Med Surg, Nervous System Study Questions
9. A patient hospitalized with a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome has numbness and weakness of both feet. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. infusion of immunoglobulin b. intubation and mechanical ventilation. c. administration of corticosteroid drugs. d. insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube.
ANS: A Because Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and tube feedings may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroid use is not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome.
8. A woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy." b. "Women with MS frequently have premature labor." c. "MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects." d. "Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy."
ANS: A During the postpartum period, women with MS are at greater risk for exacerbation of symptoms. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born of mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may improve during pregnancy. Onset of labor is not affected by MS.
A patient with Bell's palsy refuses to eat while others are present because of embarrassment about drooling. The best response by the nurse is to a. respect the patient's feelings and arrange for privacy at mealtimes. b. teach the patient to chew food on the unaffected side of the mouth. c. offer the patient liquid nutritional supplements at frequent intervals. d. discuss the patient's concerns with visitors who arrive at mealtimes.
ANS: A The patient's desire for privacy should be respected to encourage adequate nutrition and reduce patient embarrassment. Liquid supplements may help maintain nutrition but will reduce the patient's enjoyment of the taste of food. It would be inappropriate for the nurse to discuss the patient's embarrassment with visitors unless the patient wishes to share this information. Chewing on the unaffected side of the mouth will enhance nutrition and enjoyment of food but will not decrease the drooling.
14. The nurse advises a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) to a. perform physically demanding activities early in the day. b. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments. c. do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy. d. protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.
ANS: A Muscles are generally strongest in the morning, and activities involving muscle activity should be scheduled then. Plasmapheresis is not routinely scheduled but is used for myasthenia crisis or for situations in which corticosteroid therapy must be avoided. There is no decrease in sensation with MG, and muscle atrophy does not occur because although there is muscle weakness, they are still used.
5. A patient has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for 2 years. Which action will the nurse take when evaluating for adverse effects of the medication? a. Inspect the oral mucosa. c. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Listen to the lung sounds. d. Check pupil reaction to light.
ANS: A Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, but does not affect bowel sounds, lung sounds, or pupil reaction to light.
21. A patient tells the nurse about using acetaminophen (Tylenol) several times every day for recurrent bilateral headaches. Which action will the nurse plan to take first? a. Discuss the need to stop taking the acetaminophen. b. Suggest the use of biofeedback for headache control. c. Describe the use of botulism toxin (Botox) for headaches. d. Teach the patient about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
ANS: A The headache description suggests that the patient is experiencing medication overuse headache. The initial action will be withdrawal of the medication. The other actions may be needed if the headaches persist.
6. A patient reports feeling numbness and tingling of the left arm before experiencing a seizure. The nurse determines that this history is consistent with what type of seizure? a. Focal c. Absence b. Atonic d. Myoclonic
ANS: A The initial symptoms of a focal seizure involve clinical manifestations that are localized to a particular part of the body or brain. Symptoms of an absence seizure are staring and a brief loss of consciousness. In an atonic seizure, the patient loses muscle tone and (typically) falls to the ground. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by a sudden jerk of the body or extremities.
Chapter 55 1. When admitting an acutely confused patient with a head injury, which action should the nurse take? a. Ask family members about the patient's health history. b. Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data. c. Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions. d. Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data.
ANS: A When admitting a patient who is likely to be a poor historian, the nurse should obtain health history information from others who have knowledge about the patient's health. Waiting until the patient is oriented or obtaining only physiologic data will result in incomplete assessment data, which could adversely affect decision making about treatment. Asking leading questions may result in inaccurate or incomplete information.
35. A patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Which nursing interventions will be included in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Provide an elevated toilet seat. b. Cut patient's food into small pieces. c. Serve high-protein foods at each meal. d. Place an armchair at the patient's bedside. e. Observe for sudden exacerbation of symptoms.
ANS: A, B, D Because the patient with Parkinson's disease has difficulty chewing, food should be cut into small pieces. An armchair should be used when the patient is seated so that the patient can use the arms to assist with getting up from the chair. An elevated toilet seat will facilitate getting on and off the toilet. High-protein foods will decrease the effectiveness of L-dopa. Parkinson's disease is a steadily progressive disease without acute exacerbations.
