MedsurgReview

"I will never have another urinary stone again." "I need to take allopurinol." "Tylenol is best to control my pain." "I'm so glad I don't have to make any changes in my diet." Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used to treat renal stone pain. Oxalate-containing foods should be avoided. Fluid intake should total 2 to 3 liters, if not contraindicated. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is prescribed for uric acid stones. Recurrence of stones occurs in about half of individuals.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of discharge teaching for a client with an oxalate urinary stone. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching by the nurse? Select all that apply.

"I cannot wait until I can have surgery to get rid of this ostomy." "I will need to change the appliance every day." "I will need to catheterize myself every 2 to 3 hours." An ileal conduit is a permanent urinary diversion. In an ileal conduit, urine output is continuous and collected in an ileostomy bag, making self-catheterization unnecessary. The appliance usually remains in place as long as it is watertight. The skin surrounding the ostomy needs to be monitored for irritation and breakdown. The urine can acquire a strong odor from foods such as asparagus, cheese, and eggs.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of discharge teaching for the client with an ileal conduit. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Hesitancy Nocturia Clinical manifestations of prostate cancer include urinary hesitancy and nocturia. Palpitations, chills, and dyspnea are not suggestive of prostate cancer.

The nurse is performing a renal assessment on a client with prostate cancer. Which clinical manifestation suggests prostate cancer? Select all that apply.

"You will receive IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks." Treatment of osteomyelitis requires IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks.

The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the client with osteomyelitis. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Arthroscopy Arthroscopic examination may be carried out to visualize the extent of joint damage as well as to obtain a sample of synovial fluid. An open reduction would be used for the treatment of a fracture. Needle aspiration will not allow visualization of the joint damage but will allow obtaining the sample of synovial fluid. Arthroplasty is the restructure of the joint surface after diagnosis is made.

The nurse is preparing a client for a surgical procedure that will allow visualization of the extent of joint damage of the knee for a client with rheumatoid arthritis and also obtain a sample of synovial fluid. What procedure will the nurse prepare the client for?

"I took my Coumadin as usual last evening." "I took two aspirins for joint pain this morning." The nurse needs to alert the surgeon to any medications the client has taken that increase the client's risk for bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and should be stopped at least 7 to 10 days prior to surgery. Coumadin (warfarin) interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The type of surgical procedure and the medical condition of the client determine when the Coumadin should be stopped prior to surgery.

The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. The nurse would notify the surgeon if the client made which of the following statements?

"The health care provider is going to remove my uterus and told me about the risk of hemorrhage." The surgeon must also inform the patient of the benefits, alternatives, possible risks, complications, disfigurement, disability, and removal of body parts as well as what to expect in the early and late postoperative periods. The nurse clarifies the information provided and, if the patient requests additional information, the nurse notifies the health care provider. Clarification of information given may be necessary, but no additional information should be given. The other options do not indicate patient understanding of the procedure.

The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. The patient is to undergo a hysterectomy without oophorectomy, and the nurse is witnessing the patient's signature on a consent form. Which comment by the patient would best indicate informed consent?

"Are you wearing any jewelry?" "Have you removed your hearing aid?" "Do you have a pacemaker?" Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a noninvasive imaging technique that uses magnetic fields, radiowaves, and computers to demonstrate abnormalities of soft tissue. Individuals with any metal implants, clips, or pacemakers are not candidates for MRI. Individuals do not need to be NPO and can take usual medications.

The nurse is preparing the client with a right neck mass for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which question should the nurse ask? Select all that apply.

Specific gravity of the client's urine Testing for the presence of glucose in the client's urine Microscopic examination of urine sediment for RBCs Microscopic examination of urine sediment for casts Urine testing includes testing for specific gravity, glucose, RBCs, and casts. BUN and creatinine are components of serum, not urine.

The nurse is preparing to collect an ordered urine sample for urinalysis. The nurse should be aware that this test will include what assessment parameters? Select all that apply.

Laboratory reports Nurses' notes Verification form The completed chart (with the preoperative checklist and verification form) accompanies the client to the OR with the surgical consent form attached, along with all laboratory reports and nurses' records. Any unusual last-minute observations that may have a bearing on anesthesia or surgery are noted prominently at the front of the chart. The social work and dietitian's assessments are not normally necessary when the client goes to surgery.

The nurse is preparing to send a client to the OR for a scheduled surgery. What should the nurse ensure is on the chart when it accompanies the client to surgery? Select all that apply.

Perform hand hygiene prior to patient care. Assist the patients with frequent toileting. Provide careful perineal care. In institutionalized older patients, such as those in long-term care facilities, infecting pathogens are often resistant to many antibiotics. Diligent hand hygiene, careful perineal care, and frequent toileting may decrease the incidence of UTIs.

The nurse is providing an education program for the nursing assistants in a long-term care facility in order to decrease the number of UTIs in the female population. What interventions should the nurse introduce in the program? Select all that apply.

Make sure the client understands what will happen during surgery. Listen empathetically to the client's concerns about the procedure. Review the client's postoperative goals following the procedure. Ask the client if he would like to speak with a clergyperson. Preparing the client emotionally and spiritually is as important as doing so physically. Anxiety and fear, if extreme, can affect a client's condition during and after surgery. Careful preoperative teaching and listening by the nurse about what will happen and what to expect can help allay some of these fears and anxieties.

The nurse is providing preoperative care to a client who is anxious about total hip replacement surgery. "What if I can never walk again? I don't want to end up like my father!" What are some ways the nurse might help alleviate the client's anxiety? Select all that apply.

Red blood cells in the urine Proteinuria White cell casts in the urine The primary presenting features of an acute glomerular inflammation are hematuria, edema, azotemia (an abnormal concentration of nitrogenous wastes in the blood), and proteinuria (excess protein in the urine) (Porth & Matfin, 2009). The urine may appear cola colored because of red blood cells (RBCs) and protein plugs or casts; RBC casts indicate glomerular injury.

The nurse is reviewing a patient's laboratory results. What findings does the nurse assess that are consistent with acute glomerulonephritis? Select all that apply.

Urine: RBC 20 BUN 28 mg/dL Hematuria (> 3RBCs) and an elevated BUN are both suggestive of a problem within the genitourinary tract. A serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL and a urine specific gravity of 1.020 are within normal limits. A rare white blood cell is not clinically significant.

The nurse is reviewing the client's lab results. Which lab result requires follow up by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Potassium 6.2 mEq/L Hyperkalemia places the client at risk for surgical complications.

The nurse is reviewing the pre-admission laboratory findings of the client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following values would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

Therapeutic drug levels can be maintained more evenly with patient-controlled analgesia.

The nurse is teaching the client about patient-controlled analgesia. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

A client with an acute gallbladder infection An acute gallbladder infection is considered an urgent surgical procedure. Cosmetic surgery and cataract surgery are not considered urgent surgical procedures. Severe bleeding could be considered an emergent surgical procedure.

The nurse is triaging surgical clients. Which client would the nurse document as in need of urgent surgical care?

Reinforcing the dressing or applying pressure if bleeding is frank

The nurse observes that a postsurgical client has hemorrhaged and is in hypovolemic shock. Which nursing intervention will manage and minimize hemorrhage and shock?

Perineal surgery The client undergoing perineal surgery will be placed in the lithotomy position.

The nurse positions the client in the lithotomy position in preparation for

Has small pupils that react to light Stage III of general anesthesia is characterized by dilation and reaction of pupils. Respirations are regular, the pulse rate and volume are normal, and the skin is pink or slightly flushed.

The nurse recognizes the client has reached stage III of general anesthesia when the client:

Chills Crackles Tachypnea

The nurse suspects the client is developing postoperative pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation would support the nurse's conclusion? Select all that apply.

Chills Crackles Tachypnea Pneumonia is characterized by fever, chills, tachycardia, tachypnea, and crackles. Cough may or may not be present. Wheezing is not an expected finding of pneumonia.

The nurse suspects the client is developing postoperative pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation would support the nurse's conclusion? Select all that apply.

A repair of multiple stab wounds Repair of multiple stab wounds is emergent. Removal of kidney stones is urgent. An exploratory laparotomy is required. A face lift is optional.

The on-call perioperative team is called for an urgent surgery to be performed as soon as they arrive. What surgical procedure is considered emergent?

"Your child had life-threatening injuries that required immediate surgery." In an emergency, it may be necessary for the surgeon to operate as a lifesaving measure without the client's or parent's informed consent. Informed consent must be obtained before any invasive procedure. A minor cannot consent to a surgical procedure. The opinions of two doctors do not overrule the need to obtain informed consent.

The parent of a 16-year-old client asks the nurse, "How could the surgeon operate without my consent?" What is the best response by the nurse?

The epinephrine causes vasoconstriction. The epinephrine prevents rapid absorption of the anesthetic drug. The epinephrine prolongs the local action of the anesthetic agent.

The physician requests lidocaine 2% with epinephrine for use in local infiltration anesthesia. What does the nurse understand is the purpose of adding epinephrine to the lidocaine? (Select all that apply.)

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia.

The primary nursing goal in the immediate postoperative period is maintenance of pulmonary function and prevention of:

Hold his palm up while the nurse percussed over the median nerve. If tingling, numbness, or pain is felt when the median nerve is percussed, then Tinel's sign is considered positive. Refer to Figure 41-3 in the text.

The provider asks a nurse to test a patient for Tinel's sign to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. The nurse asked the patient to:

Consent must be freely given. Consent must normally be obtained by a physician. Signature must be witnessed by a professional staff member. Valid consent must be freely given, without coercion. Consent must be obtained by a physician and the client's signature must be witnessed by a professional staff member. It does not need to be signed on the same day as the surgery and it does not need to be notarized.

The surgical nurse is preparing to send a client from the presurgical area to the OR and is reviewing the client's informed consent form. What are the criteria for legally valid informed consent? Select all that apply.

Stage II: excitement The excitement stage, characterized variously by struggling, shouting, talking, singing, laughing, or crying, is often avoided if the anesthetic is administered smoothly and quickly. Because of the possibility of uncontrolled movements, the patient should not be touched except for purposes of restraint.

There are four stages of general anesthesia. Select the stage during which the OR nurse knows not to touch the patient (except for safety reasons) because of possible uncontrolled movements.

Coordinating the surgical team The person in the scrub role, either a nurse or a surgical technician, provides sterile instruments and supplies to the surgeon during the procedure by anticipating the surgical needs as the surgical case progresses. The circulating nurse coordinates the care of the patient in the OR. Care provided by the circulating nurse includes planning for and assisting with patient positioning, preparing the patient's skin for surgery, managing surgical specimens, anticipating the needs of the surgical team, and documenting intraoperative events.

What are the circulating nurse's responsibilities, in contrast to the scrub nurse's responsibilities?

hip spine wrist The hip, spine, wrist, finger, or heel bone may be examined during bone densitometry testing. The knee is not used for bone densitometry testing.

What areas of the body may be examined when bone densitometry is done? Select all that apply.

Pneumonia

What does the nurse recognize as one of the most common postoperative respiratory complications in elderly patients?

The patient is arousable but falls back to sleep rapidly. The patient has a blood pressure within 10 mm Hg of the baseline. The patient has sonorous respirations and occasionally requires chin lift. A patient remains in the PACU until fully recovered from the anesthetic agent. Indicators of recovery include stable blood pressure, adequate respiratory function, and adequate oxygen saturation level compared with baseline.

What evidence does the nurse understand indicates that a patient is ready for discharge from the recovery room or PACU? (Select all that apply.)

80 to 110 mg/dL Although the surgical risk in the patient with controlled diabetes is no greater than in the patient without diabetes, strict glycemic control (80 to 110 mg/dL) leads to better outcomes (Alvarex et al., 2010). Frequent monitoring of blood glucose levels is important before, during, and after surgery.

What is the blood glucose level goal for a diabetic patient who will be having a surgical procedure?

Maintaining a patent airway

What is the highest priority nursing intervention for a client in the immediate postoperative phase?

Maintaining a patent airway All interventions listed are correct. The highest priority intervention, however, is maintaining a patent airway. Without a patent airway, the other interventions—monitoring vital signs, assessing urinary output, and assessing for hemorrhage—become secondary to the possibility of a lack of oxygen.

What is the highest priority nursing intervention for a client in the immediate postoperative phase?

"Remain supine for the time specified by the physician." The nurse should instruct the client to remain supine for the time specified by the physician. Local anesthetics used in a subarachnoid block don't alter the gag reflex. No interactions between local anesthetics and food occur. Local anesthetics don't cause hematuria.

What is the most important postoperative instruction a nurse must give to a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?

Stones are shattered into smaller particles that are passed from the urinary tract. ESWL is administered with the client in a water bath or surrounded by a soft cushion while under light anesthesia or sedation. Stones are shattered into smaller particles that are passed from the urinary tract. ESWL is administered with the client in a water bath or surrounded by a soft cushion while under light anesthesia or sedation. ESWL is not a ureteroscopic approach. ESWL is not done while the patient is undergoing a percutaneous nephrolithotomy.

What is true about extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)? Select all that apply.

A systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mm Hg

What measurement should the nurse report to the physician in the immediate postoperative period?

Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) Anesthesia and surgery should be postponed. However, if end-tidal carbon dioxide (CO2) monitoring and dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) are available and the anesthesiologist is experienced in managing malignant hyperthermia, the surgery may continue using a different anesthetic agent (Barash et al., 2009).

What medication should the nurse prepare to administer in the event the patient has malignant hyperthermia?

Up to 72 hours after alcohol withdrawal Alcohol withdrawal delirium is associated with a significant mortality rate when it occurs postoperatively. Onset of symptoms depends on when alcohol was last consumed. Twenty-four hours is too short a time frame to consider alcohol withdrawal delirium as no longer a threat to a chronic alcoholic.

When a client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for surgery, the nurse anticipates that the client may show signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium during which time period?

Wound healing In caring for a postoperative client, the nurse is correct to correlate hyperglycemia with an increased risk of surgical incision infections and delayed wound healing. There is no direct correlation between blood glucose levels and nutrient deficiencies, respiratory complications, and liver dysfunction.

When assessing a postoperative client, the nurse is correct to relate which surgical risk factor that would decrease if the surgical client maintained a blood glucose level under 150 mg/dL?

Disturbed sensory perception related to anesthetic Risk of latex allergy response related to surgical exposure Anxiety related to surgical concerns Based on the assessment data, some major nursing diagnoses may include the following: anxiety related to surgical or environmental concerns, risk of latex allergy response due to possible exposure to latex in the OR environment, risk for perioperative positioning injury related to positioning in the OR, risk for injury related to anesthesia and surgical procedure, or disturbed sensory perception (global) related to general anesthesia or sedation. Malnutrition and disturbed body image are much less likely.

When creating plans of nursing care for clients who are undergoing surgery using general anesthetic, what nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify? Select all that apply.

Control of water balance Secretion of the enzyme renin Functions of the kidneys include control of water balance and blood pressure, regulation of red blood cell production, synthesis of vitamin D to active form, and secretion of prostaglandins. They also produce the enzyme renin.

When describing the functions of the kidney to a client, which of the following would the nurse include? Select all that apply.

The patient participates willingly in the preoperative preparation. The nurse knows that the patient understands the surgical intervention when the patient participates in preoperative preparation. The other answers pertain to the patient experiencing decreased fear or anxiety, not knowledge about the procedure.

When does the nurse understand the patient is knowledgeable about the impending surgical procedure?

Preadmission visit The ideal timing for preoperative teaching is not on the day of surgery but during the preadmission visit, when diagnostic tests are performed. Teaching should be done long before the patient enters the preop area. Preoperative teaching should not be done when the patient is sedated.

When is the ideal time to discuss preoperative teaching

Carpal tunnel syndrome Tinel's sign (numbness, tingling, and pain in response to light percussion over the median nerve) is a positive finding for carpal tunnel syndrome.

When performing a physical assessment of a client, the client reports numbness, tingling, and pain when the nurse percusses lightly over the median nerve. The nurse recognizes that this finding is consistent with:

emergency. Emergency surgery means that the client requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life threatening. Urgent surgery means that the client requires prompt attention within 24 to 30 hours. Required surgery means that the client needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as

Turn the patient's head completely to one side to prevent aspiration of vomitus into the lungs. If vomiting occurs, the patient is turned to the side to prevent aspiration and the vomitus is collected in the emesis basin.

When vomiting occurs postoperatively, what is the most important nursing intervention?

Reinforce the need to perform leg exercises every hour when awake.

Which action should a nurse perform to prevent deep vein thrombosis when caring for a postsurgical client?

If untreated, the disease moves through three stages. Early stage symptoms may include a red macule or papule at the site of the tick bite, a characteristic bullseye rash with round rings around the center, headache, neck stiffness, pain, fever, chills, malaise, nausea, vomiting, and sore throat. Cardiac and neurologic symptoms occur midstage, followed by arthritis and joint problems. If untreated, the disease moves through three stages. Early stage symptoms may include a red macule or papule at the site of the tick bite, a characteristic bullseye rash with round rings around the center, headache, neck stiffness, pain, fever, chills, malaise, nausea, vomiting, and sore throat. Cardiac and neurologic symptoms occur midstage, followed by arthritis and joint problems. There is no kidney involvement with Lyme disease.

Which are true about Lyme disease? Select all that apply.

