which is basic.
GK is a 54 year old widower with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and was rushed to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath, pyrexia, and a productive cough with yellow-green sputum. He has difficulty in communicating because of his inability to complete a sentence. One of his sons, says he has been unwell for three days. Upon examination, crackles and wheezes can be heard in the lower lobes; he has a tachycardia and a bounding pulse. Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.3, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mmol/L, and PaO2 60 mm Hg. How would you interpret this? A. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Acidosis, Partially Compensated
B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated Rationale: The patient has respiratory acidosis (raised carbon dioxide) resulting from an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, with partial compensation.
A patient's severe asthma has necessitated the use of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA). Which of the patient's statements suggests a need for further education? A) "I know that these drugs can sometimes make my heart beat faster." B) "I've heard that this drug is particularly good at preventing asthma attacks during exercise." C) "I'll make sure to use this each time I feel an asthma attack coming on." D) "I've heard that this drug sometimes gets less effective over time."
C Feedback: LABAs are not used for management of acute asthma symptoms. Tachycardia is a potential adverse effect and decreased protection against exercise-induced bronchospasm may occur with regular use.
Which phrase is used to describe the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath? A- Total lung capacity B- Forced vital capacity C- Tidal volume D- Residual volume
C. Tidal volume refers to the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath. Total lung capacity is the maximal amount of air the lungs and respiratory passages can hold after a forced inspiration. Forced vital capacity is the vital capacity performed with a maximally forced expiration. Residual volume is the maximal amount of air left in the lung after a maximal expiration.
Increased plasma bicarbonate (HCO3-): A. Metabolic Acidosis B. Respiratory Alkalosis C. Metabolic Alkalosis D. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis Rationale: In metabolic alkalosis, breathing becomes depressed in an effort to conserve carbon dioxide for combination with water in the blood to raise the blood level of carbonic acid. Symptoms include confusion, dizziness, numbness or tingling of fingers or toes.
AP, was drinking a glass of wine when she syncopized and hit her head. Her friend dials "911" because AP is unconscious, with depressed ventilation (shallow and slow respirations), rapid heart rate, and is profusely bleeding from both ears. Which primary acid-base imbalance is AP at risk for if medical attention is not provided? A. Metabolic Acidosis B. Metabolic Alkalosis C. Respiratory Acidosis D. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Acidosis Rationale: One of the risk factors of having respiratory acidosis is hypoventilation which may be due to brain trauma, coma, and hypothyroidism or myxedema. Other risk factors include COPD, Respiratory conditions such as pneumothorax, pneumonia and status asthmaticus. Drugs such as Morphine and MgSO4 toxicity are also risk factors of respiratory acidosis.
A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient's medication regimen has been recently changed and the nurse is assessing for therapeutic effect of a new bronchodilator. What assessment parameters suggest a consequent improvement in respiratory status? Select all that apply. A) Negative sputum culture B) Increased viscosity of lung secretions C) Increased respiratory rate D) Increased expiratory flow rate E) Relief of dyspnea
D & E Feedback: The relief of bronchospasm is confirmed by measuring improvement in expiratory flow rates and volumes (the force of expiration, how long it takes to exhale, and the amount of air exhaled) as well as by assessing the dyspnea and making sure that it has lessened. Increased respiratory rate and viscosity of secretions would suggest a worsening of the patient's respiratory status. Bronchodilators would not have a direct result on the patient's infectious process.
Which of the following best describes pleural effusion? A- The collapse of alveoli B- The collapse of bronchiole C- The fluid in the alveolar space D- The accumulation of fluid between the linings of the pleural space
D. The pleural fluid normally seeps continually into the pleural space from the capillaries lining the parietal pleura and is reabsorbed by the visceral pleural capillaries and lymphatics. Any condition that interferes with either the secretion or drainage of this fluid will lead to a pleural effusion.
A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which nursing diagnosis should take priority? A- Acute pain related to lung expansion secondary to lung infection B- Risk for imbalanced fluid volume related to increased insensible fluid losses secondary to fever C- Anxiety related to dyspnea and chest pain D- Ineffective airway clearance related to retained secretions
D. Pneumonia is an acute infection of the lung parenchyma. The inflammatory reaction may cause an outpouring of exudate into the alveolar spaces, leading to an ineffective airway clearance related to retained secretions.
