Micro final #1

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All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT: A) Cryptosporidium. B) Cyclospora. C) Entamoeba. D) Giardia. E) Campylobacter

- Campylobacter Campylobacter is a spirally curved, Gram-negative rod that needs be grown under microaerophilic conditions.

The foodborne form of rat bite fever is called: - rat bite fever. - Haverhill fever. - cat scratch fever. - Lyme fever.

- Haverhill fever.

Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver? A) Salmonella enterica B) Shigella spp. C) hepatitis A virus D) Vibrio cholerae E) Escherichia coli

- Hepatitis A Virus All the hepatitis viruses

Which of the following normal skin flora is a small yeast? A. staphylococci B. diphtheroids C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp.

- Malassezia spp. - MALASSEZIA: tiny lipid-dependent yeasts We already established that Malassezia are not diphtheroids, they are not bacteria like staphylococci (G+) and Candida is a yeast but it's not supposed to be on the skin normally.

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by: A) Helicobacter pylori. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Vibrio cholerae. D) Shigella spp. E) Clostridium perfringens

- Salmonella enterica

Rat bite fever, characterized by fever, rash, and muscle aches, is caused by: - Afipia felis. - Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae. - Pasteurella multocida. - Streptobacillus moniliformis.

- Streptobacillus moniliformis. 2nd is cat scratch disease 3rd is in bite wounds Streptobacillary Rat Bite Fever slide 48 Streptobacillus moniliformis: facultatively anaerobic, Gramnegative pleomorphic rod; spontaneously develops L-forms lacking cell wall Correct

Dental plaque is an example of: A) a pellicle. B) a biofilm. C) gingivitis. D) dentin. E) tooth enamel

- a biofilm Bacteria come in and make a biofilm on the pellicle (made of proteinaceous material from saliva on the enamel).

The passage from the mouth to the anus is termed the: gut canal. oral cavity. grand canal. alimentary canal.

- alimentary canal Also called the Gastrointestinal tract (saw this question too, same but GI tract instead of alimentary canal.)

If you had three tubes of flu viruses and you exposed tube 1 to protease, tube 2 to protease and RNase, and tube 3 to protease and DNase, and the contents of tube 2 were be degraded, you would be able to conclude that:

- an RNA virus RNases cleave RNA molecules

Warts are caused by: A) papillomaviruses. B) parvovirus. C) adenoviruses. D) herpes virus. E) coronavirus.

- papillomaviruses. Warts are caused by Papillomaviruses that infect skin via minor abrasions • Warts are small tumors (papillomas) consisting of multiple protrusions of tissue covered by skin or mucous membrane

Single cell protein -refers to the use of single-celled organisms as a protein source. - refers to a single-celled protein produced by several different organisms. - is an enzyme. - causes food intoxication.

-refers to the use of single-celled organisms as a protein source.

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix: -cidal. -static. -anti. -genic.

-static

Which of the following is NOT true for both hepatitis B and hepatitis C infection? The virus can cause a chronic disease. The disease is prevented by vaccination. The infection is transmitted through blood and body fluids. Diagnosis can be achieved through testing the blood for antibodies.

- the disease is prevented by vaccination There is a vaccine for HepB but there is no vaccine available for preventing HepC. It is recommended to be vaccinated for HepA and HepB to help prevent a combination of infections that might severely damage the liver.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n): A) animalosis. B) tickonosis. C) plantonosis. D) zoonosis. E) aviosis.

- zoonosis Zoonosis maintained in various species of ticks, mammals - Humans are accidental host

Identify the meninges from closest to the brain to furthest away: 1. dura mater 2. pia mater 3. arachnoid mater 2, 3, 1 3, 2, 1 3, 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 3, 1 1, 2, 3

2, 3, 1 pia is on the brain, then arachnoid, and dura is outmost.

D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes

28) All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT A) it allows for detection of uncultured microbes. B) it demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment. C) it allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other microbes. D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes. E) All of the answers are correct.

B) Both are gram-positive.

29) Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? A) Both ferment lactose. B) Both are gram-positive. C) Both are motile. D) Both are aerobic. E) Each answer is equally important.

The incubation period of leprosy is: A. 1 week. B. 3 weeks. C. 3 months. D. 3 or more years.

3 or more years p.721 - It is difficult to eradiacte, due to the long generation time of Mycobacterium leprae. This results in an incubation time of 3 years (range 3 months to 20 years) during which time the disease can remain undetected.

The incubation period of leprosy is 1 week. 3 or more years. 3 months. over 10 years. 3 weeks.

3 or more years.

B) Bacteria

38) Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protist

Pure water has a water activity value of ________. 0.90 1.00 0.70 0.80 100

1.00 Most fresh foods have a value above 0.98. Ham has a value of 0.91. Jam has a value of 0.85. some cakes have a value of 0.75

TRUE

10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

13) Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the three domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain? A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome. B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells. C) Viruses are obligate parasites. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) All of the answers are correct.

D) d

16) In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to which of the following? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

29. Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, wine is optimally achieved by A. pasteurization. B. chlorination. C. moist heat autoclave. D. filtration. E. boiling water.

A. pasteurization

FALSE

4) The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom."

You are looking after you sister's cat Singa. While playing one evening, Singa accidentally bites you instead of the toy mouse that you are holding. The bite wound is very small but is in the fleshy part...

5 of these...

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria. 10% 50% 99.9% 100%

99.9%

Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes? A) Monocytes and macrophages B) Lymphocytes and basophils C) Mast cells and eosinophils D) Basophils and eosinophils E) Neutrophils and macrophages

A - The mononuclear phagocyte system includes monocytes, macrophages/histiocytes, and dendritic cells. Macrophages/histiocytes are tissue-based cells that have an important phagocytic function and produce a variety of bioactive substances that play roles in inflammation and fibrosis.

Phages that can either replicate and cause cell lysis or can integrate their DNA into the host DNA are called

A temporate phage.

A. In epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe; most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks B. The inanimate objects such as books, tools or towels that can act as transmitters of pathogenic microorganism or viruses C. An antibody preparation protective against a given toxin D. Diseases that are spread from an infect animal or person to another animal or person E. The soluble, poisonous protein substance secreted by a microorganism or released upon lysis

A. biological vector B. fomites C. antitoxin D. communicable E. exotoxin

42. Filtration can result in sterilization of serum and blood products A. by removing viruses. B. by relying on gravity. C. by removing toxins. D. using high heat and filtration. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. by removing viruses

A. The outermost layer of skin. B. In Lyme disease the nervous system signs and symptoms appear 2-8 weeks post-infection. C. A boil; a localized skin infection that penetrates into the subcutaneous tissue, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. D. Mucus-secreting epithelial cell. E. A bacterial toxin that causes sloughing of the outer epidermis. F. A localized collection of pus within a tissue. G. A common skin condition in which pores on the face, neck, chest, or back become plugged and the surrounding skin becomes inflamed. H. Fungus that lives on the skin and can be responsible for disease of the hair, nails, and skin. I. Plasma-clotting virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that serves as an identifying characteristic. J. Slight changes in a viral surface antigen render antibodies made against the previous version only partially protective. K. A protein in the cell wall of Group A streptococci that is associated with virulence. L. Lesions of the oral cavity caused by measles virus that resemble a grain of salt on a red base. M. Multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis. N. An nflammation of the lungs accompanied by filling of the air sacs with fluids such as pus and blood. O. A worldwide epidemic. P. A post-streptococcal sequela thought to be due to circulating immune complexes. Q. Condition resulting from the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. R. Test for tuberculosis involving the intracutaneous injection of 0.1 mL of PPD into the forearm; relies on a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction triggered by past infection, significant exposure to tuberculosis. S. A tough layer of dead cells and debris accumulated on an epithelial surface. T. Caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

A. epidermis B. Early disseminated infection C. Furuncle D. goblet cell E. exfoliatin F. abscess G. acne H. dermatophyte I. coagulase J. antigenic drift K. M protein L. Koplik spots M. Multidrug-resistant TB, MDR-TB N. pneumonia O. Pandemic P. Rhuematic fever Q. Shingles R. Tuberculin skin test, TST S. pseudomembrane T. walking pneumonia

A. A cytokine capable of inducing cells to resist viral replication B. The first class of antibodies produced during the primary response to an antigen C. A clear yellow liquid that containing leukocytes and flows within lymphatic vessels D. The immunity due to B cells and an antibody response E. A molecule that specifically binds to a given receptor

A. interferon B. IgM C. lymph D. humoral immunity E. ligand

25. Dry heat A. is less efficient than moist heat. B. cannot sterilize. C. includes tyndallization. D. is used in devices called autoclaves. E. will sterilize at 121C for 15 minutes.

A. is less efficient than moist heat

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are: - cold sores. - genital herpes. - typhus. - shingles. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with tularemia. brucellosis. plague. infectious mononucleosis. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The growth of microorganisms in a food product is influenced by the availability of acidity. moisture. temperature. nutrients. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Treatment of HIV attempts to -block reverse transcriptase activity -block attachment to host cells -block viral integrate -block viral protease activity -All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Traditionally the animal(s) associated with hosting Brucella is/are cattle. dogs. goats. pigs. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. - domestic animals. Brucellosis melitensis if people but there are others: Brucellosis abortus infects cattle Brucellosis canis infects dogs Brucellosis melitensis infects goats Brucellosis suis infects pigs

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. A. water B. amino acids C. lipids D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Use substances in sweat, sebum as nutrients; byproducts inhibit other microbes.

Plant viruses may be transmitted by: - humans. - worms. - insects. - contaminated seeds. - All of the choices are correct.

All the choices are correct

Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed: A) serum strong. B) serum resistant. C) balanced pathogens. D) mutualistic. E) mutualistic AND serum resistant.

B) serum resistant.

So far, the only disease that has been globally eradicated is: A) polio. B) smallpox. C) measles. D) diphtheria.

B) smallpox. Vaccination program. Last reported case of small pox was in Somalia, Africa in 1977.

The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called: A) acquired immunity. B) vaccination. C) hypersensitivity. D) memory immunity. E) autoimmunity.

B) vaccination. L. Pasteur used the word VACCINATION to describe any type of protective innoculation. 'Vacca' is latin for cow.

Cells infected with animal viruses lyse because: - the release of the virions depletes the cell of energy. - the virus releases enzymes that lyse the cell. - functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies. - the virus RNA and cellular protein interact to kill the cell.

*functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies.

A picnic was attended by 1,000 people. Potato salad was served at the event. The next day, 140 people reported vomiting and diarrhea. What was the attack rate of this food-borne illness? - 10% - 140% - 1.4% - 14% - More information is needed.

- 14%

Which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for staphylococci? A. 0.5% HCl B. 7.5% salt C. 1.0% glucose D. 5.0% mannose

- 7.5% salt Staphylococci: SALT-TOLERANT, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria

Part of the ability of S. mutans to result in dental caries depends on its ability to: invade plaque and dissolve the gums. convert sucrose to lactic acid. convert proteins to sugars. attach to the gums.

- convert sucrose to lactic acid.

All of the following are mechanisms of action associated with drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis except __________. - dismantling existing peptidoglycan molecules - blocking the secretion of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm - preventing crosslinking between NAM subunits - interfering with the formation of alanine-alanine crossbridges

- dismantling existing peptidoglycan molecules

The presence of long double-stranded RNA (> 30 bp): A) indicates infection by any virus. B) indicates exposure to mutagens. C) induces synthesis of interferon. D) indicates infection by a retrovirus. E) indicates complement activity.

C) induces synthesis of interferon.