Decreased endurance Joint stiffness Decreased range of motion Significant assessment findings of the musculoskeletal system in the older adult would include joint stiffness and decreased height, range of motion, muscle strength, and endurance.

Which assessment parameter would the nurse expect to find when assessing the older adult with a musculoskeletal disorder? Select all that apply.

Tachycardia (heart rate >150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops quickly. Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Which clinical manifestation is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia?

Toes mottled and cool Complaints of pins and needles in feet Clinical manifestations of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include coolness, mottling, weakness, complaints of paresthesia or a pins and needles sensation, and unrelenting pain. Capillary refill of less than 3 seconds is a normal finding.

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse recognize as an indicator of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction? Select all that apply.

Paravertebral anesthesia Paravertebral anesthesia anesthetizes the nerves supplying the chest, abdominal wall, and extremities. A brachial plexus block anesthetizes the arm. A transsacral block anesthetizes the perineum and, occasionally, the lower abdomen. During a lumbar puncture, anesthesia is injected into the subarachnoid space at the lumbar level, usually between L4 and L5.

Which conduction block anesthetizes the nerves supplying the chest, abdominal wall, and extremities?

Verify scheduled procedure with client. Assess the client for allergies. Confirm the consent form is signed. To protect the client from injury, the nurse needs to verify the procedure scheduled, assess for allergies, and confirm the consent form has been signed. Anti-anxiety medications reduce anxiety but do not protect the client from injury. Covering the client with warm blankets promotes comfort and prevents hypothermia, a potential complication of anesthesia.

Which intervention should the nurse implement during the intraoperative period to protect the client from injury? Select all that apply.

Administer an antispasmodic agent. Provide privacy to promote bladder emptying The nurse would expect to administer an antispasmodic agent, such as flavoxate (Urispas), and provide privacy to promote bladder emptying. The nurse verifies the client's understanding prior to the procedure. Assisting with coughing and deep breathing and teaching leg exercises and range of motion are not specific interventions post-urologic endoscopy.

Which intervention would the nurse expect to implement following urologic endoscopy? Select all that apply.

Smoking cessation

Which is a risk-lowering strategy for osteoporosis?

Potential growth problems may result from damage to the epiphyseal plate. The distal and proximal ends of a long bone are called epiphyses, which are composed of cancellous bone. The epiphyseal plate, which separates the epiphyses from the diaphysis, is the center for longitudinal growth in children. Its damage can be a critical indictor of potential growth problems if fractured. All other choices are wrong.

A 10-year-old boy who was brought to the emergency room after a skiing accident is diagnosed with a fracture of the distal end of the femur. The nurse understands that this type of fracture is significant because:

Reorient the client. Assess for hypoxia. Assess urine output.

A 76-year-old client had surgery for an abdominal hernia. The PACU nurse observes that the client is confused and is trying to climb out of the bed and pull at the cardiac monitor lines. At this time, what interventions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Continue with frequent client assessments.

A PACU nurse is caring for a postoperative client who received general anesthesia and has a hard, plastic oral airway in place. The patient has clear lung sounds, even and unlabored respirations of 16, and 98% oxygen saturation. The client is minimally responsive to painful stimuli. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

auscultate bowel sounds.

A client had a nephrectomy 2 days ago and is now complaining of abdominal pressure and nausea. The first nursing action should be to:

Assessing WBC count, temperature, and wound appearance

A client is postoperative day 3 after surgical repair of an open abdominal wound and traumatic amputation of the right lower leg following a motorcycle crash. What is the highest priority nursing intervention?

Antihistamines Antihistamines are frequently prescribed when an allergy is a factor in causing the skin disorder. They relieve itching and shorten the duration of allergic reaction. Corticosteroids are used to relieve inflammatory or allergic symptoms. Antibiotics are used to treat infectious disorders. Local anesthetics are used to relieve minor skin pain and itching.

Which medication classification is prescribed when allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder?

Deficient knowledge: management of urinary diversion Disturbed body image Risk for impaired skin integrity Deficient knowledge, disturbed body image, and risk for impaired skin integrity are expected problems for the client with a new ileal conduit. Urinary retention and chronic pain are not expected client problems.

Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the client with a new ileal conduit? Select all that apply.

Lithotomy The lithotomy position is used for nearly all perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgeries. The Trendelenburg position is usually used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis. The Sims' or lateral position is used for renal surgery. The dorsal recumbent position is the usual position for surgical procedures.

A client is undergoing a perineal surgical procedure. The nurse should place the client in which position?

0.5

A client with osteoporosis is prescribed calcitonin (Miacalcin) 100 units subcutaneously. The medication is available 200 units per ml. How many milliliters will the nurse administer to the client?

Emergent Emergent surgery occurs when the patient requires immediate attention. An elective surgery is classified as a surgery that the patient should have. A required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery. An urgent surgery is one which the patient required prompt attention.

A gunshot wound would be classified under which category of surgery based on urgency?

Pink to red and soft, noting that it bleeds easily

A nurse documents the presence of granulation tissue in a healing wound. Which of the following is the best description for the tissue?

first intention.

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a skin biopsy and has three stitches in place. This wound is healing by:

Thyroid hormone Growth hormone Estrogen The balance between bone resorption and formation is influenced by the following factors: physical activity; dietary intake of certain nutrients, especially calcium; and several hormones, including calcitriol (i.e., activated vitamin D), parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin, thyroid hormone, cortisol, growth hormone, and the sex hormones estrogen and testosterone. Luteinizing hormone and vitamin B12 do not play a role in bone formation or resorption.

A nurse is explaining a client's decreasing bone density in terms of the balance between bone resorption and formation. What dietary nutrients and hormones play a role in the resorption and formation of adult bones? Select all that apply.

Fosters client participation in care Facilitates reduction of postoperative pulmonary complications PCA promotes client participation in care, eliminates delayed administration of analgesics, maintains a therapeutic drug level, and enables the client to move, turn, cough, and take deep breaths with less pain, thus reducing postoperative pulmonary complications.

A nurse is reviewing with a client the use of a patient-controlled anesthesia device and is explaining the benefits. Which of the following would the nurse correctly emphasize? Select all that apply.

"Ergonomic changes can be incorporated into your workday to reduce stress on your wrist." Ergonomic changes, such as adjusting keyboard height, can help clients with carpal tunnel syndrome avoid hyperextension of the wrist. This condition is associated with repetitive tasks such as clerical work, not sports. The condition may be managed with medications, yoga, acupuncture, and wrist (not arm) splints.

A nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which statement should the nurse include?

Use diaphragmatic breathing. In chronic bronchitis the diaphragm is flat and weak. Diaphragmatic breathing helps to strengthen the diaphragm and maximizes ventilation. Exhalation should be longer than inhalation to prevent collapse of the bronchioles. The client with chronic bronchitis should exhale through pursed lips to prolong exhalation, keep the bronchioles from collapsing, and prevent air trapping. Diaphragmatic breathing — not chest breathing — increases lung expansion.

A nurse is teaching a client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

Surgeon The registered nurse first assistant practices under the direct supervision of the surgeon. The circulating nurse works in collaboration with other members of the health care team to plan the best course of action for each patient. The scrub nurse assists the surgeon during the procedure as well as setting up sterile tables and preparing equipment. The anesthetist administers the anesthetic medications.

A nurse is working as a registered nurse first assistant as defined by the state's nurse practice act. This nurse practices under the direct supervision of which surgical team member?

The patient remains free of perioperative positioning injury. The potential for transient discomfort or permanent injury is present because many surgical positions are awkward. Hyperextending joints, compressing arteries, or pressing on nerves and bony prominences usually results in discomfort simply because the position must be sustained for a long period of time (Rothrock, 2010).

A patient is having a surgical procedure that requires the patient to be in the prone position. What is an expected patient outcome?

Arthroscopy Arthroscopy is a procedure that allows direct visualization of a joint through the use of a fiberoptic endoscope. Thus, it is a useful adjunct to diagnosing joint disorders.

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that will allow the physician to visualize the knee joint in order to diagnose the patient's pain. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for?

The Sims' or lateral position as shown in Option D would be used for renal surgery. The dorsal recumbent position (Option A) is used for most abdominal surgeries, except those for the gallbladder or pelvis. The Trendelenburg position (Option B) is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis. The lithotomy position (Option C) is used for nearly all perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgical procedures.

A patient is to undergo surgery on his kidney. The patient would be placed in which position for the surgery?

Bursitis A bursa is a small sac filled with synovial fluid. Bursae reduce friction between areas, such as tendon and bone and tendon and ligament. Inflammation of these sacs is called bursitis.

A patient tells the physician about shoulder pain that is present even without any strenuous movement. The physician identifies a sac filled with synovial fluid. What condition should the nurse educate the patient about?

L4, L5, and S1 The lower lumbar disks, L4-L5 and L5-S1, are subject to the greatest mechanical stress and the greatest degenerative changes. Disk protrusion (herniated nucleus pulposus) or facet joint changes can cause pressure on nerve roots as they leave the spinal canal, which results in pain that radiates along the nerve.

A patient visits an orthopedic specialist because of pain that he feels beginning in his low back and radiating behind his right thigh and down below his right knee. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of sciatica. The nurse knows that the origin of the pain is between these intervertebral disks:

Hypoglycemia The patient with diabetes who is undergoing surgery is at risk for both hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia may develop during anesthesia or postoperatively from inadequate carbohydrates or excessive administration of insulin. Hyperglycemia, which can increase the risk of surgical wound infection, may result from the stress of surgery, which can trigger increased levels of catecholamine. Other risks are acidosis and glucosuria, but hypoglycemia is a bigger risk. Dehydration is a lesser risk for a patient with diabetes than is hypoglycemia.

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes is scheduled for a surgical procedure. What chief life-threatening hazard should the nurse monitor for?

Age On admission, the nurse reviews preoperative instructions, such as diet restrictions and skin preparations, to ensure the client has followed them. If the client has not carried out a specific portion of the instructions, such as withholding foods and fluids, the nurse immediately notifies the surgeon. He or she identifies the client's needs to determine if the client is at risk for complications during or after the surgery. General risk factors are related to age; nutritional status; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other substances; and physical condition. In this scenario the risk to the client is age, the other options are incorrect according to the scenario described.

A physically fit 86-year-old is scheduled for right knee replacement. What factor in this client makes them at increased risk for surgery?

The Hemovac drain isn't compressed; instead it's fully expanded.

A physician calls the nurse for an update on his client who underwent abdominal surgery 5 hours ago. The physician asks the nurse for the total amount of drainage collected in the Hemovac since surgery. The nurse reports that according to documentation, no drainage has been recorded. When the nurse finishes on the telephone, she goes to assess the client. Which assessment finding explains the absence of drainage?

Instruct the client how to perform Kegel exercises. Remind the client to empty the bladder every 2 to 3 hours. Nursing interventions to minimize episodes of urinary incontinence include reminding the client to empty the bladder every 2 to 3 hours and instructing the client how to perform Kegel exercises. The client should use the toilet or bedside commode, rather than the bedpan, to promote a more natural position for voiding. Caffeine consumption should be decreased, because it is irritating to the bladder and increases the risk of urinary incontinence. Diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), should be administered before 4 pm.

Which nursing intervention can help the client prevent urinary incontinence? Select all that apply.

elderly postmenopausal women. Although the cause of primary osteoporosis is unknown, an important contributing factor may be faulty protein metabolism resulting from estrogen deficiency and a sedentary lifestyle. Typically, these conditions occur in elderly postmenopausal women.

A physician diagnoses primary osteoporosis in a client who has lost bone mass. In this metabolic disorder, the rate of bone resorption accelerates while bone formation slows. Primary osteoporosis is most common in:

A wound in which the edges were not approximated

A physician's admitting note lists a wound as healing by second intention. What does the nurse expect to find?

"Let me explain to you what will happen next." Many clients feel fearful of knowing little about the operative procedure and what to expect. This fear causes anxiety and can lead to a poorer response to surgery and surgical complications. Explanations of what the client is to expect can help to decrease anxiety. False reassurance of being fine does not diminish anxiety. Deep breathing and relaxation techniques can be helpful to the client, but addressing the source of the anxiety is more beneficial. Keeping the family informed helps the family and is not client focused.

Which nursing statement would best decrease a client's anxiety before an emergency operative procedure?

Discussing and reviewing the advanced directive document Establishing an intravenous line Beginning discharge planning Of the activities listed, discussing and reviewing the advanced directive document, establishing an intravenous line, and beginning discharge planning are preoperative nursing activities.

Which of the following activities are nursing activities in the preoperative phase of care? Select all that apply.

Pain Shoulder tenderness Limited movement Muscle spasms Atrophy The patient experiences pain, shoulder tenderness, limited movement, muscle spasms, and atrophy. The process may progress to a rotator cuff tear.

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of impingement syndrome? Select all that apply.

Kidney Prostate Lung Breast Ovary The most common primary sites of tumors that metastasize to bone are the kidney, prostate, lung, breast, ovary, and thyroid.

Which of the following are common primary sites of tumors that metastasize to the bone? Select all that apply.

The client can be discharged from the PACU.

A postoperative client is being evaluated for discharge and currently has an Aldrete score of 8. Which of the following is the most likely outcome for this client?

Sit in a straight-backed chair with arm rests. Avoid hip extension. Place feet flat on the floor. Sit with the buttocks "tucked under."

A provider asks the nurse to teach a patient with low back pain how to sit in order to minimize pressure on the spine. Which of the following teaching points would the nurse include? Select all that apply.

2.0 mL/kg/h.

Adequate hourly urine output for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is

Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after a fracture. Callus forms during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

After a fracture, during which stage or phase of bone healing is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement?

Moving the client swiftly National Patient Safety goals for the surgical client include verification of the client and protecting the client from physical harm.

An inappropriate nursing action implemented to keep the client safe includes:

Inform the resident that all communication needs to remain professional. The nurse must advocate for the client, especially when the client cannot speak for themselves. By informing the resident that all communication needs to be professional, the nurse is addressing the comment at that moment in time, advocating for the client. Ignoring the comment is not appropriate. The nurse may need to address the concerns of unprofessional communication with the attending surgeon or the charge nurse if the behavior continues. The best action is to address the behavior when it happens.

An obese client is undergoing abdominal surgery. During the procedure a surgical resident states, "The amount of fat we have to cut through is disgusting." What is the best response by the nurse?

Keeping records. The circulating nurse wears OR attire but not a sterile gown. Responsibilities include obtaining and opening wrapped sterile equipment and supplies before and during surgery, keeping records, adjusting lights, receiving specimens for laboratory examination, and coordinating activities of other personnel, such as the pathologist and radiology technician. It is the responsibility of the scrub nurse to hand instruments to the surgeon and count sponges and needles. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to estimate blood loss.

As a circulating nurse, what task are you solely responsible for?

Serum creatinine increases Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increases Creatinine clearance decreases As glomerular filtration decreases, the serum creatinine and BUN levels increase; the creatinine clearance decreases.

As glomerular filtration decreases, which of the following occurs? Select all that apply.

During the preoperative period The best time to begin teaching about care needed in the postoperative period is during the preoperative time. At this time, the client is more alert and focused on the information provided by the nurse. Clients and family members can better be prepared and participate in the recovery period if they know what to expect. Anxiety is a factor on arrival to the surgical unit that could interfere with learning. Pain could interfere with the learning process, following a surgical procedure. At the time of discharge, both pain and timeliness may be an issue in understanding and obtaining care needed during the postoperative time.

At which time does the nurse realize that it is best to begin teaching about care needed during the postoperative period?

Hyperkalemia Anemia Hypocalcemia Hyperkalemia is due to decreased potassium excretion and excessive potassium intake. Metabolic acidosis results from decreased acid secretion by the kidney. A damaged glomerular membrane causes excess protein loss.

Based on the pathophysiologic changes that occur as renal failure progresses, the nurse identifies the following indicators associated with the disease. Select all that apply.

painful movement of a joint a distinct lump Painful movement of a joint and a distinct lump are two of the findings with bursitis. Bouchard's nodes are bony enlargements of the distal interphalangeal joints and are seen with osteoarthritis. Hyperuricemia is found with gout.

Bursitis is an inflammation of the bursa, a fluid-filled sac that cushions bone ends to enhance a gliding movement. What possible assessment findings would be present in a client with bursitis? Select all that apply.

Nasal spray Subcutaneous Intramuscular injection Calcitonin is administered by nasal spray or by subcutaneous or intramuscular injections.

Which of the following are routes of administration for Calcitonin? Select all that apply.

Adrenal Clients who have received corticosteroids are at risk of adrenal insufficiency. Insufficiency related to corticosteroids does not occur in the pituitary, thyroid, or parathyroid glands.

Clients who have received corticosteroids preoperatively are at risk for which type of insufficiency?

Notify the surgeon that the client took warfarin the day before surgery. Warfarin, an anticoagulant, places the client at risk for excessive bleeding during the intraoperative and postoperative periods.

During the admission history the client reports to the nurse of taking the usual dose of warfarin (Coumadin) the previous day. The appropriate nursing action is:

Frequency Oliguria Anuria Obstruction of urine flow Enlargement of the prostate gland causes obstruction of urine flow, resulting in frequency, oliguria, and anuria. Polyuria does not occur.

Enlargement of the prostate causes which of the following to occur? Select all that apply.