A nurse instructs a female client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to: A- Promote oxygen intake B- Strengthen the diaphragm C- Strengthen the intercostal muscles D- Promote carbon dioxide elimination
D. Pursed-lip breathing facilitates maximal expiration for clients with obstructive lung disease. This type of breathing allows better expiration by increasing airway pressure that keeps air passages open during exhalation. Options A, B, and C are not the purposes of this type of breathing.
These are difficult
GK is a 54 year old widower with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and was rushed to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath, pyrexia, and a productive cough with yellow-green sputum. He has difficulty in communicating because of his inability to complete a sentence. One of his sons, says he has been unwell for three days. Upon examination, crackles and wheezes can be heard in the lower lobes; he has a tachycardia and a bounding pulse. Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.3, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mmol/L, and PaO2 60 mm Hg. How would you interpret this? A. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Acidosis, Partially Compensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated Rationale: The patient has respiratory acidosis (raised carbon dioxide) resulting from an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, with partial compensation. MJ, an 8 y.o. ♂, was rushed to the hospital due to vomiting and a decreased level of consciousness. The patient displays slow and deep (Kussmaul breathing), and he is lethargic and irritable in response to stimulation. He appears to be dehydrated—his eyes are sunken and mucous membranes are dry—and he has a two week history of polydipsia, polyuria, and weight loss. Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.0, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 23 mm Hg, and HCO3 12 mmol/L; other results are Na+ 126 mmol/L, K+ 5 mmol/L, and Cl- 95 mmol/L. What is your assessment? A. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Acidosis, Partially Compensated D. Metabolic Acidosis, Partially Compensated Rationale: The patient was diagnosed having diabetes mellitus. The results show that he has metabolic acidosis (low HCO3 -) with respiratory compensation (low CO2). CV was brought to the emergency department of a hospital after she fell into the ground and hurt her left leg. She is noted to be tachycardic and tachypneic. Painkillers were carried out to lessen her pain. Suddenly, she started complaining that she is still in pain and now experiencing muscle cramps, tingling, and paraesthesia. Measurement of arterial blood gas reveals pH 7.6, PaO2 120 mm Hg, PaCO2 31 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mmol/L. What does this mean? A. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated A. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated Rationale: The primary disorder is acute respiratory alkalosis (low CO2) due to the pain and anxiety causing her to hyperventilate. There has not been time for metabolic compensation. A 71 y.o ♀ has been suffering from persistent vomiting for two days now. She appears to be lethargic and weak and has myalgia. She is noted to have dry mucus membranes and her capillary refill takes >4 seconds. She is diagnosed as having gastroenteritis and dehydration. Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.5, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and HCO3 34 mmol/L. What acid-base disorder is shown? A. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated Rationale: The primary disorder is uncompensated metabolic alkalosis (high HCO3 -). As CO2 is the strongest driver of respiration, it generally will not allow hypoventilation as compensation for metabolic alkalosis. MJ, who had undergone surgery in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU), is difficult to arouse two hours following surgery. Nurse Florence in the PACU has been administering Morphine Sulfate intravenously to the client for complaints of post-surgical pain. The client's respiratory rate is 7 per minute and demonstrates shallow breathing. The patient does not respond to any stimuli! The nurse assesses the ABCs (remember Airway, Breathing, Circulation!) and obtains ABGs STAT! Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.10, PaCO2 70 mm Hg and HCO3 24 mEq/L. What does this mean? A. Respiratory Alkalosis, Partially Compensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated C. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated D. Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated Rationale: The results show that Mrs. Johansson has respiratory acidosis because of decreased pH and increased PaCO2 which mean acidic in nature. Meanwhile, it is uncompensated because HCO3 is within the normal range. Baby LR was rushed to the Emergency Room following her mother's complaint that the infant has been irritable, difficult to breastfeed and has had diarrhea for the past 3 days. The infant's respiratory rate is elevated and the fontanels are sunken. The Emergency Room physician orders ABGs after assessing the ABCs. The results from the ABG results show pH 7.39, PaCO2 27 mmHg and HCO3 19 mEq/L. What does this mean? A. Respiratory Alkalosis, Fully Compensated B. Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated C. Metabolic Acidosis, Fully Compensated D. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated C. Metabolic Acidosis, Fully Compensated Rationale: The infant has metabolic acidosis due to decreased HCO3 and slightly acidic pH. Her pH value is within the normal range which made the result fully compensated. MW, who underwent post-abdominal surgery, has a nasogastric tube. The nurse on duty notes that the nasogastric tube (NGT) is draining a large amount (900 cc in 2 hours) of coffee ground secretions. The client is not oriented to person, place, or time. The nurse contacts the attending physician and STAT ABGs are ordered. The results from the ABGs show pH 7.57, PaCO2 37 mmHg and HCO3 30 mEq/L. What is your assessment? A. Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated C. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated B. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated Rationale: The postoperative client's ABG results show that he has metabolic alkalosis because of an increased pH and HCO3. It is uncompensated due to the normal PaCO2 which is within 35 to 45 mmHg. CZ is admitted to the hospital and is to undergo brain surgery. The client is very anxious and scared of the upcoming surgery. He begins to hyperventilate and becomes very dizzy. The client loses consciousness and the STAT ABGs reveal pH 7.61, PaCO2 22 mmHg and HCO3 25 mEq/L. What is the ABG interpretation based on the findings? A. Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated B. Respiratory Alkalosis, Partially Compensated C. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated D. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated C. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated Rationale: The results show that the pt has respiratory alkalosis since there is an increase in the pH value and a decrease in PaCO2 which are both basic. It is uncompensated due to the normal HCO3 which is within 22-26 mEq/L.
A nurse is caring for a male patient with COPD. While reviewing breathing exercises, the nurse instructs the patient to breathe in slowly through the nose, taking in a normal breath. Then, the nurse asks the patient to pucker his lips as if preparing to whistle. Finally, the patient is told to exhale slowly and gently through the puckered lips. The nurse teaches the patient this breathing exercise to accomplish which of the following? Select all that apply. a) Release trapped air in the lungs b) Strengthen the diaphragm c) Prevent collapse of the airways d) Condition the inspiratory muscles e) Control the rate and depth of respirations
a) Release trapped air in the lungs, c) Prevent collapse of the airways, e) Control the rate and depth of respirations Explanation: The nurse is teaching the patient the technique of pursed-lip breathing. It helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of the airways, releases trapped air in the lungs, and helps the patient control the rate and depth of respirations. This helps patients relax and get control of dyspnea and reduces the feelings of panic they experience. Diaphragmatic breathing strengthens the diaphragm during breathing. In inspiratory muscle training the patient will be instructed to inhale against a set resistance for a prescribed amount of time every day in order to condition the inspiratory muscles.
A patient presents to the ED experiencing symptoms of COPD exacerbation. The nurse understands there are goals of therapy that are achieved to improve the patient's condition. Which of the following are therapy goals? Select all that apply. a) Return the patient to his original functioning abilities. b) Teach the patient to suspend activity. c) Provide medical support for the current exacerbation. d) Treat the underlying cause of the event. e) Return the patient to his original functioning abilities.
a) Return the patient to his original functioning abilities., c) Provide medical support for the current exacerbation., d) Treat the underlying cause of the event. Explanation: The goal is to have a stable patient with COPD leading the most productive life possible. COPD cannot necessarily be cured, but it can be managed so that the patient can live a reasonably normal life. With adequate management, patients should not have to give up their usual activities.
A patient is receiving theophylline (Theo-Dur) for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms. Patient teaching related to this medication will include which of the following? a) The importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentrations b) Taking the medication at least 1 hour prior to meals c) Development of hyperkalemia d) Monitoring liver function studies as prescribed
a) The importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentrations Explanation: The nurse should inform patients about the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentration. The therapeutic range of theophylline is between 5 and 15 μg/mL. The patient is at risk of developing hypokalemia.