7. An unconscious male patient has just arrived in the emergency department with a head injury caused by a motorcycle crash. Which order should the nurse question? a. Obtain x-rays of the skull and spine. b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture. c. Send for computed tomography (CT) scan. d. Perform neurologic checks every 15 minutes.
ANS: B After a head injury, the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding and increased intracranial pressure, and herniation of the brain could result if lumbar puncture is performed. The other orders are appropriate.
34. A patient who has been treated for status epilepticus in the emergency department will be transferred to the medical nursing unit. Which equipment should the nurse have available in the patient's assigned room (select all that apply)? a. Side-rail pads d. Suction tubing b. Tongue blade e. Urinary catheter c. Oxygen mask f. Nasogastric tube
ANS: A, C, D The patient is at risk for further seizures, and O2 and suctioning may be needed after any seizures to clear the airway and maximize oxygenation. The bed's side rails should be padded to minimize the risk for patient injury during a seizure. Use of tongue blades during a seizure is contraindicated. Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube is not indicated because the airway problem is not caused by vomiting or abdominal distention. A urinary catheter is not required unless there is urinary retention.
18. A 39-yr-old patient with a suspected herniated intervertebral disc is scheduled for a myelogram. Which information communicated by the nurse to the health care provider before the procedure would change the procedural plans? a. The patient is anxious about the test results. b. The patient reports a previous allergy to shellfish. c. The patient has back pain when lying flat for more than 4 hours. d. The patient drank apple juice 4 hours before the scheduled procedure.
ANS: B A contrast medium containing iodine is injected into the subarachnoid space during a myelogram. The patient's allergy would contraindicate the use of this medium. The health care provider may need to modify the orders to prevent back pain, but this can be done after the procedure. Clear liquids are usually considered safe up to 4 hours before a diagnostic or surgical procedure. The patient's anxiety should be addressed, but procedural plans would not need to be changed.
11. Which problem can the nurse expect for a patient who has a positive Romberg test result? a. Pain c. Aphasia b. Falls d. Confusion
ANS: B A positive Romberg test result indicates that the patient has difficulty maintaining balance when standing with the eyes closed. The Romberg does not test for orientation, thermoregulation, or discomfort.
15. Which information about a 76-yr-old patient should the nurse report as uncharacteristic of normal aging? a. Triceps reflex response graded at 1/5 b. Unintended weight loss of 15 pounds c. 10 mm Hg orthostatic drop in systolic blood pressure d. Patient complaint of chronic difficulty in falling asleep
ANS: B Although changes in appetite are normal with aging, a 15-lb weight loss requires further investigation. Orthostatic drops in blood pressure, changes in sleep patterns, and slowing of reflexes are normal changes in aging.
4. Propranolol (Inderal), a -adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity, is prescribed for a patient who has extreme anxiety about public speaking. The nurse monitors the patient for a. dry mouth. c. constipation. b. bradycardia. d. urinary retention.
ANS: B Inhibition of the fight-or-flight response leads to a decreased heart rate. Dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention are associated with peripheral nervous system blockade.
25. The home health registered nurse (RN) is planning care for a patient with a seizure disorder related to a recent head injury. Which nursing action can be delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Make referrals to appropriate community agencies. b. Place medications in the home medication organizer. c. Teach the patient and family how to manage seizures. d. Assess for use of medications that may precipitate seizures.
ANS: B LPN/LVN education includes administration of medications. The other activities require RN education and scope of practice.
31. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with primary restless legs syndrome (RLS) who is having difficulty sleeping? a. Teach about the use of antihistamines to improve sleep. b. Suggest that the patient exercise regularly during the day. c. Make a referral to a massage therapist for deep massage of the legs. d. Assure the patient that the problem is transient and likely to resolve.
ANS: B Nondrug interventions such as getting regular exercise are initially suggested to improve sleep quality in patients with RLS. Antihistamines may aggravate RLS. Massage does not alleviate RLS symptoms, and RLS is likely to progress in most patients.