Opioid Fentanyl is 75 to 100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam and diazepam. Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Fentanyl is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent?

Oxygen saturation of 82%

Following admission of the postoperative client to the clinical unit, which of the following assessment data requires the most immediate attention?

7 Aspirin should be stopped at least 7 to 10 days before surgery. The other time frames are incorrect.

For the client who is taking aspirin, it is important to stop taking this medication at least how many day(s) before surgery?

Absence of feeling Capillary refill of 4 to 5 seconds Cool skin Pain Weakness in motion Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic or mottled skin with a cool temperature, capillary refill greater than 3 seconds, weakness or paralysis with motion, and paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, or absence of feeling.

Which of the following assessment findings indicate to the nurse that a client may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction?

Valsalva maneuver The Valsalva maneuver produces tension on abdominal wounds, which increases the risk for evisceration.

Which of the following clinical manifestations increase the risk for evisceration in the postoperative client?

There is a deficiency of activated vitamin D (calcitriol). Calcium and phosphate are not moved to the bones. The bone mass is structurally weaker, and bone deformities occur. In the pathophysiologic process seen in osteomalacia, there is a deficiency of activated vitamin D (calcitriol), calcium and phosphate are not moved to the bones, the bone mass is structurally weaker, and bone deformities occur.

Identify descriptors of the pathophysiologic process seen in osteomalacia. Select all that apply.

bladder urethra The lower urinary tract consists of the bladder, urethra, and pelvic floor muscles.

In a diagnosis of a lower urinary tract infection, which structures could be affected? Select all that apply.

ureter kidney The upper urinary tract is composed of the kidneys, renal pelves, and ureters.

In a diagnosis of an upper urinary tract infection, which structures could be affected? Select all that apply.

15 minutes.

In the immediate postoperative period, vital signs are taken at least every

avoid aspiration.

It is important for the nurse to assist a postsurgical client to sit up and turn the head to one side when vomiting in order to

Scoliosis Scoliosis is a lateral curving deviation of the spine. Lordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine. Kyphosis is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. Steppage gait is not a type of spinal deformity.

Which of the following deformities causes a lateral curving deviation of the spine?

Swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve Morton neuroma is swelling of the third branch of the median plantar nerve. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. Flatfoot is a common disorder in which the longitudinal arch of the foot is diminished. Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the foot-supporting fascia.

Morton neuroma is exhibited by which clinical manifestation?

Wound infection

Nursing assessment findings reveal a temperature of 103.2°F, tachycardia, and client complaints of increased incisional pain. The nurse recognizes the client is experiencing:

Ineffective thermoregulation

Nursing assessment findings reveal a temperature of 96.2°F, pulse oximetry 90%, shivering, and client complains of chilling. The findings are indicative of which nursing diagnosis?

Flaccid A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as flaccid. A muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. In conditions characterized by lower neuron destruction, denervated muscle becomes atonic (soft and flabby) and atrophies. A person with muscle paralysis has a loss of movement and possibly nerve damage.

Which of the following describes a muscle that is limp and without tone?

"Some bunions are congenital; others are caused by wearing shoes that are too short or narrow." Bunions may be congenital or may be acquired by wearing shoes that are too short or narrow, which increases pressure on the bursa at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Acquired bunions can be prevented. Wearing shoes that are too big may cause other types of foot trauma but not bunions. Gout doesn't cause bunions. Although a client with gout may have pain in the big toe, such pain doesn't result from a bunion.

On a visit to the family physician, a client is diagnosed with a bunion on the lateral side of the great toe, at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?

Arthrocentesis Arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is carried out to obtain synovial fluid for purpose of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion. EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and the nerves leading to them. A bone scan is performed to detect metastatic and primary bone tumors, osteomyelitis, certain fractures, and aseptic necrosis. A biopsy may be performed to determine the structure and composition of bone marrow, bone, muscle, or synovium to help diagnose specific diseases.

Which of the following diagnostic studies are done to relieve joint pain due to effusion?

Pain Constricting dressings Abdominal distention Obesity

Which of the following factors may contribute to rapid and shallow respirations in a postoperative client? Select all that apply.

Pain Constricting dressings Abdominal distention Obesity Often, because of the effects of analgesic and anesthetic medications, respirations are slow. Shallow and rapid respirations may be caused by pain, constricting dressings, gastric dilation, abdominal distention, or obesity.

Which of the following factors may contribute to rapid and shallow respirations in a postoperative client? Select all that apply.

Check daily for thrill and bruit. Avoid compression of the site. No IV or blood pressure taken on extremity with dialysis access. No tight clothing. The nurse teaches the patient with fistulae or grafts to check daily for a thrill and bruit. Further teaching includes avoiding compression of the site; not permitting blood to be drawn, an IV to be inserted, or blood pressure to be taken on the extremity with the dialysis access; not to wear tight clothing, carry bags or pocketbooks on that side, and not lie on or sleep on the area. The site is not cleansed unless it is being accessed for hemodialysis.

Patient education regarding a fistulae or graft includes which of the following? Select all that apply.

Platelets White blood cells (WBCs) Red blood cells (RBCs) The red bone marrow located within the bone cavities produces RBC, WBCs, and platelets through the process of hematopoiesis. The red bone marrow does not produce estrogen or corticosteroids.

Red bone marrow produces which of the following? Select all that apply.

Platelets White blood cells (WBCs) Red blood cells (RBCs) The red bone marrow located within the bone cavities produces RBC, WBCs, and platelets through the process of hematopoiesis. The red bone marrow does not produce estrogen or corticosteroids.

Red bone marrow produces which of the following? Select all that apply.

Aldosterone causes renal reabsorption of sodium. Angiotensin II controls the release of aldosterone. Renin, an enzyme released by the kidneys, activates the RAS system to ensure adequate filtration. The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) maintains the balance of fluid volume. Refer to Figure 26-4 in the text.

Serum sodium plays a major role in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. Choose all the correct statements that apply.

The client's preoperative level of consciousness The presence of family and/or significant others The client's full name The PACU nurse is responsible for informing the floor nurse of the client's intraoperative factors (e.g., insertion of drains or catheters, administration of blood or medications during surgery, or occurrence of unexpected events), preoperative level of consciousness, presence of family and/or significant others, and identification of the client by name. The PACU nurse does not tell which anesthetic was used, only the type and amount used. The PACU nurse does not identify the staff that was in the OR with the client.

The PACU nurse is caring for a client who has been deemed ready to go to the postsurgical floor after her surgery. What would the PACU nurse be responsible for reporting to the nurse on the floor? Select all that apply.

Calcitonin Calcitonin, which inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation, is decreased in osteoporosis. Estrogen, which inhibits bone breakdown, decreases with aging. On the other hand, parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases with aging, increasing bone turnover and resorption. The consequence of these changes is net loss of bone mass over time. Corticosteroids place patients as risk for developing osteoporosis.

Which of the following inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation?

Delirium Restricted activity Infection of urinary tract Atrophic vaginitis Stool impaction Potential causes of transient incontinence include delirium, restricted activity, infection of the urinary tract, atrophic vaginitis, and stool impaction.

Which of the following is a potential cause of transient incontinence? Select all that apply.

Acute pyelonephritis Renal abscess Upper UTIs include acute pyelonephritis, renal abscess, perineal abscess, chronic pyelonephritis, and interstitial nephritis. Lower UTIs include cystitis, urethritis, and prostatitis.

Which of the following is classified as a upper urinary tract infection (UTI)? Select all that apply.

Remove the entire sterile field from use. If any doubt exists about the maintenance of sterility, the field should be considered not sterile. Because the object in question was placed in the sterile field, the sterile field must be removed from use. Removing the individual item is not appropriate, as the entire field was potentially contaminated. Reviewing the client's chart at a later date does not decrease the chance of infection. Although another nurse could observe the technique used to put objects in a sterile field, it does not resolve the immediate concern.

The circulating nurse is unsure whether proper technique was followed when an object was placed in the sterile field during a surgical procedure. What is the best action by the nurse?

ondansetron (Zofran)

The client is experiencing nausea and vomiting following surgery. The nurse expects the surgeon to order:

Lordosis Lordosis is an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve.

The client presents with an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve. The nurse interprets these findings as indicative of:

The fracture is on the diaphysis. A fracture that is on the diaphysis is understood to be chiefly found in the long shafts of the arms and legs. The epiphyses are rounded, irregular ends of the bones. Saying a fracture is ventrally located does not assist in providing adequate details of the location of the fracture. A tuberosity is a projection from the bone or a protuberance.

The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary care physician. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site?

nutritional status age physical condition health status General surgical risk factors are related to age; nutritional status; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other substances; and physical condition.

The nurse assesses a client to determine if there is increased risk for complications intraoperatively or postoperatively. Which are general risk factors? Select all that apply.

Exhales forcefully with a short expiration Diaphragmatic breathing should be performed gently and fully.

The nurse concludes that further teaching about diaphragmatic breathing is needed when the client:

Osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) Osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) is the most common and most often fatal primary malignant bone tumor. Benign primary neoplasms of the musculoskeletal system include osteochondroma, enchondroma, and rhabdomyoma.

Which of the following is the most common and most fatal primary malignant bone tumor?

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) Thorazine may increase the hypotensive action of anesthetics. Deltasone may cause cardiovascular collapse and should be discontinued immediately. Coumadin can increase the risk of bleeding during the intraoperative and postoperative periods. HydroDIURIL may cause respiratory depression resulting from an associated electrolyte imbalance during anesthesia.

Which of the following medications may increases the hypotensive action of anesthesia?

Calcium Vitamin D A client's risk for osteoporosis is strongly influenced by vitamin D and calcium intake. Carbohydrate, protein, and fiber intake do not have direct effect on the development of osteoporosis.

The nurse is assessing a client for dietary factors that may influence her risk for osteoporosis. The nurse should question the client about her intake of what nutrients? Select all that apply.

Ambulate the length of the client's house Get out of bed without assistance Be able to self-toilet For a safe discharge to home, clients need to be able to ambulate a functional distance (eg, length of the house or apartment), get in and out of bed unassisted, and be independent with toileting.

Which of the following mobility criteria must a postoperative client meet to be discharged to home? Select all that apply.

Ensuring that the sponge, needle, and instrument counts are correct Administering medications, fluid, and blood component therapy, if prescribed Of the activities listed, discussing and reviewing the advanced directive document, establishing an intravenous line, and beginning discharge planning are preoperative nursing activities.

Which of the following nursing activities would not be part of the preoperative phase of care? Select all that apply.

Plantar fasciitis Plantar fasciitis, an inflammation of the foot-supporting fascia, present as an acute onset of heal pain experienced with the first steps in the morning. Hallux valgus (commonly called a bunion) is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally. Morton's neuroma is a swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve. A ganglion, a collection of gelatinous material near the tendon sheaths and joints, appears as a round, firm compressible cystic swelling, usually on the dorsum of the wrist.

Which of the following presents with an onset of heel pain with the first steps of the morning?

9

The nurse is assessing the client's readiness for discharge from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). The nurse can rouse the client by calling the client's name. The client can move all extremities and has a blood pressure of 134/82. Baseline preoperative blood pressure was 128/78. The most recent pulse oximetry reading was 94% on room air; the client's respirations are deep and easy at a rate of 12/minute. The nurse calculates the Aldrete score as:

"I am lying on the beach in Florida." Imagery requires the client to think of a pleasant or restful experience.

The nurse is assisting the client with imagery as a relaxation strategy. Which statement by the client describes imagery?

Alendronate

The nurse is caring for a client with a hip fracture. The physician orders the client to start taking a bisphosphonate. Which medication would the nurse document as given?

Suctioning the nasopharyngeal cavity of a client To maintain surgical asepsis, only sterile items should touch sterile items.

Which of the following techniques least exhibits surgical asepsis?

Notify the primary care provider immediately.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client with an indwelling urinary catheter. The hourly urinary output is 80 mL at 9 am. At 10 am, the nurse assesses the hourly urinary output as 20 mL. What is the priority action by the nurse?

Lithotomy The lithotomy position is used for nearly all perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgeries. The Trendelenburg position is usually used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis. The Sims or lateral position is used for renal surgery. The dorsal recumbent position is the usual position for surgical procedures.

Which position is used for perineal surgical procedures?

Osteocalcin Serum osteocalcin (bone GLA protein) indicates the rate of bone turnover. Serum myoglobin is assessed to evaluate muscle trauma. Serum enzyme levels of creatinine kinase and aspartate aminotransferase become elevated with muscle damage.

Which serum level indicates the rate of bone turnover?

"What are your concerns?" Asking the client about their concerns is an open-ended therapeutic technique. It allows the client to guide the conversation and address their emotional state. Asking about family support changes the subject and is not therapeutic. Discussing the surgical team and the low death rate associated with a procedure minimizes the client's feelings and is not therapeutic.

The nurse is completing a preoperative assessment. The nurse notices the client is tearful and constantly wringing their hands. The client states, "I'm really nervous about this surgery. Do you think it will be ok?" What is the nurse's best response?

Absence of peristalsis

The nurse is concerned that a postoperative patient may have a paralytic ileus. What assessment data may indicate that the patient does have a paralytic ileus?

Tinel's Tinel's sign may be used to help identify carpal tunnel syndrome. The presence of the Babinski's sign can identify disease of the brain and spinal cord in adults and also exists as a primitive reflex in infants. The Brudzinski's and Kernig's sign are indicative of meningeal irritation.

Which sign may be helpful in identifying carpal tunnel syndrome?

II Stage II is the excitement stage, which is characterized by struggling, shouting, and laughing. Stage II is often avoided if the anesthetic is administered smoothly and quickly. Stage I is the beginning of anesthesia, during which the client breathes in the anesthetic mixture and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and detachment occur. Stage III is surgical anesthesia, which is achieved by continued administration of anesthetic vapor and gas. Stage IV is medullary depression, in which the client is unconscious and lies quietly on the table.

Which stage of surgical anesthesia is also known as excitement?

"I can resume my usual activities as soon as I get home."

The nurse is preparing the client with an abdominal incision for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates teaching has been ineffective?

8

The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient from the PACU using a PACU room scoring guide. With what score can the patient be transferred out of the recovery room?

Ciliary action decreases, reducing the cough reflex. Fatty tissue increases, prolonging the effects of anesthesia. Liver size decreases, reducing the metabolism of anesthetics. Lower doses of anesthetic agents are required in older adults due to decreased tissue elasticity (lung and cardiovascular systems) and reduced lean tissue mass. Older patients often experience an increase in the duration of clinical effects of medications. With decreased plasma proteins, more of the anesthetic agent remains free or unbound, and the result is more potent action (Barash et al., 2009). In addition, body tissues of the older adult are made up predominantly of water, and those tissues with a rich blood supply, such as skeletal muscle, liver, and kidneys, shrink as the body ages.

Why should the nurse be vigilant with assessment of perioperative risks on the older adult patient? (Select all that apply.)

Central venous pressure

The nurse is responsible for monitoring cardiovascular function in a postoperative patient. What method can the nurse use to measure cardiovascular function?

Explanation of procedure Potential risks Benefits of surgery Description of alternatives Informed consents should be in writing and contain an explanation of procedure and risks, description of benefits and alternative, an offer to answer questions about procedure, ability to withdraw consent, and statement informing the client if the protocol differs from customary procedure. An estimated time of procedure and personnel present are not required in the informed consent.

The nurse is reviewing a preoperative informed consent when preparing the client for surgery. Which contents of the informed consent are required? Select all that apply.

decreased renal function

The nurse recognizes that the older adult is at risk for surgical complications due to:

Ask the client to plantar flex the toes. A neurological assessment evaluates sensation and motion. Assessing plantar flexion of the toes would be included in a neurological assessment. Capillary refill, palpation of pulses, and inspecting for edema would be included in a vascular assessment.

The nurse would include which of the following in a neurological assessment?

"Weight-bearing exercises can strengthen bones." Weight-bearing exercises maintain bone mass. Weight-resistance exercises maintain and strengthen muscles. Cardio-training is important for heart health and weight maintenance/reduction. Range of motion exercises are essential for joint mobility.

The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong bones. The best response by the nurse is:

maintaining pulmonary ventilation.

The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is

maintaining pulmonary ventilation. The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is to maintain pulmonary ventilation, which prevents hypoxemia. Controlling nausea and vomiting, relieving pain, and monitoring for hypotension are important, but they are not primary objectives in the immediate postoperative period.

The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is

encourage the client to walk in the hall. Calcium absorption diminishes with reduced physical activity because of decreased bone stimulation. Therefore, encouraging the client to increase physical activity, such as by walking in the hall, helps minimize calcium loss. Turning or repositioning the client every 2 hours wouldn't increase activity sufficiently to minimize bone loss. Providing dairy products and supplemental feedings wouldn't lessen calcium loss — even if the dairy products and feedings contained extra calcium — because the additional calcium doesn't increase bone stimulation or osteoblast activity.

To help minimize calcium loss from a hospitalized client's bones, the nurse should:

20%

Using the PACU room scoring guide, a nurse would give a patient an admission cardiovascular score of 2 if the patient's blood pressure is what percentage of his or her preanesthetic level?

<30 mL

What abnormal postoperative urinary output should the nurse report to the physician for a 2-hour period?

