Mental Health Assessment

In order to properly diagnose a patient with Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD), the behavioral health provider is aware a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development must persist for at least? A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 12 months D. 18 months

B. 6 months

Which of the following actions is most indicative of a "red flag" for autism spectrum disorder and warrants further assessment by the Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP)? A. A 6-month-old male who demands attention and help by yelling or dropping objects B. A 12-month-old female who demonstrates specific preferences for certain individuals and toys C. An 18-month-old female who displays signs of regression and a moderate deterioration in social behaviors D. A 12-month-old male who repeats sounds or movements for attention

C. An 18-month-old female who displays signs of regression and a moderate deterioration in social behaviors

A 24-year-old female patient has been referred to your practice by her therapist for frequent treatment failures in group settings. Patient has a history of gang affiliation and lengthy arrest record for offenses that include credit card theft, assault, and multiple DUIs. Patient was observed to confrontational and cruel to other group members, and after being asked to leave a group session the patient proceeded to slash the therapist's car tires. When confronted by police, patient began to rationalize her behavior and stated, "She had it coming to her". What diagnosis must likely fit this patient's profile? A. Conduct Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Bipolar 1

C. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Which personality disorder would be grouped in cluster B? A. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Schizotypal personality Disorder

C. Antisocial Personality Disorder

One diagnostic criteria of this eating disorder is that the person does not have a distorted sense of body weight or shape. A. Anorexia B. Bulimia C. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder D. Pica

C. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

Which of the following are differential diagnoses of kleptomania? a. Mania b Antisocial personality disorder c. Psychosis d. All of the above

d. All of the above (mania, antisocial personality and psychosis)

Criterion for a diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder includes a disruption of identity of at least how many distinct personality states? 4 1 2 3

2

10) Which of the following 3 (or more) symptoms must be present to diagnose Catatonia Associated With Another Mental Disorder? A Very little or no verbal response B Exaggerated speech C Grimacing without stimuli present D Repetitive movements E Resists repositioning by provider F Clicking tongue like a clock G No response to instructions given or external stimuli

A C E G

What question would you best discern the difference between schizoaffective bipolar type vs depressive type? A Have you ever experienced a period of 1 week or more of elevated mood or irritable outside of your normal? B Have you been hearing voices that other people do not hear? C Have you had difficulty focusing on normal activities? D Have you had recent thoughts of hurting yourself?

A Have you ever experienced a period of 1 week or more of elevated mood or irritable outside of your normal?

Which of the following patient scenarios would be consistent with brief psychotic disorder? A John reported that one month ago he has a sudden onset belief that his aunt was dead. Despite seeing her in person, he could not be convinced otherwise. He reports this belief lasted for approx. 3 weeks. B Sandra believes that she can communicate with her grandmother that just passed a few weeks ago. When confronted she states this is part of her cultural beliefs. C Sally has been having auditory hallucinations for 3 months. She reports this was a gradual onset and has not resolved since. D Harry has a history of a mood disorder and states he recently began seeing figures in his bedroom at night. He reports recent hallucinogenic substance use.

A John reported that one month ago he has a sudden onset belief that his aunt was dead. Despite seeing her in person, he could not be convinced otherwise. He reports this belief lasted for approx. 3 weeks.

1. Anxiety disorders are composed of a family of related but distinct mental disorders. Which of the following make up this family of disorders? Select all that apply. A Panic Disorder B Agoraphobia C Specific Phobia D Obsessive Compulsive Disorder E Social Anxiety Disorder or Phobia F Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A Panic Disorder B Agoraphobia C Specific Phobia E Social Anxiety Disorder or Phobia F Generalized Anxiety Disorder

What evidence may be present to diagnose a patient with paranoid schizophrenia? A Patient reports being constantly pursued by people who are whispering things that she cannot understand but "knows it's hateful" B Patient reports traumatic event with no emotion or change in affect with disorganized speech C Patient appears to be in a stupor and will not speak D Patient always repeats back the last word you spoke during assessment

A Patient reports being constantly pursued by people who are whispering things that she cannot understand but "knows it's hateful"

You suspect a patient has delusional disorder, what diagnostic criteria would confirm this? (select all that apply) A Pt is still able to work and maintain daily functioning without significant impairment B prominent hallucinations of spiders crawling on him at night that do not correlate with delusions C presence of 2 delusions for the last 2 weeks D the pt denies all substance use E no reports of manic or major depressive episodes

A Pt is still able to work and maintain daily functioning without significant impairment D the pt denies all substance use E no reports of manic or major depressive episodes

7. Agoraphobia refers to marked fear or anxiety about which of the following? A Using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed places, standing in line or being in a crowd, and being outside of home alone B Social situations in which the individual is exposed to possible scrutiny by others C Separation from attachment figures to a degree that is developmentally inappropriate D A specific object or situation (e.g., flying, heights, animals, receiving an injection, seeing blood)

A Using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed places, standing in line or being in a crowd, and being outside of home alone

Which of the following factors differentiate schizoaffective disorder from schizophrenia? (select all that apply) A sudden Loss of interest and pleasure for 4 weeks B elevated mood and pressured speech C avolition D word salad

A sudden Loss of interest and pleasure for 4 weeks B elevated mood and pressured speech

What is the percentage of outpatients with dissociative identity disorder that have attempted suicide? A) 70 B) 20 C)55 D)10

A) 70

Which of the following is common in the history of an individual diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder? A) extreme traumatic childhood abuse B) anxiety C) pyromania D) all of the above

A) extreme traumatic childhood abuse

In August, the mother of a new patient brings her teenaged daughter to see you. Your new client is 15yrs old, has a BMI of 16, and is wearing a jacket. You ask her to describe her home life and she says: A. "My mom thinks that I don't eat, but I do. I even collect recipes." B. "I'm really excited my parents said they would buy me a used car for my next birthday. I just have to keep up with my chores." C. "I help my dad with dinner almost every night. I don't like doing it, because I'm never hungry and I don't like to eat." D. "My home has been pretty busy lately. I started 2 study groups that meet at my house Tuesdays and Thursdays."

A. "My mom thinks that I don't eat, but I do. I even collect recipes."

At a minimum, how long must someone consume non-food items for a diagnosis to be suspected and what is the minimum amount of time one must display these symptoms to be diagnosed with pica? A. 1 month, at least 2 years B. 2 months, at least 1 year C. 1 month, at least 1 year D. 2 months, at least 2 years

A. 1 month, at least 2 years

A 25-year-old male patient is brought to your inpatient unit from the local jail. Patient has been charged with exhibitionists behavior. The patient reported he had been frequently acting on his urges to expose his genitals to unsuspecting individuals at a neighborhood park. What other information is needed to be obtained by the patient and arrest record? A. Age and physical maturity of the victims B. The location of the neighborhood park C. The socioeconomic status of the patient

A. Age and physical maturity of the victims

Which of the following is not an OCD related disorder? A. Anxiety disorder B. Trichotillomania disorder C. Excoriation disorder D. Hoarding disorder

A. Anxiety disorder

Which of the following presenting features is frequently associated with autism spectrum disorder in children? A. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder with extreme and narrow food preferences B. Appropriate language development C. Unimpaired social reciprocity D. Expected intellectual development

A. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder with extreme and narrow food preferences

During an intake interview with a 38-year-old male, the patient verbalized having frequently sexually approached multiple children in his neighborhood for the past 6 months. The patient reports the incidences of physical contact were accidental and reports he does not currently suffer from any distress from the events and denies any urges. What would be an appropriate diagnosis for the patient? A. Pedophilic Disorder B. Fetishistic Disorder C. Sexual Masochism Disorder D. Sexual Sadism Disorder

A. Pedophilic Disorder

Neurodevelopmental disorders are classified as a group of conditions that begin during the developmental period. Which of the following functioning impairments are commonly associated with neurodevelopmental disorders? Select all that apply. A. Personal B. Social C. Academic D. Occupational

A. Personal B. Social C. Academic D. Occupational

A client with OCD that is determined to have good or fair insight about the accuracy of the beliefs that underlie their symptoms: A. Thinks that obsessive-compulsive disorder beliefs are definitely or probably not true. B. Thinks that the obsessive-compulsive disorder beliefs are probably true. C. Is completely convinced that their beliefs are true. D. Accepts that the beliefs are unavoidable and "normal".

