MG 352 Exam 5
Which of the following is part of a Configuration Management System?
All of these
Normal or random variations that are considered part of operating the system at its current capability are ______:
Common cause variations
After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test?
It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable.
_______ is best known for creating the Quality Trilogy.
Joseph Juran
______ are risks that can be identified as risk, but the likelihood of their occurrence is unknown.
Known unknown
In the agile community, the concept of __________ has emerged to indicate the least amount of value that could be perceived by the customer.
Minimum Viable Product (MVP)
A SWOT analysis is an information-gathering tool that helps increase the range of identified risks by examining strengths, weaknesses, _______ and threats to a project.
Opportunities
While all projects should use _________ risk analysis, ___________ risk analysis is only used when necessary and on selected risks.
Qualitative, quantitative
The four contemporary core project quality concepts that evolved from the quality gurus and frameworks include which of the following?
Stakeholder satisfaction
The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable.
TRUE
Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to research a threat or an opportunity?
Construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solution
The purpose of risk management is to eliminate all project risk.
FALSE
A _________ is an analytical technique to ascertain the fundamental reason or reasons that affect one or more variances, defects or risks.
Root cause analysis
Crosby, a well known quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them.
TRUE
Stakeholder satisfaction consists of identifying all stakeholders and understanding the stakeholders' ultimate quality goals using a structured process to determine relevant quality standards.
TRUE
All of these are risk response strategies only for opportunities or positive risks EXCEPT:
Mitigate
_________ is a step-by-step breakdown of the phases of a process, used to determine the inputs, outputs and operations that take place during each phase.
Process analysis
The term ______________ is defined as "the characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."
Project quality
Risks that have been identified and may or may not happen are referred to as known unknowns, and a ______ should be established to cover them if they are triggered.
Contingency reserve
Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful?
An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all.
All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT: a. Large, complex and expensive projects stand to benefit from the additional rigor of quantitative risk analysis techniques. b. Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible. c. Quantitative techniques are used when it is critical to predict the probability of completing a project on time or within budget with confidence. d. Decision Tree Analysis and Simulation techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis are examples of useful quantitative risk analysis techniques.
Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.
A ____________ variation is the result of the product design and the method of making it and is exhibited by a random pattern within predictable limits.
Common cause variation
Cost of quality is a sum of the cost of _____ of quality and cost of _______ of quality.
Conformance, non-conformance
Six Sigma uses a 15-step, disciplined process called the ________ process to plan and manage improvement projects.
DMAIC
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) is commonly used within this type of analysis:
Decision tree
Which of these is NOT one of the steps of the PDCA model? a. Plan b. Deliver c. Check d. Act
Deliver
The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. design work systems b. understand the prioritized stakeholders' requirements c. make tradeoff decisions d. identify all stakeholders
Design work systems
A team's attempt to list, on individual sticky notes, all of the possible threats and opportunities that could occur to an upcoming project might be used during the _____________ process.
Identify risk
Which of these is NOT part of a configuration management system? a. Process for identifying and uniquely naming items that need to be controlled b. Activity of managing project deliverables and documentation c. Maintenance and calibration d. Recording and reporting all changes
Maintenance and calibration
According to the PMBOK®, which of the following is not a quality management process?
Monitor quality
DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches?
Six sigma
Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities.
TRUE
The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.
TRUE
The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project.
FALSE
Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.
Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization's quality policy?
quality management plan
Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Which of the following items is NOT part of Juran's Quality Trilogy? a. determine what to control, establish measurement systems, establish standards and compare performance to standards. b. select and support improvement projects, select and implement solutions, and maintain control of improved processes. c. identify all customers and their needs, develop requirements, and develop methods to satisfy those requirements. d. work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a "Plan-Do-Check-Act" (PDCA) model.
FALSE
If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.
FALSE
All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT: a. It is a statistically unlikely event. b. It is inherent in the system and is predictable. c. It is identified by points outside the control limits or by unusual patterns within the limits. d. It requires specific interventions that include finding the root causes and making changes.
It is inherent in the system and is predictable.
Process Analysis is a step-by-step breakdown of the phases of a process, used to determine the inputs, outputs, and operations that take place during each phase.
TRUE
The quality management plan defines the acceptable level of quality, which is typically defined by the customer, and describes how the project will ensure this level of quality in its deliverables and work processes.
TRUE
All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT: a. Customer focus b. Leadership c. Strategic planning d. Team Learning
Team learning
Which of these is NOT a reason for holding a project kickoff meeting? a. To show stakeholders how all the parts of the project fit together. b. To get everyone excited about, and committed to, the project. c. To work with all stakeholders to create the detailed project plan. d. To answer any remaining questions and overcome lingering concerns.