Why would a patient with COPD report feeling fatigued? Select all that apply. a) The patient is using all expendable energy just to breathe. b) There is a gradual decrease in muscle function over time in a patient with COPD. c) There is a gradual decrease in lung function over time in a patient with COPD. d) The patient is using all expendable energy for activities of daily living (ADLs).
a) The patient is using all expendable energy just to breathe., c) There is a gradual decrease in lung function over time in a patient with COPD. Explanation: The patient is using all expendable energy just to breathe. There is a gradual decrease in lung function, not muscle function, over time in a patient with COPD. In the patient with COPD, fatigue and feeling of exhaustion stem directly from the disease, not from activity level.
A client beginning medication therapy with montelukast (Singulair) asks the nurse how the medication is helping the symptoms. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Singulair decreases inflammation and mucus secretion." b. "Singulair increases mucus secretion and bronchodilation" c. "Singulair prevents smooth muscle contraction by nervous system stimulation." d. "Singulair protects the airway from the effects of allergen exposure."
a. Singulair decreases inflammation and mucus secretion Rationale: Leukotriene modifiers such as montelukast block the action of leukotrienes, and therefore decrease mucous secretion and reduce inflammation, preventing bronchoconstriction. Montelukast blocks the action of leukotrienes and decreases mucous secretion. Leukotriene modifiers such as montelukast do not prevent smooth muscle contraction; they decrease mucous secretion and reduce inflammation. Leukotrienes are released when a client is exposed to an allergen. Leukotriene modifiers such as montelukast do not protect the airway from effects of allergen exposure.
The nurse who is explaining the pathophysiology of COPD to a client includes the fact that alveolar destruction results in which manifestations? Select all that apply. a. Decrease surface area for gas exchange b. Increased dead space air c. Development of pulmonary emboli d. Chronic dilation of bronchioles e. Airway collapse related to loss of elasticity
a. decrease surface area for gas exchange e. Airway collapse related to loss of elasticity Rationale: The loss of elasticity in the airway of a client with COPD can be airway attributed to repeated infections and inflammation, which leads to airway collapse. Airway collapse can cause alveolar destruction because of either over or under inflation of alveolar sacs. The impaired gas exchange occurring with COPD is caused by the loss of alveolar surface area available for gas exchange. Destruction of alveoli is not related to increased dead space air, pulmonary emboli, or chronic dilation of bronchioles.
Which of the following diagnostic test is the most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction? a) Spirometry b) Pulmonary function studies c) Pulse oximetry d) Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
b) Pulmonary function studies Explanation: Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC). Pulmonary function studies are used to help confirm the diagnosis of COPD, determine disease severity, and monitor disease progression. ABGs, and pulse oximetry are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction.
The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which finding would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? Select all that apply: a. Hypocapnia b. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray c. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise d. A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray e. Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity
b. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray c. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise Rationale: clinical manifestations of COPD include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and at rest, oxygen desaturation with exercise, and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. Chest x-ray reveal a hyper inflated chest and flattened diaphragm if the decease is advanced. Pulmonary function test will demonstrate decreased vital capacity.
A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away? a. Beta-adrenergic blockers b. Bronchodilators c. Inhaled steroids d. Oral steroids
b. Bronchodilators Rationale: Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for asthma because bronchoconstriction is the cause of reduced airflow. Beta-adrenergic blockers rant used to treat asthma and can cause bronchoconstriction. inhaled or oral steroids may be given to reduce the inflammation but aren't used for emergency relief.
When evaluating arterial blood gases (ABGs), which value is consistent with metabolic alkalosis? a. PaCO2 36 b. pH 7.48 c. HCO3 21 mEq/L d. O2 sat 95%
b. pH 7.48
The nurse is reviewing metered-dose inhaler (MDI) instructions with a patient. Which of the following patient statements indicates the need for further instruction? a) "Because I am prescribed a corticosteroid-containing MDI, I will rinse my mouth with water after use." b) "I will take a slow, deep breath in after pushing down on the MDI." c) "I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." d) "I will shake the MDI container before I use it."
c) "I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." Explanation: The patient can use a spacer or a holding chamber to facilitate the ease of medication administration. The remaining patient statements are accurate and indicate the patient understands how to use the MDI correctly.