A. Thinks that obsessive-compulsive disorder beliefs are definitely or probably not true.

An unexpected lab result in a bulimic would be A. hyperkalemia B. hypokalemia C. decrease hematocrit D. hypomagnesemia

A. hyperkalemia

What other major complications are frequently observed with patient's suffering from chronic somatic symptom disorder? A: Alcohol and drug abuse as an escape to alleviate symptoms, especially with a pain component. B: Increased hypomanic episodes C: Increased risk of psychotic symptoms such as command auditory hallucinations. D: Xerostomia and constipation

A: Alcohol and drug abuse as an escape to alleviate symptoms, especially with a pain component.

Which statement is true regarding the diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder? A: It is not appropriate to give an individual a diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder because a medical diagnosis cannot explain or demonstrate a medical problem. B: Excessive feelings or worry about an illness or bodily symptoms are only experienced for a short period of time, and do not cause great distress to the patient. C: If pain is a component of the disorder, only mild-moderate pain is experienced by a patient with somatic symptom disorder. D: Behavioral and cognitive therapy are not as beneficial to effectively treat somatic symptom disorder as pharmacotherapy.

A: It is not appropriate to give an individual a diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder because a medical diagnosis cannot explain or demonstrate a medical problem.

One component of the diagnostic criteria for Panic Disorder are recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are defined as an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes. Which of the following are symptoms of a panic attack? Select all that apply. A Palpitations, pounding heart, or accelerated heart rate B Trembling or shaking C Sensations of shortness of breath or smothering D Chest pain or discomfort E Nausea or abdominal distress F Feeling dizzy, unsteady, light-headed, or faint

All of Them A Palpitations, pounding heart, or accelerated heart rate B Trembling or shaking C Sensations of shortness of breath or smothering D Chest pain or discomfort E Nausea or abdominal distress F Feeling dizzy, unsteady, light-headed, or faint

Associated symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder can include? A Insomnia B Fatigue C Somatic Symptoms D All the above

All the above

What are some medications that can produce Substance/ Medication-Induced Depressive Disorder? A Anti-Viral Medication (Efavirenz) B Anti-Migraine Medication (Triptans) C Smoking Cessation Agents (Varenicline) D All the above

All the above

5. The states of fear and anxiety overlap but there is also a distinction between the two. Which of the following describes the state of anxiety? A Excessive worrying and stress B Anticipation of a future threat C The emotional response to a real or perceived imminent threat D A heightened state of awareness

B Anticipation of a future threat

which of the following would not be considered positive symptoms of schizophrenia? A Suspiciousness B Attention deficits C Hostility D Disorganized behavior

B Attention deficits

What are the two components that make up the experience of anxiety? A Feelings of impending doom and Feelings of excessive worry B Awareness of the physiological sensations and Awareness of being nervous or frightened C Psychosomatic alterations and Feelings of excessive fear D Poor ability to focus and Feeling excessively threatened

B Awareness of the physiological sensations and Awareness of being nervous or frightened

Travel away from a person's home and assuming a new identity with complete or partial memory loss of their old identity is a characteristic of: A) dissociative identity disorder B) dissociative fugue C) derealization disorder D) dissociative amnesia

B) dissociative fugue

All the following are common co-occurring personality disorders that may be present along with depersonalization/ derealization disorders EXCEPT? A) Obsessive-compulsive B) somatic C) Avoidant D) borderline

B) somatic

During a visit with a 14-year-old patient she tells you that she has been ingesting all of the items below. One particular item she has been ingesting with great frequency, which item would lead you to suspect a diagnosis of pica? A. Onions B. Ice C. Celery D. Lettuce

B. Ice

A Primary care physician has consulted with you in regard to the treatment of a 16-year-old male with a history of physical assault towards family members, poor impulsivity, and reckless disregard for the rights of others. The physician has diagnosed the patient with antisocial behavior, is this an appropriate diagnosis? A. Yes B. No

B. No

What is a reason that personality disorders are frequently underdiagnosed and overall are difficult to treat? A. Threat of violence displayed by patients B. Presence of Comorbidity with other disorders C. Difficulty in the patients maintain appointments D. Lack of reimbursement for treating these patients

B. Presence of Comorbidity with other disorders

Essential diagnostic features of Oppositional Defiant Disorder include all EXCEPT: a. Angry/irritable mood b. Serious violation of rules c. Argumentative/Defiant Behavior d. Vindictiveness

B. Serious violation of rules

What is the suicidal risk in adults with OCD? A. There is similar risk in those diagnosed with OCD and those without OCD. B. Suicidal thoughts occur in as many as 50% of clients with suicide attempts in about 25% of those individuals. C. Suicidal thoughts are common, attempts are depending on the cultural background of the client. D. Female clients with suicidal thoughts outnumber male clients 3:1

B. Suicidal thoughts occur in as many as 50% of clients with suicide attempts in about 25% of those individuals.

Which of the following is not characteristically true for bulimia A. after meals self-induced vomiting, laxatives or enemas are employed B. significant weight loss is achieved and maintained C. fear of being fat or overweight is overwhelming D. at least once a week binge eating episodes take place

B. significant weight loss is achieved and maintained

Patients who induce, simulate, or provoke medical symptoms to receive medical attention whether they are ill or not are diagnosed with what disorder? A: Somatic symptom disorder B: Factitious disorder C: Illness anxiety disorder D: Conversion disorder

B: Factitious disorder

3. According to the National Comorbidity Study, what percent of people meet the diagnostic criteria for at least one anxiety disorder? A 10% B 33% C 25% D 50%

C 25%

Joan is a 32-year old female who presents to your clinic for an initial appointment. Joan expresses that she has recently was in a catastrophic accident that left her seriously injured and killed her husband and 15-year-old son. While recollecting the events of the accident Joan appears to unemotional, reporting the events with a flat affect and robotic demeanor, and reports "I feel like I am in a dream all the time". What disorder is Joan most likely experiencing? A) dissociative fugue B) dissociative amnesia C) derealization D) dissociative trance

C) derealization

What disorder is characterized by narrowing or complete loss of awareness of an individual's immediate surroundings A) generalized amnesia B) dissociative identity disorder C) dissociative trance D) continuous amnesia

C) dissociative trance

What is the most common eating disorder? A. Anorexia B. Bulimia C. Binge eating disorder D. Obesity

C. Binge eating disorder

Which follow-up assessments are essentially important for the Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) to closely monitor in children and adolescents taking a CNS stimulant? A. Oxygen saturation (SpO2) and respiratory rate B. Pupillary response C. Height, weight, blood pressure, and pulse D. Nausea, vomiting, and malaise

C. Height, weight, blood pressure, and pulse

A 48-year-old male presents to your clinic for complaint of a recent change in his personality, your collaborating physician believes that the patient meets criteria for a personality disorder diagnosis. However, what additional information should be investigated before proceeding with a personality diagnosis? A. Change in job employment status B. Death of his spouse a year ago C. Increase in drinking over the past 6 months D. Recent increase in political activity.

C. Increase in drinking over the past 6 months

Which of the following is not true regarding OCD and the pregnant or post-partum woman? A. OCD can initiate or exacerbate during pregnancy or the post-partum period. B. OCD can lead to an interference in the mother-child relationship. C. OCD is an expected component of post-partum depression. D. OCD in the post-partum period is usually exhibited as intrusive thoughts of something happening to the baby.

C. OCD is an expected component of post-partum depression.

Which of the following is NOT considered as diagnostic criteria for Tourette's Disorder? A. Both multiple motor and one or more vocal tics have been evident at some time during the illness, but not necessarily simultaneously B. The tics may increase and decrease in frequency but have persisted for more than one year from the first tic onset C. Onset is after 18 years of age D. The circumstance is not due to the physiological effects of a substance (e.g., cocaine) or any other medical condition (e.g., postviral encephalitis, Huntington's disease)

C. Onset is after 18 years of age

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity in individuals with Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)? A. Conduct Disorder B. Anxiety Disorders C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder D. Major Depressive Disorders

C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder

In a child, rapid onset of OCD symptoms may be associated with: A. Mononucleosis B. Lyme encephalitis C. PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcus) D. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

C. PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcus)

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions. Which of the following statements most accurately defines an obsession? A. Repetitive behaviors the client feels driven to perform according to their own rigid rules. B. A persistent thought or mental exercise designed to prevent anxiety or distress. C. Recurrent or persistent thoughts, urges or images that are intrusive, unwanted & difficult to ignore or suppress, causing marked anxiety. D A common adverse reaction to medications or physical illness.