12. A patient with Parkinson's disease has bradykinesia. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient in activities that can be done while lying or sitting. b. Suggest that the patient rock from side to side to initiate leg movement. c. Have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet. d. Teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.
ANS: B Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility. The patient will be encouraged to continue exercising because this will maintain functional abilities. Maintaining a wide base of support will help with balance. The patient should lift the feet and avoid a shuffling gait.
11. Which action will the nurse plan to take for a patient with multiple sclerosis who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder? a. Encourage a decreased evening intake of fluid. b. Teach the patient how to use the Credé method. c. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only. d. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
ANS: B The Credé method can be used to improve bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake will not improve bladder emptying and may increase risk for urinary tract infection and dehydration. The use of incontinence briefs and frequent toileting will not improve bladder emptying.
18. When a 74-yr-old patient is seen in the health clinic with new development of a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and pill rolling-type tremor, the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. oral corticosteroids. b. antiparkinsonian drugs. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. electroencephalogram (EEG) testing.
ANS: B The clinical diagnosis of Parkinson's is made when tremor, rigidity, and akinesia, and postural instability are present. The confirmation of the diagnosis is made on the basis of improvement when antiparkinsonian drugs are administered. MRI and EEG are not useful in diagnosing Parkinson's disease, and corticosteroid therapy is not used to treat it.
6. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X)? a. Assist to stand and ambulate. c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. b. Withhold oral fluids and food. d. Apply artificial tears every hour.
ANS: B The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and control the gag reflex. A patient with impaired function of these nerves is at risk for aspiration. An oral airway may be needed when a patient is unconscious and unable to maintain the airway, but it will not decrease aspiration risk. Taste and eye blink are controlled by the facial nerve. Balance and coordination are cerebellar functions.
20. A hospitalized patient complains of a bilateral headache (4/10 on the pain scale) that radiates from the base of the skull. Which prescribed PRN medications should the nurse administer initially? a. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Morphine sulfate (MS Contin) b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. Butalbital and aspirin (Fiorinal)
ANS: B The patient's symptoms are consistent with a tension headache, and initial therapy usually involves a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen, which is sometimes combined with a sedative or muscle relaxant. Lorazepam may be used in conjunction with acetaminophen but would not be appropriate as the initial monotherapy. Morphine sulfate and butalbital and aspirin would be more appropriate for a headache that did not respond to a nonopioid analgesic.
17. Which cerebrospinal fluid analysis result should the nurse recognize as abnormal and communicate to the health care provider? a. Specific gravity of 1.007 b. Protein of 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L) c. Glucose of 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L) d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 4 cells/L
ANS: B The protein level is high. The specific gravity, WBCs, and glucose values are normal.
14. Which equipment will the nurse obtain to assess vibration sense in a patient with diabetes who has peripheral nerve dysfunction? a. Sharp pin c. Reflex hammer b. Tuning fork d. Calibrated compass
ANS: B Vibration sense is testing by touching the patient with a vibrating tuning fork. The other equipment is needed for testing of pain sensation, reflexes, and two-point discrimination.
13. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for a patient who has had cerebral angiography? a. Monitor for headache and photophobia. b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex returns. c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently. d. Assess orientation to person, place, and time.
ANS: C Because a catheter is inserted into an artery (e.g., the femoral artery) during cerebral angiography, the nurse should assess for bleeding after this procedure that can affect pulse and blood pressure. The other nursing assessments are not needed after angiography.
28. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make regarding a patient with myasthenia gravis? a. Pupil size c. Respiratory effort b. Grip strength d. Level of consciousness
ANS: C Because respiratory insufficiency may be life threatening, it will be most important to monitor respiratory function. The other data also will be assessed but are not as critical.
9. A 33-yr-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily b. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery c. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication d. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives
ANS: C Copaxone is administered by self-injection. Oral contraceptives are an appropriate choice for birth control. There is no need to avoid driving or drink large fluid volumes when taking glatiramer.
9. During the neurologic assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but cooperates with the nurse's directions to move his hands and feet. The nurse will suspect a. cerebellar injury. c. frontal lobe damage. b. a brainstem lesion. d. a temporal lobe lesion.