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by: A) eating contaminated food. B) a blood transfusion. C) extended use of antibiotics. D) improper food storage. E) travel to an underdeveloped country

- extended use of antibiotics. Clostridium dificile Infection (CDI) Clostridium difficile: Gram-positive, obligate anaerobic rod • Forms endospores highly resistant to disinfectants, environmental conditions, so control is difficult • Produce one or more cytotoxins Primarily in hospitalized patients on ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY

Rhinoviruses need to be grown: A) in living cells AND at 39°C. B) in synthetic media AND at 39°C. C) on blood agar AND at 33°C. D) in live animals or plants. E) in living cells AND at 33°C.

- in living cells AND at 33°C.

Class II MHC molecules are found primarily on: - dendritic cells AND erythrocytes. - T cytotoxic cells AND macrophages - macrophages AND erythrocytes. - T cytotoxic cells AND dendritic cells. - macrophages AND dendritic cells.

- macrophages AND dendritic cells. Antigen presenting cells

Influenza is caused by: A) orthomyxovirus. B) H. influenzae. C) cytomegalovirus. D) adenovirus. E) coronavirus.

- orthomyxovirus. Causative agent of Influenza A is virus in the orthomyxovirus family. Has an envelope, ssRNA in 8 segments.

When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as: A) protected population. B) active immunity. C) passive immunity. D) herd immunity. E) protective immunity.

D) herd immunity. Need upwards of 90% of the population to be immune to protect those who aren't.

The first identified case in an outbreak is called the: A) starter case. B) traceable case. C) primary case. D) index case. E) initiator case.

D) index case. Learned this term in relation to the first stick on the epi curve of a propagated epidemic where it starts with one person who infects a few more who go out and infect a few more each...

A more modern equivalent to Koch's postulates is termed: A) Pasteur's systematics. B) Hoch's postulates. C) atomic theory. D) molecular postulates. E) protein theory.

D) molecular postulates. molecular (Koch's) postulates

The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed: A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) independence. D) mutualism. E) dysbiosis.

D) mutualism.

55. Which of the following acids is not used to destroy or inhibit microbial cells in food? A. acetic acid B. benzoic acid C. lactic acid D. phosphoric acid E. propionic acid

D. phosphoric acid

14. A cleansing method that mechanically removes microbes and other debris to reduce contamination is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

D. sanitization

"Clonal selection" and "clonal expansion": A) imply that each individual lymphocyte produces a single antibody. B) describe how a single lymphocyte proliferates in a population of effector cells. C) depend on an antibody recognizing a specific epitope. D) explain how an antigen stimulates the production of matching antibodies. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

What percent of Staphylococcus aureus infections are due to the patient's own flora? 10-20% 30-100% 40-50% 0%

30-100%

D) Fungi

34) Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? A) Animalia B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Fungi E) Plantae

A) 1 and 3

35) In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 5 D) 2 and 5 E) 4 and 5

B) Archaea

37) You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group A) Animalia. B) Archaea. C) Bacteria. D) Fungi. E) Plantae.

The cause of infectious mononucleosis is varicella virus. Staphylococcus aureus. Epstein-Barr virus. Francisella tularensis.

Epstein-Barr virus. - enveloped, dsDNA virus of family Herpesviridae, no relation.

The bacteria associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome is Lactobacillus. Campylobacter jejuni. Escherichia coli O157:H7. Salmonella cholerasuis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Escherichia coli O157:H7.

Please select the correct sequence of steps involved in the creation of a dead zone in a water body. 1. Heterotrophic microbes metabolize the organic compounds synthesized by primary producers. 2. Water becomes hypoxic and toxic algal blooms may occur; animals in the area either flee or die. 3. Water accumulates nutrients as it runs through agricultural, industrial, and urbanized regions. 4. Dissolved O2 is consumed by metabolic activity of heterotrophs. 5. Excess nitrate and phosphate in nutrient-rich water causes algae and cyanobacteria to flourish. 5; 3; 4; 2; 1 3; 5; 1; 4; 2 3; 1; 4; 2; 5 1; 3; 4; 2; 5 2; 1; 4; 3; 5

3;5;1;4;2

The water activity in foods with high levels of salt or sugar is high. T/F

False Seems like it should be but any water is tied up with the salt/sugar and unavailable for use by spoilage organisms.

T/F - Generally, the smaller the infective dose, the lower the chance of disease.

False Small infective dose is a bad thing. Come into contact with a tiny amount of infectious agent and chances of getting the infection are SOOOOO much higher.

Which of the following are most likely to be found growing on salted or dried foods? Fungi Viruses Bacteria Fungi AND bacteria Protozoa

Fungi

Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgM D) IgE E) IgG

IgM

Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is false? a) It is the most common vaginal disease in women of childbearing age. b) In pregnant women, it is associated with premature delivery. c) Inflammation of the vagina is a constant feature of the disease. d) The vaginal microbiota shows a significant decrease in lactobacilli and a marked increase in anaerobic bacteria. e) The cause is unknown.

Inflammation of the vagina is a constant feature of the disease. Not true because p.735 - about half of BV cases are asymptomatic.

Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as: A) colonization. B) infection. C) pathogenism. D) mutualism. E) commensalism.

A) colonization.

Which of the following practices would be most effective in breaking an infection cycle in a family infected with Giardia? Treat pets with animal medication for Giardia. Purchase a filtration system for household drinking water. Practice good hygiene by carefully washing hands, cleaning under the fingernails, and avoiding fecal contamination when changing diapers or using the restroom. Swim in lakes when no one else is present.

Practice good hygiene by carefully washing hands, cleaning under the fingernails, and avoiding fecal contamination when changing diapers or using the restroom.

What part of the E. coli T4 phage attaches to the host cell receptors?

Protein fibers at the end of the phage tail.

Which of the following drugs is incorrectly paired with its mode of action? Reverse transcriptase inhibitor: binds to DNA polymerase Actinomycin: blocks DNA replication Quinolones: inhibit DNA gyrase AZT: nucleotide analogs are incorporated into

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor: binds to DNA polymerase

The composition of the normal microbiota may be affected by: A) hormonal changes. B) use of antibiotics. C) obesity level. D) diet. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by: A) preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND mimicking host molecules. B) avoiding recognition and attachment of lymphocytes AND lysing the phagosome. C) lysing the phagosome AND mimicking host molecules. D) preventing encounters with phagocytes AND preventing fusion of two phagosomes. E) preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

E) preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome. It's been eaten by the phagocyte now how to survive? - get out of/lyse the phagosome - prevent fusion of phagosome to lysosome - survive the phagolysosome (few can)

Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with: A) alcohol. B) phenol. C) formalin. D) histamine. E) mercury.

Formalin - or other chemical agents that do not significantly change surface eitopes (antigenic determinants) - the treatment leaves the agent immunogenic even though it can't replicate.

The skin-invading molds are collectively called dermatophytes. T/F

True Dermatophytes are group of skin-invading molds including members of genera Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton Dermatophytes can invade hair, nails, keratin in skin • Result in jock itch, athlete's foot, ringworm, or Latinized names describing location: tinea capitis (scalp), tinea barbae (beard), tinea axillaris (armpit), tin

H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment. T/F

True INCREASE the pH means make it less acidic.

The childhood disease that damages the body defenses and is frequently complicated by secondary infections involving mostly Gram-positive cocci is: A) German measles. B) measles. C) mumps. D) chickenpox. E) shingles.

Measles Measles = rubeola German measles = rubella

Proteins that react specifically with the chemical structures in the antigen that induced them are called: A) determinants. B) antibodies. C) proteases. D) macroproteins. E) epitopes.

Antibodies

The member of the hospital staff who surveys the types and numbers of nosocomial infections is called the: A) head nurse. B) infection control practitioner. C) staff control. D) attending physician. E) external epidemiologist.

B) infection control practitioner.

Skin and mucous membranes are mostly involved in: A) adaptive immunity. B) innate immunity. C) autoimmunity. D) irregular immunity. E) secondary immunity.

B) innate immunity.

In order to prevent spread of microorganisms from the microbiology laboratory, the room air should be: A) under positive pressure AND filtered. B) under negative pressure AND filtered. C) under negative pressure, chilled, AND filtered. D) under positive pressure, chilled, AND filtered. E) under neutral pressure, chilled, AND filtered.

B) under negative pressure AND filtered. Negative pressure pulls air into the lab so that particulate doesn't get out. Filtered to remove things workers could breath in and wouldn't want to.

Which of the following applies to gonorrhea? The causative agent is a slow-growing, bottle-shaped, Gram-positive bacterium. The causative agent uses a capsule to attach to squamous epithelium and ciliated cells. The causative agent is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment. Recovery from gonorrhea confers lifelong resistance to the causative agent. A trivalent vaccine protects people from the most virulent strains of N. gonorrhoeae.

The causative agent is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment. p.742

Urinary tract infections:

are the most common nosocomial infections AND are not considered STIs

The region of the earth inhabited by living organisms is called the ecosystem. niche. community. biosphere. environment.

biosphere "The biosphere is that part of the earth inhabited by living organisms, including land, ocean and the atmosphere in which life can exist. It is the global ecosystem."

Which does not refer to the shape of a virus? - Helical - Icosahedral - Bacillus - Complex - These are all virus shapes.

bacillus

Inflammation of the membranes covering the central nervous system (CNS) is called meningitis. T/F

True

Klebsiella species easily acquire and are a source of R pneumococcal pneumonia. T/F

True

Many orchids require fungi for seeds to germinate. T/F

True

Streptomyces produces geosmins which give soil a characteristic musty odor. T/F

True

Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries. T/F

True

T/F - All pathways of complement activation follow the same sequence after C3.

True

T/F - Nosocomial infections are those acquired at a hospital.

True

T/F - Pattern recognition is involved in innate immunity.

True

T/F - Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.

True

T/F - Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.

True

Tetanus antitoxin can cross the placenta. T/F

True

The bacteria primarily responsible for dental caries is Streptococcus mutans. T/F

True

The term "potable water" refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink. T/F

True

Virulent strains of Shigella typically carry an R plasmid. T/F

True

Death from botulism is usually due to respiratory paralysis. T/F

True p.721 - progressive paralysis generally involves all voluntary muscles, respiratory paralysis is the most common cause of death.

Herpes simplex enhances the spread of AIDS. T/F

True p.751 Table 27.12 - herpes simplex increases the risk of contracting HIV - under Epidemiology.

The infectious dose for cholera is much larger than that for shigellosis. T/F

True shigella not easily killed by acid so needs 10-100 cells but cholera needs a lot because it is killed by acid. Correct!

Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster virus. T/F

True • Humans are only reservoir

Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses. T/F

True • Mycoses = diseases caused by fungi

T/F - T-independent antigens can activate B cells directly.

True - like polysaccharides

The key to successful chemotherapy is: a. selective toxicity b. a diffusion test c. the minimum inhibitory concentration test d. the spectrum of action

a. selective toxicity Harm to the targeted cells, minimal harm to the healthy cells/tissue.

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are: penicillin. erythromycin. acyclovir. famciclovir. acyclovir AND famciclovir.

acyclovir AND famciclovir. Because both are antivirals and genital herpes is caused by HSV-2 (enveloped, dsDNA virus from family Herpesviridae).

Why would soil and water be added to a compost pile?

adds microbes and moisture to degrade organics

In a quantal assay, animal viruses are quantified by

administering several dilutions of a virus preparation to a number of animals, cells, or chick embryos, then determining the dilution that infected/killed 50% of the group.

Sulfur occurs in all living matter primarily as a component of carbohydrates. fatty acids. amino acids. DNA and RNA. nucleotides.

amino acids

C. botulinum toxin is - heat-stable. - an exotoxin. - endotoxin. - heat-sensitive. - an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive.

an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive.

