Micro Exam 2 PT 2

________ is a group of sequentially interacting proteins important in innate and adaptive immunity. A) A complement B) An opsonin C) An inflammation D) A regeneration

A) A complement

Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion protein construct? A) Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct. B) Reading frame is the same for both the fusion gene and reporter gene. C) Transcriptional start and stop signals are shared. D) Translational start and stop signals are shared.

A) Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.

Which of the following interact with toll-like receptors (TLRs)? A) Bacterial LPS B) Immunoglobulins C) Major histocompatibility complex proteins D) None of these

A) Bacterial LPS

Which of the following terms is used to describe a synthetic DNA fragment? A) DNA cassette B) DNA hybrid C) Recombinant DNA D) Artificial chromosome

A) DNA cassette

The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecular cloning is A) DNA ligase. B) DNA phosphatase. C) DNA hydrolase. D) DNA transferase.

A) DNA ligase.

Which objective would be best to use a Southern blot rather than a Northern blot? A) Determine if a gene is present in a genome. B) Discover gene function. C) Identify regulatory gene-protein interactions. D) Quantify expression profiles of a gene.

A) Determine if a gene is present in a genome

Which time period(s) during PCR thermocycling is/are hottest in temperature? A) During DNA denaturation B) During primer annealing C) During primer extension/elongation D) Both the first and last cycles are hotter in temperature than all other cycles.

A) During DNA denaturation

Which of the following cell types has NO nucleus? A) Erythrocytes B) Lymphocytes C) Phagocyte D) All of these cells lack a nucleus.

A) Erythrocytes

What molecular mechanism/feature does site-directed mutagenesis exploit to introduce a mutation at a specific site? A) Flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit noncomplementary base pairing. B) Methylated nucleotides disrupt DNA polymerase's proofreading. C) Nucleotide substitution when one is depleted D) Transposase-induced base pair changes

A) Flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit

Which of these methods listed below is LEAST similar in what is being studied and concluded? A) Fluorescence in situ hybridization B) GFP fusion protein C) Northern blot D) RT-PCR

A) Fluorescence in situ hybridization

DiGeorge's syndrome is a developmental defect that prevents the maturation of the thymus. What cell type would be reduced by this condition? A) T cells B) B cells C) Macrophages D) Lymphocytes

A) T cells

What is the first step in constructing a metagenomic library from RNA? A) The RNA must be converted to cDNA. B) The RNA must be amplified through PCR, producing many RNA copies. C) The RNA must be screened to identify the genes of interest. D) The RNA must be inserted into plasmid vectors.

A) The RNA must be converted to cDNA.

Which statement is TRUE? A) YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement. B) BACs are more likely than YACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement. C) YACs and BACs undergo recombination and rearrangement at about the same rate. D) It is impossible to state with any certainty whether YACs or BACs are more likely to undergo recombination and rearrangement, because environmental factors play a major role in the probability of one or the other occurring.

A) YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.

The principle behind nucleic acid probe design is that the probe itself must contain A) a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest. B) all of the nucleotide sequence of the gene of interest to conclusively identify the gene. C) an antibody to specifically bind to the gene of interest. D) at least three separate complementary regions of the gene of interest.

A) a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest.

The first cell type active in the innate response is usually A) a phagocyte. B) an erythrocyte. C) a fibroblast. D) an antibody.

A) a phagocyte.

Inserting a kanamycin resistance cassette into a catabolic operon to confirm the gene is essential in degradation of a particular compound would involve all of the following EXCEPT A) a reporter gene. B) ligation. C) recombination. D) transformation.

A) a reporter gene.

To verify a gene was cloned into a vector successfully, sequencing the vector as well as ________ are commonly performed. A) agarose gel electrophoresis B) fluorescence in situ hybridization C) protein purification D) northern blots

A) agarose gel electrophoresis

Immunoglobulins are produced by B cells and are also known as A) antibodies. B) antigens. C) bacteria. D) pathogens.

A) antibodies.