ANS: C Expressive speech (ability to express the self in language) is controlled by Broca's area in the frontal lobe. The temporal lobe contains Wernicke's area, which is responsible for receptive speech (ability to understand language input). The cerebellum and brainstem do not affect higher cognitive functions such as speech.
17. A 40-yr-old patient is diagnosed with early Huntington's disease (HD). When teaching the patient, spouse, and adult children about this disorder, the nurse will provide information about the a. use of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) to help reduce HD symptoms. b. prophylactic antibiotics to decrease the risk for aspiration pneumonia. c. option of genetic testing for the patient's children to determine their own HD risks. d. lifestyle changes of improved nutrition and exercise that delay disease progression.
ANS: C Genetic testing is available to determine whether an asymptomatic individual has the HD gene. The patient and family should be informed of the benefits and problems associated with genetic testing. Sinemet will increase symptoms of HD because HD involves an increase in dopamine. Antibiotic therapy will not reduce the risk for aspiration. There are no effective treatments or lifestyle changes that delay the progression of symptoms in HD.
32. Which information about a patient who has a new prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin) indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before administration of the medication? a. Patient has tonic-clonic seizures. b. Patient experiences an aura before seizures. c. Patient has minor elevations in the liver function tests. d. Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg.
ANS: C Many older patients (especially with compromised liver function) may not be able to metabolize phenytoin. The health care provider may need to choose another antiseizure medication. Phenytoin is an appropriate medication for patients with tonic-clonic seizures, with or without an aura. Hypertension is not a contraindication for phenytoin therapy.
19. A 22-yr-old patient seen at the health clinic with a severe migraine headache tells the nurse about having similar headaches recently. Which initial action should the nurse take? a. Teach about the use of triptan drugs. b. Refer the patient for stress counseling. c. Ask the patient to keep a headache diary. d. Suggest the use of muscle-relaxation techniques.
ANS: C The initial nursing action should be further assessment of the precipitating causes of the headaches, quality, and location of pain. Stress reduction, muscle relaxation, and the triptan drugs may be helpful, but more assessment is needed first.
24. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first for a patient in the emergency department who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures? a. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV. b. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC). c. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV. d. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.
ANS: C To prevent ongoing seizures, the nurse should administer rapidly acting antiseizure medications such as the benzodiazepines. A CT scan is appropriate, but prevention of any seizure activity during the CT scan is necessary. Phenytoin will also be administered, but it is not rapidly acting. Patients who are experiencing tonic-clonic seizures are nonresponsive, although the nurse should assess LOC after the seizure.
16. The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a traumatic spinal cord injury for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching of the new nurse about neurologic assessment? a. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain. b. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing. c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp. d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch.
ANS: C When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate.
15. Which medication taken by a patient with restless legs syndrome should the nurse discuss with the patient? a. Ibuprofen c. Acetaminophen b. Multivitamin d. Diphenhydramine
ANS: D Antihistamines can aggravate restless legs syndrome. The other medications will not contribute to restless legs syndrome.
Which of these nursing actions for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Nasogastric tube feeding q4hr b. Artificial tear administration q2hr c. Assessment for bladder distention q2hr d. Passive range of motion to extremities q4hr
ANS: D Assisting a patient with movement is included in UAP education and scope of practice. Administration of tube feedings, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and expanded scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills.
26. A patient is being treated with carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease. Which information indicates a need for change in the medication or dosage? a. Shuffling gait c. Cogwheel rigidity of limbs b. Tremor at rest d. Uncontrolled head movement
ANS: D Dyskinesia is an adverse effect of the Sinemet, indicating a need for a change in medication or decrease in dose. The other findings are typical with Parkinson's disease.
8. A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to a. enforce NPO status for 4 hours. b. transfer the patient to radiology. c. administer a sedative medication. d. help the patient to a lateral position.
ANS: D For a lumbar puncture, the patient lies in the lateral recumbent position. The procedure does not usually require a sedative, is done in the patient room, and has no risk for aspiration.