The best known chronic infection involves: - herpes. - hepatitis B. - chickenpox. - hepatitis A. - influenza.

hepatitis B

Intestinal botulism, especially in infants, has been linked to ingestion of: A. seafood. B. milk. C. honey. D. applesauce.

honey give no honey to children under 1 year old

The reservoir of T. pallidum is the: guinea. pig. fox. bat. human.

human

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is: human papillomavirus. herpes virus. human immunodeficiency virus. leptospirosis.

human papilloma virus Sexually transmitted human papillomavirus (HPV) strains are among the most common of the STI agents. p.751

Primary reservoir for Diphtheria is:

humans - Spread by AIR, acquired via inhalation or from fomites. Cutaneous diphtheria with chronic ulcers - may be a source is a person comes into contact with them. - treat with injection of anti-serum - give immediately is diphtheria is suspected because the delay to culture it could be fatal. - antibodies can clear the bacterium but too much absorbed toxin can be deadly. - even with treatment, mortality is ~10%

The conical sea floor vents that spout sulfide-rich, super-heated water at temperatures up to 300ºC are called hot vents. yellow smokers. warm vents. hyperthermophiles. hydrothermal vents.

hydrothermal vents

A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as a(n) abrasion. laceration. incision. puncture. contusion.

incision Correct

All of the following statements about staphylococcal toxic shock are true except: a) it can lead to kidney failure. b) the causative organism usually does not enter the bloodstream. c) it occurs only in tampon users. d) the causative organism produces superantigens. e) person-to-person spread does not occur.

it occurs only in tampon users. p.737 - the syndrome can occur after infection of surgical wounds, infections associated with childbirth, and other types of staphylococcal infections.

One group of animal viruses that are able to agglutinate red blood cells are the

orthomyxoviruses.

White blood cells are called:

leukocytes

The cells primarily involved in all immune responses are the: A) erythrocytes. B) platelets. C) leukocytes. D) lymphocytes. E) chondrocytes.

leukocytes - white blood cells

The water activity in foods that have high levels of salt or sugar is high. dense. low. osmotic

low It may have a lot of moisture but that water is chemically tied up by the sugar or salt and is not available for use by the spoilage bacteria.

A visible red streak in an infected hand or foot is referred to as septicemia. bacteremia. lymphangitis. edema.

lymphangitis. p.665 - when a hand or a food is infected, a visible red streak may spread up the limb from the infection site toward the nearest lymph node. This is due to inflammation of one or more lympathic vessels, a condition called lymphangitis.

The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy autonomic nerve cells. mixed nerve cells. muscle cells. motor nerve cells. sensory nerve cells.

motor nerve cells

The resulting solids and juices of grapes used to make wine are termed its skin. malt. germinater. mash. must.

must

A virion is a(n): - complete, extracellular virus particle. - pathogenic virus. - subviral particle. - non-enveloped virus particle. - enveloped virus particle.

complete, extracellular virus particle.

The most common agent(s) causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is/are Streptococcus pyogenes. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. normal skin or mouth flora. Escherichia coli.

normal skin or mouth flora. p.666 - Staphylococcus aureau, Staphylococcus epidermidis, enterococci, variety of Streptococcus species including viridans streptococci from mouth - bacteria Correct

In order to culture the organism responsible for tularemia, the growth media must contain charcoal. glucose. cysteine. NAD.

cysteine Francisella tularensis -bacteria- non-motile, aerobic Gram negative rod that needs added cysteine to grow in vitro.

The changes that occur in virally infected cells are characteristic for a particular virus and are referred to as the: - genotypic expression. - cytology. - cytopathic effect. - symptomatic effect. - phenotypic effect.

cytopathic effect

The natural host(s) for Borrelia burgdorferi is/are _________. A. mosquitoes B. birds C. ticks D. deer and field mice

deer and field mice - Ticks of the genus Ixodes transmit B. burgdorferi between hosts and are the only natural agents through which humans have been shown to become infected

If the infecting phage lacks some critical pieces of DNA necessary for replication, it is called: - incomplete. - defective. - mutated. - vegetative. - carcinogenic.

defective

The transmission of leprosy is by: A. direct human-to-human contact. B. the fecal-oral route. C. contact with infected blood products. D. contact with infected nasal secretions. E. direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions.

direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions. Most of the human population is not susceptible to the disease. WHO provides free multidrug tx.

The common species name of the virus is based on the

diseases the virus causes.

The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis: are mature when eliminated in the stool. do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces. are smaller than the oocytes of Cryptosporidium parvum. give rise to three sporozoites. All of the choices are correct. The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis are mature when eliminated in the stool. contain sporozoites when passed in the feces. give rise to three sporozoites. do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces. are smaller than the oocytes of Cryptosporidium parvum.

do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces Slightly different questions - same answer

Vibrio cholerae is most often associated with touching animals. breathing air. eating food. drinking water. having unprotected sex.

drinking water.

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are: a. aminoglycosides. b. tetracyclines. c. macrolides. d. bacitracins. e. aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides

e. aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides Bacitracins mess with cell wall synthesis.

The term used to describe the interrelationship between the living and non-living environments in an area is called a(n) group. community .ecosystem. ecological niche.

ecosystem population - organisms of the same type in the same location community - all of the different organisms in the location ecosystem - consists of a community of organisms and the non-living environment in which they interact. ecological niche - the role an organism plays in a particular ecosystem (where it belongs)

If reasonably pure preparations of virus are available, the number of virus present may be determined by: - light microscopy. - photocolorimetry. - gas chromatography. - spectrophotometry. - electron microscopy.

electron microscopy.

Viral gastroenteritis that affects people of all ages and usually lasts less than 3 days is caused by influenza virus. herpes. norovirus. hepatitis B. rotavirus.

norovirus p.649 - Noroviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in the US. They are a Category B bioterrorism agent because they spread easily with the potential of causing large, demoralizing outbreaks. Noroviruses are naked, ssRNA viruses from the family Caliciviridae.

Which of the following is NOT true? Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because of the high level of oxygenation. the microorganisms stop dividing. of the chemical nature of the pus. of innate resistance in the microbes. of the lack of blood vessels.

of the high level of oxygenation. There is no oxygen reaching an abscess. Correct

Nutrient poor waters are described as being autotrophic. oligotrophic. eutrophic. hypoxic. anoxic.

oligotrophic

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n): reticulate body. elementary body. primary element. core body.

elementary body p.740 Figure 27.7 Elementary body is infectious and is outside host. Elementary body attaches to target cell with pili and injects (G-) effector protein to get engulfed, endosome turns into INCLUSION where elementary body forms reticulate body that multiples by binary fission before all the progeny reorganize into elementary bodies and the cell bursts or they get extruded in vesicles back to the outside.

The S. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is: A) lipases. B) exfoliation toxin. C) leukocidins. D) protein M. E) peeling toxin.

exfoliation toxin. "Exfoliatin is a Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin[1] that causes a blistering of the skin known as staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, usually in infants."

The phages T4 (lytic) and lambda (temperate) share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

existing as a prophage

The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of ticks. fleas. lice. mites.

fleas. Y. pestis forms a biofilm in flea guts, they starve and want to bite.

Growth of pathogens in a food generally does not result in perceptible changes in the quality of the food but the ingestion of this food can result in spoilage. foodborne illness. toxin infection. respiratory illness. aging.

foodborne illness - 2 types: foodborne intoxication from ingesting a toxin, and foodborne infection from ingesting live cells

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it has a cell wall. forms spores. is unicellular. forms L-forms. is anaerobic.

forms L-forms

Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer? gonorrhea genital warts syphilis chancroid

genital warts p.751 - not exactly according to this page but who am I to quibble?

The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is: A. amoebiasis. B. cryptosporidiosis. C. balantidiasis. D. giardiasis.

giardiasis.

Which characteristic(s) is/are NOT common to C. tetani and C. perfringens?

got this right! further up i put it

Why do patients with leptospirosis sometimes undergo unnecessary surgery?

p.733 - Severe pain is characterisitc of the first (septicemic) phase, and patients sometimes undergo unnecessary surgery because the pain is mistaken for a symptom of appendicitis or gallbladder infections.

Truffles are a mycorrhizae. are a mushroom. are a lichen. form a sheath around a root of an appropriate tree. are a mycorrhizae AND form a sheath around a root of an appropriate tree.

are a mycorrhizae AND form a sheath around a root of an appropriate tree

M. leprae may infect birds. iguanas. skunks. raccoons. armadillos.

armadillos

Cytotoxic T cells primarily are responsible for: - humoral immunity. - anamnestic immunity. - cell-mediated immunity. - producing antibodies. - producing haptens.

cell-mediated immunity

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to all of the following EXCEPT pelvic inflammatory disease. prostatic abscesses. sterility. orchitis. urinary tract infections.

pelvic inflammatory disease.

In many aquatic habitats, the growth of algae and cyanobacteria is limited by the amount of phosphorus. calcium. nitrites. sulfur. nitrogen.

phosphorus

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by A. flagella. B. cilia. C. pseudopodia. D. pili.

pili Attachment is always about pili...

Pollutant degradation may be enhanced by lowering the temperature. providing dry conditions. maintaining an acidic pH. providing adequate nutrients. All of the choices are correct.

providing adequate nutrients.

Stained smears of the surface of the eye might be useful in diagnosing: A. influenza. B. herpes. C. polio. D. rabies

rabies p.710 - Rabies can be diagnosed before death by identifying the virus in stained smears collected from the surface of the eyes.

A site used for disposal of non-hazardous solid wastes in a manner that minimizes damage to human health and the environment is a(n) sanitary landfill. septic tank. activated sludger. water treatment facility. composter.

sanitary landfill

Biofilms are likely to be found in environments that are nutrient rich. that are relatively warm. with rapidly flowing water. with low nutrients.

with low nutrients p.769 - LOW-NUTRIENT ENVIRONMENTS such as lakes, rivers and streams are common...most microbial growth in these settings is in BIOFILMS, and the cells are shed from the biofilm into the aqueous solution.

Which of the following may lead to infertility? Vaginosis Cystitis Pelvic inflammatory disease Pyelonephritis All of these

pelvic inflammatory disease Correct

Foods that have been unacceptably changed due to uncontrolled bacterial growth are called spoiled. refrigerated. preserved. fermented. oxidized.

spoiled

All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT A) Cyclospora infection. B) giardiasis. C) trichinellosis. D) cholera. E) cryptosporidiosis

trichinellosis

17. Microbial death occurs when there is A. no movement. B. permanent loss of reproduction. C. a change in appearance. D. a decrease in size. E. All of these occur.

B. permanent loss of reproduction

The cellular organelle responsible for the digestion of ingested infectious agents is the: A) endoplasmic reticulum. B) phagolysosome. C) Golgi apparatus. D) lysosome. E) peroxisome.

B. phagolysosome

31. Pasteurization A. kills all vegetative forms. B. reduces the number of vegetative forms. C. reduces the number of endospores. D. increases food nutrient value. E. None of the choices is correct.

B. reduces the number of vegetative forms

T/F - Interferon directly interacts with and destroys viruses.

False

Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route. T/F

True

The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term biological nitrogen demand. lagooning. lagooning ANF stabilization. stabilization. biochemical oxygen demand.

BOD - biochemical oxygen demand

The MMR vaccine is used to protect against measles, mange, and rubella. T/F

False MMR = Measles, Mumps, Rubella.