Adaptive immune responses are directed at pathogen molecules called A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) T cell receptors. D) pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP).

A) antigens.

Stem cells are produced and developed in the A) bone marrow. B) brain. C) liver. D) stems of plants.

A) bone marrow.

It is possible to rapidly screen for mutations in regulatory genes using A) gene fusions. B) defective proteases. C) microinjection. D) Southern blotting.

A) gene fusions.

The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is called A) immune memory. B) specificity. C) tolerance. D) immune memory, specificity, or tolerance.

A) immune memory.

Some of the cytokines produced by lymphocytes are called A) interleukins. B) pathogen recognition receptors. C) complement. D) epitopes.

A) interleukins.

Organisms such as Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus that produce leukocidins and are associated with pus are called ________ pathogens. A) pyogenic B) radical C) enterotoxigenic D) hemorrhagic

A) pyogenic

Expression vectors are designed to ensure that ________ can be efficiently ________. A) mRNA / transcribed B) DNA / transcribed C) mRNA / translated D) DNA / translated

A)mRNA / transcribed

Which of the following is NOT a limitation to using auxotrophs to prevent the spread of genetically modified genes to wild populations? A) Auxotrophs may mutate in ways that allow them to synthesize the limiting nutrient. B) Auxotrophs self-destruct using self-toxins when this method is applied. C) Auxotrophs often cross-feed from the metabolites of other organisms in the environment. D) Back mutation to the wild type may occur.

B) Auxotrophs self-destruct using self-toxins when this method is applied.

Which of the treatments listed below would be most effective for a patient with a genetic defect that causes severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID), a condition in which there is a severe deficiency in B and T lymphocytes? A) Intravenous antibiotics B) Bone marrow transplant C) Multiple immunizations D) Repeated doses of antisera

B) Bone marrow transplant

________ are cytotoxins produced by T cells that cause apoptosis. A) Perforins B) Granzymes C) Phagocytes D) Macrophages

B) Granzymes

Which of the following is NOT a common step in molecular cloning using plasmids? A) Fragment DNA into small segments B) Hybridize DNA sequences with slightly mismatched oligonucleotides C) Ligate DNA into vectors D) Insert the vectors into a host

B) Hybridize DNA sequences with slightly mismatched oligonucleotides

What is the difference between PCR and RT-PCR? A) Only PCR makes many copies of DNA rapidly. B) RT-PCR uses an RNA template whereas PCR uses a DNA template. C) Only PCR produces cDNA. D) PCR uses a single stranded template whereas RT-PCR uses a double-stranded template.

B) RT-PCR uses an RNA template whereas PCR uses a DNA template.

The ability of humans to resist a disease is called A) dormancy. B) immunity. C) resistance. D) susceptibility.

B) immunity.

The body's noninducible, preexisting ability to recognize and destroy a variety of pathogens or their products is called A) adaptive immunity. B) innate immunity. C) phagocytosis. D) cytotoxic response.

B) innate immunity.

If a protein that could be toxic to the expression host needs to be expressed in large quantities, then it is best to select an expression vector that A) is not able to be replicated. B) is inducible. C) is attached to a normal cell promoter. D) allows continual expression of the protein.

B) is inducible.

Signal transduction pathways initiate activation of transcription after specific A) TH cell death. B) ligand-receptor binding on the cell surface. C) cytokines diffuse across the cytoplasmic membrane. D) antigen-antibody binding.

B) ligand-receptor binding on the cell surface.

When dendritic cells ingest antigen, they migrate to the ________, where they present the antigen to T lymphocytes. A) kidneys B) lymph nodes C) thymus D) spleen

B) lymph nodes

he first defense cells that interact with a pathogen in the body are A) T cells. B) macrophages. C) B cells. D) mast cells.

B) macrophages.

Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians, but are especially challenging for those who develop them, because A) coat proteins form a relatively rigid structure and do not allow much space for additional proteins to be expressed. B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity. C) vaccinia and most other viruses engineered for vaccines contain only one restriction site for cloning in their genome. D) virus genetic manipulation uses transfection, which is an inherently inefficient process.