C. Recurrent or persistent thoughts, urges or images that are intrusive, unwanted & difficult to ignore or suppress, causing marked anxiety.

Which of the following statements are true regarding OCD and tic disorders? A. There appears to be no relationship between OCD and tic disorders. B. Compulsive actions are often mistaken for tics. C. Roughly 1/3 of clients with OCD have a lifetime tic disorder. D. The presence of tic disorder with OCD is coincidental and untreatable.

C. Roughly 1/3 of clients with OCD have a lifetime tic disorder.

What is Frotteuristic disorder? A. When an individual experiences sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked. B. When an individual experiences sexual arousal from the act of being humiliated, beaten, and bound by another person. C. When an individual experiences sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person D. When an individual experiences sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of another person.

C. When an individual experiences sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person

Which of the following statements would be consistent with delusional disorder, subtype: somatic? A Attempted to set up cameras because his wife is cheating on him B Believing they are an expert in fibromyalgia (They are not) C Insistent that their husbands wife is in love with them D Convinced spiders are crawling all over them

D Convinced spiders are crawling all over them

4. The major drugs to be considered for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder include all of the following except: A Benzodiazepines B SSRIs C Buspirone D Tricyclic Drugs E Venlafaxine

D Tricyclic Drugs

What age group is most at risk to develop schizophrenia? A Men 11-14 years old B Men and women 75-81 years old C Men 55-60 years old D Women 30-35 years old

D Women 30-35 years old

Blake was in a recent train derailment accident. Since recovering from the accident, he does not remember any events from his life history. What type of dissociative amnesia does he likely have? A) Localized B) Continuous C) Systemized D) Generalized

D) Generalized

All the following are common symptoms that an individual with dissociative identity disorder my present with EXCEPT: A) hyperarousal B) somatic memory C) mood swings D) echolalia E) seizure like episodes

D) echolalia

Which of the following substances have been known to cause substance related amnesia? Select all that apply A) steroids B) alcohol C) antipyretics D)beta-blockers

D)beta-blockers

Which of the following are differential diagnoses of Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)? Select all that apply. A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder B. Personality Disorders C. Intermittent Explosive Disorder D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following are differential diagnoses of autism spectrum disorder? Select all that apply. A. Rett Syndrome B. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) C. Schizophrenia D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following are usually indicative of the first symptoms of autism spectrum disorder in young children? A. A child pulling individuals by the hand without any attempt to look at them B. A child carries a toy around but never plays with it C. A child who knows the alphabet but does not respond to his or her own name D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What is the most common comorbidity associated with anorexia? A. Sexual Dysfunction B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder C. Social phobia D. Depression

D. Depression

Risk factors for the development of OCD include all of the following except: A. Physical and sexual abuse in childhood. B. Post-infection states C. A genetic predisposition D. Lack of prenatal care in the first 2 trimesters of pregnancy.

D. Lack of prenatal care in the first 2 trimesters of pregnancy.

What is the most common reason patients with borderline personality disorder seek out mental health treatment? A. Depressive Symptoms B. Substance Use C. Difficulties in Interpersonal Relationships D. Suicidality

D. Suicidality

The rate of OCD among first-degree relatives with OCD manifesting in childhood or adolescence is approximately __________ that of first-degree relatives without the disorder. A. The same B. Twice C. Five times D. Ten times

D. Ten times

A diagnostic criterion that is specific to rumination disorder is: A. regurgitation is not attributed to gastrointestinal medical condition B. disorder occurs weekly C. regurgitation occurs to prevent weight gain D. regurgitated food may be re-chewed or re-swallowed

D. regurgitated food may be re-chewed or re-swallowed

In order to by diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder, how long must a patient have symptoms of distress and fears of believing they have an illness, or misinterpretation with bodily symptoms? A: 6 weeks B: 2 weeks C: 2-4 months D: 6 or more months

D: 6 or more months

Relative cognitive and behavioral features of somatic symptom disorder include which of the symptoms? A: Increased need for self-assessment/checking their body for any abnormalities. B: Increased occurrence of seeking medical services for reassurance of being free of illness. C: Avoidance of any physical activity. D: Attribution of normal bodily sensations to physical illness. E: Excessive worry about illness, plus one or more somatic symptoms. D: All of the above.

D: All of the above.

Mr. Ross is complaining of acute right leg paralysis after having an incident of angina pectoris earlier this afternoon. Patient is relatively healthy, no medical history, and was also walking fine this morning; physical assessment and neurologic studies came back normal. Patient is extremely anxious, and states that he feels like he is going to die. The next day, Mr. Ross is up and walking, and was discharged after being seen again by medical team. What differential diagnosis will be given to explain the neurological deficits? A: Depressive disorder B: Delusional disorder C: Body dysmorphic disorder D: Conversion disorder

D: Conversion disorder

omatic symptom disorder is characterized by? A: Experiencing physical symptoms such as pain or discomfort but do not interfere with a person's daily activities. B: Distressing somatic symptoms accompanied by abnormal thoughts and increased anxiety only after a clinically diagnosed medical illness was determined. C: Mostly encountered and treated in a psychiatric care setting rather than a primary care practice. D: Prominence of somatic symptoms accompanied by significant distress and impairment.

D: Prominence of somatic symptoms accompanied by significant distress and impairment.

What are the key diagnostic features in adults, that distinguishes Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) from Major Depressive Disorder? A Having a depressed mood that occurs for most of the day every day for at least a month B Depressive symptoms being in remission for 6 months C Depressed mood occurring most of the day, for at least 2 years D Having somatic symptoms

Depressed mood occurring most of the day, for at least 2 years

Risk factors associated with somatic symptom disorder include? A: Environmental factors such as low socioeconomic and low educational levels. B: Reported any history of sexual, physical, or emotional abuse, traumas, or neglect. C: Concurrent chronic physical illness or psychiatric disorder D: Prevalence higher in younger males than females. E: All of the above F: A, B, C only G: None of the above

F: A, B, C only

What treatment options would be best to treat patient's diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder? A: Group psychotherapy B: Behavior therapy C: Cognitive therapy D: Regularly scheduled medical visits with provider for physical examinations E: Psychotherapy to treat underlying psychiatric disorders such as depression and anxiety that might be present with somatic symptom disorder. F: All of the above

F: All of the above

Which of the following would not be considered a diagnostic criteria for Schizophrenia? A Frequent derailment or incoherent speech B Avolition C Hallucinations that lasted less than 2 weeks D Intonation of speech

Hallucinations that lasted less than 2 weeks

Key features that define psychotic disorders include all the following EXCEPT: Delusions Hallucinations Disorganized thoughts and motor behavior Increased pleasure experience

Increased pleasure experience

Factors predictive of good prognosis: (Select all that apply) a. Later age of onset b. Family history of mood disorder c. Good support system d. Good socioeconomic status e. High IQ

Later age of onset b. Family history of mood disorder c. Good support system

Risk factors of Major Depressive Disorder include all the following EXCEPT? A Low levels of Neuroticism B A first-degree family member with MDD C Stressful life events D Adverse childhood experiences

Low levels of Neuroticism

Depressed mood or diminished interest in almost all activities, most the day, nearly every day, for at least two weeks, is a core diagnostic feature most indicative of what disorder? A Major Depressive Disorder B Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder C Bipolar Disorder D Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

Major Depressive Disorder

Depressive Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition, is a diagnosis that can occur in as little as one day after having what disorder? A Depressive Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition, is a diagnosis that can occur in as little as one day after having what disorder? A Stroke B Diabetes C Heart Disease D Schizophrenia

Stroke

Suicide follows what trend for those with Major Depressive Disorder? A Suicide attempt rates are higher by men, but suicide completion rates are higher by women B Suicide attempt rates are lower for men, but suicide is completed in higher rates by women C Suicide attempt rates are higher in women but completed in higher rates by men D Suicide attempt rates are lower in women but completed in higher rates by men

