MI Complications Questions

10. How would you describe pulmonary embolism to another nursing colleague? A. A thrombus from somewhere else that is lodged in the pulmonary artery, obstructing blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature. B. A thrombus that formed in the lung and which obstructs the pulmonary vasculature. C. A thrombus of any origin (inside or outside the lung) that lodges in the lung tissue, obstructing the pulmonary vasculature.

A. A thrombus from somewhere else that is lodged in the pulmonary artery, obstructing blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature.

20. The ultimate goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to: A. Improve perfusion. B. Improve oxygen saturation. C. Improve hypercapnia. D. Improve tachycardia.

A. Improve perfusion.

2. After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by auscultation of crackles in the lungs? A. Left-sided heart failure. B. Pulmonic valve malfunction. C. Right-sided heart failure. D. Tricuspid valve malfunction.

A. Left-sided heart failure

7. Mr. Reddy, the patient who suffered an MI 24 hours ago is taking the following medications: Metoprolol, Lisinopril, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin and Plavix. Based on the patient's renal function labs (BUN 45 and Cr 2.2), the nurse knows that she needs to hold which medication? A. Lisinopril. B. Metoprolol. C. Aspirin. D. Plavix.

A. Lisinopril

8. Mr. Reddy's BP is 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse knows that she needs to hold which medications? Select all that apply. A. Lisinopril. B. Metoprolol. C. Aspirin. D. Plavix.

A. Lisinopril. B. Metoprolol.

17. Mr. Jones' arterial blood gases are drawn. These are the results: pH 7.32, pCO2 30, bicarb 19, pO2 78. Based on these results, the nurse knows that the patient has: A. Metabolic acidosis, partially compensated. B. Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated. C. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated. D. Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated.

A. Metabolic acidosis, partially compensated

13. Papillary muscle dysfunction after myocardial infarction directly produces problems with: A. Valvular function. B. Left ventricle function. C. Right ventricle function. D. Interventricular septum.

A. Valvular function.

Which one of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)? A. Ventricular dilation. B. Systemic hypertension. C. Aortic valve malfunction. D. Increased atrial contractions

A. Ventricular dilation.

11. Which of the following are risk factors for Pulmonary Embolism? Select all that apply: A. Advanced age. B. Young age. C. Contraceptive use. D. Trauma to blood vessels. E. Underweight. F. Obesity. G. Surgery. H. Hypercoagulability. I. Pneumonia J. Immobility.

A.Advanced age C.Contraceptive use D.Trauma to blood vessels F.Obesity G.Surgery H.Hypercoagulability I. Pneumonia K.Immobility

4. In which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention most prominent? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Left ventricular hypertrophy. C. Inferior wall MI. D. Hemothorax.

B. Left ventricular hypertrophy.

14. A patient diagnosed with pulmonary embolism has venous ultrasound of lower extremities ordered. The purpose of this is: A. To evaluate venous circulation. B. To detect lower extremity thrombi. C. To check for venous insufficiency. D. To check function of the valves in venous circulation.

B. To detect lower extremity thrombi.

3. What is the most common complication of a MI? A. Cardiogenic shock. B. Heart failure. C. Arrhythmias. D. Pericarditis.

C. Arrhythmias.

18. Mr. Jones becomes unresponsive while the nurse is talking to him. The nurse's immediate action is to: A. Call the patient's attending physician. B. Activate code blue. C. Check the patient's pulse. D. Obtain the defibrillator.

C. Check the patient's pulse.

5. Which of the following positions would best aid breathing for a client with acute pulmonary edema? A. Lying flat in bed. B. Left side-lying. C. In high Fowler's position. D. In semi-Fowler's position.

C. In high Fowler's position

19. Which of these diagnostic tests are best during the immediate management of cardiogenic shock? A. CT scan of the heart. B. Echocardiogram. C. Lactic acid levels. D. Chest x-ray.

C. Lactic acid levels.

6. Mr. Reddy is a 73 y/o male who had myocardial infarction 24 hours ago. He has a urine output averaging 19 ml/hr for the last 2 hours. The patient received a single bolus of 500 ml of IV fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 ml. Daily laboratory results indicate the blood urea nitrogen is 45 mg/dL and the serum creatinine is 2.2 mg/dL. The nurse interprets that the client developed which complication of MI? A. Hypervolemia. B. UTI. C. Glomerulonephritis. D. Acute renal failure.

D. Acute renal failure.

15. Mr. Jones is a 58-year-old male with PMH of CHF, lung cancer (currently in remission), and HLD who is diagnosed with anterior wall infarction. Which combination of risk factors places him at highest risk for cardiogenic shock? A. His gender and history of CHF. B. His age and location of infarct. C. History of CHF and history of lung cancer. D. Anterior wall MI and history of CHF.

D. Anterior wall MI and history of CHF.

12. A patient arrives in the emergency department with symptoms of myocardial infarction, progressing to cardiogenic shock. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient with cardiogenic shock to exhibit initially? A. Hypertension. B. Bradycardia. C. Bounding pulse. D. Confusion.

D. Confusion.

16. The nurse finds Mr. Jones, the patient with anterior wall MI, looking pale. He is alert and complains of dizziness. The patient's current vital signs are the following: BP 88/45, HR 113, temp 36.4, SpO2 88%. Which is the nurse's greatest concern? A. He is hypotensive. B. He is hypoxemic. C. He developed heart failure. D. He is developing cardiogenic shock.

D. He is developing cardiogenic shock.