Clonus Clonus is a rhythmic contraction of the muscle. Atrophy is a shrinkagelike decrease in the size of a muscle. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of a muscle. Crepitus is a grating or crackling sound or sensation that may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle?

As soon as it is indicated

When should the nurse encourage the postoperative patient to get out of bed?

Health care systems The health care system consists of structural data elements and focuses on clinical processes and outcomes. Safety, behavioral responses, and physiological responses reflect phenomena of concern to perioperative nurses and comprise nursing diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes.

Which domain of perioperative nursing practice focuses on clinical processes and outcomes?

Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Which term refers to the shaft of the long bone?

Hyperglycemia The patient with diabetes who is undergoing surgery is at risk for hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia during the surgical procedure is a risk based on the body's defense mechanism to raise the blood sugar in the event of stress. Patients who have received corticosteroids are at risk of adrenal insufficiency. Patients with uncontrolled thyroid disorders are at risk for thyrotoxicosis. Because the kidneys are involved in excreting anesthetic medications and their metabolites and because acid-base status and metabolism are also important considerations in anesthesia administration, surgery is contraindicated when a patient has acute nephritis, acute renal insufficiency with oliguria or anuria, or other renal problems.

You are admitting an insulin-dependent patient to the same-day surgical suite for carpal tunnel surgery. You know that this patient may be at risk for which metabolic disorder?

Anxious clients have a poor response to surgery and are prone to complications. Anxiety and fear, if extreme, can affect a client's condition during and after surgery. Anxious clients have a poor response to surgery and are prone to complications. The scenario does not indicate an increased need for anesthesia or postoperative medications in the anxious and fearful client. Anxious clients do not generally need psychological counseling after surgery. Anxiety and fear do not affect a client positively during and after surgery.

You are caring for a client preoperatively who is very anxious and fearful about their surgery. You know that this client's anxiety can cause problems with the surgical experience. What type of problems can this client have because of their anxiety and fear?

Wound dehiscence

You are caring for a client who is an obese diabetic. The client is 48 hours post surgery. What is this client at increased risk for?

Wound dehiscence Risk factors for wound dehiscence include: Advanced age over 65 years; Chronic disease such as diabetes, hypertension, obesity; History of radiation or chemotherapy; Malnutrition, particularly insufficient protein and vitamin C; Hypoalbuminemia. This client is not at increased risk for hypotension; contractures, or phlebitis.

You are caring for a client who is an obese diabetic. The client is 48 hours post surgery. What is this client at increased risk for?

Place gauze under and over the ring and apply adhesive tape over it. If the client is reluctant to remove a wedding band, the nurse may slip gauze under the ring, then loop the gauze around the finger and wrist or apply adhesive tape over a plain wedding band. You would not tell the client that he or she cannot go to the operating room wearing the ring. You would never medicate the client and then remove the ring against his or her will. It is not necessary to tell the physician and the anesthesiologist that the client does not want to remove the wedding band.

You are physically preparing a client for surgery and instruct the person to remove any jewelry. The client refuses to remove a wedding band. What should you do in this situation with approval from your facility?

Bisphosphonates Bisphosphonates are the cornerstone of Paget therapy in that they stabilize the rapid bone turnover. Alkaline phosphatase is a naturally occurring enzyme, not a drug. Calcium gluconate and estrogen are not used in the treatment of Paget disease.

A client has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of Paget disease. When reviewing the medication administration record, the nurse should anticipate what medication?

Osteoporosis Osteoporosis is likely not going to contribute to complications related to a cholecystectomy. Pregnancy decreases maternal reserves. Diabetes increases wound-healing problems and risks for infection. Urinary tract infection decreases the immune system's effectiveness, increasing the chance for infections.

A client is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. Which finding by the nurse is least likely to contribute to surgical complications?

Performing guided imagery Putting on soothing music Changing the client's position Guided imagery, music, and application of heat or cold (if prescribed) have been successful in decreasing pain. Changing the client's position, using distraction, applying cool washcloths to the face, and providing back massage may be useful in relieving general discomfort temporarily.

A client who is receiving the maximum levels of medication for postoperative recovery asks the nurse if there are other measures that the nurse can employ to ease pain. Which of the following strategies might the nurse employ? Select all that apply.

Encourage the client to ambulate at least three times per day.

A nurse asks a client who had abdominal surgery 3 days ago if he has moved his bowels since surgery. The client states, "I haven't moved my bowels, but I am passing gas." How should the nurse intervene?

Walking Weight-bearing exercises should be incorporated into the client's lifestyle activities.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching regarding exercise for a client at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following exercises would be appropriate?

Renal concentration test Creatinine clearance Serum creatinine Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Common tests of renal function include BUN, serum creatinine, creatinine clearance, and renal concentration tests. Arterial blood gas analysis is a test of respiratory function.

Common tests of renal function include which of the following? Select all that apply.

Allow the client to wear dentures. Dentures, jewelry, glasses, and prosthetic devices are removed prior to surgery.

In preparing the client for transfer to the operating room, which of the following actions by the nurse is inappropriate?

maintains adequate oxygenation status.

The PACU nurse is caring for an older adult who presents with clinical manifestations of delirium. Which short-term outcome would be most important for this client? The client:

Listening to music Watching television Changing position

The client asks the nurse about ways to control pain other than taking pain medication. Which strategy should the nurse include when responding to the client? Select all that apply.

Pink to red and soft, bleeding easily

The nurse documents the presence of granulation tissue in a healing wound. How should the nurse describe the tissue?

Notify the physician.

The nurse is caring for a client 24 hours post surgery who is having persistent hiccups. What action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Position the client to maintain a patent airway.

The nurse is caring for the postoperative client in the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

"Do you have any allergies?" Many contrast dyes contain iodine. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to determine whether the client has any allergies, especially to iodine, shellfish, and other seafood.

The nurse is conducting the admission assessment for the client who is to undergo an arthrogram. What is the priority question the nurse should ask?

Loss of height A common age-related change is the loss of height due to the loss of bone mass and vertebral collapse. Cognitive decline is not an age-related change. Depression occurs in all age groups. Geriatric clients have a decrease in muscle mass.

The nurse is employed at a long-term care facility caring for geriatric clients. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an age-related change?

Excretes waste products Controls blood pressure Regulate calcium and the synthesis of vitamin D Activates growth hormone Regulates red blood cell production The nurse is correct to highlight all of the options except regulates estrogen and progesterone. The pituitary gland controls hormone secretion.

The nurse is instructing a health class of high school seniors on the function of the kidney. The nurse is correct to highlight which information? Select all that apply.

Pale, cyanotic, or mottled color Cool temperature of the extremity More than 3-second capillary refill Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin color; cool temperature of the extremities; and a capillary refill of more than 3 seconds.

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient who may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What signs does the patient present with that indicate circulation is impaired? (Select all that apply.)

Educating clients on signs and symptoms of infection Educating clients on preventing or recognizing complications begins in the preoperative phase. Applying SCDs and frequently monitoring vital signs happen after the preoperative phase. Only electric clippers should be used to remove hair.

What action by the nurse best encompasses the preoperative phase?

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia

What complication in the immediate postoperative period should the nurse understand requires early intervention to prevent?

Proper hand-washing techniques

What intervention by the nurse is most effective for reducing hospital-acquired infections?

Turn the patient's head completely to one side to prevent aspiration of vomitus into the lungs.

When vomiting occurs postoperatively, what is the most important nursing intervention?

Calcitonin Calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood calcium concentration, inhibits bone reabsorption and increases the deposit of calcium in the bone. The other answers do not apply.

Which hormone inhibits bone reabsorption and increases calcium deposit in the bone?

being male

Which is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Notify the physician.

A client is at postoperative hour 8 after an appendectomy and is anxious, stating "Something is not right. My pain is worse than ever and my stomach is swollen." Blood pressure is 88/50, pulse is 115, and respirations are 24 and labored. The abdomen is soft and distended. No obvious bleeding is noted. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Verify consent. Surgery cannot be performed without consent. Documentation of the start of surgery can only happen once the surgery has started. Blood products must be administered within an allotted time frame and therefore should not be acquired unless needed. The sponge and syringe count is a safety issue that should be completed before surgery and while the wound is being sutured, but if the client has not consented, the surgery should not take place.

A client is brought to the operating room for an elective surgery. What is the priority action by the circulating nurse?

"My toes are numb." Numbness would indicate neurological compromise of the extremity and requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent damage.

A client with a sports injury undergoes a diagnostic arthroscopy of the left knee. Which of the following comments by the client following the procedure should the nurse address first?

common adverse effects The most common adverse effects of NSAIDs are related to the GI tract: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation. GI bleeding, which in some cases is severe, has been reported with the use of these drugs. Use of NSAIDs does not pose significant dietary or activity restrictions nor is there a loading-dose schedule.

A has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. The rheumatologist has prescribed NSAID use to treat the condition. What client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications?

Impaired Physical Mobility Acute Pain Disturbed Auditory Sensory Perception Risk for Injury Clients with Paget disease are at risk of decreased mobility, pain, hearing loss, and injuries resulting from decreased bone density. Paget disease does not affect blood glucose levels.

A nurse is providing care for a client who has a recent diagnosis of Paget disease. When planning this client's nursing care, interventions should address what nursing diagnoses? Select all that apply.

Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase The process of fracture healing occurs over three phases. These include the following: Phase I: Reactive phase; Phase II: Reparative phase; and Phase III: Remodeling phase.

A patient has a fracture of the right femur sustained in an automobile accident. What process of fracture healing does the nurse understand will occur with this patient?

Age General risk factors are related to age; nutritional status; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other substances; and physical condition. In this scenario, the risk to the client is age; the other options are incorrect according to the scenario described.

A physically fit 86-year-old is scheduled for right knee replacement. Which factor the client at increased risk for complications during or after surgery?

No further increase in bone length occurs. After closure of the epiphyses, no further increase in bone length can occur. The other options are inappropriate and not related to closure of the epiphyses.

After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which statement is true?

malignant hyperthermia Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited disorder that occurs when body temperature, muscle metabolism, and heat production increase rapidly, progressively, and uncontrollably in response to stress and some anesthetic agents. If the client's temperature begins to rise rapidly, anesthesia is discontinued, and the OR team implements measures to correct physiologic problems, such as fever or dysrhythmias. Hypothermia is a lower than expected body temperature. Signs of infection would not present during the procedure. Increased body temperature would not indicate fluid volume excess.

During a procedure, a client's temperature begins to rise rapidly. This is likely the result of which complication?

Listening to music Watching television Changing position Nonpharmacological management of pain includes listening to music, watching television, and changing position. Pharmacological pain management strategies include epidural infusions and On-Q pumps. An epidural infusion delivers a local opioid with or without a local anesthetic agent directly into the epidural space of the spine. An On-Q pump delivers a local anesthetic agent subcutaneously to the incisional area.

The client asks the nurse about ways to control pain other than taking pain medication. Which strategy should the nurse include when responding to the client? Select all that apply.

Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia is present with bone metastases from breast, lung, or kidney cancer. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, polyuria, cardiac dysrhythmias, seizures, and coma. Hypercalcemia must be identified and treated promptly.

The nurse is caring for a patient with bone metastasis from a primary breast cancer. The patient complains of muscle weakness and nausea and is voiding large amounts frequently. Cardiac dysrhythmias are observed on the telemetry monitor. What should the nurse suspect based on these clinical manifestations?

Position the client to maintain a patent airway. Maintaining a patent airway is the immediate priority in the PACU.

The nurse is caring for the postoperative client in the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cheeseburger, french fries, coleslaw, and ice cream Important nutrients for wound healing include protein; vitamins A, B-complex, C, and K; arginine, magnesium, copper, and zinc; and water. The diet should be sufficient in carbohydrates and low to moderate in fats. The cheeseburger option is high in fat and low in vitamin C.

The nurse is evaluating the client's understanding of diet teaching aimed at promoting wound healing following surgery. The nurse would conclude teaching was ineffective if the client selects which of the following?

Hypoglycemia Acidosis Glucosuria Hypoglycemia may develop during anesthesia or postoperatively from inadequate carbohydrates or excessive administration of insulin. Hyperglycemia, which can increase the risk for surgical wound infection, may result from the stress of surgery, which can trigger increased levels of catecholamine. Other risks are acidosis and glucosuria. Risks of fluid overload and delirium are not normally increased.

The nurse is planning the care of a client who has type 1 diabetes and who will be undergoing knee replacement surgery. This clent's care plan should reflect an increased risk of what postsurgical complications? Select all that apply.

Pulmonary embolism

What complication is the nurse aware of that is associated with deep venous thrombosis?

Lower lumbar The lower lumbar disks, L4 to L5 and L5 to S1, are subject to the greatest mechanical stress and greatest degenerative changes.

Which area of the spinal column is subject to the greatest mechanical stress and degenerative changes?

Pallor

Which is a classic sign of hypovolemic shock?

Second-intention healing

Which method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulation?

Parathormone Calcitonin Parathormone and calcitonin are the major hormonal regulators of calcium homeostasis. Excessive thyroid hormone production in adults can result in increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation. Increased levels of cortisol have the same effects. Growth hormone has direct and indirect effects on skeletal growth and remodeling.

Which of the following are the major hormonal regulators of calcium homeostasis? Select all that apply.

Valsalva maneuver

Which of the following clinical manifestations increase the risk for evisceration in the postoperative client?

Handling tissue Suturing Maintaining hemostasis Providing exposure at the operative field Handling tissue, suturing, maintaining hemostasis, and providing exposure at the operative field are responsibilities of the registered nurse first assistant. Specimen management is a duty of the circulating nurse.

Which of the following is a duty of the registered nurse first assistant? Select all that apply.

Loss of bone mass Age-related changes include loss of bone mass, an increase in collagen and resultant fibrosis, thinning of the vertebral discs, and decreased elasticity of tendons.

Which of the following is an age-related change to the musculoskeletal system?

"I will become unconscious." The client receiving epidural anesthesia will remain conscious during the procedure.

Which statement by the client indicates further teaching about epidural anesthesia is necessary?

Shuffling A variety of neurologic conditions are associated with abnormal gaits, such as spastic hemiparesis gait (stroke), steppage gait (lower motor neuron disease), and shuffling gait (Parkinson's disease). Scissors gait is seen in cerebral palsy.

Which type of gait correlates with Parkinson's disease?

First intention

Which type of healing occurs when granulation tissue is not visible and scar formation is minimal?

First intention When wounds heal by first intention, granulation tissue is not visible and scar formation is minimal. Many postoperative wounds are covered with a dry sterile dressing. Second-intention healing (granulation) occurs in infected wounds (abscess) or in wounds in which the edges have not been well approximated. Third-intention healing (secondary suture) is used for deep wounds that either have not been sutured early or break down and are resutured later, thus bringing together two apposing granulation surfaces. Fourth-intention is not a type of wound healing.

Which type of healing occurs when granulation tissue is not visible and scar formation is minimal?

abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.

While reading a client's chart, the nurse notices that the client is documented to have paresthesia. The nurse plans care for a client with

Tolerance

You are caring for a client who needs to ambulate. What considerations should be included when planning the postoperative ambulatory activities for the older adult?

continuously monitors the sedated client. Intraoperative care includes the entire surgical procedure. During sedation, the nurse continuously evaluates the client. Assessment of heart rate, respiratory rate, BP, oxygen saturation, and level of consciousness occurs during all phases of perioperative care. Obtaining consent would occur during the preoperative phase of perioperative care. During the postoperative phase the nurse would assess how the client is recovering from anesthesia.

A 17-year-old client is having same-day surgery. Solely during the intraoperative phase of perioperative care, the nurse:

Prolonged standing Fever Strenuous exercise Proteinuria may be a benign finding, or it may signify serious disease. Common benign causes of transient proteinuria are fever, strenuous exercise, and prolonged standing. Causes of persistent proteinuria include glomerular diseases, malignancies, collagen diseases, diabetes, preeclampsia, hypothyroidism, heart failure, exposure to heavy metals, and use of medications such as NSAIDs and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

A 30-year-old client presents to the clinic for an employment physical. The nurse notes protein in the client's urine. The nurse understands that transient proteinuria can be caused by which factor(s)? Select all that apply.

Reorient the client. Assess for hypoxia. Assess urine output. The nurse should provide reassurance and reorient the client as needed. Hypoxia and urinary retention may cause acute confusion in the older adults postoperatively, so it would be appropriate for the nurse to assess for hypoxia and urine output. Opioid pain medications may cause further confusion; the physician should be consulted about the type and dosage of the pain medication. Ambulating the client may present safety concerns, especially if the client is bleeding or hypoxic.

A 76-year-old client had surgery for an abdominal hernia. The PACU nurse observes that the client is confused and is trying to climb out of the bed and pull at the cardiac monitor lines. At this time, what interventions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Appropriately position the client using adequate padding and support. Adequate padding and support should be used to prevent positioning injuries. Older adults have lower bone mass, which increases the risk of intraoperative positioning injuries. Pain medication can still be used, just in smaller doses, due to decreased liver and kidney function. For the same reason, lower doses of anesthetic agents are used with older adults. The operating room is usually maintained from 20°C to 24°C; 18°C is lower than the recommended temperature and can promote hypothermia in an older adult who already has impaired thermoregulation and is prone to hypothermia.

A 78-year-old client is undergoing surgery to repair a right hip fracture. What nursing action is appropriate during the intraoperative phase?