Suicide attempt rates are higher in women but completed in higher rates by men

In Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder, symptoms follow what pattern? Select all that apply. A Symptoms worsen the week following menses B Symptoms present in the week before menses C Symptoms improve within a few days after onset of menses D Symptoms are absent week post menses

Symptoms worsen the week following menses

Differential diagnosis of Depersonalization / Derealization disorder includes which of he following? Select all that apply: a. Anxiety disorder b. Post-traumatic stress disorder c. Major depressive disorder d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder e. Factitious disorder

a. Anxiety disorder c. Major depressive disorder d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Children with bipolar disorder would have which of the following comorbid condition? a. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Substance abuse d. Oppositional defiant disorder

a. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder

Eight symptoms fit the diagnostic criteria for histrionic personality disorder. What is the minimum number of symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis to be made? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

a. 5

1. Schizophrenia lasts for a minimum of _____ months and has at least _____ month of active-phase symptoms a. 6;1 b. 3; 1 c. 12; 3 d. 12; 1

a. 6;1

Which comorbidity is commonly seen in patients with ODD? a. ADHD b. Schizophrenia c. Bipolar I Disorder d. PTSD

a. ADHD

A patient who experiences full manic cycles with possibility of depression would be classified as having which condition? a. Bipolar 1 disorder b. Bipolar 11 disorder' c. Cyclothymic disorder d. Schizoaffective disorder

a. Bipolar 1 disorder

Which of the following conditions is characterized by at least one hypomanic episode and at least on major depressive episode? a. Bipolar 11 disorder b. Bipolar1 disorder c. Cyclothymic disorder d. Schizoaffective disorder

a. Bipolar 11 disorder

What evidence may be present in a 22-year-old to diagnose bipolar II disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Charging $5,000 to a credit card for an unplanned trip b. Hypomania that emerges and persists after starting escitalopram c. Acts appropriately in social settings d. Was diagnosed by a psychiatrist with depression in high school

a. Charging $5,000 to a credit card for an unplanned trip b. Hypomania that emerges and persists after starting escitalopram

Treatment for Dissociative Amnesia includes all of the following: (Select all that apply) a. Cognitive therapy b. Hypnosis c. Electroconvulsive therapy d. Psychopharmacology therapy e. Somatic therapy f. Group psychotherapy g. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)

a. Cognitive therapy b. Hypnosis e. Somatic therapy f. Group psychotherapy

Which of the following is often a sign of reactive attachment disorder? a. Dampened expression of positive emotion b. Excessive adherence to rituals and routines c. Restricted fixated interests d. Unusual sensory reactions

a. Dampened expression of positive emotion

Manic episodes in bipolar disorder includes all of the following except: a. Decreased energy b. Decreased sleep c. Denial anything is wrong d. Increased sexual drive

a. Decreased energy

Disorders listed under Sleep-Wake Disorders include all EXCEPT: a. Dementia b. Narcolepsy c. Restless Leg Syndrome d. Obstructive Sleep Apnea-Hypopnea

a. Dementia

Which of the following is a diagnostic feature of schizoid personality disorder? a. Detached from social relationships b. Enjoys the closeness of friendships c. Heightened pleasure in sensory activities d. Takes pleasure in group activities

a. Detached from social relationships

Casey has been struggling with genito-pelvic pain with her long-term partner. She is experiencing marked tensing of the pelvic floor muscles during penetration and increased anxiety before each sexual encounter. Which disorder is Casey not likely to experience with in relation to pelvic floor pain? a. Diarrhea b. Interstitial cystitis c. Vaginal infection d. Endometriosis

a. Diarrhea

In gender dysphoria without a disorder of sex development, what is a risk or prognostic factor? a. Early-onset of gender dysphoria occurs at preschool age. b. Males with gender dysphoria commonly have older sisters c. Intersexuality limited to the central nervous system. d. Gender atypical behavior by itself is an indicator of current or future gender dysphoria.

a. Early-onset of gender dysphoria occurs at preschool age.

The definition of Dissociative Amnesia does not include (select all that apply): a. Failure to recall events during a circumscribed period of time. b. Complete loss of one's life history. c. Localized or selective amnesia for a specific event or events. d. Generalized amnesia for identity and life history

a. Failure to recall events during a circumscribed period of time. b. Complete loss of one's life history.

Which statement is true regarding anxiety and/or fear: a. Fear is the emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat, whereas anxiety is anticipation of a future threat. b. Anxiety is the emotional response to a real or perceived threat, whereas fear is the anticipation of a future threat. c. Fear is more often associated with muscle tension and vigilance in preparation for future danger and cautious or avoidant behavior. d. Anxiety is more often associated with surges of autonomic arousal necessary for fight or flight, thoughts of immediate danger, and escape behaviors.

a. Fear is the emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat, whereas anxiety is anticipation of a future threat.

What are some commonalities of all Depressive Disorders? Select all that apply. a. Feeling of sadness and emptiness b. Cognitive and somatic changes c. Irritability d. Weight gain

a. Feeling of sadness and emptiness b. Cognitive and somatic c. changes Irritability

Which of the following are subcategories of dementia? Select all that apply a. HIV disease b Head trauma c Vascular caused by hemorrhage or thrombosis d. Substance induced e. Bacterial blood infection

a. HIV disease b Head trauma c Vascular caused by hemorrhage or thrombosis d. Substance induced

Select the environmental risk factors that contribute to Dissociative Identity disorder risk? Select all that apply: a. Interpersonal physical abuse b. Illicit drug abuse c. Sexual abuse d. Brainwashing

a. Interpersonal physical abuse c. Sexual abuse

Which of the following would NOT be an expected finding in the history of an individual with adjustment disorder? a. Lack of language developmental milestones b. Development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor(s) occurring within 3 months of the onset of the stressor c. Distress that is in excess of what would be expected from exposure to the stressor d. Significant impairment in social or occupational (academic) functioning

a. Lack of language developmental milestones

Which of the following medication is commonly used to treat bipolar disorders? a. Lithium Carbonate b. Lorezapem c. Effexor d. Resperidone

a. Lithium Carbonate

Disorders that include exposure to a traumatic or stressful event as a diagnostic criterion include all of the following EXCEPT? a. Major depressive disorder b. Reactive attachment disorder c. Posttraumatic stress disorder d. Acute stress disorder

a. Major depressive disorder

Which of the following IS NOT a pretraumatic risk factor for posttraumatic stress disorder? a. Male gender b. Depressive disorder c. Younger age at the time of trauma exposure (for adults) d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

a. Male gender

The following are eating disorders in DSM5 a. Obesity b. Anorexia Nervosa c. Bulimia Nervosa d. Rumination Disorder

a. Obesity

A 14-year-old patient arrives at your offices with her mother. The mother reports the patient as being "crazy and irritable" every day for the last week. She said she's been depressed in the past but is normally a "pretty happy kid." The mother said she found out her daughter had sex for the first time this week with a boy she met online. She also reported that her daughter isn't going to bed until around 4 a.m. based on her phone history but gets up at 7 a.m. for school like normal. She also said that her daughter, uncharacteristically, told her twice this week that "every boy in the school thinks I'm hot and wants to get with me." What other information does the nurse practitioner need to have in order to diagnose the patient with bipolar I disorder? a. One additional symptom from Criterion B because the patient's mood is only irritable rather than elevated, expansive or euphoric. b. A positive drug screen. c. Confirmation of a major depressive episode in the patient's past. d. Nothing. The nurse practitioner has adequate information to diagnose her with bipolar 1 disorder.

a. One additional symptom from Criterion B because the patient's mood is only irritable rather than elevated, expansive or euphoric.

