media lab tuesday
What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the US who are heterozygous for HFE mutations for hereditary hemochromatosis?
10%to 20%
How many milliliters of a 5 M solution would be needed to make 250 mL of a 2 M solution?
100 ml
How many grams are needed to make 1 L of a 3 M solution of HCl (gmw=36.46 g/mol)?
109.4 HCI/L
Rejuvenation solutions for donated red blood cell units may be used to improve what factor that is affected by storage lesion?
2,3 DPG
what is the time frame for accelerated graft rejection
2-5 days
The proper storage requirements for granulocyte concentrates is:
20-24 C, 24 hours
what is the time frame for chronic graft rejection
3 months after transplantation
What is the lower reference limit for progressive motility of spermatozoa when performing a semen analysis?
32%
An Rh negative mother has just given birth to an Rh positive baby after 18 hours of strenuous labor. Her rosette test was positive. Upon performing the Kleihauer-Betke stain procedure, the percentage of fetal cells is found to be 1.9%. The mother's total blood volume is 5,000 mL. What dose of Rh Ig (RhoGam) should be administered to the mother?
4 vials
How long will it take to start accruing revenue for a new microbiology identification analyzer if the initial cost is $459,000 and produces $800,000 in annual laboratory income?
6.9 months
what is the time frame for acute graft rejection
7-21 days
how many ringed sideroblasts are present with RCMD
>15%
what happens in PCR
a small segment of DNA is expanded by binding DNA primers to segments at the ends of the DNA to be expanded. Thermal cycling creates single stranded DNA followed by cooling that enables the primers to anneal to the target DNA. This is followed by primer extension, where DNA synthesis occurs by forming a copy of the template DNA by adding nucleotides to the hybridized probe.
function of TH2 cells
activate cellular and antibody response to parasites TH2 cells produce Il-4, Il-5, IL-9, IL-10, IL-13, IL-25
function of TH1
activate macrophages
Bandeiraea simplicifolia lectin
agglutinates B cells.
Which of the following substances are detected with Clinitest® tablets?
all reducing substances
The mediator cell type that binds to IgE antibodies is the:
basophil
Which of the following characteristics of cerebrospinal fluid is present if blood is due to subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
blood is evenly distributed in all tubes
Atherosclerosis is due to which of the following?
build up of plaque
A wound specimen was received into the laboratory and a large Gram positive rod was isolated. The microbiologist suspected the isolate was a probable Bacillus anthracis and had to rule in/out before reporting. All of the following tests must be performed before calling the species Bacillus anthracis EXCEPT?
oxidase
All of the following conditions would be associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein, EXCEPT?
prostate cancer
THROMBIN
proteolytic enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin. Thrombin is also a platelet aggregation agent.
what does glucagon do
raises blood glucose levels
What does cortisol do?
reduce inflammation, raises blood sugar level, and inhinbits release of histamine
known as the beef tapeworm
taenia saginata
Which of the following conditions/findings is most likely associated with the peripheral blood picture in the photomicrograph?
transusion dimorphism
Which of the following crystals would most likely be found in normal ALKALINE urine?
triple phosphate
All of the following would be situations where you would typically find an increase in eosinophils, EXCEPT?
viral infections
what is the time frame for hyperacute graft rejection
within minutes after transplantation
The immunoglobulin class responsible for the etiology of Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN) is:
IgG
The most frequently encountered immunoglobulin demonstrated in patients with Multiple Myeloma is:
IgG
A 17-year old African-American male had the following laboratory results: Sickle cell screen = positiveHemoglobin Electrophoresis:Hb S = 45%Hb A = 53%HbA2 = 2% Which of the following is the PROBABLE hemoglobin genotype?
AS
Which one of the following blood groups usually reacts LEAST strongly with anti-H?
A1
The lectin Dolichus biflorus agglutinates which types of cells?
A1B
The type of graft rejection that occurs from approximately 1 to 3 weeks after tissue or organ transplantation is:
Acute
Which of the following chemical substances induces platelet adhesion when there is a break in the inert epithelial lining of the vasculature?
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
Which of the following blood tests is used in the evaluation of hepatic disease?
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT)
Acquired hemophilia A (not classic hemophilia A) may be the result of which of the following conditions?
Anti-factor VIII inhibitor
What is Procainamide used for?