Klebsiella Pneumonia

- Enterobacteria such as Klebsiella sp. and other Gram negative rods can cause pneumonia, especially if host defenses are impaired - Klebsiella sp. common hospital-acquired pathogens, cause most of the deaths from healthcare-associated infections Signs/Symptoms: - 1-3 day incubation - cough, chills, SOB, fever, chest pain and cyanosis - same as for penumococcal pneumonia - chills are repeated chills and a thick, bloody, JELLY-LIKE sputum Causative Agent: - Klebsiella pneumoniae - G- rod with large capsule that produces mucoid (mucusy) colonies - common part of normal microbiota in GI tract and my be sound in mouth or throat Pathogenesis: - person-to-person contact through secretions (contact or inhalation) or from medical equipment like ventilators - first colonize throat, then to lungs via inhaled air or mucus - adhesins aid in colonization - virulence factors: - capsule - interferes with opsonin C3b - sidiophore - high affinity for Fe, quickly grabs up the cell's iron. The iron depletion acts as a celluler stressor that induces inflammation and ehances the spread of bacteria. - klebsiella bacteria results in more tissue damage than does pneumococcal pneumonia and in the rapid formation of LUNG ABSCESSES. - means even if meds work the damage to lungs may be permanent and the perosn may still die. - infeciton can spread through the blood, causing abscesses in other tissues, like liver/brain or causing septic/endotoxic shock. Epidemiology: - Klebsiella is widespread in nature and common in normal microbiota. People who get this pneumonia are very old/young or have a comprommised immune system - strains that circulate in hospitals/nursing homes are often resistant to antimicrobials and more are becoming multi-drug resistant Tx/Prevention: - treat with antibiotics - drug sensitivity testing to figure out which ones - seriously ill? Immediately give combination antibiotic therapy - surgery to drain abscesses - tx is challenging - strains becoming multi-drug resistant Most have plasmids: β-lactamase (resist β-lactams such as penicillin); many also extended-spectrum lactamase (ESBL) (resist many cephalosporins) - fatality rate can reach 50% - No specific preventative measures like vaccination - prevent spread by following infection control measures (gown, glove, wash hands), disinfect environment, use sterile respiratory equipment and give antibiotics only when you have to control but avoid development of resistance.

Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by ________. - Mycobacterium avium complex - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Mycobacterium bovis - Mycobacterium africanum

- Mycobacterium avium complex

A term synonymous with antibody is: A) antigen. B) immunoglobulin. C) epitope. D) determinant. E) immunotope.

- immunoglobulin There are 5 classes of antibodies.

5. When in the human body, Legionella pneumophila resides: - in alveolar macrophages. - in alveoli. - in the lower intestinal tract. - in the meninges.

- in alveolar macrophages. - inhaled in aersolized water, they lodge in lungs and promote their uptake by alveolar macrophages. - surface protein called macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) aids entry into macrophages - the cells also bind C3b as an opsonin

The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the: A. throat. B. urethra. C. nasal chamber. D. bladder.

- nasal chamber. S. aureus found in NOSTRILS of nearly everyone - 20% (text says 30%) of healthy adults carry continuously for year or more; 60% will be colonized during a given year

Approximately 90% of S. aureus strains are resistant to: A. methicillin. B. tetracyclin. C. polymyxin B. D. penicillin.

- penicilliin

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the: A) mouth. B) stomach. C) stomach and small intestine. D) small intestine and large intestine. E) accessory structures

- small intestine and large intestine

The normal habitat of Clostridium tetani is: A. humans. B. animals. C. plants. D. soil and dust.

- soil and dust. "Spores of Clostridium tetani found in SOIL AND DUST"

Epstein-Barr virus may become latent in red blood cells. T cells. nerve cells. B cells.

B cells. p.678 - infects mouth/throat (pharyngitis), carried to lymph nodes and infects B cells (mononuclear cells) - infection can be Productive (virus replicates and kills the B cell) or Non-Productive (latent infection as provirus or plasmid).

The period of time between exposure to an agent and the onset of disease signs and symptoms is called the: A) prodromal phase. B) decline phase. C) incubation period. D) lag phase. E) carrier phase.

C) incubation period.

Which organism may be implicated in arteriosclerosis? Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Chlamydia pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus

Chlamydia pneumoniae No idea where this comes from. Correct

Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract. T/F

False

Ag-Ab binding may result in all of the following EXCEPT: A) neutralization. B) immobilization. C) agglutination. D) opsonization. E) fever.

Fever

Example of spikes on viruses

H and N on the influenza virus.

The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is ________. A) IgA B) IgD C) IgG D) IgE E) IgM

IgG

Which of the following may inhibit the activity of normal flora and allow pathogens to become established?

I have seen antibodies as the answer to this one but I suspect it should be ANTIBIOTICS.

The process used for identifying different carbohydrates of streptococci: - Lancefield grouping. - CHO typing. - peptidoglycan typing. - fermentation testing. - NAAT typing.

Lancefield Grouping - Better predictor of pathogenic potential then hemolysis (beta or alpha on blood agar plate)

You go for your regular Pap test and are informed by your OBGYN that you are positive for HPV16. You are surprised because you have not noticed any signs or symptoms of infection. Your doctor explains that sexually transmitted HPV strains are among the most common of the STI agents, and that while some HPV strains cause warty growths of the external and internal genitalia, other strains cause non-warty lesions of mucosal surfaces such as the uterine cervix. These strains are of concern because they are a major factor in the development of cervical cancer. You ask your doctor a number of questions regarding HPV and HPV infection. Is the risk of developing cervical cancer the same for all strains of HPV? No. Wart-causing HPV types exists in infected cells as extrachromosomal, closed DNA circles, while the genome of high-risk (cancer-associated) HPV types integrate into the chromosome of the host cell. Yes. HPV is a double-stranded DNA virus, so any HPV strain will definitely integrate into the host cell chromosome, becoming oncogenic and leading to the development of cancer. No. It depends on the infected person's immune system rather than the virus. Any HPV type can cause cancer but some people have a stronger immune system than others and are able to fight off the virus before it gets a chance to integrate into the host chromosome. No. Wart-causing HPV types are double-stranded DNA viruses which are easily eliminated by the immune system while cancer-causing HPV types are retroviruses that can integrate into the host cell chromosome. No. Wart-causing HPV types are double-stranded RNA viruses which are easily eliminated by the immune system while cancer-causing HPV types are double-stranded DNA viruses that can integrate into the host cell chromosome.

No. Wart-causing HPV types exists in infected cells as extrachromosomal, closed DNA circles, while the genome of high-risk (cancer-associated) HPV types integrate into the chromosome of the host cell. p.752

Burst size

Number of phage particles released -for T4 phages, it is around 200

Which of the following is NOT true of prions?

Prions that cause spongiform encephalopathies have a different amino acid sequence from PrPc.

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by: A) S. pyogenes. B) S. pneumoniae. C) S. aureus. D) K. pneumoniae. E) M. pneumoniae.

S. pneumoniae - G+ diplococci, with capsule

Which of the following media would you use to cultivate Vibrio cholerae?

Vibrio cholerae: curved, Gram-negative rod Halotolerant, can grow in alkaline conditions - can grow on most media with additional salt Google says: Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar

Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with: A) Antitoxin. B) Penicillin. C) Water and electrolytes. D) Quinacrine. E) Thorough cooking.

Water and electrolytes

The causative agent of plague is Vibrio cholerae. Staphylococcus aureus. Brucella abortus. Yersinia pestis.

Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is a member of Enterobacteriaceae - is a facultative anaerobe, Gram negative rod that grows best at 28C, is non-motile and forms biofilms in flea guts

Toxoplasmosis

a parasite which is most commonly transmitted from animals to humans by contact with contaminated feces

chapter quiz - 3rd try

all correct

Leprosy is also known as Hansen's disease. a disease of the blood. an infectious disease caused by a virus. acquired by droplet transmission. always fatal.

also known as Hansen's disease. Caused by Mycobacterium leprae bacteria acquired person to person or through nasal secretions not always fatal, nope disease of the nervous system (likes PNS)

Which of the following soil organisms play a major role in decomposing plant matter? bacteria fungi protozoa viruses bacteria AND fungi

bacteria AND fungi

The most common urinary infection is vulvovaginal candidiasis. toxic shock syndrome. bacterial cystitis. bacterial vaginosis.

bacterial cystitis Also called bladder infection. p.730 - Cystitis is the most common type of UTI. Is common among otherwise healthy women and is a frequent HAI.

Bioaugmentation adds specific microorganisms to a contaminated site. aims at enhancing the growth of the resident population of microbes. is typically done offsite. usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria. depends on competition between resident and added microbes.

adds specific microorganisms to a contaminated site.

In sewage treatment, the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds is achieved during advanced treatment. quaternary treatment. secondary treatment. primary treatment. All of the choices are correct.

advanced treatment

The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by: - T helper cells. - plasma cells. - erythrocytes. - T cytotoxic cells. - macrophages.

T helper cells

35. Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called _____ will remain preserved and viable for years. A. desiccation B. flash freeze C. lyophilization D. pasteurization E. sterilization

C. lyophilization

Which statement(s) about cells taken from a tumor is/are true? a) They may be used to grow bacteriophages. b) They divide 50 times and then die AND they may be used to grow bacteriophages. c) They divide 50 times and then die. d) They may be used to grow viruses AND they may be used to grow bacteriophages. e) They may be used to grow viruses.

They may be used to grow viruses.

48. Alcohols A. dissolve membrane lipids at concentrations of greater than 50%. B. can be used for disinfection or antisepsis. C. are skin degerming agents. D. are limited in effectiveness due to rapid evaporation. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. all of the choices are correct

There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria. T/F

False

Lactic acid, an end product of fructose fermentation, causes breakdown of tooth enamel and, eventually, cavities.

True

New cases of tuberculosis are frequently the result of reactivation of old dormant infections. T/F

True

Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious form of malaria. T/F

True

Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections. T/F

True

T/F - The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.

True

T/F - The host range of a virus depends on the presence of host receptor molecules.

True

T/F Sometimes a piece of bacterial DNA near the specific site of insertion stays attached to the phage DNA, and a piece of phage DNA remains behind.

True

T/F: some antimicrobial fail to kill/inhibit a pathogen simply because the microbe is naturally (intrinsically) resistant to it.

True

The media used to successfully grow Francisella tularensis must contain cysteine. T/F

True

Zero coliforms per 100 ml of water is considered safe for treated potable water. T/F

True - I put false, wrong! So definitely true.

T/F - A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

True - fetus is sterile inside mom.

The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is heat-stable. T/F

True - heat stable and survives cooking

Urine contains antimicrobial substances. T/F

True Also is very acidic.

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyonese have fibronectin binding proteins. T/F

True It is the protein F in Streptococcus pyogenes.

Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease. T/F

True So, so true. Somewhere I saw a chart...

CMV is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection. T or F

True, HHV5

Epidemics of meningitis appear to involve Streptococcus pneumoniae. Haemophilus influenzae. Neisseria meningitidis. Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Neisseria meningitidis.

Cholera is the classic example of a(n) a. food-borne illness. b. zoonosis. c. opportunist. d. very severe form of diarrhea.

d. very severe form of diarrhea.

endocytosis OR fusion

Slow cooking for a long time and then storage at room temperature would tend to favor the growth of anaerobes AND endospore-formers. thermophiles AND anaerobes. mesophiles AND thermophiles. endospore-formers AND thermophiles. endospore-formers AND mesophiles.

endospore-formers AND mesophiles. mesophiles like 25-45 degrees Celsius

The material released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia is exotoxin. protein A. endotoxin. interferon.

endotoxin. = LPS in outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria.

The bacterial viruses that are released by a process termed extrusion are called: - filamentous phages. - lambda viruses. - temperate phages. - helical phages. - lysogenic viruses.

filamentous phages.

Painful spasms of the throat triggered by swallowing or the sight of water is called A. hydrophobia. B. hydrophagia. C. tetany. D. paralysis.

hydrophobia Fear of water. Rabies = zoonosis - rabies virus - bullet shaped, has envelope, ss negative sense RNA virus - family Rhabdoviridae

Molecular Koch's Postulates were developed to:

identify virulence factors associated with pathogenic strains of bacteria

Most North American outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis have been associated with: A. cattle. B. iguanas. C. imported leafy vegetables and berries, especially raspberries. D. chickens.

imported leafy vegetables and berries, especially raspberries.