A slightly overweight 35-yr old female is getting ready for her wedding in 2 months and is trying to lose weight, she binges and purges, uses laxatives, over exercises and restricts calories. She denies being diagnosed with a previous eating disorder or having behaviors like this before. She meets criteria for which eating disorder? a. Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder b. Bulimia Nervosa c. Binge-Eating Disorder d. Kleine-Levin Syndrome

a. Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder

Which of the following are core diagnostic features of major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies? (select all that apply) a. Recurrent visual hallucinations that are well formed and detailed b. Spontaneous features of parkinsonism c. Severe neuroleptic sensitivity d. Fluctuating cognition with pronounced variations in alertness and attention

a. Recurrent visual hallucinations that are well formed and detailed b. Spontaneous features of parkinsonism d. Fluctuating cognition with pronounced variations in alertness and attention

Which of the following represents a symptom of intermittent explosive disorder? a. Reoccurring aggressive outbursts, out of proportion to a perceived offence b. Behaviors that are spiteful and premeditated c. Outbursts that are intended to illicit personal gain d. Explosive behaviors in the presence of command hallucinations

a. Reoccurring aggressive outbursts, out of proportion to a perceived offence

Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorders include all of the following (select all that apply): a. Sleepwalking b. Restless Leg Syndrome. c. Sleep terrors d. Nightmare Disorder

a. Sleepwalking c. Sleep terrors

Which of the following is considered one of the criteria for diagnosis of probable Alzheimer's? a. Steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition, without extended plateaus b. Steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition, with extended plateaus c. Evidence of mixed etiology d. Clinical evidence of behavior and psychological manifestations

a. Steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition, without extended plateaus

Which of the following characteristics are false in regards to delayed ejaculation? a. Symptoms persist approximately six weeks. b. Men in their 80s report twice as much difficulty ejaculating c. May be caused by age-related changes including decreased sex steroid secretion d. Interruption of nerve supply to genitals may cause inability to ejaculate

a. Symptoms persist approximately six weeks.

The main difference in distinguishing schizoaffective disorder from schizophrenia is that in schizoaffective disorder a. The individual has delusions but not hallucinations b. The individual has symptoms due to substance abuse c. The individual has a major mood episode The individual has had psychotic symptoms before

a. The individual has a major mood episode

The main difference in distinguishing schizoaffective disorder from depressive or bipolar disorder is that in schizoaffective disorder a. The individual has delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode b. The individual has a manic episode followed by hypomania or major depressive episode c. Severe or persistent depressed mood d. None of the above

a. The individual has delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode

A healthcare provider is establishing her differential diagnosis for a patient that presents with confusion. What are the two major differential points between dementia and delirium? a. Time of development and level of attention b. Time of development and level of consciousness c. Severe cognitive impairment vs. changes in cognition d. Extremely disorganized behavior vs. hallucinations

a. Time of development and level of attention

Which of the following is a frotteuristic act? Achieving sexual arousal while restricting breathing a. Uninvited sexual touching or rubbing against an individual b. Sexual activity with a prepubescent child c. Intense sexual arousal from a nonliving object

a. Uninvited sexual touching or rubbing against an individual

Which category of anxiety disorders applies to presentations in which symptoms characteristic of an anxiety disorder that cause clinically significant distress or impairment in areas of functioning predominate but do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in the diagnostic class? a. Unspecified Anxiety Disorder b. Limited-Symptom Attacks c. Adjustment Disorder d. Mood Disorder

a. Unspecified Anxiety Disorder

Selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that more likely manifests is which group? a. Young children b. Adolescents c. Young adults d. Older adults

a. Young children

Which of the following increases vulnerability to insomnia (select all that apply)? a. Working alternating shifts b. Female gender and advancing age c. Excessive caffeine use d. Significant stress

a. b. c. d. (all)

1. Substance abuse disorder has 4 Criteria / groupings. Which criteria is not considered part of the impaired control grouping? The individual may: a. fail to fulfill major role obligations at work, school, or home b. take the substance in larger amounts or over a longer period that was intended c. express persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use and may report multiple unsuccessful efforts to decrease or d/c use. spend a great deal of time obtaining the substance, using the substance, or recovering from its effects

a. fail to fulfill major role obligations at work, school, or home

A patient presents to the clinic with memory problems and a gradual decline from his previous level of functioning. The provider suspects that the patient has dementia. Which of the following differential diagnoses must the provider keep in mind while performing her assessment? (select all that apply) a. Normal aging b. Depression c. Factitious Disorder d. Schizophrenia

all the above

Which of the following conditions would be considered a complex brain based illness with the primary characteristics of disturbance of the mood a. Generalized Anxiety b. Bipolar Disorder c. Major Depressive Disorder d. Schizophrenia

b. Bipolar Disorder

Obsessions or compulsions taking up more than ____________ per day are clinically significant and may interfere with social, occupational or other important areas of functioning. A. 1/2 hour B. 1 hours C. 3 hours D 5 hours

b. 1 hour

A bipolar individual has a lifetime risk of suicide that is _____ times higher than the general population. a. 3 b. 15 c. 25 d. 30

b. 15

Symptoms of a paraphilic disorder must present over what period of time in order to meet diagnostic criteria? a. 6 months b. 2 months c. 1 week d. 12 weeks

b. 2 months

Essential feature of brief psychotic disorder is a disturbance that involves sudden onset of psychotic symptoms. Sudden onset is defined as a change in nonpsychotic to clearly psychotic within ____________. a. 5 days b. 2 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 1 month

b. 2 weeks

Cyclothymic disorder may be diagnosed in adults after experiencing _______ year(s) of both hypomanic and depressive periods without experiencing mania, hypomania, or major depression. a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years

b. 2 years

The prevalence of Dissociative Disorders in the United States is __% or less a. 10% b. 2% c. 20% d. 12%

b. 2%

What is the median age at onset for panic disorder in the United States? a. 15-19 b. 20-24 c. 31-36 d. 40-45

b. 20-24

Associated symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder must persist for longer than ___ to meet diagnostic criteria a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 1 year

b. 6 months

Intermittent Explosive Disorder diagnostic criteria includes a chronological age of at least ____. a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 8 years d. 10 years

b. 6 years

A 24-yr old ballerina eats toilet tissue three times a week to manage her appetite, which is part of what eating disorder? a. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder b. Anorexia Nervosa c. Pica d. Rumination Disorder

b. Anorexia Nervosa

The main difference between Anorexia Nervosa and Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder is: a. Anorexia Nervosa has significant weight loss but Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder does not. b. Anorexia Nervosa includes body weight or shape disturbance and Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder does not. c. Anorexia Nervosa has significant nutritional deficiencies but Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder does not. d. Anorexia Nervosa has interference in day to day functioning but Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake does not.

b. Anorexia Nervosa includes body weight or shape disturbance and Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder does not.

Conduct disorder is more common in which population? a. Children of parents with major depression b. Children of parents with alcohol dependence c. Children of parents with anxiety disorders d. Children of parents with bipolar disorder

b. Children of parents with alcohol dependence

Erectile dysfunction is common in men with which disorders? a. Neurocognitive disorders and sleep wake disorders b. Depression and posttraumatic stress disorder c. Personality and addictive disorders d. ADHD and bipolar disorder

b. Depression and posttraumatic stress disorder

An 11-year-old boy presents to the clinic due to parental complaints about the child's behavior. Parents report aggressive and inappropriate outbursts and irritability at home and in school, occurring three to five times a week. The parents report the behavior as worrisome because they believed it was just a phase, but the child's behavior has been consistent for the past year and a half and is detrimentally affecting his school performance, friendships, and family life. Which Disorder best describes this scenario? a. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder b. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder c. Bipolar Disorder d. Major Depressive Disorder

b. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

A 5 yr-old male without history of abuse is referred to you for having bowel movements on the living room floor several times a week for the past 4 months. He meets criteria for which of the following diagnosis. a. Enuresis b. Encopresis c. Enuresis, diurnal only d. None of the above

b. Encopresis

________ are the most common cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI). a. Motor vehicle accidents b. Falls c. Sports concussions d. Substance abuse disorders

b. Falls

The majority of borderline personality disorder cases are of which gender? a Male b. Female c. They are equal d. Gender does not play a role

b. Female

A 50-year-old male presents to the clinic with the following behavioral symptoms: behavioral disinhibition, apathy, loss of sympathy, compulsive/ritualistic behavior, hyperorality and dietary changes. These behavioral symptoms are associated with which of the following neurocognitive disorder? a. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's Disease b. Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder c. Vascular neurocognitive disorder d. Neurocognitive disorder due to traumatic brain injury

b. Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder

Persistent and excessive anxiety and worry about various domains, including work and school performance, that the individual finds difficult to control and key features in: a. Substance/medication-induced anxiety disorder b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Obsessive compulsive disorder d. Illness anxiety disorder

b. Generalized anxiety disorder

Which of the following are potential clinical features of delirium? Select all that apply a. Trouble word finding b. Incoherent speech (slow or rapid) c. Hypervigilant or reduced vigilance d. Impaired remote memory e. Impaired recent and immediate memory f. Rapid onset

b. Incoherent speech (slow or rapid) c. Hypervigilant or reduced vigilance e. Impaired recent and immediate memory f. Rapid onset