To work with all stakeholders to create the detailed project plan.
Which of these is NOT one of the four core project quality concepts? a. Vendor satisfaction b. Process management c. Fact-based management d. Empowered performance
Vendor satisfaction
What cycle is the basis for Six Sigma quality planning and improvement?
DMAIC ???
One method of identifying risks is the __________, an information gathering technique used as a way to reach a consensus among experts on a subject, with the experts participating anonymously.
Delphi
The _________ reflects the agreed upon quality objectives, and it can include metrics that define exactly what will be measured, how each will be measured, and the target value of each.
Quality baseline
During quality management planning, the project manager and team determine what will be measured during the Control Quality process. Project or product attributes such as on-time performance, defect frequency, and costs vs. budget are known as ________.
Quality metrics
What type of risk analysis is NOT required on all projects? a. Risk Identification b. Qualitative Risk Analysis c. Quantitative Risk Analysis d. Risk Response Planning
Quantitative risk analysis
An important input to the Plan Quality Management process is requirements documentation. This is because:
Requirements documentation captures the stakeholder expectations that the project should meet.
A ________ presents a hierarchical organization of risks based on categories such as operational, strategic, finance, external, and project management.
Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)
The Risk Management Plan describes the methodology, roles and responsibilities, budgeting, timing, and risk categories for potential causes of risk. These risk categories can be structured into a hierarchical representation called a(n):
Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)
In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely risk management occurs during the planning of each subsequent iteration, in daily stand-up meetings, and in retrospectives at the end of each iteration.
TRUE
Just as total quality dramatically changed general management in the 1990s, agile is dramatically changing project management in the 2010s.
TRUE
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
TRUE
Risk response strategy decisions should reflect a thorough understanding of the priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality.
TRUE
The primary questions project teams use in qualitative risk analysis are "how likely is this risk to happen?", and "if it does happen, how big will the impact be?"
TRUE
When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning.
TRUE
Avoid risk, mitigate risk, accept risk, and ______ are all strategies for responding to negative risks, also known as threats.
Transfer risk
A key supplier of materials for your project has not been returning your calls or responding to your e-mails. This is an example of a ________, which indicates that a risk is likely to occur.
Trigger condition
One of the most influential thought leaders in quality was ____________, whose ideas are summarized in his four-part Profound Knowledge System.
W Edwards Deming
____ was the influential thought leader in the area of quality who created the Profound Knowledge System.
W. Edwards Deming
All of the following criteria can be used to categorize project risks EXCEPT: a. the project objective that may be impacted by the risk (cost, schedule, scope and / or quality) b. when it occurs in the project life cycle c. whether the risk is a known known d. whether the risk is internal or external to the performing organization
Whether the risk is a known known
Relative to the project life cycle, when is the cost per risk discovered typically highest?
Closing
An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying source of a variance, a defect, or a risk is called _________.
Root cause analysis
Once the project management plan is complete and accepted by the stakeholders, the approved plan is __________.
Baselined
The ________ project management plan is the official, completed project management plan that has been accepted by stakeholders.
Baselined
_________ marks the transition between the planning and executing project phases.
Baselined project management plan
Which of these is NOT one of the reasons that it is better to design quality into a process than to find problems upon inspection? a. It costs more to make junk and then remake it to obtain good outputs. b. Having to do rework aggravates time pressure on projects. c. Because of the saying that the team should meet expectations but exceed requirements. d. Even the best inspectors do not find every mistake, and some mistakes are likely to reach customers.
Because of the saying that the team should meet expectations but exceed requirements.
The goal of ___________ is to have capable and willing workers at every level and every function within a company.
Empowered Performance
Which of these is NOT an example of an external stakeholder? a. The public b. Functional areas within the organization c. Customers d. Suppliers
Functional areas within the organization
Risks are typically discovered during which stage(s) of a project?
Initiating, Planning & Executing ???
All of the elements below are costs of non-conformance EXCEPT: a. Scrap b. Liability judgments c. Product design validation d. Product recalls
Product design validation
All of the following describe an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in project management EXCEPT: a. The expectations of the sponsor and key stakeholders should influence the risk responses that are developed. b. Risk response planning should address both opportunities and threats. c. Often multiple strategies are identified for a single risk. d. Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk score.
Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk score.
_______ is a quantitative risk analysis modeling technique used to help determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project. Using a tool such as a tornado diagram, it "examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being studied when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values".
Sensativity analysis
In the risk register, why should one person be designated as the "owner" of the risk?
So that they can be responsible for determining if it's about to be triggered, and implementing the strategy.
A negative impact is known as a (n) ______, while a positive impact is known as a (n) __________.