The phenomenon responsible for the ability of Corynebacterium diphtherium to produce the virulent toxin responsible for the devastating effects of diphtheria is called: - self-assembly. - phase variation. - matrix conversion. - lysogenic conversion. - prion protein.

lysogenic converstion

Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial hydrogen peroxide. lysosome. benzoic acid. lysozyme. allicillin.

lysozyme

HIV adversely affects: red blood cells. nerve cells. macrophages. T helper cells. macrophages AND T helper cells.

macrophages AND T helper cells.

Streptomyces may produce antibiotics. may produce geosmins. will swarm together to form fruiting bodies. are typically found in the soil. may produce antibiotics, may produce geosmins AND are typically found in the soil.

may produce antibiotics, may produce geosmins AND are typically found in the soil.

viral meningitis

meningitis caused by a virus Naked RNA viruses - members of the enterovirus subgroup of the family Picornaviridae - coxsackie viruses (cause chest/throat pain) and echoviruses (cause a rash)

chapter quiz - second try

one wrong, noted, all rest correct.

A common viral rash of childhood with the popular name chickenpox is also known as: A) bariola. B) rubella. C) rubeola. D) varicella-zoster. E) salmonella.

varicella-zoster. When/if it reactivates from latency as shingles it is then called herpes-zoster.

The cavities inside the brain are termed: A. sinuses. B. ventricles. C. cavities. D. sulci.

ventricles - 4 ventricles, where cerebrospinal fluid is made, exits a base of brain and bathes brain/spinal cord CSF cushions and supports the brain and transports nutrients and other materials throughout the CNS.

A phage that replicates inside the host cell and then lyses its host during its release is a: - dormant phage. - temperate phage. - virulent or lytic phage. - lysogenic phage. - latent phage.

virulent or lytic phage. - ex) T4 lytic phage

The amount of moisture available in foods is designated by the term fluid availability. water activity. dampness quotient. aqueous usability

water activity a subscript-w. For pure water it = 1.0

With poliomyelitis, we worry about

post-polio syndrome - muscle pain, increased weakness and muscle degeneration 15-50 years after surviving acute paralytic poliomyelitis. It is a secondary effect of the initial damage. The nerves that took over for the ones killed finally give out and die. Salk (IPV) and Sabin (OPV) vaccines

Which of the following involve symbiotic relationships? mycorrhizae AND ruminants ruminants AND myxobacteria rhizobia, mycorrhizae, AND ruminants myxobacteria, ruminants, AND rhizobia rhizobia AND ruminants

rhizobia, mycorrhizae, AND ruminants

The heart chamber that passes blood to the lungs is the left ventricle. right ventricle. right atrium. left atrium.

right ventricle. Left ventricle send blood to the body Right atrium sends blood to right ventricle Left atrium sends blood to left ventricle

The final characteristics of beer such as color, flavor, and foam primarily depend on the alcohol. whey. adjuncts. wort. roasted malt.

roasted malt

The nerves that carry information to the central nervous system (CNS) are termed: A. motor nerves. B. endocrine nerves. C. sensory nerves. D. cerebrospinal nerves.

sensory nerves - sensory nerves TO the CNS, motor nerves AWAY from the CNS.

Identification of the various strains of N. meningitidis is through: A. Gram staining. B. serogrouping. C. fluorescent antibodies. D. titering.

serogrouping Neisseria meningitidis - gram-negative diplococcus with capsule. Most serious infections are due to serotypes A, B, C, W and Y.

Reactivation of chickenpox is called: A) shingles. B) herpes zoster. C) pneumonia. D) exanthems. E) shingles AND herpes zoster.

shingles AND herpes zoster

The cytokine released from macrophages that seems to play a major role in endotoxic shock is macrophage factor. tumor necrosis factor. protein A. interferon.

tumor necrosis factor. It's a pro-inflammatory cytokine. The host immune response is activated by TNF-α, as is the subsequent release of cytokines following trauma and infection.

High levels of antibodies in patients with infectious endocarditis cause inflammation because they may form clots that lead to life-threatening emboli. the surface antigens change rapidly and become unrecognizable. they may form immune complexes that get trapped in skin and eyes. the antibodies initiate type I, type II, or type III hypersensitivities. the antibodies degrade quickly and debris gets trapped in these organs.

they may form immune complexes that get trapped in skin and eyes. p.667 Correct

Yersinia pestis typically contains one plasmid. two plasmids. three plasmids. four plasmids.

three plasmids.

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on the chromosome. a plasmid. three separate plasmids. nuclear membrane.

three separate plasmids. Nothing in my chapter says anything about plasmids.

African sleeping sickness is transmitted by: A. ticks. B. black flies. C. Aedes mosquitoes. D. tsetse flies.

tsetse flies African Trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness) - Trypanosoma brucei - flagellated protozoa, slender with wavy undulating membranes and an anteriorly protruding flagellum - biological vector = tsetse fly of genus Glossina Two subspecies, morphologically identical. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense and gambiense. R is acute disease and G is chronic disease. - grow in bursts as a glycoprotein is expressed on protozoan's surface and new antibiodes must be made to it.

Which is not a component of innate immunity? A) Skin B) Antibody C) Inflammation D) Fever E) Mucus membranes

B) Antibody - it's a part of adaptive immunity

Prions affect the: - respiratory system. - lymphatic system. - nervous system. - urogenital system. - gastrointestinal tract.

nervous system

T/F - All antigens are immunogens.

False

T/F - Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure.

False

T/F - T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.

False

T/F - T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies.

False

T/F - Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.

False

T/F Generalized transduction involves the transfer of phage genes from one bacterial cell to another.

False

T/F Generalized transduction is so called because specific bacterial genes are transferred during this process.

False

Coagulase is an enzyme. T/F

False But online resources say it is a protein enzyme. Maybe here it is counting it as a virulence factor instead?

Diphtheria exotoxin is made only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that carry a prophage containing the tox gene.T/F

True

Diphtheroids are responsible for body odor. T/F

True

Fungi are able to handle acidic environments much better than bacteria. T/F

True

If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks. T/F

True

Why are older people (over 65) more likely to lose teeth than to develop cavities?

... -dry mouth - less saliva -waning immunity -don't take a good care of their teeth as before -chronic illnesses let microorganisms grow

TRUE

2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission.

The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are: A. dead layers. B. saltiness. C. acidity. D. antimicrobial peptides. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

56. In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using A. moist heat. B. chemicals. C. incineration. D. filtration. E. ethylene oxide.

C. incineration

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to: a. Vibrio spp. b. C. jejuni c. Salmonella spp. d. Escherichia spp. E. All of the above

- All of the above

Wound healing can be slowed by: A. normal flora. B. antiseptic ointments. C. foreign matter D. sweat.

- foreign matter Dirt, dead tissue, foreign matter...

The vector for RMSF is a(n): A) mosquito. B) flea. C) tick. D) fly. E) deer.

- tick Transmitted by tick bite. Humans are accidental hosts. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are obligate intracellular bacteria

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix: -cidal. -static. -anti. -genic.

-cidal Bacteriostatic = inhibits bacterial growth

Which of the following is/are the modes of transmission for T. francisella? Via ingestion of contaminated meat By tick bites Through minor cuts or abrasions By inhalation All of these

All of these p.675/676 Correct

46. _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large-scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage. A. Iodine B. Chlorine C. Bromine D. Fluorine E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Chlorine

Brucellosis may also be known as Bang's disease. undulent fever. Hansen's disease. rabbit fever. Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

Bang's disease AND undulent fever. p. 676 - Because Bang discovered the cause of cattle brucellosis and the fevers are rucurrent over weeks or months.

The key molecule upon which all complement pathways converge is ________. A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C6 E) C9

T/F - Active immunity develops only after a natural infection and not after vaccination.

False - Active immunity can develop after vaccination if the contents cause the body to mount an immune response.

Aflatoxin is a potent carcinogen produced by certain bacteria. T/F

False - Aspergillus flavus (fungus) grows on peanuts and other grains, producing AFLATOXIN, a potent carcinogen monitored by the FDA. What makes it false is that aflatoxin is produced by a fungus, not bacteria. p.808

T/F - Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

False - exotoxin can be produced by both G+ and G- bacteria. Table 16.2

T/F - Mast cells are only found in blood.

False - in tissues

The bacterial lung infection acquired by inhalation of aerosols of contaminated water is:

Legionnaires' Disease

Which of the following cannot be used in composting? Nutrient-poor potting soil Grass clippings Vegetable peelings Meats and fats Leaves

Meats and fats

The most common infectious agent acquired from the bite wounds of a number of kinds of animals is: - Escherichia coli. - Pasteurella multocida. - Actinomyces israelii. - Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Pasteurella multocida slide 44 Humans and many animals carry P. multocida as normal oral and upper respiratory microbiota, serve as reservoirs • Cats more likely to carry than dogs Correct

The bacteria associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome is Escherichia coli O157:H7. T/F

True This strain and other STEC (shiga-toxin producing E. coli) can cause HUS.

The fluid which bathes and nourishes the tissue cells is the cytoplasm. interstitial fluid. lymph. blood.

interstitial fluid.

Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it: has chloroplasts. lacks mitochondria. has flagella. lacks a nuclear membrane.

lacks mitochondria

The unique flavor of yogurt is due to the production of A.lactic acid and acetaldehyde. B.casein and alcohol. C.rennin and coagulated protein. D.curd and whey

lactic acid and acetaldehyde. Possible that this isn't from this course...

In rabies, the virus multiplies in one kind of cell then binds to receptors in the spinal cord. neuromuscular region. brain. respiratory area. cerebrospinal fluid.

neuromuscular region.

The disease that involves the muscles and often manifests itself first with spasms of the jaw muscles is: - polio. - rabies. - tetanus. - gastritis.

tetanus

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? A) M protein B) Protein A C) Collagen D) Pilin E) Peptidoglycan

- M protein

Only one serotype of mumps virus is known. Why is this important?

- I think: lets us make a vaccine for it

You are a volunteer for Nurses Without Borders and are being sent to a country in Africa. You are excited, because you will have opportunities to go on safari, but you are also somewhat concerned because you have learned from the CDC website that there is currently cholera in the country to which you are going. Patients with cholera experience vomiting and severe diarrhea, producing several liters of liquid stool in a day. This results in signs of dehydration, including sunken eyes, muscle cramps, and in a few cases, convulsions and death. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. You make a list of questions about V. cholerae that you answer with the help of your nursing school study group. All bacteriophages must be able to: 1. inject their DNA into the host cell 2. cause a genetic change in the host cell 3. kill the host cell 4. replicate in the absence of a host 5. exit a host cell by extrusion 1, 4, and 5 1 only 2 only 1, 2, and 4 1, 2 and 3

1 only

FALSE

1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage.

The early symptoms of rabies generally begin: A. 1 day after viral entry. B. 1-2 months after viral entry. C. 6 months after viral entry. D. 1 year after viral entry.

1-2 months after viral entry Rabies is a classic zoonotic disease. Symptoms appear 1-2 months after infection and progress rapidly.

Place the steps of the disease pathway provided in the correct order to test your understanding of the pathogenesis of syphilis.

1. Treponema pallidum enters the body through tiny abrasions or mucous membranes; a chancre appears at site of infection. 2. Bacteria multiply locally, then enter the bloodstream and spread throughout the body. 3. Secondary symptoms appear, including skin rashes and infectious mucous patches; fetus may become infected, developing congenital syphilis. 4. Latent, asymptomatic period occurs; bacteria disappear from blood, skin, and mucous membranes. 5. Tertiary symptoms may appear, including heart and blood vessel defects, gummas, strokes, and neurological symptoms and mental illness.

Mycobacterium leprae has a generation time of: A. 20 minutes. B. 1 hour .C. 6 hours. D. 12 days.

12 days

C) rRNA sequences

12) The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on A) cell morphology. B) Gram reaction. C) rRNA sequences. D) habitat. E) diseases.