Functional consequences of Gender Dysphoria inlcude all of the following except: a. Isolation from peer groups b. Increase in delusional thinking c. Impeded access to health and mental health services d. Economic marginalization

b. Increase in delusional thinking

1. All of the following statements regarding opioid use disorder are true except: a. Is associated with a heightened risk for suicide attempts and completed suicides b. Injecting opioids into veins is a more long-term solution to prevent GI complications c. By 2016, 11.5 million Americans were misusing prescription opioids, 2.1 million had opioid use disorder (OUD), and more than 42,000 died from overdosing on opioids d. Periods of depression are especially common during chronic intoxication or in association with physical or psychosocial stressors that are related to the opiod use disorder

b. Injecting opioids into veins is a more long-term solution to prevent GI complications

First-degree relatives of individuals with kleptomania may have higher rates than the general population in which of the following mental health disorder: a. Bipolar Disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. ADHD d. Schizophrenia

b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Transient Global Amnesia can be mistaken for dissociative amnesia according to Saddock et al., except when what conditions are present? (select all that apply) a. Spontaneous age regression b. Older than 50 years old c. Anterograde dissociative amnesia d. Risk factors for cerebrovascular disease

b. Older than 50 years old d. Risk factors for cerebrovascular disease

Which of the following mental health disorders commonly occur in a comorbid presentation in individuals with conduct disorder (select all that apply)? a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder b. Oppositional Defiant Disorder c. ADHD d. Major Depressive Disorder

b. Oppositional Defiant Disorder c. ADHD

1. What statement is false regarding PCP, phencyclidine? a. They were originally used for anesthesia in 1950s but later became street drugs in 1960s b. PCP may be detected in urine up to 3 days at very high doses c. PCP is likely to produce dissociative symptoms, analgesia, nystagmus, and HTN d. PCP effects may resemble other disorders such as schizophrenia, major depressive disorder, conduct disorder or antisocial personality disorder.

b. PCP may be detected in urine up to 3 days at very high doses

The defining feature(s) of dissociative identity disorder is: (Select all that apply) a. Major depressive disorder b. Presence of two or more distinct personality traits c. Experience of possession d. Post-traumatic stress disorder e. Catatonia

b. Presence of two or more distinct personality traits c. Experience of possession

Dementia is marked by a. Severe impairment in memory, judgement, orientation, and behavior b. Severe impairment in memory, judgement, orientation, and cognition c. Severe impairment in memory, physical ability, orientation, and cognition d. Severe impairment in memory, behavior, cognition, and orientation

b. Severe impairment in memory, judgement, orientation, and cognition

Ganser syndrome is a poorly known condition categorized under What Dissociative Disorder: a. Dissociative Identity disorder b. Specified or unspecified dissociative disorder c. Derealization disorder d. Dissociative amnesia disorder

b. Specified or unspecified dissociative disorder

Which medical condition would not be used to make or confirm a diagnosis of female orgasmic disorder? a. Substance use b. Spinal cord injury c. Intimate partner violence d. Severe relationship distress

b. Spinal cord injury

A patient suffering from pyromania may exhibit all of the following symptoms except: a. The patient reports affective arousal before setting fires b. The patient reports voices which encourage them to set fires c. The patient has a fascination with matches and lighters d. The patient feels gratification after witnessing a fire

b. The patient reports voices which encourage them to set fires

Patients who suffer from Kleptomania are a. Unaware that stealing is wrong b. Unable to resist the temptation to steal c. Unable to feel guilt related to acts of theft d. Unafraid of the negative consequences of their actions

b. Unable to resist the temptation to steal

When do women most commonly seek treatment for genito-pelvic pain/penetration? a. When experiencing a new partner b. When they wish to conceive c. When they acknowledge partner strain d. When they fear losing their partner

b. When they wish to conceive

"Low in self-esteem and ultrasensitive to rejection, these patients hesitate to become socially involved unless they can be certain of acceptance" defines which personality disorder? a. dependent b. avoidant c. antisocial d. paranoid

b. avoidant

The hallmark presentation of Conduct Disorder is a(n) _____________ pattern of behavior where age-appropriate rules, societal norms, and the basic rights of others are violated. a. intermittent and episodic b. repetitive and persistent c. occasional and mild d. frequent and pervasive

b. repetitive and peristent

Which is not a medical complication from Bulimia Nervosa? a. hyponatremia and hypokalemia b. respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis c. dental carries and enlarged parotid glands d. metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis

b. respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

1. Which statement is false regarding the 12-month prevalence of Alcohol Use Disorder in the United States. It is estimated to be: a. 4.6% among 12-17 year olds b. 16.2% among adults 18-29 years old c. 13.7% among adults greater than 65 years old d. 12.4% among adult men

c. 13.7% among adults greater than 65 years old

A person exhibiting symptoms of antisocial personality disorder must be at least what age before a diagnosis can be made? a. 13 years old b. Age is not a determining factor c. 18 years old d. 21 years old

c. 18 years old

Peak age for schizophrenia onset for males is early-to mid- _____'s and late- ____'s for females a. Teens; teens b. Teens; 20 c. 20; 20 d. 20;30 d. 20;30

c. 20; 20

The essential feature of acute stress disorder is the development of characteristic symptoms lasting from how long following exposure to one or more traumatic events? a. 1 day to 1 year b. 10 minutes to an hour c. 3 days to one month d. None of the above

c. 3 days to one month

How many mood symptoms must be present during a 2-week period in order to diagnose a major depressive episode in a bipolar patient? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

c. 5

Female sexual arousal disorder occurs with a significant lack of sexual interest. Approximately how much percent of sexual encounters does it require in order to confirm a diagnosis? a. 55%-65% b. 30%-60% c. 75%-100% d. 85%-100%

c. 75%-100%

1. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms may include all of the following: (check all that apply) a. Autonomic hyperactivity (sweating, increased HR) b. Transient visual, tactile, or auditory hallucinations or illusions c. A peaceful night rests d. Psychomotor agitation

c. A peaceful night rests

Which of the following two neurotransmitters are most commonly associated with Alzheimer's disease and hypothesized to be hypoactive in this disorder? a. Acetylcholine and dopamine b. Norepinephrine and glutamate c. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine d Norepinephrine and serotonin

c. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine

With specific phobias, which term is defined as the individual intentionally behaves in ways that are designed to prevent or minimize contact with phobic objects or situations? a. Phobic stimulus b. Panic attack c. Active avoidance d. Agoraphobia

c. Active avoidance

Individuals who have pyromania commonly have a current or past history of _________. a. Major Depressive Disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Alcohol Use Disorder d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

c. Alcohol Use Disorder

All of the following personality disorders are diagnosed more frequently in females except: a. Borderline b. Histrionic c. Antisocial a. Borderline d. dependent

c. Antisocial

Which mental health disorder requires a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms before the age of 15 years old as a diagnostic criterion? a. Oppositional Defiant Disorder b. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder c. Antisocial Personality Disorder d. Bipolar Disorder

c. Antisocial Personality Disorder

A patient comes in for assessment worried about sleeping too much. He tells you that he thinks he may have narcolepsy because he experiences recurrent episodes in which he can't repress the need to sleep, lapsing into sleep, or napping within the same day. What frequency must these have occurred to meet the diagnostic criteria of narcolepsy? a. At least 5 times per week for 3 months b. At least 3 times per week for 6 months c. At least 3 times per week for 3 months d. At least 5 times per week for 6 months

c. At least 3 times per week for 3 months

Males with Conduct Disorder often show both physical and relational aggression while females favor relational aggression. What is relational aggression? a. Behavior that interferes with occupational performance b. Behavior that harms individual self-health c. Behavior that harms social relationships with others d. Behavior that violates societal norms, rules, and laws

c. Behavior that harms social relationships with others

1. The prominent receptors that are found throughout the central nervous system that are affected by cannabinoids are: a. CB2 & CB3 b. CB1 & CB3 c. CB1 & CB2 d. CB1, CB2, and CB3

c. CB1 & CB2

Which of the following is considered true regarding diagnostic features of central sleep apnea? a. Kussmaul respirations are observed in patients with heart failure, stroke, or renal failure. b. Central apneas and obstructive sleep apneas may not c. Chronic use of long-acting opioid medications is often associated with impairment of respiratory control preluding central sleep apnea. d. Central sleep apnea disorders are characterized by sporadic episodes of apneas and hypopneas during sleep.

c. Chronic use of long-acting opioid medications is often associated with impairment of respiratory control preluding central sleep apnea.