Skin breakdown Skin breakdown is an important nursing consideration when providing care for all surgical patients. However, older adults face an increased risk of this problem due to age-related changes to the integumentary system. Age alone does not create a heightened risk of hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Overstimulation should generally be avoided but this is not directly related to age. Early ambulation is beneficial for patients of all ages.

A 79-year-old man is scheduled for surgical repair of an inguinal hernia. In light of this patient's age, the nurse will prioritize nursing interventions aimed at preventing:

"It assists in preventing infection."

A client asks why a drain is in place to pull fluid from the surgical wound. What is the best response by the nurse?

hypertension pain from retroperitoneal bleeding Hypertension is present in approximately 75% of affected clients at the time of diagnosis. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding is caused by the size and effects of the cysts. Urinalysis shows mild proteinuria, hematuria, and pyuria. Renal stones are common.

A client has a family history of polycystic kidney disease. As the nurse gathers information and completes an assessment related to a polycystic kidney diagnosis, which findings would be expected? Select all that apply.

Hematuria Urinary frequency Acute pain Stones lodged in the ureter (ureteral obstruction) cause acute, excruciating, colicky, wavelike pain, radiating down the thigh and to the genitalia. Often, the client has a desire to void, but little urine is passed, and it usually contains blood because of the abrasive action of the stone. This group of symptoms is called ureteral colic. Diarrhea is not associated with this presentation and a fever is usually absent due to the noninfectious nature of the health problem

A client has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of ureteral colic secondary to urolithiasis. When planning the client's admission assessment, the nurse should be aware of the signs and symptoms that are characteristic of this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

Observe for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis. Maintain renal function. Assess for signs and symptoms of peritonitis. leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis, maintaining renal function, assessing for signs and symptoms of peritonitis, maintaining integrity of the urinary diversion and urine collection devices, maintaining skin and stomal integrity, promoting a positive body image, and teaching the client how to manage the diversion. Oral intake is important for any postoperative patient after it is approved by the physician; however, this is not specific to the care of the urinary diversion client.

A client has just undergone a urinary diversion procedure. What management issues related specifically to urinary diversion would be included in this client's care plan? Select all that apply.

Assess for signs and symptoms of fluid volume deficit.

A client is at postoperative day 1 after abdominal surgery. The client is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 75 mL/h, has a nasogastric tube to low wall suction with 200 mL every 8 hours of light yellow fluid, and a wound drain with 50 mL of dark red drainage every 8 hours. The 24-hour urine output total is 2430 mL. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Notify the physician. The physician should be notified of the findings. The client may be hemorrhaging internally and may need to return to surgery. The client may be in need of pain medication, but morphine will lower the blood pressure further and may cause further complications. Ambulating the client increases the risk of injury because the client may experience orthostatic hypotension. What the client is experiencing is not the normal progression after abdominal surgery.

A client is at postoperative hour 8 after an appendectomy and is anxious, stating "Something is not right. My pain is worse than ever and my stomach is swollen." Blood pressure is 88/50, pulse is 115, and respirations are 24 and labored. The abdomen is soft and distended. No obvious bleeding is noted. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Help the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2 hours. Provide firm support for the incision when the client coughs. Auscultate lung sounds once per shift. To monitor the client's respiratory status, the nurse would auscultate the lungs. The nurse also would provide assistance with deep breathing, coughing, and splinting. Antibiotic therapy administration would not relieve this acute distress.

A client is being cared for after a nephrectomy. Because of the incisional pain and restricted positioning, the client frequently suffers from breathing difficulty. Which measures should the nurse include in the care plan to relieve this distress? Select all that apply.

The client will leave the hospital sooner than in the past. Need for teaching is increased. The client must be prepared to take on more self-care than he or she may have done in the past. The increasing use of ambulatory, same-day, or short-stay surgery, means that clients leave the hospital sooner, which increases the need for teaching, discharge planning, preparation for self-care, and referral for home care and rehabilitation services.

A client is being prepared for a same-day surgical procedure and is discussing with the nurse what potential ramifications this type of surgery has. Which of the following would the nurse correctly identify? Select all that apply.

resection and fulguration topical application of an antineoplastic drug Small, superficial tumors may be removed by cutting (resecting) or coagulation (fulguration) with a transurethral resectoscope. Topical application of an antineoplastic drug may be used after resection and fulguration of a tumor. Cystectomy is a surgical removal of the bladder and is performed for large tumors that have penetrated the muscle wall. Urinary diversion is performed after a cystectomy.

A client is being treated for a malignant bladder tumor. What would be included in treatment of a small tumor? Select all that apply.

Scrub nurse The scrub nurse is sterile and assists the surgical team by handing instruments to the surgeon, preparing sutures, receiving specimens to be sent to the lab, and counting sponges and needles. The circulating nurse is not sterile and obtains and opens sterile equipment, adjusts lights, and keeps records. The first assistant is involved with the client's preoperative care. The certified registered nurse anesthetist assists in the client's anesthesia.

A client is placed on the operating room table for the surgical procedure. Which surgical team member is responsible for handing sterile instruments to the surgeon and assistants?

Assessing WBC count, temperature, and wound appearance The client has an increased risk for infection related to the surgical wound, which is classified as dirty. Assessing the WBC count, temperature, and wound appearance allows the nurse to intervene at the earliest sign of infection. The client will have special nutritional needs during wound healing and needs education on safe transfer procedures, but the need to monitor for infection is a higher priority. The client should receive pain medication as soon as possible after asking, but the latest literature suggests that pain medication should be given on a schedule versus "as needed."

A client is postoperative day 3 after surgical repair of an open abdominal wound and traumatic amputation of the right lower leg following a motorcycle crash. What is the highest priority nursing intervention?

Increases bladder neck resistance Decreases involuntary bladder contractions Some tricyclic antidepressant medications (amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and amoxapine) are useful in treating incontinence because they decrease bladder contractions and increase bladder neck resistance. Anticholinergic drugs such as oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan) reduce bladder spasticity and involuntary bladder contractions. Bethanechol (Urecholine) helps to increase contraction of the detrusor muscle, which assists with emptying of the bladder.

A client is prescribed amitriptyline, an antidepressant for incontinence. The nurse understands that this drug is an effective treatment for which reason? Select all that apply.

II Stage II is the excitement stage, which is characterized by struggling, shouting, and laughing. Stage I is the beginning of anesthesia, during which the client breathes in the anesthetic mixture and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and detachment occur. Stage III is surgical anesthesia characterized by unconsciousness and quietness. Surgical anesthesia is achieved by continued administration of anesthetic vapor and gas. Stage IV is medullary depression.

A client is receiving general anesthesia. The nurse anesthetist starts to administer the anesthesia. The client begins giggling and kicking her legs. What stage of anesthesia would the nurse document related to the findings?

referral to a dentist who has experience managing clients with TMD analgesics custom-fitted mouth guard during sleep Referral to a dentist who has experience managing clients with TMD, analgesics, and a custom-fitted mouth guard during sleep are all part of the treatment course. Corticosteroids are not part of the treatment regimen.

A client is reporting jaw pain, and is experiencing muscle spasm and tenderness of the masseter and temporalis muscles. The physician has diagnosed a temporomandibular disorder (TMD). What would the treatment course for this client include? Select all that apply.

Inform the client that the radiopaque isotope will be administered intravenously. Ensure that the client does not have any allergies to the isotope. Encourage the client to drink fluids to help distribute and eliminate the isotope. Informing the client that the radiopaque isotope will be administered intravenously, ensuring that the client does not have any allergies to the isotope, and encouraging the client to drink fluids to help distribute and eliminate the isotope are all considered in preparing a client for a bone scan. The client does not need to be NPO for 12 hours before the test.

A client is scheduled for a bone scan. A bone scan may be ordered to detect metastatic bone lesions, fractures, and certain types of inflammatory disorders. Which nursing considerations are correct in preparing a client for a bone scan? Select all that apply.

Pain Gastrointestinal symptoms Changes in voiding Dysfunction of the kidney can produce a complex array of symptoms throughout the body. Pain, changes in voiding, and gastrointestinal symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease. Jaundice and petechiae are not associated with genitourinary health problems.

A client is scheduled for diagnostic testing to address prolonged signs and symptoms of genitourinary dysfunction. What signs and symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease? Select all that apply.

Arthrodesis An arthrodesis is a surgical procedure to fuse a joint. An osteotomy involves cutting and removing a wedge of the bone to change alignment. An arthroplasty is a total reconstruction or replacement of a joint with an artificial joint. Open reduction internal fixation is accomplished with wire, nails, plate and/or an intramedullary rod to hold bone fragments in place until healing is complete.

A client is scheduled for surgery to fuse a joint. The nurse identifies this as which of the following?

reconstructive Clients have surgery for many different reasons. Reconstructive surgery is intended to repair or reconstruct physical deformities and abnormalities caused by traumatic injuries, birth defects, developmental abnormalities, or disease. Exploratory surgery is a more extensive means to diagnose a problem, and usually involves exploration of a body cavity or use of scopes inserted through small incisions. Diagnostic surgery is the removal and study of tissue to make a diagnosis. Prophylactic surgery is the removal of tissue that does not yet contain cancer cells but has a high probability of becoming cancerous in the future.

A client is scheduled to have surgery to address a cleft palate. The nurse will be preparing this client for which type of surgery?

postoperative pain control cough and deep-breathing exercises intravenous fluids and other lines and tubes Preoperative teaching involves teaching clients about their upcoming surgical procedure and expectations. Topics include preoperative medications (when they are given and their effects); postoperative pain control; explanation and description of the post anesthesia recovery room or postsurgical area; and deep-breathing and coughing exercises.

A client is undergoing a surgical procedure to repair an ulcerated colon. Which client education topics will be discussed preoperatively? Select all that apply.

Notify the surgeon. If the client has not carried out a specific portion of preoperative instructions, such as withholding foods and fluids, the nurse immediately notifies the surgeon. This scenario does not include information to support documentation of the client's food intake or giving the client water at this point. It is not the nurse's responsibility to cancel the surgery.

A client is undergoing preoperative assessment. During admission paperwork, the client reports having enjoyed a hearty breakfast this morning to be ready for the procedure. What is the nurse's next action?

"Because of the type of anesthesia used, you may be aware of what is going on around you." Anesthesia awareness is a complication of general anesthesia. This client is undergoing surgery with a local conduction block, not general surgery. Honest discussion of awareness is needed so clients know what to expect while they are in the operating room. Although the entire surgical team should be monitoring for anesthesia awareness, it is not relevant to the surgical procedure being performed. Telling the client that anesthesia awareness is not a concern is dismissive of the client's feelings.

A client is undergoing surgery with a brachial plexus block to the right wrist. The client voices concern about anesthesia awareness. What is the best response by the nurse?

Splint the incision site using a pillow during deep breathing and coughing exercises. Splinting the incision site will help decrease pain and support the incision. This will increase compliance with the deep breathing and coughing exercises that assist in preventing respiratory complications. Pain medication should be taken regularly, not only before deep breathing and coughing exercises. Deep breathing and coughing exercises should be done at least every 2 hours, more frequently if possible. While some clients will find the exercises relaxing, most clients find it painful to complete them.

A client is undergoing thoracic surgery. What priority education should the nurse provide to assist in preventing respiratory complications?

Allow the client to wear the ring and cover it with tape. Most facilities will allow a client to wear a wedding band during a surgical procedure. The nurse must secure the ring with tape. Although it is appropriate to discuss the risk for infection, the client has already refused to remove the ring. The surgery should not be canceled and the ring should not be removed without permission.

A client refuses to remove her wedding band when preparing for surgery. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Renal calculi Renal calculi commonly occur with Paget's disease, causing pain and difficulty when urinating. A UTI commonly causes fever, urgency, burning, and hesitation with urination. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is common in men older than age 50; however, because the client has Paget's disease, the nurse should suspect renal calculi, not benign prostatic hyperplasia. Dehydration causes a decrease in urine production, not a problem with urination.

A client with Paget's disease comes to the hospital and complains of difficulty urinating. The emergency department physician consults urology. What should the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of the client's urination problem?

3 to 6 weeks Identification of the causative organism to initiate appropriate and ongoing antibiotic therapy for infection control. IV antibiotic therapy is administered for 3 to 6 weeks. Oral antibiotics then follow for as long as 3 months.

A client with diabetes punctured his foot with a broken acorn in the yard. Within a week, the client developed osteomyelitis of the foot. The client was admitted for IV antibiotic therapy. How long does the nurse anticipate the client will receive IV antibiotics?

Decreased protein intake Decreased sodium intake Fluid restriction Restricting dietary protein decreases the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, reduces uremic symptoms, and may even postpone the initiation of dialysis for a few months. Restriction of fluid is also part of the dietary prescription because fluid accumulation may occur. As well, sodium is usually restricted to 2 to 3 g/day. Potassium intake is usually limited, not increased, and there is no particular need for vitamin D supplementation.

A client with end-stage kidney disease is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse is working with the client to adapt the client's diet to maximize the therapeutic effect and minimize the risks of complications. The client's diet should include which of the following modifications? Select all that apply.

lethargy muscle cramps bleeding of the oral mucous membranes Lethargy, muscle cramps, and bleeding of the oral mucous membranes are some of the signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure. With chronic renal failure, mental processes progressively slow as electrolyte imbalances become marked and nitrogenous wastes accumulate.

A client's renal failure has become chronic. Which signs and symptoms are associated with chronic renal failure? Select all that apply.

Emergent Emergent surgery occurs when the client requires immediate attention. An elective surgery is classified as a surgery that the client should have. A required surgery means that the client needs to have surgery. An urgent surgery occurs when the client requires prompt attention.

A fractured skull would be classified under which category of surgery based on urgency?

Fever New onset of confusion Early symptoms of UTI in older adults include burning, urgency, and fever. Some patients develop incontinence and delirium with the onset of a UTI. Food cravings, increased thirst, and upper abdominal pain necessitate further assessment and intervention, but none are directly suggestive of a UTI.

A gerontologic nurse is assessing a client who has numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment findings should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI? Select all that apply.

Empty the collection bag at least every 8 hours to reduce bacterial growth. Suspend the drainage bag off the floor. Wash the perineal area with soap and water at least twice daily. Never disconnect the tubing to collect samples, irrigate, or ambulate the patient since this will allow bacteria to enter the closed system. Drainage systems should have an aspiration or puncture port from which a specimen can be obtained. The drainage system should not be disconnected. See Box 28-8 in the text.

A major goal when caring for a catheterized patient is to prevent infection. Select all the nursing actions that apply.

Encourage the client to ambulate at least three times per day. The nurse should encourage the client to ambulate at least three times per day. Ambulating stimulates peristalsis, which helps the bowels to move. It isn't appropriate to apply heat to a surgical wound. Moreover, heat application can't be initiated without a physician order. A tap water enema is typically administered as a last resort after other methods fail. A physician's order is needed with a tap water enema as well. Notifying the physician isn't necessary at this point because the client is exhibiting bowel function by passing flatus.

A nurse asks a client who had abdominal surgery 3 days ago if he has moved his bowels since surgery. The client states, "I haven't moved my bowels, but I am passing gas." How should the nurse intervene?

Establishing an IV line Verifying the surgical site with the client Taking measures to ensure the client's comfort In the holding area, the nurse reviews charts, identifies clients, verifies surgical site and marks site per institutional policy, establishes IV lines, administers medications, if prescribed, and takes measures to ensure each client's comfort. A nurse in the preoperative holding area does not prepare medications to be given by anyone else. A grounding device is applied in the OR.

A nurse in the preoperative holding area is admitting a woman prior to reduction mammoplasty. What should the nurse include in the care given to this client? Select all that apply.

Computed tomography (CT) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Ultrasound X-ray A variety of diagnostic tests can be used to address lower back pain, including CT, MRI, ultrasound, and x-rays. Angiography is not related to the etiology of back pain.

A nurse is caring for a client who is being assessed following complaints of severe and persistent low back pain. The client is scheduled for diagnostic testing in the morning. Which of the following are appropriate diagnostic tests for assessing low back pain? Select all that apply.

first intention. Wounds with a small amount of tissue damage that are the result of procedures that use sterile technique and that are properly closed, such as with stitches, heal by first intention. Granulation tissue is generally not visible and scar formation is minimal. Second intention healing occurs in infected wounds or wounds with edges that aren't approximated. These wounds are usually packed with moist dressings. Third intention healing occurs with deep wounds that aren't sutured together, resulting in a deep, wide scar. There is no fourth intention of wound healing.

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a skin biopsy and has three stitches in place. This wound is healing by:

Immobility Spinal cord injury Sickle-cell anemia Risk factors for renal disease include immobility, sickle-cell anemia, and spinal cord injury. Immobility promotes kidney stone formation. Sickle-cell anemia increases the risk for chronic kidney disease. Spinal cord injury can lead to neurogenic bladder, urinary tract infection, and urinary incontinence.

A nurse is preparing an education program about renal disease. Which risk factor should the nurse include when teaching? Select all that apply.

Calcium Vitamin D A diet rich in calcium and vitamin D protects against skeletal demineralization. Intake of vitamin B12 and potassium does not directly influence the risk for osteoporosis. Calcitonin is not considered to be a dietary nutrient.