D) 3.5 billion years ago

15) Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth A) 350 years ago. B) 3500 years ago. C) 35000 years ago. D) 3.5 billion years ago. E) 3.5 × 1012 years ago.

What gene sequences are used to identify the prokaryote organisms present in an environmental sample? 16S rRNA genes 18S rRNA genes 70S rRNA genes 80S rRNA genes All of these

16S rRNA genes Key word: parkaryotes. In eukaryotes it would be 18S rRNA genes.

E) 5

17) In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be which of the following? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

A) Protists

18) ________ are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that are similar in rRNA sequences, but quite different from each other in motility types and ecology. They have been used previously as a "catch-all" for organisms that couldn't be easily classified into other groups. A) Protists B) Fungi C) Plants D) Methanogens

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately: 2-5 days. 1-2 weeks. 14-21 days. several months.

2-5 days. Neisseria gonorrheae - gonococcus (GC) - a fastidious Gram-negative diplococcus that needs a rich medium like chocolate agar for cultivation - often asymptomatic in men and women. if signs and symptoms occur, they appear after 2-5 day incubation period.

t is estimated that the mass of bacteria and fungi in the top six inches of an acre of soil is 500 lbs. 10 tons. 2 kilograms. 100 lbs. 2 tons.

2 tons

B) The two organisms are unrelated

25) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data? A) The two organisms are related. B) The two organisms are unrelated. C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes. D) Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize. E) None of the answers is correct.

C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.

24) Phage typing is based on the fact that A) bacteria are destroyed by viruses. B) viruses cause disease. C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species. D) Staphylococcus causes infections. E) phages and bacteria are related.

C) pairing between complementary bases occurs.

26) Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that A) the strands of DNA can be separated. B) a chromosome is composed of complementary strands. C) pairing between complementary bases occurs. D) DNA is composed of genes. E) all cells have DNA.

E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences

27) One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about A) enzymatic activities. B) protein composition. C) the presence of specific genes. D) antigenic composition. E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

TRUE

3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.

B) evolved from a common ancestor.

3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they A) live in the same place. B) evolved from a common ancestor. C) will have different G-C ratios. D) will both ferment lactose. E) mated with each other.

The problem of not being able to cultivate most microorganisms has led to the use of FISH. FISH and 16s rRNA analysis. 16s rRNA analysis. microscopy with fluorescent dyes. All of these methods help identify microorganisms in the environment.

All of these methods

Which of the following is used to cause flocculation? Methane Charcoal Chlorine Aluminum potassium phosphate (alum) Natrium potassium phosphate (nalum)

Aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)

Why do animal viruses have envelopes and phages rarely do?

Animal viruses will often use the envelope in order to fuse with the plasma membrane of a new target cell, gaining entry into the cytoplasm.

Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States? A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Taenia saginata D) Trichuris trichiura E) Echinococcus granulosus

Ascaris lumbricoides

What are A/E lesions, produced by some strains of E. coli?

Attachment and Effacing Lesions - makes the cells of the intestine made a pedestal under the bacteria. Is part of how it attaches/colonizes.

Newborn infants can be infected with Group _______ streptococcus during birth.

You are cleaning out your pantry and find that your bread has spoiled. Which organism caused the spoilage, and why? Bread is spoiled by bacteria because it does not have enough water available for mold growth. Pseudomonas aeruginosa—this bacterium is the primary cause of spoilage in grain products. Bread is spoiled by mold because it does not have enough water available for bacterial growth. Bread is spoiled by both bacteria and mold simultaneously—these organisms always act synergistically in spoilage. Bread is spoiled by mold because there is too much water present for bacterial growth.

Bread is spoiled by mold because it does not have enough water available for bacterial growth.

The animal(s) frequently associated with Campylobacter jejuni is/are: A. turtles. B. iguanas. C. chickens. D. ducks. E. All of the choices are correct.

Chickens

Variolation is a procedure once used to protect against: A) measles. B) bubonic plague. C) rabies. D) smallpox. E) cowpox.

D) smallpox.

21. Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except A. moist heat. B. alcohol. C. acids. D. metallic ions. E. X rays.

E. X rays

High concentrations of nucleic acids in the diet may lead to high levels of uric acid in the blood. T/F

False Proteins might but false.

T/F - High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because their virulence genes are only expressed at high population densities.

True

Which of the following hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

Hepatitis A and E

T/F - IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin made by the body.

True

The scientist who developed a system of identifying the variety of strains of Streptococci was: - Hans Zimmer. - Donald Sutherland. - O. T. Avery. - Rebecca Lancefield. - Louis Pasteur.

Rebecca Lancefield

CD8 cells are: - natural killer cells. - macrophages. - T cytotoxic cells. - plasma cells. - T helper cells.

T cytotoxic cells

T/F - Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear that is rare in the first month of life.

True - it becomes very common in early childhood, children who use pacifiers after age 2 have an increased risk of developing otitis media. Older children develop immunity to H. influenzae and the bacterium rarely causes otitis media in children older then 5. Sinusitis affects adults and older children.

T/F - Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.

True

Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?

Toxoplasma gondii - is an obligate intracellular parasitic one-celled eukaryote (specifically an apicomplexan) that causes the infectious disease toxoplasmosis.

A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between roots and fungi. T/F

True

An abscess is a collection of pus. T/F

True

After entry of the bacteriophage into the host cell, a phage enzyme

breaks the host DNA into fragments.

The most promising sources of single cell protein are bacteria. viruses. worms. yeasts.

yeasts Saw this, don't think it applies to my chapter but hey.

Legionella pneumophila may be found in: - soil and aquatic ecosystems. - air-conditioning systems. - shower stalls. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is not used for treating bacterial infections? - Griseofulvin - Methicillin - Rifampin - Tetracycline - Ampicillin

- Griseofulvin

Which of the following is included in GALT? A) thymus B) Peyer's patches C) tonsils D) liver E) salivary glands

- Peyer's Patches GALT - Gut Associated Lymphatic Tissue

Which of the following has been associated with the flesh-eating organism? - H. lechter - Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Streptococcus pyogenes - Staphylococcus aureus

- Streptococcus pyogenes - some Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin SPE-producing stains of Steptococcus pyogrenes cause toxic shock and necrotizing fasciitis.

Adenovirus

- attach to and infect epithelial cells, genome transported to host cell nucleus, virus multiplies - Mechanisms for avoiding host defenses: - delaying apoptosis - blocking interferon function - interfering with antigen presentation by MHC class I molecules MHC class 1 - can be made by any cell, intracellular antigens, present to CD8 Tc lymphocytes. - after replication complete, a virally encoded "death protein" is pruduced ->cell lysis - severe infection = extensive cell destruction/inflammation - different serotypes of adenoviruses affect different tissues.

Pneumococcal pneumonia - Tx/Prevention:

- early in illness? Penicillin, erythromycin (G+ diplococci with capsule, remember?) - strains resistant to antibiotics more common - PCV13 vaccine - Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, 13 serotypes - for under 2, over 65 and people at high risk due to health conditions - contains capsular polysaccharides from 13 serotypes attached to bacterial proteins to create T-dependent antigens - polysaccharides are T-independent antigens and w/o the protein added wouldn't be enough alone to cause a large enough immune response in a child under 2. - PPSV23 vaccine - pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine, 23 serotypes - dive at least 1 yr after getting the PCV13 - contains capsule polysaccharides from the 23 most common serotypes - recommended for all adults over 65 plus some high risk people.

Diphtheria toxin works on: - lysosomes. - mitochondria. - chloroplasts. - elongation factor 2. - messenger RNA.

- elongation factor 2. - the bacteria (C. diphteriae) grow in the throat but the toxin gets into the bloodstream (toxemia). An A-B toxin, the B subunit attached to host cell receptors -> endocytosis -> A subunit detaches and is activated to a functional enzyme that inactivated EF-2 that the host eukaryotic cell needs for its 80s ribosomes to move along mRNA - translation stops, cell dies. Enzyme is not used up, keeps inactivating EF-2 in that cell.

The surface layer of the skin is the: A) cutaneous. B) keratin. C) epidermis. D) dermis. E) hypodermis.

- epidermis Epidermis: SURFACE LAYER made from layers of flat cells • Outermost =dead,filled with water-resistant keratin • Constantly flake off and replaced • Dermis: nerves, glands, blood and lymphatic vessels • Subcutaneous tissue: fat, other cells that support skin

Tetanus vaccine contains: - inactivated bacteria. - inactivated spores. - live bacteria. - inactivated tetanospasmin.

- inactivated tetanospasmin. Tetanus and diphtheria - toxoid (inactivated) vaccine.

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it: - forms spores. - spontaneously forms L-forms. - is anaerobic. - has a cell wall.

- spontaneously forms L-forms. Streptobacillary Rat Bite Fever slide 48 Streptobacillus moniliformis: facultatively anaerobic, Gramnegative pleomorphic rod; spontaneously develops L-forms lacking cell wall Correct

The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal flora and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are: A. staphylococci. B. diptheroids. C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp. E. streptococci

- staphylococci. Staphylococci: salt-tolerant, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria

The signs and symptoms of adenovirus respiratory tract infections may be confused with those of: A) pneumonia AND tuberculosis. B) tuberculosis AND diphtheria. C) pertussis AND pneumonia. D) strep throat AND pneumonia. E) strep throat AND pertussis.

- strep throat AND pneumonia.

With which of the following substrates can Streptococcus mutans make a capsule? a. Sucrose b. Xylitol c. Mannitol d. Glucose e. All of the above

- sucrose

A vaccine for the common cold is not possible because: A) the surface antigens of rhinovirus mutate frequently. B) there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus. C) the causative agent of colds is unknown. D) the rhinovirus cannot be grown in sufficient quantities. E) rhinoviruses are resistant.

- there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus.

After being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs: A) within 5 minutes. B) within 20 minutes. C) within 4-10 hours. D) immediately. E) after 7 days.

- within 4-10 hours Transmitted by tick bite - 4-10 hours of feeding

Place the steps of the disease pathway provided in the correct order to test your understanding of the pathogenesis of gonorrhea.

1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae attaches to mucous membranes of genitalia, mouth, rectum, or eyes. 2. Primary infection in women is cervix. 3. Outer covering of liver is infected in women when gonococci enter abdominal cavity from infected fallopian tubes. 4. Infection of fallopian tubes or testicular tubules causes scarring, which may lead to ectopic pregnancy (women) or infertility (men and women). 5. Bacteria enter the bloodstream and infect heart and joints.

Please match the statement to the stage of syphilis that it most accurately describes to test your understanding of syphilis. 1. Hard, painless chancre at site of spirochete entry 2. Fever, headache, and sore throat, followed by lymphadenopathy and a peculiar red or brown rash on all skin surfaces, including the palms and the soles 3. Neurosyphilis can be present as well as gummas 4. Syphilis spirochete passes through placenta to infect fetus

1. Primary syphilis 2. Secondary syphilis 3. Tertiary syphilis 4. Congenital syphilis

D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity

10) A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine A) staining characteristics. B) amino acid sequences of enzymes. C) nucleic acid-base composition of DNA sequences. D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) Western blotting

11) Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization? A) DNA chip B) FISH C) PCR D) Southern blotting E) Western blotting

C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

2) Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria? A) prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids B) eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids D) complex cellular structures E) multicellular

B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen

23) Serological testing is based on the fact that A) all bacteria have the same antigens. B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen. C) the human body makes antibodies against bacteria. D) antibodies cause the formation of antigens. E) bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.

The time from absorption to release for T-even phage is about - 1 minute. - 10 minutes. - 30 minutes. - 45 seconds. - 1 day.

30 minutes.

B) b

31) In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

FALSE

6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.

Why is puerperal fever not regarded as a sexually transmitted disease? What spreads the disease? A. A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later. B. The trauma of the delivery of the placenta through the vaginal tract after the fetus introduces bacteria directly into the bloodstream, resulting in puerperal fever. C. A woman's own normal fecal microbiota can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum). D. A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later AND a woman's own normal fecal microbiota can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum).