Bipolar and related disorder due to another medical condition can be caused by: a. Type 1 diabetes b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Cushing's disease d. The flu

c. Cushing's disease

Which psychiatric Condition does patients experience mood swings, but are not severe enough to be termed major depressive or mania episodes? a. Bipolar 11 disorder b. Bipolar1 disorder c. Cyclothymic disorder d. Schizoaffective disorder

c. Cyclothymic disorder

2 negative symptoms are particularly prominent in schizophrenia. An example of a negative symptom includes: a. Delusions b. Hallucinations c. Decreased emotional expression d. Disorganized thinking

c. Decreased emotional expression

A 7-yr old male is referred to you because of frequent accidents of urination during the day. He meets criteria for which of the following diagnosis? a. Enuresis b. Encopresis c. Enuresis, diurnal only d. None of the above

c. Enuresis, diurnal only

Which of the following is not one the three major schools of psychoanalytic theory which have contributed theories about the cause of anxiety? a. Psychoanalytic Theories b. Behavioral Theories c. Humanistic Theories d. Existential Theories

c. Humanistic Theories

What is the primary treatment and goal for a patient with delirium? a. Avoiding sensory deprivation or overstimulation b. Providing physical support for safety c. Identifying and treating the underlying cause d. Involving family and having them nearby to assist with orienting the patient if possible

c. Identifying and treating the underlying cause

The following are four categories of bipolar disorder as described by the American Psychiatric Association except? a. Cyclothymic disorder b. Bipolar Disorder 1 c. Major depression d. Bipolar 11 e. Bipolar due to another medical or substance abuse disorder.

c. Major depression

The primary difference between a manic and hypomanic episode is: a. Manic states lead to more talking than hypomania. b. Mania has more excessive involvement in high-risk activities than hypomania. c. Mania lasts at least a week and hypomania lasts at least 4 days. d. Hypomania symptoms include sleeping more.

c. Mania lasts at least a week and hypomania lasts at least 4 days.

Which of the following is NOT a paraphilic disorder? Transvestic disorder a. Pedophilic disorder b. Exhibitionistic disorder c. Pornography addiction disorder

c. Pornography addiction disorder

Dissociative disorders are often caused by: a. Illicit substance abuse b. Major depressive episode c. Psychological trauma d. Environmental factors

c. Psychological trauma

A 60-year-old patient with mild neurocognitive disorder presents to the clinic with the following symptoms of impairment in the learning and memory domain. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with major cognitive disorder and not the current diagnosis? a. Loses track of whether bills have been paid b. Has difficulty recalling recent events c. Repeats self in conversation d. Relies increasingly on making lists or a calendar

c. Repeats self in conversation

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding generalized anxiety disorder? a. Generalized anxiety disorder is never overdiagnosed in children. b. When this diagnosis is being considered in children, a thorough evaluation for the presence of other childhood anxiety disorders and other mental disorders should not be done to determine whether the worries may be better explained by one of these disorders. c. Separation anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder (social phobia), and obsessive-compulsive disorder are often accompanied by worries that may mimic those described in generalized anxiety disorder. d. Worries about illness are not better explained by separation anxiety disorder or obsessive-compulsive disorder.

c. Separation anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder (social phobia), and obsessive-compulsive disorder are often accompanied by worries that may mimic those described in generalized anxiety disorder.

With which disorder is the individual's cognitive ideation is of being negatively evaluated by others, by being embarrassed, humiliated, or rejected, or offending others? a. Separation anxiety disorder b. Selective Mutism c. Social Anxiety Disorder d. Agoraphobia

c. Social Anxiety Disorder

When caring for patients on lithium therapy, which of the electrolytes would be the most important to monitor closely? a. Potassium b. Phosphorous c. Sodium d. Magnesium

c. Sodium

Which statement about the interrelationship between delirium and dementia is true? a. Delirium is a risk factor for the development of dementia b. Fully two-thirds of cases of dementia occur in patients with delirium c. The vulnerability of the brain in patients with dementia may predispose the patient to delirium d. Dementia contributes to a loss of independence among patients with delirium e. Dementia can alter the course of an underlying delirium

c. The vulnerability of the brain in patients with dementia may predispose the patient to delirium

Neurocognitive disorders are unique among DSM-5 categories in that a. The underlying pathology is often not known b. They have not been extensively researched c. These are syndromes for which the underlying pathology, and etiology, can potentially be determined d. They all require specific testing to be confirmed

c. These are syndromes for which the underlying pathology, and etiology, can potentially be determined

According to the DSM-5, which of the following differentiates disruptive, impulse control and conduct disorders from other psychiatric diagnosis? a. They involve problems with emotional regulation b. They involve problems with behavioral regulation c. They involve behaviors that violate social norms or the rights of others d. They involve behaviors are linked to underlying psychosis

c. They involve behaviors that violate social norms or the rights of others

The DSM-5 contains two sets of criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder. These two sets of criteria are specifically used to diagnose which of the following population subsets? a. Individuals under 18 years old and individuals over 18 years old b. Male and females c. Under 6 years old and over 6 years old d. Individuals with abuse related trauma and individuals with disaster related traumas

c. Under 6 years old and over 6 years old

A 14-yr old female presents to the ER with a broken blood vessel in her eye. She admits to binging and purging but says she only does it twice a year. Which diagnosis would fit her situation? a. Bulimia b. Binge-eating Disorder c. Unspecified Feeding or Eating Disorder d. Rumination Disorder

c. Unspecified Feeding or Eating Disorder

Dissociative disorders include the below DSM-5 diagnosis except: a. Dissociative identity disorder b Dissociative amnesia c Depersonalization / derealization disorder d Depressive disorder Specified dissociative disorder e Unspecified dissociative disorder

d Depressive disorder Specified dissociative disorder

1. The 12-month prevalence of cannabinoid use disorder among 12-17 year olds is about 3.4%. Which ethnic and racial prevalence statement is false among 12-17 yr olds in the U.S. a. 4.1% Hispanic b. 7.1% Native American and Alaskan Natives c. 2.7% African Americans d. 2.1% Whites

d. 2.1% Whites

Among the diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder, excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not must occur for how long? a. 1 month b. 1 year c. 3 months d. 6 months

d. 6 months

Which of the following children are most likely to be diagnosed with enuresis. A. A 4-year-old girl who has been bedwetting 4 nights a week B. A 6-year-old boy who wet his bed once last week. C. A 7-year-old girl who is severely developmentally delayed and has failed to learned bladder control. D. A 7-year-old boy who started bedwetting 3 nights a week for the last 4 months

d. A 7-year-old boy who started bedwetting 3 nights a week for the last 4 months

Which of the following symptoms may be associated with oppositional defiant disorder? a. A child who frequently argues with their younger brother b. A child who refused to follow directions from an older sister by whom they are being baby sat c. A child who loses their temper often during the first month of school d. A child who actively and persistently violates rules set by an authority figure.

d. A child who actively and persistently violates rules set by an authority figure.