Antiarrhythmic agent used for ventricular and atrial arrhythmias - can cause or worsen hypotension and bradycardia -
The following statements are true regarding the Lewis blood group EXCEPT:
Antigens are a structural component of the red cell membrane
An abdominal wound culture grows E. coli on the aerobic culture. The anaerobic culture has growth of two, gram- negative rods, one of which is aerobic. The other gram negative rod has 2+ growth on BBE plate and is resistant to kanamycin, colistin, and vancomycin disc. What is this organism's identification?
Bacteroides fragilis group
An aerobic Gram negative coccobacillus was isolated from a nasopharyngeal swab 48 hours after culture from a 6-month-old with the following culture characteristics on Bordet-Gengou agar: Small zones of beta-hemolysis Urease: positive (24 hours) Oxidase: negative Motility: negative The MOST probable identification of this isolate is:
Bordetella parapertussis
All of the following are directly responsible for setting and monitoring competency requirements for laboratory personnel, EXCEPT:
CLSI
All of the following are therapeutic drugs used to treat cardiac disease, EXCEPT?
Carbamazepine
From the following organisms, which one is considered to be the LEAST pathogenic to humans?
Corynebacterium ulcerans
All of the following are urinalysis findings associated with nephrotic syndrome EXCEPT:
Mild proteinuria
What is the role of albuminuria testing?
Detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage.
The following cestode is commonly associated with dogs and cats but may also be transmitted to humans through the ingestion of dog and cat fleas that contain the cysticercoid of the parasite. Laboratory diagnosis may be made by observing groups of egg packets, as seen in the diagram, in the stool.
Dipylidium caninum
A newly admitted patient has the following coagulation results:PT: 12.9 seconds (N = 12-14 seconds)aPTT: 84 seconds (N = 25-35 seconds)Platelet Count: 200 x 109/L (N = 150-450 x 109/L) A mixing study was performed due to the abnormal aPTT test results. The mixing study demonstrated the following:aPTT was corrected by normal plasma, factor IX deficient plasma, but not by factor VIII deficient plasma.
Factor VIII assay
A deficiency of platelet receptor IIb/IIIa can be found in which of the following?
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
Which of the following statements about high-frequency antigens is correct?
High-frequency antigens are common, but it is difficult to identify their corresponding antibodies.
Rats are the host for this tapeworm
Hymenolepis nana
Which blood group is most frequently associated with Cold Agglutinin Disease (CAD)?
I
The INR (international normalized ratio) is calculated using the following formula:
INR=(PT patient / PT normal) raised to the ISI.
Blood culture bottles used in continuous monitoring systems, such as the BacTec, uses resins or charcoal to do which of the following?
Inactivates and absorbs out antimicrobial agents
A patient presents with an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin, normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal liver enzymes, and no bilirubin in the urine. This combination would suggest:
Increased rate of hemolysis.
A cause of FALSE-POSITIVE result in the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test for syphilis is:
Infectious mononucleosis, , SLE, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, hepatitis A, leprosy, or malaria
The liver fluke, Fasciola hepatica can be identified by its relatively small size the cone-shaped anterior extension (arrow). How do humans become infected with this organism?
Ingestion of poorly cooked water plants
The migration rate of proteins on cellulose acetate is primarily the result of:
Ionic charge on the proteins
Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells?
Kell
what type of LD is most affected with pancreatitis
LD 3
what type of LD is most affected with hepatic injury
LD4
Lewis Blood Group System is a human blood group unlike most others. The antigen is produced and secreted by exocrine glands, eventually adsorbing to the surface of red blood cells. Its expression is based on the genetic expression of the Lewis and Secretor genes. Based on the following genotype (Le) (sese), what would you predict the Lewis antigen phenotypic expression to be?
Le(a+ b-)
lacks the Le gene
Le(a- b-)
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lymphocyte cytoplasmic granules?
Lymphocytes may contain a few azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm.
Which Mycobacterium sp. causes the infectious disease tuberculosis (TB)?
Mycobacterium bovis
Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Nephrotic syndrome
The following steps were used in a procedure to identify M. kansasii: 1 - Extraction2 - Denaturization3 - Hybridization4 - Hydrolysis of excess reagent5 - Detection of acridinium ester Which of the following methods has been described?
Nucleic acid probes
How is valproic acid (Depakote) administered?