A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later AND a woman's own normal fecal microbiota can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum).

Immunity to superinfection (infection of a cell at a later time with a second, identical bacteriophage) is a consequence of lysogeny. Why does this occur?

A repressor produced by the first virus will actively suppress the lytic cycle of the second virus.

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the: A) E test. B) D test. C) C test. D) B test. E) A test.

A) E test.

The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by: A) T helper cells. B) macrophages. C) T cytotoxic cells. D) plasma cells. E) erythrocytes.

A) T helper cells.

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed: A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) independence. D) mutualism. E) dysbiosis.

A) commensalism.

A cluster of cases in a specific population occurring in a brief period of time is called a(n): A) outbreak. B) endemic. C) pandemic. D) attack break. E) mortality.

A) outbreak. An outbreak may signal the onset of an epidemic.

A. The development of antimicrobial resistances through spontaneous mutation or acquisition of new genetic information B. A chemical produced by certain molds and bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other organisms C. A chemical used to treat microbial infections; also called antimicrobial D. Plasmids that encode resistance to one or more antimicrobial medications and heavy metals E. A measure of the relative toxicity of a medication, defined as the ratio of minimum toxic dose to minimum effective dose F. Enzyme that breaks the β-lactam ring of a β-lactam drug, thereby inactivating the medication

A. Acquired Resistance B. Antibiotic C. Antimicrobial drug D. R plasmids E. Therapeutic index F. beta-lactamase

Enlargement of which of the following structures may contribute to ear infections by interfering with normal drainage from Eustachian tubes? - Nasal chamber - Nasal conchae - Adenoids - Epiglottis - Parotid glands

Adenoids - tonsils at the back of the throat

Lactic acid bacteria are used to ferment and produce foods from A.dairy. B.vegetables. C.meat. D.All of these can be fermented by lactic acid bacteria to make foods

All of these can be fermented by lactic acid bacteria to make foods

Which statement describes the relationship between ammonia oxidizers and nitrite oxidizers? Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers. Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, reducing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers. Ammonium oxidizers use urea as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrite. The nitrite produced then serves as the carbon source for nitrite oxidizers. Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrite. The nitrite produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers. None of these explains the relationship—ammonia and nitrite are produced by different nutrient cycles which also involve sulfur reduction.

Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers.

Most bacteria associated with the teeth and gums are A) Aerobes. B) Anaerobes. C) Facultative anaerobes D) None of the above.

Anaerobes

In which of the following categories of antimicrobial drugs are the fewest drugs available? Antibacterial Antifungal Antiviral Antiprotozoan

Antiviral

Please identify the CORRECT statement regarding basic epidemiology concepts. - Attack rate—the number of susceptible people developing illness in a population exposed to an infectious agent. - Prevalence—the number of new cases of a disease in a population at risk during a specified time period. - Morbidity rate—the proportion of people diagnosed with a specific disease who die from that disease. - Incidence—the total number of cases of a disease in a given population at any time or for a specific period. - Contagious disease—an infectious disease that cannot be transmitted from one host to another.

Attack rate—the number of susceptible people developing illness in a population exposed to an infectious agent. I've seen other people with study guides say the last choice but that definition is for NON-CONTAGIOUS DISEASE.

A cell infected by viruses may die due to the actions of interferons. The same result would occur WITHOUT interferon—any cell infected by a virus would diedirectly fromthevirus.Isthere any apparent benefit to the host organism from the interferon action? A) No; interferon is just an evolutionary leftover from a much earlier form of antiviral activity. It has no function now. Virus infections are always treated with medications. B) Yes; when the interferon acts on a virally infected cell, it shuts down virus replication. Without interferon, the virus will eventually kill the cell, but only after it has replicated many times. IFNs may kill the host cell, but they will also prevent it from being used to replicate virus. C) Yes; by killing host cells, the number of cells that are available targets for viral infection is limited. This is a good way of preventing viral infection. D) No; viruses will replicate in cells regardless of the effects of interferons, so their action of killing the cell has no benefit to the host organism during the infection process. E) Yes; IFN is needed to activate complement which stimulates otherwise phagocytes in the host so that they recognize and destroy not only the virus but also any infected cells. Without complement, all phagocytes are inert.

Which of the following antibodies is a dimer: A) IgD B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgG

B) IgA

Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are: A) the result of infection. B) the result of passive immunity. C) self-made. D) IgM. E) the result of active immunity.

B) The result of passive immunity - IgG from Mom that crossed the placenta and protect the baby for the first 6 months or so while the baby's immune system is getting up to speed. Secretory IgA from breast milk to protect the baby's GI tract (mucosal immunity). - no memory, protection is lost once the antibodies degrade.

The reservoir of the common cold is the: A) family pet. B) human. C) infected fomite. D) fruit. E) rhinovirus.

B) human.

The scientist who received the first Nobel Prize in Medicine for his work on antibody therapy was: A) Koch. B) von Behring. C) Jenner. D) Roux. E) Pasteur.

B. von Behring

Your brother is an enthusiatic hiker. He returns from a walking vacation and tells you that although he had a good time, he ran into a bit of trouble on one of the days he was away because he had got lost in the woods for several hours. Although he took enough food for the day, your brother ran out of water. Luckily, he came across a small stream and was able to fill up his water bottle and to finish his hike without any further problems. Your brother mentions as an aside that he must have eaten something bad while he was away, because he has had pretty bad diarrhea since he got back. He tells you he doesn't feel too bad, but that he has been having what he describes as "explosive diarrhea." He also complains of abdominal pain. You urge him to go to the doctor because you suspect that he may have something more than just food-related diarrhea. The signs and symptoms of giardiasis vary among people. Which of the following is your brother unlikely to experience with his infection? Bloody, frothy urine Jaundice and malabsorption Indigestion and gas These all may be experienced with giardiasis. Nausea and vomiting

Bloody, frothy urine

Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action? A) Interleukin-1 B) Interleukin-2 C) Interferon D) Tumor necrosis factor E) Colony-stimulating factor

The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by: A) Semmelweis. B) Pasteur. C) Lister. D) Holmes. E) Koch.

C) Lister.

Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever? A) It is acquired via ingestion of contaminated meat. B) Enterotoxin spreads via the blood. C) It is caused by several different species of Salmonella. D) Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes. E) It is also called bacillary dysentery

Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes. - colonize the intestines, cross the mucus membrane via M cells, MULTIPLIES INSIDE MACROPHAGES and then are carried in the bloodstream to locations body-wide.

Why can an infection in the brain's ventricles usually be detected in spinal fluid obtained from the lower back (lumbar region)? A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord. B. There is a high degree of vascularity that exists, allowing easy transfer of bacteria in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the blood. C. There is a set of lymph nodes specifically in place to drain the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ventricles. They are housed in the lumbar region of the spinal column, adjacent to the spinal cord. D. This is an incorrect statement. Since the central nervous system (CNS) is a protected site due to the blood-brain barrier, there can never BE an infection in the ventricles.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord.

The virus originally used for vaccination against smallpox is named: A) vaccinia. B) cowpox. C) rubella. D) herpes. E) polio.

Cowpox - E. Jenner saw that milkmaids who got cowpox usually didn't get small pox.

Which of the following statements regarding microbial identification is false? Culture techniques are an accurate way of determining which members in a microbial community are most common. Studying the genome of one organism can give insights into the characteristics of another organism. Metagenomics involves comparison of gene sequences in DNA from environmental samples to known gene sequences in databases. FISH can be used to distinguish subsets of prokaryotes that contain a specific nucleotide sequence. 16S rRNA sequences can be used to determine taxonomic similarity among prokaryotes.

Culture techniques are an accurate way of determining which members in a microbial community are most common.

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by: A) Robert Koch. B) Ignaz Semmelweis. C) Aristotle. D) Carolus Linnaeus. E) Louis Pasteur.

D) Carolus Linnaeus.

The World Health Organization (WHO) is part of the: A) Food and Drug Administration. B) Department of Health and Human Services. C) Department of Human Resources. D) United Nations. E) North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

D) United Nations. I think it says that the WHO has 193 member states. A,B,C are either just US or not right. North Atlantic is too limiting.

The target of most antifungal drugs is: A) the ribosome AND the cytoplasmic membrane. B) the nucleus AND mitochondria. C) cholesterol. D) ergosterol. E) cholesterol AND ergosterol.

D) ergosterol.

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT? A. Therapeutic index - measure of the relative toxicity of a medication B. Short half-life - medication needs to be taken relatively frequently C. 70S ribosome - target of some antibacterial medications D. Broad spectrum - an organism that is susceptible to a wide range of medications E. Bacteriostatic - inhibits growth of bacteria

D. Broad spectrum - an organism that is susceptible to a wide range of medications

Which plant has been used to deliver vaccine? A. peanuts B. lima beans C. spinach D. potatoes

D. Potatoes

51. All of the following disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane except A. detergents. B. quaternary ammonium compounds. C. high concentration phenols. D. iodine.

D. iodine

Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A. does not cause pneumonia despite its name. B. causes pneumonia more often than Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. causes pneumonia only in conjunction with viral activity. D. is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

D. is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid? A. vancomycin B. penicillin C. methicillin D. isoniazid E. bacitracin

D. isoniazid

32. _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat. A. High, dry B. High, moist C. Dry, moist D. Moist, dry E. Moist, high

D. moist, dry

3. The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

D. sanitization

The nucleocapsid is composed of: - nucleic acid in the ribosome. - DNA or RNA, lipid, and protein. - protein located in the nucleus. - DNA and RNA and protein. - DNA or RNA, and protein.

DNA or RNA, and protein. - a virus will never have DNA AND RNA, it's either or.

What is eschar (a sign of cutaneous anthrax)? A) A small, red, fluid-filled vesicle B) An ulcer surrounded by swelling C) A large black scar D) Dead tissue resembling a flat scab E) Swelling with trapped gas

Dead tissue resembling a flat scab Yes, the pic in the book shows black tissue but don't be misled! An eschar (/ˈɛskɑːr/; Greek: eschara) is a slough or piece of DEAD TISSUE that is cast off from the surface of the skin, particularly after a burn injury, but also seen in gangrene, ulcer, fungal infections, necrotizing spider bite wounds, tick bites associated with spotted fevers, and exposure to cutaneous anthrax.

What is the purpose of the mashing step in beer making? Mashing is required to remove residual solids, leaving wort that can be fermented by bacteria. During mashing, the enzymes of malted barley degrade starches, converting them to fermentable sugars. During mashing, the enzymes of malted barley degrade fermentable sugars, converting them to starches. Mashing increases the surface area available for microbes to adhere to during the fermentation process. All of the answer choices are correct.

During mashing, the enzymes of malted barley degrade starches, converting them to fermentable sugars.

Which of the following are lymphocytes? A) B cells B) T cells C) NK cells D) B cells AND T cells E) B cells, T cells, AND NK cells

Droplet nuclei typically travel no farther from point of release than: A) 3 meters. B) 5 meters. C) 1 meter. D) 12 inches. E) They are suspended indefinitely.

E) They are suspended indefinitely. Some respiratory droplets hang in the air - their liquid component evaporates and the pathogen attached to dried material can hang suspended in the air indefinately = DROP NUCLEI.

Amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery differ in the A) Mode of transmission. B) Appearance of the patientʹs stools .C) Etiologic agent. D) All of the above. E) None of the above.

Etiologic agent

Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person. T/F

False

Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial lysosome. T/F

False

Gram-positive organisms are more likely to cause fatal septicemias than other infectious agents. T/F

False

Lyme disease is spread from human to human by mosquito vectors. T/F

False

T/F - A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

False

T/F - Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.

False

T/F - DNA vaccines are dangerous due to the possibility of the DNA causing reversion in the inactivated pathogen.