Chapter 60 (Pages 1439-1441) 5. The nurse identifies a patient with type 1 diabetes and a history of herpes simplex infection as being at risk for Bell's palsy. Which information should the nurse include in teaching the patient? a. "You may be able to prevent Bell's palsy by doing facial exercises regularly." b. "Prophylactic treatment of herpes with antiviral agents prevents Bell's palsy." c. "Medications to treat Bell's palsy work only if started before paralysis onset." d. "Call the doctor if you experience pain or develop herpes lesions near the ear."
ANS: D Pain or herpes lesions near the ear may indicate the onset of Bell's palsy, and rapid corticosteroid treatment may reduce the duration of Bell's palsy symptoms. Antiviral therapy for herpes simplex does not reduce the risk for Bell's palsy. Corticosteroid therapy will be most effective in reducing symptoms if started before paralysis is complete but will still be somewhat effective when started later. Facial exercises do not prevent Bell's palsy.
27. Which nursing diagnosis is of highest priority for a patient with Parkinson's disease who is unable to move the facial muscles? a. Activity intolerance b. Self-care deficit: toileting c. Ineffective self-health management d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
ANS: D The data about the patient indicate that poor nutrition will be a concern because of decreased swallowing. The other diagnoses may also be appropriate for a patient with Parkinson's disease, but the data do not indicate that they are current problems for this patient.
10. A patient has a tumor in the cerebellum. The nurse will plan interventions to a. prevent falls. c. avoid aspiration. b. stabilize mood. d. improve memory.
ANS: A Because functions of the cerebellum include coordination and balance, the patient with dysfunction is at risk for falls. The cerebellum does not affect memory, mood, or swallowing ability.
33. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with myasthenia gravis who is reporting increased muscle weakness b. Patient with a bilateral headache described as "like a band around my head" c. Patient with seizures who is scheduled to receive a dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Patient with Parkinson's disease who has developed cogwheel rigidity of the arms
ANS: A Because increased muscle weakness may indicate the onset of a myasthenic crisis, the nurse should assess this patient first. The other patients should also be assessed but do not appear to need immediate nursing assessments or actions to prevent life-threatening complications.
Chapter 56 (Page 1318) Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min b. Blood pressure of 134/72 mm Hg, pulse of 90 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min c. Blood pressure of 148/78 mm Hg, pulse of 112 beats/min, respirations of 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 120 beats/min, respirations of 30 breaths/min
ANS: A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.
23. The nurse observes a patient ambulating in the hospital hall when the patient's arms and legs suddenly jerk and the patient falls to the floor. The nurse will first a. assess the patient for a possible injury. b. give the scheduled divalproex (Depakote). c. document the timing and description of the seizure. d. notify the patient's health care provider about the seizure.
ANS: A The patient who has had a myoclonic seizure and fall is at risk for head injury and should first be evaluated and treated for this possible complication. Documentation of the seizure, notification of the health care provider, and administration of antiseizure medications are also appropriate actions, but the initial action should be assessment for injury.
16. A patient who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Observe for agitation and paranoia. b. Assist with active range of motion (ROM). c. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms. d. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.
ANS: B ALS causes progressive muscle weakness, but assisting the patient to perform active ROM will help maintain strength as long as possible. Psychotic manifestations such as agitation and paranoia are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected by ALS, and the patient's ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle relaxants will further increase muscle weakness and depress respirations.
30. A hospitalized patient with a history of cluster headache awakens during the night with a severe stabbing headache. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Put a moist hot pack on the patient's neck. b. Start the prescribed PRN O2 at 6 L/min. c. Give the ordered PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Notify the patient's health care provider immediately.
ANS: B Acute treatment for cluster headache is administration of 100% O2 at 6 to 8 L/min. If the patient obtains relief with the O2, there is no immediate need to notify the health care provider. Cluster headaches last only 60 to 90 minutes, so oral pain medications have minimal effect. Hot packs are helpful for tension headaches but are not as likely to reduce pain associated with a cluster headache.