B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity.

The enhancement of phagocytosis due to deposition of antibody on the surface of a pathogen or antigen is called A) complementation. B) opsonization. C) inflammation. D) antibody class switching.

B) opsonization.

Cells that can engulf foreign particles, and can ingest, kill, and digest most bacterial pathogens are called A) red blood cells. B) phagocytes. C) reticulocytes. D) resistant cells.

B) phagocytes.

To estimate the total concentration of a beneficial bacterial species in yogurt, ________ would provide the quickest results. A) fluorescence in situ hybridization B) qPCR C) RT-PCR D) a Southern blot

B) qPCR

The principle underlying how salmon were genetically engineered to grow faster is the A) removal of a gene responsible for feeling full after eating. B) replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production. C) resistance to bacterial infections which waste metabolic energy in the salmon to fight off. D) addition of genes to enhance blood circulation and tissue development.

B) replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production.

Interaction of a pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) with a pattern recognition receptor (PRR) results in A) formation of transmembrane pores that cause cell lysis. B) transmembrane signal transduction that initiates transcription of genes involved in phagocytosis, inflammation, and pathogen killing. C) molecular activation of the adaptive immune system. D) a superantigen reaction that can cause septic shock.

B) transmembrane signal transduction that initiates transcription of genes involved in phagocytosis, inflammation, and pathogen killing.

Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic biology? A) Assembling gene sequences together into genome and creating a living organism from it B) Creating a new metabolic pathway that produces a previously unidentified compound C) Developing a novel polyvalent vaccine D) Making Escherichia coli photographic

C) Developing a novel polyvalent vaccine

Which of the following is a likely target for a toll-like receptor (TLR)? A) Tumor necrosis factor B) Interleukin IV C) Flagellin D) Insulin

C) Flagellin

Fever is induced at the systemic level by ________, which is an endogenous pyrogen. A) CXCL8 B) IL-12 C) IL-6 D) CCL2

C) IL-6

Streptococcus pyogenes produces proteins called ________, which alter(s) the surface of the pathogen and inhibits phagocytosis. A) glycolipids B) leukocidins C) M proteins D) pus

C) M proteins

Which of the following uses its cell wall glycolipids to absorb hydroxyl radicals and superoxide anions? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Escherichia coli

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Some proteins expressed at high levels form inclusions that are relatively insoluble. What is the most effective way to facilitate purification of these proteins? A) Use a reporter gene to locate the inclusion. B) Decrease the number of insertions in the vector. C) Produce the protein as a fusion protein. D) Switch to an expression host with a larger intracellular volume.

C) Produce the protein as a fusion protein.

Which process results in the production of a hybrid polypeptide? A) Vector fusion B) Operon fusion C) Protein fusion D) Translational fusion

C) Protein fusion

The unique antigen-reactive proteins of T cells are A) antibodies. B) immunoglobulins. C) T cell receptors. D) None of these are correct.

C) T cell receptors.

ther name for "programmed cell death" is A) necrosis. B) perforation. C) apoptosis. D) cellular degradation.

C) apoptosis.

The pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) recognized by mannose-binding lectin (MBL) is the sugar mannose, found as a repeating subunit in A) human mucus. B) lymphocyte receptors. C) bacterial polysaccharides. D) bacterial proteins.

C) bacterial polysaccharides.

attern recognition receptors are most directly used A) by granulocytes to trigger degranulation. B) by neutrophils to detect self-tissues. C) by phagocytes to detect pathogens. D) by B cells to produce antibodies.

C) by phagocytes to detect pathogens.

The inflammatory cytokines IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α are also A) opsonizing agents that coat foreign cells. B) responsible for decreasing vascular permeability. C) capable of producing systemic fever by stimulating the release of prostaglandins in the brain. D) part of the classical pathway of complement activation.

C) capable of producing systemic fever by stimulating the release of prostaglandins in the brain.

