Micro chapter 19 (FINAL VERSION)

) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis E) a sty

) acne

) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum

A) Clostridium difficile

Painful swelling and rapidly spreading subcutaneous tissue necrosis is characteristic of a wound infection by A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Clostridium tetani. C) Mycobacterium leprae. D) Bacillus anthracis. E) Clostridium difficile.

A) Clostridium perfringens.

During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are nonhemolytic and bile salt tolerant. The bacteremia is likely due to A) Enterococcus. B) Mycoplasma. C) Staphylococcus. D) Streptococcus. E) Listeria.

A) Enterococcus

Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE? A) It is primarily a disease of humans. B) It produces endospores. C) It has a capsule. D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer. E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.

A) It is primarily a disease of humans

Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus pyogenes is FALSE? A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization. B) It is beta-hemolytic. C) It has group A Lancefield antigens. D) It produces streptolysins. E) It can be lysogenized by a temperate bacteriophage to produce erythrogenic toxins

A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization.

Streptococci are frequently classified by A) Lancefield antigen designations. B) the type of enzymes the bacteria produce. C) their staining properties. D) their ability to produce a capsule. E) the diseases they produce.

A) Lancefield antigen designations

A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments or clumps. The cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red when acid-fast stained. The bacteria in the sample are A) Mycobacterium species. B) Mycoplasma species. C) Nocardia species. D) Actinomyces species. E) not identifiable with this information.

A) Mycobacterium species

Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen ________ in its normal habitat, leading to disease. A) Propionibacterium acnes B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) viridians streptococci D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) Actinomyces

A) Propionibacterium acnes

) A lab report on a respiratory patient's sample contains the notation MDR-TB. What does this mean? A) The two standard drugs for TB, isoniazid and rifampin, are not effective. B) The patient has a mild case of TB. C) There are almost no drugs that will treat the infection. D) Most standard drugs for treatment of TB are recommended. E) The bacteria responsible for the infection are moderately resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.

A) The two standard drugs for TB, isoniazid and rifampin, are not effective.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is distinguished from other members of the genus A) because it is strictly aerobic. B) because it is a facultative anaerobe. C) by its lack of cytochromes. D) by the presence of sterols in its cytoplasmic membrane. E) by the presence of a rudimentary cell wall.

A) because it is strictly aerobic.

) The skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthracis are A) eschars. B) acne. C) impetigo. D) scarlatina. E) pus-filled ulcers.

A) eschars

Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they A) lack cell walls. B) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes. C) lack cytoplasmic membranes. D) have mycolic acid in their cell walls. E) have a rudimentary cell wall.

A) lack cell walls

Which of the following is an antiphagocytic factor of Staphylococcus? A) protein A B) catalase C) hemolysin D) protein M E) hyaluronidase

A) protein A

Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus

A) viridans streptococci

The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Mycobacterium. B) Actinomyces. C) Nocardia. D) Streptococcus. E) Propionibacterium.

B) Actinomyces.

What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase.

B) It can produce coagulase

An opportunistic pathogen frequently seen in AIDS patients, ________ spreads rapidly to various organs. A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C) Mycobacterium leprae D) Mycobacterium bovis E) Mycobacterium ulcerans

B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

Which of the following bacteria cause Hansen's disease? A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Mycobacterium leprae C) Clostridium difficile D) Listeria species E) Corynebacterium species

B) Mycobacterium leprae

Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by A) systemic tuberculosis. B) Nocardia. C) Actinomyces. D) penicillin-resistant staphylococci. E) cutaneous anthrax.

B) Nocardia.

Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neurons, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) Antibodies to the toxin bind the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle preventing relaxation.

B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system.

1) The presence of ________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci. A) enterotoxins B) catalase enzyme C) protein M D) kinases E) hemolysins

B) catalase enzyme

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the pathogenesis of Clostridium perfringens? A) edema due to increased vascular permeability B) inhibiting sensory neuron function C) lysis of erythrocytes D) cytotoxicity E) reducing blood pressure

B) inhibiting sensory neuron function

The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria A) are not phagocytized. B) prevent fusion of lysosomes with vesicles. C) form a pseudomembrane. D) destroy helper T cells. E) are carried by macrophages to a variety of sites

B) prevent fusion of lysosomes with vesicles.

Mycobacterium leprae primarily infects A) macrophages. B) skin cells. C) neurons. D) macrophages and skin cells. E) skin cells and neurons.

B) skin cells

) Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes? A) staphylococci B) enterococci C) Corynebacterium D) Listeria E) Mycobacterium

C) Corynebacterium

) Eating food contaminated with ________ may result in meningitis in at-risk persons. A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Clostridium perfringens E) Enterococcus faecalis

C) Listeria monocytogenes

The Quellung reaction is used to diagnose A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Streptococcus pneumoniae. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus equisimilis.