Factors that predispose to delirium include all of the following except a. Vision impairment b. Use of bladder catherization c. Smoking history d. Age older than 60 e. Abnormal glucose level

d. Age older than 60

Detection of social anxiety disorder in older adults may be challenging. This includes which of the following: a. A focus on somatic symptoms, comorbid medical illness, and/or limited insight. b. Changes to social environment or roles that may obscure impairment in social functioning. c. Reticence about describing psychological distress. d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The highest rates of PTSD are found in which of the following? a. Survivors of rape b. Military combat and captivity c. Ethnically and politically motivated internment and genocide d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following environmental factor(s) increases the risk of delirium? a. Low levels of activity b. History of falls c. Use of drugs and medications with psychoactive properties d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following is true regarding gender-related diagnostic issues related to social anxiety disorder? a. Females with social anxiety disorder report a greater number of social fears and comorbid depressive, bipolar, and anxiety disorders b. Males are more likely to fear dating, have oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder, and use alcohol and illicit drugs to relieve symptoms of the disorder. c. Paruresis is more common in males. d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

1. Schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder have increased risk for: a. Substance abuse b. Suicide (completed or attempt) c. Anxiety d. All the above

d. All the above

Conduct Disorder may be diagnosed in individuals 18 years or older if the criteria for which mental health disorder is not met? a. ADHD b. Borderline Personality Disorder c. Oppositional Defiant Disorder d. Antisocial Personality Disorder

d. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Which of the following is not considered a medical comorbidity linked to insomnia? a. Arthritis b. Coronary heart disease c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Anxiety disorders

d. Anxiety disorders

For the past six months Luke has struggled with premature ejaculation. Which of the following describes premature ejaculation? a. Approximately 30 seconds before vaginal penetration b. Approximately 3 minutes following vaginal penetration c. Approximately 2 minutes before vaginal penetration d. Approximately 1 minute following vaginal penetration

d. Approximately 1 minute following vaginal penetration

Which of the following symptoms of delirium may require pharmacological treatment? a. Psychosis b. Attention deficits c. Insomnia d. Both a and c

d. Both a and c

Tim reports severe several dysfunctions to his provider. During the assessment and history/physical which medication is least likely to cause his sexual dysfunction? a. Sertraline b. Risperidone c. Haloperidol d. Bupropion

d. Bupropion

Which of following laboratory tests and diagnostic markers are not commonly used to help identify erectile dysfunction? a. Thyroid function b. Serum lipids c. Doppler ultrasonography d. Computerized tomography

d. Computerized tomography

1. Cedric has been diagnosed with delusional disorder. He reports that he has been in a romantic relationship with the waitress at the diner he frequents and she is in love with him. The subtype of the delusional disorder would be classified as: a. Jealous type b. Persecutory type c. Somatic type d. Erotomanic type e. Grandiose type e. Grandiose type

d. Erotomanic type

In order to meet criteria for Anorexia Nervosa, restricting type, the individual does which of the following? a. Uses laxatives b. Binging and purging c. Uses enemas d. Excessive exercise

d. Excessive exercise

Which of following is not relevant to the etiology of delayed ejaculation? a. Poor communication b. Religious factors c. Emotional abuse d. Family history

d. Family history

1. Which statement is false regarding caffeine intoxication: a. Oral contraceptives significantly decrease the elimination of caffeine and consequently may increase the risk of intoxication b. Symptoms include restlessness, nervousness, excitement, insomnia, flushed face, diuresis, Gi complaints, tachycardia or cardiac arrhythmia, and psychomotor agitation c. It is often seen among individuals who use caffeine less frequently or have increased their intake by a substantial amount. d. Heavy doses (> 400 mg) will never cause or exacerbate anxiety nor somatic symptoms

d. Heavy doses (> 400 mg) will never cause or exacerbate anxiety nor somatic symptoms

Bipolar II disorder's prominent features are: a. Mania and depression b. Hypomania and psychosis c. Psychosis and hypomania d. Hypomania and depression

d. Hypomania and depression

Which statement is NOT true with regards to separation anxiety disorder? a. Separation anxiety disorder often develops after life stressors. b. Girls manifest reluctance to attend or avoidance of school than boys. c. Separation anxiety disorder in children may be associated with an increased risk for suicide. d. Individuals with separation anxiety disorder rarely limit independent activities away from home or attachment figures.

d. Individuals with separation anxiety disorder rarely limit independent activities away from home or attachment figures.

Utilizing the differential diagnosis of Normal sleep variations, what number of hours of sleep per night would suggest inadequate nocturnal sleep? a. Less than 4 hours b. Less than 5 hours c. Less than 6 hours d. Less than 7 hours

d. Less than 7 hours

Patients on Lithium therapy for Bipolar disorder should have the following done except a. Make baseline determination of cardiac status (EKG, BP, Pulse) b. Complete Blood count with differential c. Serum electrolytes, Renal and Thyroid function d. Mental Status and Bone density

d. Mental Status and Bone density

Comorbidities are common with a diagnosis of exhibitionistic disorder. Which comorbidity does not occur at a high rate? a. Anxiety disorder b. Substance use disorder c. ADHD d. Narcissistic disorder

d. Narcissistic disorder

Brandon is 4 years old. He consistently refuses to take directions from authority figures and does not like to follow rules. Brandon also fights with his siblings, is easily annoyed and loses his temper often. Which disorder best describes Brandon's behavior. a. Kleptomania b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Intermittent explosive disorder d. None of the above

d. None of the above

A 4 yr-old male is referred to you due to frequent accidents of urination during the day. He meets criteria for which following diagnoses? a. Enuresis b. Encopresis c. Enuresis, diurnal only d. None of the above

d. None of the above (developmentally appropriate)

Which of the following is true of Antisocial personality disorder? a. Antisocial personality disorder is usually diagnosed in women b. Antisocial personality disorder is often diagnosed in individuals with histories of childhood abuse c. People with antisocial personality disorder are often described as "odd" or "eccentric" d. People with antisocial personality disorder are often diagnosed with a conduct disorder as children

d. People with antisocial personality disorder are often diagnosed with a conduct disorder as children

Which of the following is NOT one of the subcategories of causes of delirium? a. General medical condition b. Substance induced c. Multiple causes (e.g. head trauma and kidney disease) d. Pick's disease

d. Pick's disease

1. Which statement is false regarding the Alcohol Use Disorder and the genetic / physiological risk factors. a. Runs in families with 40-60% variance of risk explained by genetic influences b. Rates are 3-4 times higher in close relatives of individuals with alcohol use disorder c. Significantly higher risk exists among the monozygotic twin than in the dizygotic twin of an individual with the condition d. Risk increased 2 times of children of individuals with alcohol use disorder

d. Risk increased 2 times of children of individuals with alcohol use disorder (3-4x increased)

Which of the following statements IS true concerning reactive attachment disorder? a. Reactive attachment disorder is usually seen in infants before the age of 6 months old. b. Although they struggle to seek out comfort in stressful situations, children with reactive attachment disorder generally respond well to comforting efforts by caregivers. c. It is common for children ages 8-12 to be diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder if they have a history of serious social neglect. d. Serious social neglect is the only known risk factor for reactive attachment disorder.

d. Serious social neglect is the only known risk factor for reactive attachment disorder.

Which of the following statements are true in regards to the diagnostic criteria of major and minor neurocognitive disorders? a. There is evidence of modest cognitive decline in major neurocognitive disorder. b. There is evidence of significant cognitive decline in minor neurocognitive disorder. c. The cognitive deficits associated with mild cognitive disorder interfere with independence in activities of daily living. d. The cognitive deficits associated with mild cognitive disorder do not interfere with independence in everyday activities.

d. The cognitive deficits associated with mild cognitive disorder do not interfere with independence in everyday activities.

Which specifier is not included in the list of specifiers with bipolar I disorder?' a. With mixed features b. With catatonia c. With peripartum onset d. With substance abuse

d. With substance abuse

1. The diagnosis of a substance abuse disorder is based on a pathological pattern of behaviors related to use of the substance and has four groupings. Which criteria / grouping is not necessary for a diagnosis of a substance abuse disorder: a. impaired control b. social impairment c. risky use d. pharmacological criteria, tolerance and withdrawal

d. pharmacological criteria, tolerance and withdrawal

Which of the following is not true regarding Alzheimer's disease? a. The age at onset is earlier in patients with a family history of the disease b. Brain imaging studies are used to exclude other identifiable causes c. The early-onset type may have a more rapidly progressive course d. There is clear phenomenological separation between early-onset and late-onset cases e. No features of the physical examination or laboratory evaluation are pathognomonic

e. No features of the physical examination or laboratory evaluation are pathognomonic

Differential diagnosis for somatic symptom and related disorders include? A: Conversion disorder B: Body dysmorphic disorder C: Depressive disorder D: Obsessive-compulsive disorder E: Panic disorder F: All of the above

f. all the above