A nurse is providing an educational class to a group of older adults at a community senior center. In an effort to prevent osteoporosis, the nurse should encourage participants to ensure that they consume the recommended intake of what nutrients? Select all that apply.

Scrub clothes Caps Scrub clothes and caps are worn in the semi-restricted area. Street clothes are worn in the unrestricted area. Scrub clothes, caps, shoe covers, and masks are worn in the restricted area.

A nurse is working as part of the surgical team in the semi-restricted area. Which of the following would be appropriate to wear? Select all that apply.

Arteriography Open reduction of a fracture Cystoscopy Paracentesis Informed consent is not currently required for insertion of an intravenous or urethral catheter.

A nurse knows that she must obtain a signed informed consent for which of the following procedures? Select all that apply.

The cuffs are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter. The cuffs prevent the dialysate from leaking. The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms. Most of these catheters have two cuffs, which are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit movement, prevent leaks, and provide a barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate.

A nurse on the renal unit is caring for a client who will soon begin peritoneal dialysis. The family of the client asks for education about the peritoneal dialysis catheter that has been placed in the client's peritoneum. The nurse explains the three sections of the catheter and talks about the two cuffs on the dialysis catheter. What would the nurse explain about the cuffs? Select all that apply.

Handing instruments to the surgeon and assistants The responsibilities of a scrub nurse are to assist the surgical team by handing instruments to the surgeon and assistants, preparing sutures, receiving specimens for laboratory examination, and counting sponges and needles. Responsibilities of a circulating nurse include leading the surgical team in a debriefing session, keeping records, adjusting lights, and coordinating activities of other personnel.

A nurse on the surgical team has been assigned the role of scrub nurse. What action by the scrub nurse is appropriate?

Heart rate over 150 beats per minute With malignant hyperthermia, tachycardia with a heart rate greater than 150 beats per minute is often the earliest sign. Generalized muscle rigidity is also an early sign. Rigidity or tetanus-like movement occurs often in the jaw. The rise in body temperature is a late sign that develops rapidly.

A patient develops malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following most likely would be the first indicator of this complication?

Assess peripheral pulses. Compare color and temperature between the involved and uninvolved extremities. Examine the puncture site for swelling and hematoma formation. After the procedure, vital signs are monitored until stable. If the axillary artery was the injection site, blood pressure measurements are taken on the opposite arm. The injection site is examined for swelling and hematoma. Peripheral pulses are palpated, and the color and temperature of the involved extremity are noted and compared with those of the uninvolved extremity. Cold compresses may be applied to the injection site to decrease edema and pain.

A patient had a renal angiography and is being brought back to the hospital room. What nursing interventions should the nurse carry out after the procedure to detect complications? Select all that apply.

The patient can void sooner than with a urethral catheter. The suprapubic catheter allows for more mobility. The suprapubic catheter permits measurement of residual urine without urethral instrumentation. Suprapubic drainage offers certain advantages. Patients can usually void sooner after surgery than those with urethral catheters, and they may be more comfortable. The catheter allows greater mobility, permits measurement of residual urine without urethral instrumentation, and presents less risk of bladder infection.

A patient has a suprapubic catheter inserted postoperatively. What would be the advantages of the suprapubic catheter versus a urethral catheter? Select all that apply.

7 to 10 days Aspirin, a common OTC medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, should be prudently discontinued 7 to 10 days before surgery; otherwise, the patient may be at increased risk for bleeding (Rothrock, 2010).

A patient having a surgical procedure takes aspirin 325 mg daily for prevention of platelet aggregation. When should the patient stop taking the aspirin before the surgery?

Leakage of spinal fluid from the subarachnoid space Size of the spinal needle used Degree of patient hydration Headache may be an aftereffect of spinal anesthesia. Several factors are related to the incidence of headache: the size of the spinal needle used, the leakage of fluid from the subarachnoid space through the puncture site, and the patient's hydration status. Measures that increase cerebrospinal pressure are helpful in relieving headache. These include maintaining a quiet environment, keeping the patient lying flat, and keeping the patient well hydrated. A headache is not likely to occur as the result of the patient lying in the supine position or of an allergic reaction to the medication.

A patient is complaining of a headache after receiving spinal anesthesia. What does the nurse understand may be the cause of the headache related to the spinal anesthesia? (Select all that apply.)

Alkaline phosphatase Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are frequently elevated with osteogenic sarcoma or bone metastasis. Hypercalcemia is also present with bone metastases from breast, lung, or kidney cancer. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, polyuria, cardiac dysrhythmias, seizures, and coma. Hypercalcemia must be identified and treated promptly.

A patient is diagnosed with osteogenic sarcoma. What laboratory studies should the nurse monitor for the presence of elevation?

Pain Erythema Fever When the infection is bloodborne, the onset is usually sudden, occurring often with the clinical and laboratory manifestations of sepsis (e.g., chills, high fever, rapid pulse, general malaise). The systemic symptoms at first may overshadow the local signs. As the infection extends through the cortex of the bone, it involves the periosteum and the soft tissues. The infected area becomes painful, swollen, and extremely tender. The patient may describe a constant, pulsating pain that intensifies with movement as a result of the pressure of the collecting purulent material (i.e., pus). When osteomyelitis occurs from spread of adjacent infection or from direct contamination, there are no manifestations of sepsis. The area is swollen, warm, painful, and tender to touch.

A patient is diagnosed with osteomyelitis of the right leg. What signs and symptoms does the nurse recognize that are associated with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)

Supine, with the knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees A medium to firm, nonsagging mattress (a bed board may be used) is recommended; there is no evidence to support the use of a firm mattress (National Guideline Clearinghouse, 2010). Lumbar flexion is increased by elevating the head and thorax 30 degrees by using pillows or a foam wedge and slightly flexing the knees supported on a pillow. Alternatively, the patient can assume a lateral position with knees and hips flexed (curled position) with a pillow between the knees and legs and a pillow supporting the head (Fig. 42-1). A prone position should be avoided because it accentuates lordosis.

A patient is having low back pain. What position can the nurse suggest to relieve this discomfort?

Apply a compression bandage to the area. Administer a mild analgesic. Inform the patient that a clicking or crackling noise in the joint may persist for a couple of days. The patient having an arthrogram may feel some discomfort or tingling during the procedure. After the arthrogram, a compression elastic bandage may be applied if prescribed, and the joint is usually rested for 12 hours. Strenuous activity should be avoided until approved by the primary provider. The nurse provides additional comfort measures (e.g., mild analgesia, ice) as appropriate and explains to the patient that it is normal to experience clicking or crackling in the joint for 24 to 48 hours after the procedure until the contrast agent or air is absorbed.

A patient is having repeated tears of the joint capsule in the shoulder, and the physician orders an arthrogram. What intervention should the nurse provide after the procedure is completed? (Select all that apply.)

An open reduction of a fracture Informed consent is necessary in the following circumstances: invasive procedures, such as a surgical incision (such as would be involved in an open reduction of a fracture), a biopsy, a cystoscopy, or paracentesis; procedures requiring sedation and/or anesthesia (see Chapter 18 for a discussion of anesthesia); a nonsurgical procedure, such as an arteriography, that carries more than a slight risk to the patient; and procedures involving radiation. Non-invasive procedures such as insertion of an intravenous or urethral catheter or irrigation of the external ear canal would not require informed consent.

A patient is scheduled for a surgical procedure. For which surgical procedure should the nurse prepare an informed consent form for the surgeon to sign?

Oxygen Sevoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic always combined with oxygen. It would not be combined with alfentanil, rocuronium, or lidocaine. Alfentanil and rocuronium are intravenous anesthetics. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic.

A patient is to receive general anesthesia with sevoflurane. The nurse anticipates the need for which of the following?

Adrenal insufficiency Patients who have received corticosteroids are at risk for adrenal insufficiency. They are not at greater risk for obstruction, infection, or hypoglycemia.

A patient preparing for a surgical procedure is taking corticosteroids for Crohn's disease. What should the patient be monitored for?

Corticosteroid injections Surgical excision Aspiration of the cyst A ganglion—a collection of neurologic gelatinous material near the tendon sheaths and joints—appears as a round, firm, cystic swelling, usually on the dorsum of the wrist. It frequently occurs in women younger than 50 years (Porth & Matfin, 2009). The swelling is locally tender and may cause an aching pain. When a tendon sheath is involved, weakness of the finger occurs. Treatment may include aspiration, corticosteroid injection, or surgical excision. After treatment, a compression dressing and immobilization splint are used.

A patient shows the nurse a round, firm nodule on the wrist. The pain is described as aching, with some weakness of the fingers. What treatment does the nurse anticipate assisting with? (Select all that apply.)

The Hemovac drain isn't compressed; instead it's fully expanded. The Hemovac must be compressed to establish suction. If the Hemovac is allowed to fully expand, suction is no longer present, causing the drain to malfunction. The client who requires major abdominal surgery typically produces abdominal drainage despite the client's position. An NG tube drains stomach contents, not incisional contents. Therefore, the NG tube drainage of 400 ml is normal in this client and is not related to the absence of Hemovac drainage. Dry drainage on the dressing indicates leakage from the incision; it isn't related to the Hemovac drainage.

A physician calls the nurse for an update on his client who underwent abdominal surgery 5 hours ago. The physician asks the nurse for the total amount of drainage collected in the Hemovac since surgery. The nurse reports that according to documentation, no drainage has been recorded. When the nurse finishes on the telephone, she goes to assess the client. Which assessment finding explains the absence of drainage?

Maintain a patent airway. Frequently monitor neurological status. Administer blood products per orders. Apply oxygen per orders.

A postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse is caring for a client with the following assessment data: pale, cool, moist skin; thready pulse of 122; blood pressure 78/60; urine output of 25 mL/h; temperature 99.2°F. What interventions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Maintain a patent airway. Frequently monitor neurological status. Administer blood products per orders. Apply oxygen per orders. The client is demonstrating signs and symptoms of shock. A client in shock may lose the ability to protect the airway. Frequent neurological assessment can provide information related to a decrease in oxygen to the brain. Administering blood products may reverse the signs and symptoms of shock. There is an increased need for oxygen when in shock, so it is appropriate to apply oxygen. The head of the bed should not be elevated. The client should be lying flat or in the Trendelenburg position.

A postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse is caring for a client with the following assessment data: pale, cool, moist skin; thready pulse of 122; blood pressure 78/60; urine output of 25 mL/h; temperature 99.2°F. What interventions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Educate on activity limitations. Discuss wound care. Have the spouse review when to notify the physician. Provide information on health promotion topics. The nurse should provide education on activity limitations and wound care, and should review complications that require notification to the physician. The nurse should also provide information regarding health promotion topics, such as weight management and smoking cessation. The client should not make any major decisions or sign any legal forms because of the effects of anesthesia.

A postoperative client is being discharged home after minor surgery. The PACU nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the client and the client's spouse. What actions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

The client can be discharged from the PACU. The Aldrete score is usually 8 to 10 before discharge from the PACU. Clients with a score of less than 7 must remain in the PACU until their condition improves or they are transferred to an intensive care area, depending on their preoperative baseline score.

A postoperative client is being evaluated for discharge and currently has an Aldrete score of 8. Which of the following is the most likely outcome for this client?

Moisten sterile gauze with normal saline and place on the protruding organ.

A postoperative client is moving from the bed to a chair when blood drips from the dressing. The nurse assesses the incision and notes evisceration. What does the nurse do first?

Mask is placed over nose and extends to bottom lip. The mask should fit tightly, covering the nose and mouth. The mask should extend down past the chin. The mask may not effectively cover the mouth if extended only to the bottom lip. The hair, scrub top, drawstring, and shoe covering are all appropriate and do not require intervention.

A student nurse is scheduled to observe a surgical procedure. The nurse provides the student nurse with education on the dress policy and provides all attire needed to enter a restricted surgical zone. Which observation by the nurse requires immediate intervention?

Stable blood pressure Sufficient oxygen saturation Adequate respiratory function A client remains in the PACU until fully recovered from the anesthetic agent. Indicators of recovery include stable blood pressure, adequate respiratory function, and adequate oxygen saturation level compared with baseline. Clients can be released from PACU before resuming oral intake. Pain is often present at discharge from the PACU and can be addressed in other inpatient settings.

A surgical client has been in the PACU for the past 3 hours. What are the determining factors for the client to be discharged from the PACU? Select all that apply.

Identify the client using two identifiers. Verify the surgical site and mark it appropriately. Review the medical records. Identifying the client, verifying and marking the surgical site, and reviewing the medical records all promote safe and effective care while the client is in the holding area. Maintaining an aseptic environment and applying grounding devices are part of the intraoperative phase.

A surgical client has been transferred to the holding area. What nursing intervention(s) promote safe and effective nursing care? Select all that apply.

Age-related physiologic changes Chronic systemic disease Changes in kidney function with normal aging increase the susceptibility of elderly clients to kidney dysfunction and kidney injury. In addition, the presence of chronic, systemic diseases increases the risk of AKI. Low BMI and anxiety are not risk factors for acute renal disease. NPO status is not a risk, provided adequate parenteral hydration is given.

An 84-year-old woman diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit for surgical treatment. The client has been on chemotherapeutic agents to decrease the tumor size prior to the planned surgery. The nurse caring for the client is aware that what precipitating factors in this client may contribute to AKI? Select all that apply.

On his back, with his head lowered, so that the plane of his body meets the horizontal on an angle The Trendelenburg position usually is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis to obtain good exposure by displacing the intestines into the upper abdomen. In this position, the head and body are lowered. The patient is held in position by padded shoulder braces.

An OR nurse needs to assist a patient to the Trendelenburg position. Which of the following is the correct position?

More pleasant onset of anesthesia Ease of administration Need for little equipment With IV anesthesia, the onset is pleasant. Agents have a brief duration of action, and the patient awakens with little nausea and vomiting. The agents also are nonexplosive, require little equipment, and are easy to administer.

An instructor is developing for a class a teaching plan about agents used for intravenous (IV) anesthesia. Which of the following would the instructor include in this plan about these agents and this type of anesthesia? Select all that apply.

Absence of reflexes Diminished ability to communicate Loss of pain sensation Loss of pain sense, reflexes, and ability to communicate subjects the intraoperative client to possible injury. Nausea and low blood pressure are not central factors that contribute to this risk, though they are adverse outcomes.

An intraoperative nurse is applying interventions that will address surgical clients' risks for perioperative positioning injury. What factors contribute to this increased risk for injury in the intraoperative phase of the surgical experience? Select all that apply.

Pentothal Thiopental sodium (Pentothal) is commonly used for induction anesthesia. It may cause laryngospasm. Large doses can cause apnea and cardiovascular depression.

An intravenous anesthetic that, in large doses, has a powerful respiratory depressant effect sufficient to cause apnea and cardiovascular depression is:

Eat foods such as milk, fish, and eggs. Restrict sodium to 2,000 to 3,000 mg daily. Restrict fluid to daily urinary output plus 500 to 800 mL. With hemodialysis, protein should be limited to 1.2 to 1.3 g/kg/24 hr. Potassium, along with sodium and phosphorus should be restricted.

Compliance to a renal diet is a difficult lifestyle change for a patient on hemodialysis. The nurse should reinforce nutritional information. Which of the following teaching points should be included? Select all that apply.

Every 4 hours

During the first 24 hours after surgery, how often will the nurse evaluate the client's temperature?

Notify the surgical team to remove all latex-based items. Allergies to avocados and bananas may indicate an allergy to latex. Although it is necessary to notify the dietary department and physician, it is not an immediate threat, as the patient is receiving nothing by mouth and pain medication will be ordered postoperatively. The nurse manager does not need to be notified of the client's allergies.

During the preoperative assessment, the client mentions allergies to avocados, bananas, and hydrocodone. What is the priority action by the nurse?

The patient avoids communication with the nurse. The patient repeatedly asks questions that have previously been answered. The patient talks incessantly. People express fear in different ways. Some patients may ask repeated questions, regardless of information already shared with them. Others may withdraw, deliberately avoiding communication by reading, watching television, or talking about trivialities. Consequently, the nurse must be empathetic, listen well, and provide information that helps alleviate concerns. If the patient talks about his or her fears, then they are no longer hidden.

How does the nurse determine that the patient may have hidden fears about the impending surgical procedure? (Select all that apply.)

On his back with his head lowered so that the plane of his body meets the horizontal on an The Trendelenburg position usually is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis to obtain good exposure by displacing the intestines into the upper abdomen. In this position, the head and body are lowered. The patient is supported in position by padded shoulder braces (see Fig. 18-5B), bean bags, and foam padding.

How would the operating room nurse place a patient in the Trendelenburg position?

a. Muscle weakness c. Anorexia and constipation e. Shortened QT interval f. Lack of muscle coordination Hypercalcemia is a dangerous complication of bone cancer. The symptoms must be recognized and treatment initiated promptly. Symptoms include muscular weakness, incoordination, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, constipation, electrocardiographic changes (eg, shortened QT interval and ST segment, bradycardia, heart blocks), and altered mental states (eg, confusion, lethargy, psychotic behavior).

Hypercalcemia is a dangerous complication of bone cancer. Therefore, nursing assessment includes evaluation of symptoms that require immediate treatment. Which of the following are signs/symptoms that are indictors of an elevated serum calcium? Select all that apply.

Surgical debridement In chronic osteomyelitis, antibiotics are adjunctive therapy to surgical debridement.