Threat, Opportunity
A Fortune 100 company is about to undertake a $30 million construction project to build a new office building. As a condition of hiring a general contractor to build the property, they require the contractor to secure a performance bond to guarantee their work and performance under this construction contract. This is an example of _______ project risk.
Trasnferring
All of these are ways of categorizing project risks EXCEPT: a. When they occur in the project life cycle. b. Who identified the risk. c. What project objective may be impacted (scope, time, cost, etc.) d. Whether the risk is internal or external to the organization.
Who identified the risk.
The ______ is a living document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded.
Risk register
What does a SWOT Analysis examine?
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats
In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat to a level that a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, rather than eliminate it completely.
TRUE
DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly.
TRUE
Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses?
C - IS resources are spread too thin
Examples of _____________ activities include inspection, deliverable peer reviews and the testing process.
Control quality
All of the following information is typically contained in the risk register EXCEPT: a. Risk response strategy b. Risk owner c. Probability of occurrence d. Date risk identified
Date risk identified
Who came up with the four-part Profound Knowledge System?
Deming
All of these are typical activities that might be included in the kickoff meeting EXCEPT: a. The core team explaining the communications, risk and quality plans. b. The customer describing their acceptance standards, sense of urgency, and budget concerns. c. Everyone concurring with the overall plan and his or her individual action items. d. Documentation of lessons learned.
Documentation of lessons learned
The risk factor of each risk, determined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, is derived by ______ the probability and the consequence (impact).
Multiplying ???
During which risk planning process is each risk assigned a probability and impact score?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
_______ is defined as an executing process that is primarily concerned with overall process improvements to ensure that each time a deliverable is produced it is error free.
Perform Quality Assurance
______ is the name of the process that identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to comply with them.
Plan quality management
Quality audits sometimes result in changes. _________ are changes that are proactive in nature, based on a variance and trend analysis, and are taken to ensure future performance is acceptable.
Preventive actions
With respect to the evolution of terms in quality policies between 2013 and 2017, which of these terms has actually decreased in usage?
Product
Which of these is NOT one of the key areas covered by Total Quality Management (TQM), developed in the 1980's on the premise that the old way of trying to catch quality problems by inspection was not adequate?
Project Management
While all projects use ____ risk analysis, _____ risk analysis is only used when it is needed and there is sufficient data to develop appropriate models.
Qualitative, quantitative
Which of these is NOT one of the typical project success measures? a. Meeting Agreements b. Quality Improvements c. Performing Organization's Success d. Project Team's Success
Quality Improvements
All of these are primary quality control activities EXCEPT: a. Inspection b. Deliverable peer reviews c. Quality audits d. Testing process
Quality audits
The primary output of risk identification is the ____________.
Risk register
Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram?
Sensativity analysis
______ is a quantitative what-if risk analysis technique that presents comparative analyses of various desirable outcomes with respect to a financial measure or uncertainty. Tornado diagrams are often used to represent this analysis.
Sensativity analysis
Which of these risk response strategies is NOT appropriate for negative risks or threats?
Share
All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT: a. transfer a threat b. share a threat c. enhance an opportunity d. avoid a threat
Share a threat
_________ uses a disciplined process called define, measure, analyze, improve, control (DMAIC) process to plan and manage improvement projects.
Six Sigma
The first part of understanding a project is to demonstrate that all work flows from suppliers, through the project, to customers. This can be illustrated with a ___________ model.
Supplier-Input-Process-Output-Customer (SIPOC)
All of these are components of a work flow diagram called the SIPOC model EXCEPT: a. Support b. Process c. Customer d. Input
Support
The PMBOK® Guide defines quality as:
The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis?
The team lists the risk as the "effect" in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones.
A (n) __________ is a risk that will have a negative impact on a project objective if it occurs.
Threat
Project kickoff meetings are conducted for many reasons. All of these are reasons for conducting a project kickoff meeting EXCEPT: a. To allow all project stakeholders to express their needs and desires. b. To enable the project manager to use their influence to get everyone excited about the project. c. To document the lessons learned for the project. d. To allow all key stakeholders to see how all the pieces of the project fit together.
To document the lessons learned
While in project initiation the primary deliverable is created, and it is further refined during project planning. Towards the end of planning the team needs to take a step back to see if all of these elements work together by applying a ""sanity test."" A sanity test should answer all of the questions below EXCEPT: a. Do the milestones look achievable? b. What stage of team development is the project team in? c. Does everyone understand what they're supposed to do? d. How well do we understand the standards we will be judged against?
What stage of team development is the project team in?
Preventive action ____________.
seeks to ensure the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan
Who should be involved in identifying potential risks for a project?
Everyone
When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity.
FALSE