ORAL PREP
Multiple ring forms in one red blood cell are most frequently seen in which Plasmodium species infections?
P. falciparum
While working at a blood bank laboratory, you hear chimes over the hospital loudspeaker system announcing the birth of a baby. Thirty minutes later, you receive a cord blood specimen that you identify as O positive. You previously received the mother's specimen and she was O negative with a negative antibody screen. What is the next action?
Perform a fetal bleed screen
Which type of Plasmodium infection will have severe anemia, is very common to have CNS involvement, and has a 6-17-month duration for an untreated infection?
Plasmodium falciparum
In which Myelodysplastic Syndrome classification would a patient having <5% blasts and <15% ringed sideroblasts belong?
RA
All of the following are characteristics of type 2 diabetes mellitus EXCEPT: The
Requires insulin therapy to control hyperglycemia.
Which of the following describes gastrin's role in digestion?
Stimulates gastric acid-HCl secretion
Which of the following organisms is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in infants, young children, and adults in the United States?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
The lymphocyte subtype that controls autoimmunity in the peripheral blood is:
T reg
The qualitative differences between A1 and A2 phenotypes includes all of the following EXCEPT:
The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.
A tech working in the laboratory receives a phone call from a doctor who is upset that his patient has a negative urine culture. The doctor indicates that the urinalysis result is positive for leukocyte esterase so the culture should be positive. The doctor feels that the urine culture was not properly handled. How can you explain the discrepancy in the urinalysis and culture to the doctor?
The patient could have another infection, such as a sexually transmitted infection (STI)
An obese adult with premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. When her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, LDL levels are normal, and VLDL levels are increased. There is an increase in triglycerides and slight increase in cholesterol. Lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. She has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. This patient most likely has what type of hyperlipoproteinemia?
Type IV
The type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation is:
Type IV Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)
Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Unexplained bleeding from surgical site
Which one of the following statements concerning Vitamin D is correct?
Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation.
Which of the following tests should be incubated at 37º C in a 5-10% CO2 atmosphere?
optochin disk test
What is Quinidine used for?
cardiac arrhythmias
what is Type II Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
complement and Fc receptor-mediated recruitment and activation of leukocytes (neutrophils and macrophages). Opsonization and phagocytosis of cells.
what is Type III Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
complement and Fc receptor-mediated recruitment and activation of leukocytes and tissue damage secondary to impaired blood flow. Type III reactions are caused by IgG, IgM and possibly other antibody types.
All of the following hormones increase or decrease plasma glucose concentration by regulating glycogenolysis (converting glycogen to glucose) EXCEPT?
cortisol
Which enzyme is responsible for the rate-limiting step of steroid hormone synthesis?
cyp450
The measurement of sodium and chloride in sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease?
cystic fibrosis
what type of hyperlipoproteinemia is associated with TYPE 1
deficiencies of lipoprotein lipase
Which of the following therapeutic drugs increases the force of myocardial muscle contraction?
digoxin
known as a tissue cestode
echinococcus granulosus
In what trimester is there the greatest risk for the manifestation of complications in maternal rubella infection?
first trimester
The MOST reliable method for determining the appropriate dosage of Rh immune globulin to give to an identified Rh immune globulin candidate after delivery is:
flow cytometry
Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category?
glycoprotein
What is digoxin used for?
heart failure
An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of:
hemolysis
When operating a centrifuge, what happens if the centrifugation time is reduced and the speed increased?
hemolysis can occur
what type of hyperlipoproteinemia is associated with type 5
high VLDL in addition to chylomicrons.
what type of hyperlipoproteinemia is associated with TYPE 3
high chylomicrons and lDL
what type of hyperlipoproteinemia is associated with Type IV
high triglycerides and increased VLDL
What is lysis centrifugation used for
in some blood culture systems to enhance the recovery of bacteria and some fungi from blood cultures
Which of the following hormones is mainly responsible for the entry of glucose into the cell for energy production?
insulin
what is Type I Immediate hypersensitivity
mast cell-derived mediators (vasoactive amines, lipid mediators and cytokines). Cytokine-mediated inflammation involves eosinophils, neutrophils and lymphocytes. Type I reactions can range from life-threatening anaphylactic reactions to milder manifestations associated with food allergies.
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is classified as which of the following?
nematode