In chronic osteomyelitis, antibiotics are adjunctive therapy in which situation?

the client's cultural beliefs A client's cultural beliefs may influence whether medical and nursing interventions are acceptable or unacceptable to the client.

In developing the plan of care for the intraoperative client, the nurse recognizes that it is essential to consider:

15 minutes. Pulse rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate are recorded at least every 15 minutes for the first hour and every 30 minutes for the next 2 hours.

In the immediate postoperative period, vital signs are taken at least every

Diabetes insipidus Glomerulonephritis Severe renal damage Disorders or conditions that cause decreased urine specific gravity (ie, dilute urine) include diabetes insipidus, glomerulonephritis, and severe renal damage that may cause a fixed specific gravity of 1.010. Etiologies associated with increased urine specific gravity include diabetes mellitus, patients who have recently received high density radiopaque dyes, and fluid deficit.

In which of the following renal disorders would one suspect a decreased urine specific gravity? Select all that apply

preoperative Preoperative care begins with the decision to perform surgery and continues until the client reaches the operating area. During this time, the nurse will physically prepare the client for surgery, and nursing actions may include skin preparation, hair removal, and food and fluids management.

In which phase of perioperative care will the nurse prepare the client's skin, encourage the client to void, and remove the client's dentures?

Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus causes 70% to 80% of bone infections. Proteus species, Pseudomonas species, and E. coli are frequently found in osteomyelitis, they do not cause the majority of bone infections.

Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which microorganism?

Halothane Halothane is an example of an inhalation anesthetic. Fentanyl, succinylcholine, and propofol are commonly used intravenous agents for anesthesia.

Nursing students are reviewing information about agents used for anesthesia. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which of the following as an inhalation anesthetic?

Packing the wound bed with sterile saline-soaked dressing and covering it with a dry dressing

On postoperative day 2, a client requires care for a surgical wound using second-intention healing. What type of dressing change should the nurse anticipate doing?

Review the scheduled procedure, site, and client. According to the 2009 National Patient Safety Goals, accurate identification of the client, procedure, and operative site is essential.

Once the operating team has assembled in the room, the circulating nurse calls for a "time out." What action should the nurse take during the time out?

Reassure the client that nursing staff will provide care until he or she is ready. Discuss the change in function and let the client know what to expect when recovery from surgery is complete. Help the client gain independence by reinforcing that self-care is quite manageable and providing time for practice. The following are all activities that would help in achieving the expected outcome: reassure the client that nursing staff will provide care until he or she is ready; discuss the change in function and let the client know what to expect when recovery from surgery is complete; and help the client gain independence by reinforcing that self-care is quite manageable and providing time for practice. Gradual exposure is part of rehabilitation. The nurse supports the client's process.

One of the potential problems for a client with a urinary diversion is disturbed body image related to change in appearance and function. The expected outcome is that the client will accept the altered appearance and perform self-care. Which activities would help in achieving that expected outcome? Select all that apply.

Cosmetic Diagnostic Palliative Reasons people have surgery include cosmetic reasons, diagnostic procedures, palliative surgeries, exploratory surgeries, and curative surgeries. Options D and E are distractors.

Several of the clients at the clinic are preparing to have surgery within the next 2 weeks. They are completing preoperative paperwork today with their visit. What are some of the reasons that people might need to have surgery? Select all that apply.

Hypotension Dysrhythmias Hypertension The primary cardiovascular complications seen in the PACU include hypotension and shock, hemorrhage, hypertension, and dysrhythmias. Heart murmurs are not adverse reactions to surgery. Hypervolemia is not a common cardiovascular complication seen in the PACU, though fluid balance must be vigilantly monitored.

The PACU nurse is caring for an adult client who had a left lobectomy. The nurse is assessing the client frequently for airway patency and cardiovascular status. The nurse should know that the most common cardiovascular complications seen in the PACU include what? Select all that apply.

Denies sensation to perineum and lower abdomen

The anesthesiologist administered a transsacral conduction block. Which documentation by the nurse is consistent with the anesthesia being administered?

Secretion of prostaglandins Regulation of blood pressure Vitamin D synthesis Functions of the kidney include secretion of prostaglandins, regulation of blood pressure, and synthesis of aldosterone and vitamin D. The pancreas secretes insulin. The body does not produce Vitamin B.

The client asks the nurse about the functions of the kidney. Which should the nurse include when responding to the client? Select all that apply.

Trauma, such as penetrating wounds or compound fractures Vascular insufficiency in clients with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease Surgical contamination, such as pin sites of skeletal traction The following are all causes of osteomyelitis: trauma, such as penetrating wounds or compound fractures; vascular insufficiency in clients with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease; and surgical contamination, such as pin sites of skeletal traction. Osteoporosis is not a cause of osteomyelitis.

The client has just been diagnosed with osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, resulting in limited blood supply to the bone, inflammation of and pressure on the tissue, bone necrosis, and formation of new bone around devitalized bone tissue. What are possible causes of osteomyelitis? Select all that apply.

b. Increased fatty tissue prolongs elimination of anesthesia. c. Decreased ability to compensate for hypoxia increases the risk of an embolism. e. Loss of collagen increases the risk of skin complications. f. Reduced tactile sensitivity can lead to assessment and communication problems. The elderly usually have low plasma proteins, which results in free or unbound anesthetic agents. The liver is usually reduced in size, which inactivates many anesthetic agents. Refer to Table 5-2 in the text.

The hazards of surgery for the aged increase as the number and severity of coexisting health problems increase. Which of the following are structural or functional changes in the elderly that impact the surgical experience? Select all that apply.

Supine, with the knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees. Lumbar flexion is increased by elevating the head and thorax 30 degrees using pillows or a foam wedge and slightly flexing the knees supported on a pillow. Alternatively, the patient can assume a lateral position with knees and hips flexed (curled position) with a pillow between the knees and legs and a pillow supporting the head. A prone position should be avoided because it accentuates lordosis (inward curvature of the spine).

The nurse advises a patient that the best position to ease low back pain is:

Leukocytosis Abdominal distention The nurse should monitor the client for the following signs and symptoms of peritonitis: leukocytosis, abdominal pain and distention, absence of bowel sounds (paralytic ileus), fever, muscle rigidity, guarding, and nausea and vomiting.

The nurse caring for a client after urinary diversion surgery monitors the client closely for peritonitis by assessing for which sign(s)? Select all that apply.

Tachycardia (HR >150 bpm). The initial symptoms of malignant hyperthermia are related to cardiovascular and musculoskeletal activity. In addition to the tachycardia (often the earliest sign), sympathetic nervous stimulation leads to ventricular arrhythmia, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, oliguria, and, eventually, cardiac arrest.

The nurse caring for a patient who is at risk for malignant hyperthermia subsequent to general anesthesia would assess for the most common early sign of:

"I will support my incision with my hands when I do my coughing and deep breathing exercises." Splinting of the incision provides support to the incision and helps to control pain.

The nurse concludes that teaching about pain management was effective when the client states:

Assisting the patient with leg exercises Encouraging early ambulation Avoiding placement of pillows or blanket rolls under the patient's knees

The nurse determines that a patient is at risk for the development of thrombophlebitis. What interventions can the nurse provide to prevent this? (Select all that apply.)

Assisting the patient with leg exercises Encouraging early ambulation Avoiding placement of pillows or blanket rolls under the patient's knees The benefits of early ambulation and leg exercises in preventing deep vein thrombosis cannot be overemphasized, and these activities are recommended for all patients, regardless of their risk. It is important to avoid the use of blanket rolls, pillow rolls, or any form of elevation that can constrict vessels under the knees. Compression stockings should be worn all the time, not just at night. Massage would be contraindicated due to the risk of dislodging a clot.

The nurse determines that a patient is at risk for the development of thrombophlebitis. What interventions can the nurse provide to prevent this? (Select all that apply.)

To notify the surgeon Preoperative medication can impair the thinking ability of the client. FFor informed consent to be valid, the client must be competent to give consent. The surgery will be canceled.

The nurse discovers that the client did not sign the operative consent before receiving the preoperative medication. The appropriate nursing action is:

A gastrostomy tube Informed consent is required for invasive procedures that require sedation and are associated with more than usual risk to the client.

The nurse expects informed consent to be obtained for insertion of:

Cleanse around the perineum and urethral meatus after each bowel movement. Drink liberal amounts of fluid. Void no more frequently than every 6 hours to allow urine to dilute the bacteria in the bladder. With an infection, fluids should be increased up to 4 L/day, but caffeinated beverages should be avoided because they can irritate the urinary tract. Therefore, voiding more than seven times per day will help clear out bacteria from the bladder. See Box 28-3 in the text.

The nurse has been asked to provide health information to a female patient diagnosed with cystitis. Select all the teaching points that apply.

"The nurse will explain the details of the surgery before I sign a consent." Further instruction would be needed to clarify that the physician, not the nurse, explains the details of the surgery and obtains voluntary consent for the procedure. It is correct that preoperative instructions must be followed prior to surgery for the safety of the client, medical records are present for review prior to surgery, and the physician speaks with the family following the procedure and provides instructions for discharge.

The nurse has provided preoperative instructions to a client scheduled for surgery at an ambulatory care center. Which statement, made by the client, would indicate that further instruction is needed?

Dietary history Family history of renal stones Medication history Dietary and medication histories and family history of renal stones are obtained to identify factors predisposing the client to stone formation. When caring for a client with renal stones it would not normally be a priority to assess the vaccination history or surgical history, since these factors are not usually related to the etiology of kidney stones.

The nurse is assessing a client admitted with renal stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters should the nurse address? Select all that apply.

Any voiding disorders The patient's occupation The presence of hypertension or diabetes When obtaining the health history, the nurse should inquire about the following: dysuria (painful or difficult urination), as well as when during voiding (i.e., at initiation or at termination of voiding) this occurs; occupational, recreational, or environmental exposure to chemicals (plastics, pitch, tar, rubber); hypertension; or diabetes.

The nurse is assessing a patient upon admission to the hospital. What significant nursing assessment data is relevant to renal function? Select all that apply.

Dehiscence Hematoma A hematoma can form within the wound and result in delayed healing. Dehiscence is a disruption of the surgical incision. Atelecstasis, thromobophlebitis, and paralytic ileus are potential complications following surgery. Atelecstasis is a collapse of the alveoli, which interferes with gas exchange. Thromobophlebitis is the development of a blood clot, usually in the lower extremity. Paralytic ileus is an absence of intestinal peristalsis.

The nurse is assessing the client for wound complications following surgery. For which clinical manifestation should the nurse assess? Select all that apply.

During the postoperative phase The nurse realizes that documentation of vital signs in the recovery room begins the postoperative phase of perioperative care. The preoperative phase occurs until the client reaches the operating area. The intra operative phase includes the entire surgical procedure until the transfer to the recovery area. There is no transfer phase of perioperative care.

The nurse is assigned a client scheduled for an outpatient colonoscopy in an ambulatory care setting. During which phase of perioperative care would the nurse document the admission vital signs in the recovery room?

Jehovah's Witnesses Jehovah's Witnesses decline blood transfusions for religious reasons.

The nurse is aware that a religious group that refuses blood transfusions for religious reasons is:

Avoid touching sterile items unless necessary. Alert the surgical team of any breaches of sterile technique. Wear a long-sleeved, sterile gown and gloves. Nursing interventions to prevent infection during the intraoperative phase include wearing appropriate attire; avoiding touching sterile items; and alerting the surgical team of breaches of sterile technique. Artificial nails are banned for OR personnel, because they can harbor microorganisms. Excess hair is removed with clippers, not a razor.

The nurse is aware that infection is a potential complication of surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent infection? Select all that apply.

Encourage the client to move legs frequently and do leg exercises.

The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. What nursing interventions help prevent venous stasis and other circulatory complications in a client who has undergone surgery?

Place sterile dressings moistened with normal saline over the protruding organs and tissues.

The nurse is caring for a client who develops an evisceration. What nursing intervention is most appropriate when an evisceration occurs in the surgical wound of a client who has undergone surgery?

Pulselessness Neurovascular checks (circulation, sensation, motion) are essential with a crushing injury. The absence of a pulse is a critical assessment finding to report to the physician. The other options are symptoms that need regular assessment.

The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a crushing injury of the lower extremities. Which of the following symptoms is essential to be reported to the physician?

Quantity of output Color of the output Visible characteristics of the output Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Odor and pH are not normally assessed.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned to the postsurgical unit following renal surgery. When assessing the client's output from surgical drains, the nurse should assess what parameters? Select all that apply.

Assess for the presence of peripheral edema. Assess the client's BP. Most clients with acute glomerular inflammation have some degree of edema and hypertension. Dysrhythmias, RLQ pain, and changes in mental status are not among the most common manifestations of acute glomerular inflammation.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute glomerular inflammation. When assessing for the characteristic signs and symptoms of this health problem, the nurse should include which assessments? Select all that apply.

Providing emotional support for the family Monitoring for complications Participating in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances Providing nursing care for primary disorder (trauma) The nurse has an important role in caring for the client with AKI. The nurse monitors for complications, participates in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, assesses the client's progress and response to treatment, and provides physical and emotional support. Additionally, the nurse keeps family members informed about the client's condition, helps them understand the treatments, and provides psychological support. Although the development of AKI may be the most serious problem, the nurse continues to provide nursing care indicated for the primary disorder (e.g., burns, shock, trauma, obstruction of the urinary tract). The nurse does not direct the client's nutritional status; the dietician and the

The nurse is caring for a client's status after a motor vehicle accident. The client has developed AKI. What are the nurse's roles in caring for this client? Select all that apply.

Tachycardia The initial symptoms of malignant hyperthermia are related to cardiovascular and musculoskeletal activity. Tachycardia (an abnormally high heart rate) is often the earliest sign. Sympathetic nervous stimulation also leads to ventricular dysrhythmia, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, oliguria, and, later, cardiac arrest. With the abnormal transport of calcium, rigidity or tetanuslike movements occur, often in the jaw. Generalized muscle rigidity is one of the earliest signs.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is at risk for malignant hyperthermia subsequent to general anesthesia. What is the most common early sign that the nurse should assess for?

Cardiovascular system Gastrointestinal system Pulmonary system Like age, obesity increases the risk and severity of complications associated with surgery. The estimation of about 25 additional miles of blood vessels needed for every 30 pounds of excess weight results in increased cardiac demand (Alvarex, Brodsky, Lemmens, et al., 2010). The patient tends to have shallow respirations when supine, increasing the risk of hypoventilation and postoperative pulmonary complications. The acquired physical characteristics of short thick necks, large tongues, recessed chins, and redundant pharyngeal tissue, associated with increased oxygen demand and decreased pulmonary reserves, impedes intubation (Haupt & Reed, 2010). Obesity also affects the gastrointestinal system.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is obese prior to a surgical procedure. What surgical complications positively correlated with obesity should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)

The client expresses interest in the dressing change. The client is willing to look at the incision during a dressing change. The client assists in opening the packages of dressing material for the nurse. While changing the dressing, the nurse has an opportunity to teach the client how to care for the incision and change the dressings at home. The nurse observes for indicators of the client's readiness to learn, such as looking at the incision, expressing interest, or assisting in the dressing change. Expressing dislike and wanting to delegate to a family member do not suggest readiness to learn.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who needs daily dressing changes. The client is 3 days postoperative and is scheduled for discharge the next day. Until now, the client has refused to learn how to change her dressing. What would indicate to the nurse the client's possible readiness to learn how to change her dressing? Select all that apply.

The client and physician are focusing on symptom relief not a cure. The nurse realizes a palliative surgical procedure is focused on the relief of symptoms or enhancement of function without a cure. Diagnostic surgical procedures provide additional information for medical diagnosis and treatment. Cosmetic surgery procedures are elective, with the purpose of improving body appearance. Reconstructive surgery corrects a deformity.

The nurse is caring for the client in the preoperative period and documenting rationale for a palliative surgical procedure. Which rationale is most appropriate?

The client will experience a tolerable level of pain. The client will demonstrate wound care. The client will maintain adequate nutritional intake. Pain is a priority problem for the client with osteomyelitis, and it can interfere with mobility of joint. In this situation, the client's jaw is the site of infection. Pain in this location can interfere with nutritional intake of the individual. Chronic osteomyelitis presents with a nonhealing ulcer over the infected bone with a connecting sinus that will intermittently and spontaneously drain pus. The client will need to be able to provide wound care in the home setting. Remaining free from injury and maintaining an effective airway clearance are not priority goals for the client.

The nurse is caring for the client with chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw with a draining wound. Which client goal is a priority for the client?

Acute pain Disturbed body image Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

The nurse is caring for the client with chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw with a draining wound. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the client? Select all that apply.

Dehiscence

The nurse is changing the dressing of a client who is 4 days postoperative with an abdominal wound. The nurse has changed this dressing daily since surgery. Today, the nurse notes increased serosanguinous drainage, wound edges not approximated, and a ¼-inch (6 mm) gap at the lower end of the incision. The nurse concludes which of the following conditions exists?

Dehiscence Dehiscence is a disruption of the incision.

The nurse is changing the dressing of a client who is 4 days postoperative with an abdominal wound. The nurse has changed this dressing daily since surgery. Today, the nurse notes increased serosanguinous drainage, wound edges not approximated, and a ¼-inch (6 mm) gap at the lower end of the incision. The nurse concludes which of the following conditions exists?