20. Several patients have been hospitalized for diagnosis of neurologic problems. Which patient will the nurse assess first? a. A patient with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) returning from carotid duplex studies b. A patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram c. A patient with a seizure disorder who has just completed an electroencephalogram (EEG) d. A patient prepared for a lumbar puncture whose health care provider is waiting for assistance
ANS: B Because cerebral angiograms require insertion of a catheter into the femoral artery, bleeding is a possible complication. The nurse will need to check the pulse, blood pressure, and the catheter insertion site in the groin as soon as the patient arrives. Carotid duplex studies and EEG are noninvasive. The nurse will need to assist with the lumbar puncture as soon as possible, but monitoring for hemorrhage after cerebral angiogram has a higher priority.
2. Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the legs of a patient who has a lower motor neuron lesion? a. Spasticity c. Impaired sensation b. Flaccidity d. Hyperactive reflexes
ANS: B Because the cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in the spinal cord, damage to the neuron will decrease motor activity of the affected muscles. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes are caused by upper motor neuron damage. Sensation is not impacted by motor neuron lesions.
Which assessment data for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome will require the nurse's most immediate action? a. The patient's sacral area skin is reddened. b. The patient is continuously drooling saliva. c. The patient complains of severe pain in the feet. d. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 150/82 mm Hg.
ANS: B Drooling indicates decreased ability to swallow, which places the patient at risk for aspiration and requires rapid nursing and collaborative actions such as suctioning and possible endotracheal intubation. The foot pain should be treated with appropriate analgesics, the BP requires ongoing monitoring, and the skin integrity requires intervention, but these actions are not as urgently needed as maintenance of respiratory function.
4. A high school teacher who has been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure tells the nurse, "I cannot teach any more. It will be too upsetting if I have a seizure at work." Which response by the nurse specifically addresses the patient's concern? a. "You might benefit from some psychologic counseling." b. "Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications." c. "You will want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance." d. "The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining."
ANS: B The nurse should inform the patient that most patients with seizure disorders are controlled with medication. The other information may be necessary if the seizures persist after treatment with antiseizure medications is implemented.
29. After a thymectomy, a patient with myasthenia gravis receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon). An hour later, the patient complains of nausea and severe abdominal cramps. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug. d. Give the scheduled dose of prednisone (Deltasone).
ANS: B The patient's history and symptoms indicate a possible cholinergic crisis. The health care provider should be notified immediately, and it is likely that atropine will be prescribed. The other actions will be appropriate if the patient is not experiencing a cholinergic crisis.
22. The health care provider is considering the use of sumatriptan (Imitrex) for a 54-yr-old male patient with migraine headaches. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee daily. b. The patient had a recent acute myocardial infarction. c. The patient has had migraine headaches for 30 years. d. The patient has taken topiramate (Topamax) for 2 months.
ANS: B The triptans cause coronary artery vasoconstriction and should be avoided in patients with coronary artery disease. The other information will be reported to the health care provider, but none of it indicates that sumatriptan would be an inappropriate treatment.
2. The nurse expects the assessment of a patient who is experiencing a cluster headache to include a. nuchal rigidity. c. projectile vomiting. b. unilateral ptosis. d. throbbing, bilateral facial pain.
ANS: B Unilateral eye edema, tearing, and ptosis are characteristic of cluster headaches. Nuchal rigidity suggests meningeal irritation, such as occurs with meningitis. Although nausea and vomiting may occur with migraine headaches, projectile vomiting is more consistent with increased intracranial pressure. Unilateral sharp, stabbing pain, rather than throbbing pain, is characteristic of cluster headaches.
7. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-yr-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should a. assess for the presence of chest pain. b. inquire about urinary tract problems. c. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration. d. ask the patient about any increase in libido.
ANS: B Urinary tract problems with incontinence or retention are common symptoms of MS. Chest pain and skin rashes are not symptoms of MS. A decrease in libido is common with MS.
19. The priority nursing assessment for a patient being admitted with a brainstem infarction is a. pupil reaction. c. reflex reaction time. b. respiratory rate. d. level of consciousness.
ANS: B Vital centers that control respiration are located in the medulla and part of the brainstem, and will require priority assessments because changes in respiratory function may be life threatening. The other information will also be obtained by the nurse but is not as urgent.