Communication between cells of the immune system is accomplished in many cases through A) allelic exclusion. B) clonal deletion. C) cytokines. D) allelic exclusion, clonal deletion, and cytokines.

C) cytokines.

Some intracellular pathogens produce phagocyte-killing proteins called ________ that kill the phagocyte after ingestion of the pathogen. A) antibodies B) antigens C) leukocidins D) pus

C) leukocidins

An example of a pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) is A) cell-surface proteins. B) flagellin proteins. C) lipopolysaccharide (LPS). D) pilus.

C) lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than bacterial transcripts? A) Eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated. B) Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy size-selection methods. C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes. D) Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs in eukaryotes.

C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.

Enhanced phagocytosis of antibody-sensitized cells is known as A) complementation. B) immunization. C) opsonization. D) tolerance.

C) opsonization

ocytes have a pathogen-recognition system known as ________ that leads to the recognition, containment, and destruction of a pathogen. A) collagen B) fibrin C) pattern recognition receptors (PRR) D) pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP)

C) pattern recognition receptors (PRR)

The Ti plasmid is best suited for genetically manipulating A) Agrobacterium spp. B) fish. C) plants. D) viruses.

C) plants.

Using a host defective in proteases is likely to be necessary when A) engineering a complete metabolic pathway requiring several different enzymes. B) overproducing proteins. C) producing a small protein. D) engineering transgenic animals with immune systems.

C) producing a small protein.

Blood and lymph have the following in common EXCEPT A) nucleated cells. B) proteins. C) red blood cells. D) None of these.

C) red blood cells.

A(n) ________ gene is a gene that encodes a protein that is easy to detect and assay. A) encoder B) translational C) reporter D) recorder

C) reporter

One of the more formidable obstacles to mammalian gene cloning is the presence of A) introns. B) exons. C) repressors. D) integrators.

C) repressors

The increased rate of O2 uptake by activated phagocytes is called the A) hypoxemia. B) pyogenesis. C) respiratory burst. D) peroxidase.

C) respiratory burst.

The cells active in both innate and adaptive immunity develop from common pluripotent precursors in the bone marrow called A) B cells. B) killer cells. C) stem cells. D) leukocytes.

C) stem cells.

Recognizing pathogens that contain multiple unique proteins, which enable the human immune system to recognize just one and mount an effective response, has opened the door on development of some vaccines only being A) attenuated carrier viruses. B) monovalent. C) subunit vaccines. D) purified protein administered.

C) subunit vaccines.

Which of the following are proteins that interact directly with antigens during the adaptive immune response? A) Immunoglobulins B) Major histocompatibility complex C) T cell receptors (receptors on T cells) D) All of these

D) All of these

Which of the following are molecular mediators of inflammation? A) Immunoglobulins B) Lipopolysaccharide C) Erythrocytes D) Both chemokines and cytokines

D) Both chemokines and cytokines

Which of the following is a function of dendritic cells? A) Antigen presentation B) Plaque formation C) Phagocytosis D) Both phagocytosis and plaque formation

D) Both phagocytosis and plaque formation

Which of the following are NOT phagocytes? A) Dendritic cells B) Monocytes C) Neutrophils D) Erythrocytes

D) Erythrocytes

Which of the following sequences is a palindrome, characteristic of many recognition sequences for restriction endonucleases? A) TTGCCGA AACGGCT B) GGGGGGG CCCCCCCC C) GTAATG CATTAC D) GAATTC CTTAAG

D) GAATTC CTTAAG

The secondary lymphoid organs consist of which of the following? A) Lymph nodes only B) Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) only C) The spleen only D) Lymph nodes, MALT, and the spleen

D) Lymph nodes, MALT, and the spleen

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are found on which of the following cells? A) Macrophages B) Bacteria C) Neutrophils D) Macrophages and neutrophils

D) Macrophages and neutrophils

Which of the following can cause allergy symptoms and inflammation by degranulation? A) Dendritic cells B) Erythrocytes C) Macrophages D) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

D) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Which of the following is TRUE about cytokines? A) They are carbohydrates. B) They play an important role in immunity, but do not affect stem cell growth. C) They play a role in the growth of stem cells, but are not important in immunity. D) They are proteins that play an important role in immunity and the growth of stem cells.