May have a latex allergy. Most condoms are made of latex. The client who experiences itching, swelling, hives, or other symptoms after contact with a condom may have a latex allergy.

The nurse is conducting a health history of a preoperative client. The client shares that she experienced vaginal itching and burning and labial swelling after her partner tried a new brand of condoms. The nurse suspects that the client:

Provide all discharge instructions in writing. Provide the nurse's or surgeon's contact information. Give prescriptions to the client. Before discharging the client, the nurse provides written instructions, prescriptions and the nurse's or surgeon's telephone number. Administration of an opioid would necessitate further monitoring to ensure safety. A dressing change would not normally be ordered on the day of surgery.

The nurse is discharging a client home from an outpatient surgery center. The nurse has reviewed all of the discharge instructions with the client and her caregiver. What else should the nurse do before discharging the client from the facility? Select all that apply.

Tumor excision An example of a curative surgical procedure is tumor excision. A biopsy, a face-lift, and the placement of a gastrostomy tube are not examples of curative surgical procedures.

The nurse is educating a community group about types of surgery. A member of the group asks the nurse to describe a type of surgery that is curative. What response by the nurse is true?

Masks should cover the nose and mouth completely. You must change masks between treating clients. Masks should fit tightly. Masks are changed between clients. Regardless of time, masks should not be worn outside the surgical department. Masks should fit tightly and cover the nose and the mouth completely. The mask must be either on or off; it must not be allowed to hang around the neck. Masks must be worn at all times in the restricted zone. The semirestricted zone requires scrubs and cap.

The nurse is educating new employees about wearing masks in the operating room. What information should the nurse provide? Select all that apply.

Tendon Tendons are cordlike structures that attach muscles to the periosteum of the bone. Ligaments consisting of fibrous tissue connect two adjacent, freely movable bones. Cartilage is a firm dense type of connective tissue that reduces friction between articular surfaces, absorbs shock, and reduces the stress on joint surfaces. A joint is the junction between 2 or more bones.

A client experiences a musculoskeletal injury that involves the structure that connects a muscle to the bone. The nurse understands that this injury involves which of the following?

"I will avoid prolonged sitting or walking." The nurse encourages the patient to alternate lying, sitting, and walking activities frequently, and advises the patient to avoid sitting, standing, or walking for long periods.

The nurse has educated a patient with low back pain about techniques to relieve the back pain and prevent further complications. What statement by the patient shows understanding of the education the nurse provided?

Broccoli Calcium is important for the prevention of osteoporosis. Broccoli is high in calcium.

What food can the nurse suggest to the client at risk for osteoporosis?

Temporomandibular disorder The disorder can be confused with trigeminal neuralgia and migraine headaches. The client experiences clicking of the jaw when moving the joint, or the jaw can lock, which interferes with opening the mouth. Loose teeth will not cause a clicking of the jaw. The client does not have a dislocated jaw.

A client has been treated for migraine headaches for several months and comes to the clinic stating he is getting no better. The nurse is talking with the client and hears an audible click when the client is moving his jaw. What does the nurse suspect may be happening?

Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus causes over 50% of bone infections. Other organisms include Proteus vulgaris and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, as well as E. coli.

A client is diagnosed with osteomyelitis. This is most commonly caused by which of the following?

An electromyography An electromyography tests the electrical potential of muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration. A serum calcium test evaluates the calcium in the blood. An arthroscopy assesses changes in the joint. An MRI identifies abnormalities in the targeted area.21

A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is suspected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration?

"I should use my heating pad this evening to reduce some of the pain in my knee." The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll use a heating pad to reduce pain the evening of the procedure. The client shouldn't use heat at the procedure site during the first 24 hours because doing so may increase localized swelling. Ice is indicated during this time. Elevating the extremity helps reduce swelling. The client may experience some discomfort after the procedure for which the physician may order medication. Bruising and swelling are common after an arthroscopy.

A client undergoes an arthroscopy at the outpatient clinic. After the procedure, the nurse provides discharge teaching. Which response by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Serous drainage When the client undergoes an invasive knee joint examination, the nurse should inspect the knee area for swelling, bleeding, and serous drainage. An invasive joint examination does not cause lack of sleep or appetite, depression, or shock. The client may be in shock due to the injury itself.

A client undergoes an invasive joint examination of the knee. The nurse would closely monitor the client for which of the following?

Vitamin D-fortified milk The nurse should advise the client to include dietary sources of vitamin D, such as fatty fish, vitamin D-fortified milk, and cereals. These foods protect against bone loss and decrease the risk of fracture by facilitating the absorption of calcium from food and supplements. Red meat, bananas, and green vegetables do not facilitate calcium absorption from food and supplements.

A client with a musculoskeletal injury is instructed to alter the diet. The objective of altering the diet is to facilitate the absorption of calcium from food and supplements. Considering the food intake objective, which food item should the nurse encourage the client to include in the diet?

Surgical debridement In chronic osteomyelitis, surgical debridement is used when the wound fails to respond to antibiotic therapy. Wound packing, vitamin supplements, and wound irrigation are not the standard of care when treating chronic osteomyelitis.

A client with chronic osteomyelitis has undergone 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy. The wound appearance has not improved. What action would the nurse anticipate to promote healing?

The nurse is caring for this client on the intensive care unit. This client is critically ill; his diagnosis and immunosuppression place him at a high risk for infection. The most appropriate place for this client is in an intensive care unit, where the nurse can focus exclusively on his health promotion. This client shouldn't be on the oncology floor. This client requires close monitoring. The nurse caring for this client shouldn't also be caring for other clients who may require frequent interventions.

A nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. This client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and his immune system is currently depressed. Which assignment is the most appropriate for the nurse caring for this client?

Ossification and calcification Ossification and calcifications the body's process to transform osteoblasts into mature bone cells called osteocytes. Osteocytes are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Resorption and remodeling are involved in bone destruction. Epiphyses and diaphysesare bone tissues that provide strength and support to the human skeleton.

A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. When instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells?

Bone fracture Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis; it results when loss of calcium and phosphate increases the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause — not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, but a negative calcium balance isn't a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager's hump results from bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature.

A nurse is caring for an elderly female client with osteoporosis. When teaching the client, the nurse should include information about which major complication?

The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods. Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg per day. Clients usually can get the recommended daily requirement of calcium by eating a varied diet. Osteoporosis doesn't show up on ordinary X-rays until 30% of bone has been lost. Bone densitometry, however, can detect bone loss of 3% or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely for women older than 35 who are at risk for osteoporosis. Strenuous exercise won't cause fractures. Although supplements are available, they aren't always necessary.

A nurse is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which teaching point is correct?

Immobilize the client's arm. Signs of a fracture in an extremity include pain, deformity, swelling, discoloration, and loss of function. When a nurse suspects a fracture, she should immobilize the extremity before moving the body part. It isn't appropriate for the nurse to move the client into a sitting position without further assessment. The client shouldn't walk to the nurses' station; he should stay where he is until help arrives.

A nurse notices a client lying on the floor at the bottom of the stairs. He's alert and oriented and states that he fell down several stairs. He denies pain other than in his arm, which is swollen and appears deformed. After calling for help, what should the nurse do?

Supination.

A nurse practitioner assesses a patient's movement in his left hand after a cast is removed. The nurse asks the patient to turn his wrist so the palm of his hand is facing up. This movement is known as:

Intervertebral discs become thin. Muscles atrophy. Muscle fibrosis increases. Collagen increases

A nurse practitioner provides health teaching to the family of a 75-year-old woman who has trouble walking independently. The nurse reviews age-related changes to the musculoskeletal system with the family. Which of the following statements would the nurse include in her teaching? Select all that apply.

Yogurt and cheese. Yogurt and cheese are excellent sources of calcium. The other choices are low-calcium foods.

A nurse provides nutritional health teaching to a 52-year-old who had two fractures in 1 year. Besides recommending supplemental calcium, the nurse suggests a high-calcium diet. The nurse would recommend that the patient increase her intake of:

"CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by compression of the median nerve at the wrist." Carpal tunnel syndrome is an entrapment neuropathy that occurs when the median nerve at the wrist is compressed by a thickened flexor tendon sheath, skeletal encroachment, edema, or a soft tissue mass.

A patient diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) asks the nurse about numbness in the fingers and pain in the wrist. In responding to the patient, how would the nurse best describe CTS?

Serial x-rays Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

A patient has a fracture that is being treated with open rigid compression plate fixation devices. How will the progress of bone healing be monitored?

Flaccidity A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as flaccid; a muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. Conditions characterized by lower motor neuron destruction (e.g., muscular dystrophy), denervated muscle becomes atonic (soft and flabby) and atrophies.

A patient has had a stroke and is unable to move the right upper and lower extremity. During assessment the nurse picks up the arm and it is limp and without tone. How would the nurse document this finding?

-Apply a compression bandage to the area. -Administer a mild analgesic. -Inform the patient that a clicking or crackling noise in the joint may persist for a couple of days. The patient having an arthrogram may feel some discomfort or tingling during the procedure. After the arthrogram, a compression elastic bandage may be applied if prescribed, and the joint is usually rested for 12 hours. Strenuous activity should be avoided until approved by the primary provider. The nurse provides additional comfort measures (e.g., mild analgesia, ice) as appropriate and explains to the patient that it is normal to experience clicking or crackling in the joint for 24 to 48 hours after the procedure until the contrast agent or air is absorbed.

A patient is having repeated tears of the joint capsule in the shoulder, and the physician orders an arthrogram. What intervention should the nurse provide after the procedure is completed? (Select all that apply.)

Osteoblasts Osteoblasts secrete bone matrix (mostly collagen), in which inorganic minerals, such as calcium salts, are deposited. This process of ossification and calcification transforms the blast cells into mature bone cells, called osteocytes, which are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Cortical bone is dense hard bone found in the long shafts; cancellous bone is spongy bone found in the irregular rounded edges of bone.

An instructor is describing the process of bone development. Which of the following would the instructor describe as being responsible for the process of ossification?

"After menopause, the body's bone density declines, resulting in a gradual loss of height." The nurse should tell the client that after menopause, the loss of estrogen leads to a loss in bone density, resulting in a loss of height. This client's history doesn't indicate spinal compression. Telling the client that measuring tools used to obtain the client's height may have a discrepancy or that the posture begins to stoop after middle age doesn't address the client's question.

During a routine physical examination on a 75-year-old female client, a nurse notes that the client is 5 feet, 3/8 inches (1.6 m) tall. The client states, "How is that possible? I was always 5 feet and 1/2? (1.7 m) tall." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?

Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage, but it is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site. Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone's former structural arrangement. During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur?

Perform neuromuscular assessment every hour. The priority nursing intervention is to perform a neuromuscular assessment every hour. Early detection of neurological and perfusion problems is critical.

The nurse is caring for a client following foot surgery. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the nursing care plan?

prednisone (Deltasone) Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation, resulting in increased risk for fractures.

The nurse is conducting an admission history of a client admitted with a fracture. The nurse recognizes that which of the client's medications placed the client at risk for fractures?

places the load close to the body. Instructions for the client with low back pain should include that, when lifting, the client should avoid overreaching. The client should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees, and tighten the abdominal muscles; use a wide base of support; and use a back brace to protect the back. Bending at the hips increases the strain on the back muscles when lifting.

The nurse is educating a client with low back pain on proper lifting techniques. The nurse recognizes that the education was effective when the client

atrophy of right calf muscle. Girth of an extremity may increase as a result of exercise, edema, or bleeding into the muscle. However, a client with right-sided hemiplegia is unable to use the right lower extremity. This client may experience atrophy of the muscles from lack of use, which results in a subsequent decrease in the girth of the calf muscle.

The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of a client in a nursing home who had a stroke 2 years ago and who has right-sided hemiplegia. The nurse notes that the girth of the client's right calf is 2 inches less in diameter than the left calf. The nurse attributes the decreased girth to

Dusky or mottled skin color Normally, skin color would be similar to the color in other body areas. Pale or dusky skin color indicates an abnormality that needs to be reported. Presence of pulses, capillary refill of 3 seconds, and warm skin are normal findings.

The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which of the following would the nurse report?

Kyphosis Common deformities of the spine include kyphosis, which is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine that causes a bowing or rounding of the back, leading to a hunchback or slouching posture. The second deformity of the spine is referred to as lordosis, or swayback, an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine. A third deformity is scoliosis, which is a lateral curving deviation of the spine (Fig. 40-4). Osteoporosis is abnormal excessive bone loss.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. What does the nurse understand this common finding is known as?

Administering the prescribed analgesic. After an arthroscopy, the client's entire leg is elevated without flexing the knee. A cold pack is placed over the bulky dressing covering the site where the arthroscope was inserted. A prescribed analgesic is administered as necessary. The client is allowed to resume his or her usual diet as tolerated.

The nurse is providing care to a client following a knee arthroscopy. Which of the following would the nurse expect to include in the client's plan of care?

Gout Gout is a medical condition with symptoms of acute inflammatory arthritis that is caused by high levels of uric acid in the blood. The client has uric acid crystal deposits in the joint. The nurse would assess joint areas for pain, redness, and swelling. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic disease of joint inflammation and pain. Lupus erythematous is a chronic tissue disorder of the connective tissue and is known to have an elevated antinuclear antibody level. Osteoporosis has a deficiency in the serum calcium level.

The nurse is reporting on the results of client blood work to the oncoming nurse. Upon reviewing the data, it is noted that the client has an elevated uric acid level. Which inflammatory process would the nurse screen for on shift rounds?

Parkinson's disease Parkinson's disease is characterized by a shuffling gait.

The nurse observes the client and notes a shuffling gait. The nurse recognizes this finding is consistent with:

Promote pain relief and quality of life Treatment of metastatic bone cancer is palliative.

The nurse recognizes that goal of treatment for metastatic bone cancer is to:

Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising outdoors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, quitting smoking, and consuming alcohol and caffeine in moderation.

The nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?

Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises outdoors Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising outdoors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine in moderation.

The nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?

diaphysis. The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

The nurse working in the emergency department receives a call from the x-ray department communicating that the client the nurse is caring for has a fracture in the shaft of the tibia. The nurse tells the physician that the client's fracture is in the

Electromyograph (EMG) The EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and the nerves leading to them. The test is performed to evaluate muscle weakness, pain, and disability. An arthrocentesis, bone scan, and biopsy does not measure muscle weakness.

The nurse would expect which of the following diagnostic tests to be ordered for a patient with lower extremity muscle weakness?

Increased diameter of the calf Increasing diameter of the calf can be indicative of bleeding into the muscle. The other findings are within normal limits.

Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to suspect compartment syndrome in the client following a bone biopsy?

Leukocytosis and localized bone pain Clinical manifestations of osteomyelitis include signs and symptoms of sepsis and localized infection.

Which assessment findings would the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with osteomyelitis?

Adduction Adduction is moving toward the midline. Pronation is turning inward. Abduction is moving away from the midline. Eversion is turning outward.

Which body movement involves moving toward the midline?

A small-framed, thin 45-year-old white woman Small-framed, thin white women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. African American women have a greater bone density and thus are less susceptible to osteoporosis. Men have an increased bone mass and do not have hormonal changes, and do not acquire osteoporosis as frequently and get it at a later age. Asthma does not increase the risk for osteoporosis.

Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for osteoporosis?

Caucasian women Small-framed, nonobese Caucasian women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. Asian women of slight build are at risk for low peak bone mineral density. African American women, who have a greater bone mass than Caucasian women, are less susceptible to osteoporosis. Men have a greater peak bone mass and do not experience sudden estrogen reduction.

Which group is at the greatest risk for osteoporosis?

Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain upon passive stretch, and absence of feeling. Cool skin temperature is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Unrelenting pain is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Pain upon passive stretch is an indicator of neurovascular compromise.

Which is an indicator of neurovascular compromise?

Arthrography Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist. Meniscography is a distractor for this question. Bone densitometry is used to estimate bone mineral density. An EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and nerves leading to them.

Which is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or wrist?

Decreased height Clients with osteoporosis become shorter over time.

Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a client who has had osteoporosis for several years?

Carpal bones in the wrist Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist. Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow. The hip is a ball-and-socket joint. The joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint.

Which of the following is an example of a gliding joint?

Knee Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow. The hip is a ball-and-socket joint. The joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint. Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist.

Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint?

Bisphosphonates Bisphosphonates, along with calcium and vitamin D supplements, are the first-line medications given to prevent/treat osteoporosis. The other medications are prescribed after these drugs are used.

Which of the following is the first-line medication that would be used to treat and prevent osteoporosis?

Knee The most common site for joint effusion is the knee. If inflammation or fluid is suspected in a joint, consultation with a provider is indicated. The elbow, hip, and shoulder are not the most common site of joint effusion.

Which of the following is the most common site of joint effusion?

Report joint crackling or clicking noises occurring after the second day. After undergoing arthrography, the client must be informed that he or she may hear crackling or clicking noises in the joints for up to 2 days, but if noises occur beyond this time, they should be reported. These noises may indicate the presence of a complication, and therefore should not be ignored or treated by the client. Massage is not indicated. The client need not be asked to avoid sunlight or dairy products.

Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan for a client who has undergone arthrography?

Abnormal sensations Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.

Which statement describes paresthesia?