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by A) infecting and killing alveolar macrophages. B) triggering inflammatory mediator release. C) attaching to and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea. D) paralyzing the respiratory muscles. E) killing the epithelial cells of the alveoli.

C) attaching to and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome? A) hyaluronidase B) staphylokinase C) exfoliative toxin D) leukocidin E) coagulase

C) exfoliative toxin

Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) move rapidly through the body using multiple flagella. E) resist most antimicrobial agents.

C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host

Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) Propionibacterium B) Nocardia C) mycoplasmas D) Clostridium E) Mycobacterium

C) mycoplasmas

Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection? A) glomerulonephritis caused by the group A streptococci B) scarlet fever C) rheumatic fever D) impetigo E) toxic shock syndrome

C) rheumatic fever

Strep throat may progress to ________, characterized by a skin rash and a bright red swollen tongue. A) pyoderma B) toxic shock syndrome C) scarlet fever D) rheumatic fever E) scalded skin syndrome

C) scarlet fever

What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar

C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis

Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium difficile C) Clostridium tetani D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species

D) Clostridium botulinum

Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia.

D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma.

Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSE? A) All species of Corynebacterium may be pathogenic. B) Its toxin interferes with eukaryotic protein synthesis. C) It produces a characteristic pseudomembrane that can adhere to tissues in the throat. D) Its growth on Loffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium. E) Its toxin can be absorbed into the blood from cutaneous lesions leading to severe complications.

D) Its growth on Loffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium.

Which of the following bacteria is a genus of high G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) Staphylococcus B) Streptococcus C) Bacillus D) Mycobacterium E) Listeria

D) Mycobacterium

) How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells? A) They produce coagulase, allowing the bacteria to hide within blood clots. B) They grow in chains or pairs. C) They produce streptokinase, which breaks down blood clots. D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules. E) They have a coating of protein M.

D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules

Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers which protects their cell wall. B) They produce coagulase. C) They have a coating of protein A. D) They produce β-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase.

D) They produce β-lactamase

Which of the following bacteria can cause pharygitis? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus anginosus C) Streptococcus equisimilus D) both Streptococcus equisimilus and S. pyogenes E) Streptococcus anginosus, S. equisimilus, and S. pyogenes

D) both Streptococcus equisimilus and S. pyogenes

Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other Gram-positive cocci because enterococci A) have a glycocalyx. B) produce catalase enzyme. C) produce hemolysins. D) can grow in the presence of bile salts. E) are highly sensitive to antibiotics

D) can grow in the presence of bile salts.

The Quellung reaction is a test to detect A) hemolysins. B) kinases. C) pyrogens. D) capsule antigens. E) protein M.

D) capsule antigens.

) Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae? A) blister-like lesions B) a distinctive red rash that lasts for days C) pus-filled abscesses D) localized loss of the sense of touch E) severe inflammation with swelling

D) localized loss of the sense of touch

Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely A) Enterococcus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus).

D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA

Infections with Streptococcus pyogenes may progress to ________, characterized by a skin rash that peels after about a week and a bright red swollen tongue. A) pyoderma B) scalded skin syndrome C) toxic shock syndrome D) scarlatina E) rheumatic fever

D) scarlatina

A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is a likely diagnosis? A) erysipelas B) endocarditis C) scarlet fever D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning

D) toxic shock syndrome

Under what conditions does infection with Mycobacterium leprae develop into tuberculoid leprosy? A) when a strong antibody-mediated immune response develops B) in the absence of a cell-mediated immune response C) with pre-existing immunity as a result of immunization D) when the immune system develops a vigorous cell-mediated response E) when the innate respond is vigorous enough to clear the infection

D) when the immune system develops a vigorous cell-mediated response

) Immunization for ________ may reduce the incidence of otitis media and sinusitis. A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Propionibacterium acnes D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia

E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of A) acne. B) pharyngitis. C) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media.

E) otitis media.

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to A) scarlet fever. B) necrotizing fasciitis. C) rheumatic fever. D) scarlet fever or necrotizing fasciitis. E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.

E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.

The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the A) cardiovascular system. B) central nervous system. C) skin. D) lungs. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system.

E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system.

) Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE? A) Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails. B) Its toxin causes simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a small, motile, obligate anaerobe. D) It produces a terminal endospore that gives the cell a distinctive "lollipop" appearance. E) Its diagnostic feature is characteristic muscle contractions, which are often noted too late to save the patient.

Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails.

) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals.

c