Emphysema is described by which of the following statements? a) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction b) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi c) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli d) Presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years
c) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Explanation: Emphysema is a category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In emphysema, impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange results from destruction of the walls of over-distended alveoli. Emphysema is a pathologic term that describes an abnormal distention of the airspaces beyond the terminal bronchioles and destruction of the walls of the alveoli. Also, a chronic inflammatory response may induce disruption of the parenchymal tissues. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.
A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. What is the rationale for the use of steroids in clients with asthma? a. Corticosteroids promote bronchodilation b. Corticosteroids act as an expectorant c. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect d. Corticosteroids prevent development of respiratory infections.
c. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect Rationale: Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect and act to decrease edema in the bronchial airways and decrease mucus secretion. Corticosteroids do not have a bronchodilator effect, act as expectorants, or prevent respiratory infections.
The nurse teaches a client with COPD to assess for s/sx of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following s/sx would be included in the teaching plan? a. Clubbing of nail beds b. Hypertension c. Peripheral edema d. Increased appetite
c. peripheral edema Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is a complication of COPD that occurs because of pulmonary hypertension. Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and weight gain due to increased fluid volume. Clubbing of nail beds is associated with conditions of chronic hypoxia. Hypertension is associated with left-sided heart failure. Clients with heart failure have decreased appetites.
A male patient newly diagnosed with COPD tells the nurse, "I can't believe I have COPD, I only had a cough; are there other symptoms I should know about"? Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a) "You can also expect to experience a progressive weight gain." b) "As your COPD worsens, you will develop frequent respiratory infections." c) "There are no other symptoms; however, your cough may get worse as the disease progresses." d) "Other symptoms you may develop are shortness of breath on exertion, and sputum production."
d) "Other symptoms you may develop are shortness of breath on exertion, and sputum production." Explanation: COPD is characterized by three primary symptoms: cough, sputum production, and dyspnea on exertion. Patients with COPD are at risk for respiratory insufficiency and respiratory infections, which in turn increase the risk of acute and chronic respiratory failure. Weight loss is common with COPD.
In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%? a) III b) I c) II d) IV
d) IV Explanation: COPD is classified into four grades depending on the severity measured by pulmonary function tests. However, pulmonary function is not the only way to assess or classify COPD; pulmonary function is evaluated in conjunction with symptoms, health status impairment with COPD, and the potential for exacerbations. Grade I: (mild), FEV1/FVC < 70% and FEV1 ≥ 80% predicted. Grade II (moderate): FEV1/FVC1 < 70% and FEV1 50% to 80% predicted. Grade III (severe): FEV1/FVC < 70% and FEV1 < 30% to 50% predicted. Grade IV (very severe): FEV1/FVC < 70% and FEV1 < 30% predicted.
Which of the following measures may increase complications for a patient with COPD? a) Decreased oxygen supply b) Administration of antibiotics c) Administration of antitussive agents d) Increased oxygen supply
d) Increased oxygen supply Explanation: Administering too much oxygen can result in the retention of carbon dioxide. Patients with alveolar hypoventilation cannot increase ventilation to adjust for this increased load, and increasing hypercapnia occurs. All the other measures are aimed at preventing complications.
As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect the patient to develop which of the following acid-base imbalances? a) Metabolic alkalosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Respiratory acidosis
d) Respiratory acidosis Explanation: There is reduced PaO2 and initial respiratory alkalosis, with a decreased PaCO2 and an increased pH. As status asthmaticus worsens, PaCO2 increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.
A 34-year-old woman with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client? a. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes. b. Draw blood for an ABG analysis and send the client for a chest x-ray. c. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth d. Administer ordered bronchodilators
d. Administer ordered bronchodilators Rationale: In an acute asthma attack, diminished or absent breath sounds can be an ominous sign of indicating lack of air movement in the lungs and impending respiratory failure. The client requires immediate intervention with inhaled bronchodilators, intravenous corticosteroids, and possibly intravenous theophylline. Administering oxygen and reassessing the client 10 minutes later would delay needed medical intervention, as would drawing an ABG and obtaining a chest x-ray. It would be futile to encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly without providing necessary pharmacologic intervention.