D) They are proteins that play an important role in immunity and the growth of stem cells.

What is the most important advantage of Pfu polymerase over Taq polymerase? A) Unlike Taq polymerase, Pfu polymerase functions well at relatively high temperatures. B) It is from a bacterium, not an archaean, so it is more effective for replicating eukaryotic DNA. C) Pfu polymerase removes the need for primers during PCR. D) Unlike Taq polymerase, Pfu polymerase has proofreading activity.

D) Unlike Taq polymerase, Pfu polymerase has proofreading activity.

Chemokines are a group of small proteins that A) attract T cells to sites of injury. B) function as chemoattractants for phagocytes and lymphocytes. C) potentiate specific immune responses. D) attract T cells, phagocytes, and lymphocytes, as well as potentiate specific immune responses.

D) attract T cells, phagocytes, and lymphocytes, as well as potentiate specific immune responses.

After digesting a DNA sequence, a restriction endonuclease can generate A) blunt ends. B) overhangs. C) sticky ends. D) blunt ends, overhangs, or sticky ends.

D) blunt ends, overhangs, or sticky ends.

The primary function of a phagocyte is to A) destroy pathogens. B) engulf pathogens. C) evade pathogens. D) both engulf and destroy pathogens.

D) both engulf and destroy pathogens.

A poorly immunogenic vaccine often suggests the foreign proteins were not properly recognized by the immune system due to a lack of ________ necessary, which can also be engineered to occur with additional molecular manipulations. A) complex folding B) methylation C) glucosylation D) glycosylation

D) glycosylation

Oxygen compounds toxic to pathogens include A) hydrogen peroxide. B) hypochlorous acid. C) nitric oxide. D) hydrogen peroxide, hypochlorous acid, and nitric oxide.

D) hydrogen peroxide, hypochlorous acid, and nitric oxide.

One challenge in cloning human somatotropin is that A) it consists of multiple polypeptides, making synthesis complex. B) its gene cannot be cloned as cDNA. C) it can only be expressed by eukaryotic cells. D) it is susceptible to digestion by bacterial proteases because it is a small protein hormone.

D) it is susceptible to digestion by bacterial proteases because it is a small protein hormone.

Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors by A) carrying ori genes for replication of the cloned sequence. B) having a multiple cloning site (MCS). C) having a high copy number per cell. D) lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.

D) lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.

Intracellular pathogens sometimes produce ________ that can kill phagocytes. A) lipopolysaccharides B) pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) C) pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) D) leukocidins

D) leukocidins

The process by which antibodies block interactions between pathogens or their products and host cells is termed A) attenuation. B) complement. C) interference. D) neutralization.

D) neutralization.

MHC I proteins are found A) on B cells only. B) on macrophages only. C) on dendritic cells only. D) on all nucleated cells.

D) on all nucleated cells.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies an individual gene segment in vitro with a(n) ________ primer(s). A) individual RNA B) individual DNA C) pair of RNA D) pair of DNA

D) pair of DNA

C-reactive protein is a A) pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP). B) homotrimeric adaptor protein. C) lipoprotein. D) pattern recognition receptor (PRR).

D) pattern recognition receptor (PRR).

Interaction of a pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) with a toll-like receptor (TLR) triggers transmembrane signal transduction and subsequent A) clonal expansion. B) antibody production. C) complement protein activation. D) phagocytosis and inflammation.

D) phagocytosis and inflammation.

The genes encoding green fluorescent protein (GFP) and β-galactosidase are typically used in cloning as A) transcription regulators. B) global control genes. C) promoter sequences. D) reporter genes.

D) reporter genes

Adaptive immunity occurs when A) death results from pathogen infection. B) the innate immune response is overly effective. C) a broad, rapid response is needed to a wide range of pathogens from the body regardless of the specific type of pathogen. D) the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.

D) the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.