21. Which assessments will the nurse make to monitor a patient's cerebellar function (select all that apply)? a. Test for graphesthesia. b. Observe arm swing with gait. c. Perform the finger-to-nose test. d. Assess heat and cold sensation. e. Measure strength against resistance.
ANS: B, C The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and is assessed by looking at the patient's gait and the finger-to-nose test. The other assessments will be used for other parts of the neurologic assessment.
3. While the nurse is transporting a patient on a stretcher to the radiology department, the patient begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should the nurse take? a. Insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway. b. Restrain the patient's arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure. c. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state. d. Avoid touching the patient to prevent further nervous system stimulation.
ANS: C Because the diagnosis and treatment of seizures frequently are based on the description of the seizure, recording the length and details of the seizure is important. Insertion of an oral airway and restraining the patient during the seizure are contraindicated. The nurse may need to move the patient to decrease the risk of injury during the seizure.
10. Which information about a 60-yr-old patient with multiple sclerosis indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)? a. The patient walks a mile each day for exercise. b. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion. c. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level. d. The patient has the relapsing-remitting form of MS.
ANS: C Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function. The other information will not impact whether the dalfampridine should be administered.
When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. c. decorticate posturing. b. localization of pain. d. decerebrate posturing.
ANS: C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.
Chapter 58 1. The nurse determines that teaching about management of migraine headaches has been effective when the patient says which of the following? a. "I can take the (Topamax) as soon as a headache starts." b. "A glass of wine might help me relax and prevent a headache." c. "I will lie down someplace dark and quiet when the headaches begin." d. "I should avoid taking aspirin and sumatriptan (Imitrex) at the same time."
ANS: C It is recommended that the patient with a migraine rest in a dark, quiet area. Topiramate (Topamax) is used to prevent migraines and must be taken for several months to determine effectiveness. Aspirin or other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications can be taken with the triptans. Alcohol may precipitate migraine headaches.
A patient is hospitalized with new onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The most essential assessment for the nurse to complete is a. determining level of consciousness. b. checking strength of the extremities. c. observing respiratory rate and effort. d. monitoring the cardiac rate and rhythm.
ANS: C The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments will also be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment.
3. The nurse performing a focused assessment of left posterior temporal lobe functions will assess the patient for a. sensation on the left side of the body. b. reasoning and problem-solving ability. c. ability to understand written and oral language. d. voluntary movements on the right side of the body.
ANS: C The posterior temporal lobe integrates the visual and auditory input for language comprehension. Reasoning and problem solving are functions of the anterior frontal lobe. Sensation on the left side of the body is located in the right postcentral gyrus. Voluntary movement on the right side is controlled in the left precentral gyrus.
5. To assess the functions of the trigeminal and facial nerves (CNs V and VII), the nurse should a. check for unilateral eyelid droop. b. shine a light into the patient's pupil. c. touch a cotton wisp strand to the cornea. d. have the patient read a magazine or book.
ANS: C The trigeminal and facial nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex. The optic nerve is tested by having the patient read a Snellen chart or a newspaper. Assessment of pupil response to light and ptosis are used to evaluate function of the oculomotor nerve.
13. A 62-yr-old patient who has Parkinson's disease is taking bromocriptine (Parlodel). Which information obtained by the nurse may indicate a need for a decrease in the dosage? a. The patient has a chronic dry cough. b. The patient has four loose stools in a day. c. The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis. d. The patient's blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg.
ANS: D Hypotension is an adverse effect of bromocriptine, and the nurse should check with the health care provider before giving the medication. Diarrhea, cough, and deep vein thrombosis are not associated with bromocriptine use.
12. The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with a possible seizure disorder about which test? a. Cerebral angiography c. Electromyography (EMG) b. Evoked potential studies d. Electroencephalography (EEG)
ANS: D Seizure disorders are usually assessed using EEG testing. Evoked potential is used to diagnose problems with the visual or auditory systems. Cerebral angiography is used to diagnose vascular problems. EMG is used to evaluate electrical innervation to skeletal muscle.