False

T/F - Fever often enhances bacterial survival during an infection.

False

T/F - Gram-negative bacteria are less susceptible to complement lysis than Gram-positive bacteria.

False

T/F - Neutrophils are the second phagocytic cell to respond to an infection.

False

T/F - The immune response is directed against an entire molecule.

False

The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism. T/F

False Co-metabolism occurs when an enzyme produced by a microbe to degrade an added substrate in an environment degrades a pollutant as well.

Yellow fever is caused by a protozoan infection. T/F

False but malaria is!

Genital herpes may be cured with the use of acyclovir or famciclovir. T/F

False p.750 - there is no cure for genital herpes. Anti-HSV medications such as acyclovir and famciclovir can decrease the severity of the first attack and the incidence of recurrences.

"Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease. T/F

False slide 20 Cases in U.S. generally sporadic - Less than 2% of deaths from S. pyogenes infections are due to necrotizing fasciitis

T/F - The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

False slide 20 - 10-100 cells of Shigella, 10^6 cells of Salmonella = infectious dose for these organisms.

Which of these descriptions does NOT apply to the pathogenesis of meningitis? Vasodilation disrupts the blood-brain barrier and allows neutrophils and proteins to enter the CSF. Vasodilation from inflammation results in accumulation of fluid, causing brain swelling and nerve damage. Inflammation impedes normal outflow of CSF, causing it to accumulate and press the brain against the skull. Inflammation results in the formation of small blood clots that block capillaries and interrupt blood supply, leading to cell death. Fever causes the blood pressure to increase significantly, forcing lymph fluid into the meninges and causing brain swelling.

Fever causes the blood pressure to increase significantly, forcing lymph fluid into the meninges and causing brain swelling.

Penicillin was discovered by: Koch. Hooke. Fleming. Ehrlich.

Fleming. He saw, in a dish of Staphylococcus aureus, that growth near a contaminating Penicillium mold was inhibited. The substance he called penicillin but he couldn't purify it and so gave up. 10 years later, Chain and Florey purified it, helped a sick policeman (who died when it ran out), purified more and later cured 2 people. Penicillin G - first antibiotic (naturally produced antimicrobial).

The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by: - Fracastorius. - Pasteur. - Thucydides. - Leeuwenhoek.

Fracastorius

The most effective form of penicillin is: A. B. E. G.

A vaccine to provide active immunity to serum hepatitis is prepared from: A) Viruses grown in tissue culture. B) Genetically modified yeast. C) Pooled gamma globulin D) Viruses grown in embryonated eggs. E) Viral particles in patients.

Genetically modified yeast

Which of the following antigens are useful markers for hepatitis B infection?

HBsAg

Why are viroids resistant to nucleases? - Viroids have only been identified in plants. Plant nucleases cannot digest RNA. - Nucleases will only digest DNA, not RNA, so viroids are protected. - Having a circular RNA "genome," with no protein shell, they are resistant to the protein-degrading activities of nucleases. - Viroids are composed of single stranded RNA; nucleases only act on double-stranded molecules. - Having a circular RNA "genome," they are resistant to most exonucleases (that digest the free ends of RNA or DNA).

Having a circular RNA "genome," they are resistant to the digestion of most exonucleases (that nibble/digest the free ends of RNA or DNA).

Which of the following type of hepatitis is/are associated with liver cancer or cirrhosis? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis B AND hepatitis C Hepatitis A AND hepatitis B

Hepatitis B AND hepatitis C The table on p.651

The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is: A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. hepatitis D

Hepatitis C

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells? Rotavirus. Varicella zoster virus. Herpes simplex virus AND varicella zoster virus. Hepatitis A virus. Herpes simplex virus.

Herpes simplex virus AND varicella zoster virus.

Which of the following would NOT trigger an inflammatory response? - Activation of complement proteins. - Binding of microbial products to PPRs. - Release of TNF by macrophages. - Tissue damage caused by microbial invasion. - Induction of antiviral protein synthesis by IFNs.

Induction of antiviral protein synthesis by IFNs.

Which of the following is NOT a route by which bacteria that cause infective endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream? Ingestion Brushing teeth Trauma Dental procedures Kidney infection

Ingestion p.667 - The bacteria the cause infective endocarditis may enter the bloodstream: - from another infected body site - during dental procedure - during tooth brushing - from trauma Correct

In which disease are monoclonal antibodies against PA protein used as treatment? A) Inhalation anthrax B) Legionellosis C) Pertussis D) Pneumococcal pneumonia E) Influenza

Inhalation anthrax Anthrax is a disease primarily of livestock but people get it too. Bacillus anthracis is G+, makes endospores, non-hemolytic, non-motile, rod shaped bacterium whose spores can remain in the environment indefinately and whose vegetative cells have a capsule made of an amino-acid polymer instead of polysaccharide.

Endocarditis - Inflammation of the heart valves or lining of the heart chambers. Fungemia - Fungi circulating in the bloodstream. Gametocyte - Haploid cell that can be used for sexual reproduction. HIV (viral) set point - Viral load in a person with HIV disease after the immune system begins to respond to the virus and viral numbers stabilize. Human immunodeficiency virus, HIV - The virus causing a disease marked by gradual impairment of the immune system, culminating in AIDS. Reverse transcriptase - Enzyme that synthesizes double-stranded DNA complementary to an RNA template. Seroconversion - Change from serum that lacks specific antibodies to serum that has those antibodies. Subacute bacterial endocarditis - Slowly progressing infection of the internal surfaces of the heart. Transformation - Morphologic and physiologic changes making a cell cancerous resulting from infection of an animal cell by an oncogenic virus. Trophozoite - Vegetative feeding form of some protozoa. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, DIC - Devastating condition in which clots form in small blood vessels, leading to failure of vital organs.

Integrase - Enzyme encoded by HIV or another retrovirus that inserts the DNA copy of the viral genome into a host cell chromosome. Kaposi's sarcoma - Tumor arising from blood or lymphatic vessels. Paroxysm - A sudden increase in symptoms. Petechiae - Small purplish spot on the skin or mucous membrane caused by hemorrhage. Preventive vaccine - Vaccine that prevents a disease. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome, AIDS - A disease of the human immune system caused by infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); the most advanced stage of infection with HIV. Acute retroviral syndrome, ARS - A stage of HIV disease following the incubation stage; often includes flulike symptoms. Bacteremia - Bacterial cells circulating in the bloodstream. Bubonic plague - Form of plague that typically develops when it is injected during the bite of an infected flea.

Why is Staphylococcus epidermidis able to colonize plastic materials used in medical procedures? It can bind to fibronectin, a blood protein that coats plastic implants. It has fimbriae that allow it to attach to plastic surfaces. It produces coagulase that allows it to colonize inert surfaces such as titanium. It can produce a glycocalyx that allows it to form biofilms. These are all factors that allow S. epidermidis to colonize implants.

It can bind to fibronectin, a blood protein that coats plastic implants. Correct

Which is true about botox? It is an endotoxin. It is produced by S. aureus. It may cause botulism. It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions. It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

Which genus does not include skin-invading molds? A) Epidermophyton. B) Microsporum. C) Trichophyton. D) Ixodes. E) These are all skin molds.

Ixodes. - this is in the lyme disease section. The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is: Ixodes scapularis.

The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was: A) Pasteur. B) Jenner. C) Metchnikoff. D) Fleming. E) Ehrlich.

Jenner

The researcher who did much of the early work on Clostridium tetani was: A. von Behring. B. Koch. C. Kitasato. D. Pasteur.

Kitasato • Studied tetanus (lockjaw) in Robert Koch's laboratory • Spores of Clostridium tetani found in soil and dust • Kitasato determined that C. tetani is obligate anaerobe, devised method of cultivating • Discovered animals injected with C. tetani developed tetanus, but no cells found elsewhere in body • Showed bacterial toxin responsible for disease Correct

The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by: A) Jenner. B) Pasteur. C) Koch. D) van Leeuwenhoek. E) Hooke.

Koch anthrax and mice. Led to Koch's Postulates.

An important diagnostic sign of measles is: A) Koplik's spots. B) giant cells. C) fever. D) swollen lymph nodes. E) red, weepy eyes.

Koplik's spots • Koplik spots of mucous membranes identifying feature - check the tongue.

The only known human pathogen that preferentially attacks the peripheral nerves is: A. N. meningitidis. B. polio virus. C. E. coli. D. M. leprae.

M. leprae p.720 - Mycobacterium leprae is the only known human pathogen that preferentially infects peripheral nerves.

Why might a large number of competing microorganisms in a food sample result in lack of sensitivity of culture methods for detecting pathogens? a) The sheer number of microbes present might shut down the growth/replication of a pathogenic microbe in a food sample due to a 'starving out' effect. If it can't grow/replicate, it won't be detectable by a culturing method test. b) Many microbes secrete compounds that can be toxic for their competitors. If you need a pathogenic microbe to grow in a culture in order to detect it, these toxic compounds might inhibit the growth of the pathogen and impede the test AND culture methods often rely on biochemical changes taking place in medium for identification. With multiple microbes present, you may not be sure that the biochemical change observed is from the presence of a pathogen or from some other non-dangerous bacterium that also induces the biochemical change. c) Many microbes secrete compounds that can be toxic for their competitors. If you need a pathogenic microbe to grow in a culture in order to detect it, these toxic compounds might inhibit the growth of the pathogen and impede the test. d) You can't obtain a pure culture from a food sample that has a large number of microbes present. It would be impossible to detect only one from within the sample. e) Culture methods often rely on biochemical changes taking place in medium for identification. With multiple microbes present, you may not be sure that the biochemical change observed is from the presence of a pathogen or from some other non-dangerous bacterium that also induces the biochemical change.

Many microbes secrete compounds that can be toxic for their competitors. If you need a pathogenic microbe to grow in a culture in order to detect it, these toxic compounds might inhibit the growth of the pathogen and impede the test AND culture methods often rely on biochemical changes taking place in medium for identification. With multiple microbes present, you may not be sure that the biochemical change observed is from the presence of a pathogen or from some other non-dangerous bacterium that also induces the biochemical change.

Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis B) mumps C) Vibrio gastroenteritis D) bacillary dysentery E) traveler's diarrhea

Mumps Virus INHALED via saliva droplets, spreads via bloodstream

Which strain of Escherichia coli may be involved in foodborne infection? HB101 O157:H7 M309 AB220 O7:H157

O157:H7

The virulence factor of Yersinia pestis that is a protease that destroys C3b and C5a is Yops. PLA. F1. protein A.

PLA. Table 25.3/p.670 - Pla (protease) activates plasminogen, destroys C3b, C5a and clots (allows bacteria to spread) - Once Y. pestis enters via a flea bite, it releases a protein-degrading protease (Pla) that clears the lymphatics and capillaries of clots and inactivates certain complement system components, allowing the organism to spread - goes to lymph nodes, gets taken up by macrophages.

People who contract M. genitalium infections are also at risk of acquiring other STIs. T/F

Probably true Seem to pick it up the same way and it causes the same signs/symptoms as other STIs...

A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is a secondary infection caused by: A. M. luteus. B. S. pyogenes. C. Pseudomonas spp. D. S. epidermidis.

Pseudomonas spp.

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobial resistance is through the use of: viruses. R plasmids. introns. exons.

R plasmids. Conjugation - plasmid transfer - other microorganisms become resistant too.

Which statement is FALSE? Trickling filter systems are used for secondary water treatment. Chlorine, ozone and UV light can be used to disinfect water. Artificial wetlands provide a habitat for wildlife. Methane is a by-product of anaerobic digestion. Removal of nitrates by microorganisms requires aerobic conditions.

Removal of nitrates by microorganisms requires aerobic conditions. p.789 - anaerobic respiration of nitrifying bacteria

The more severe form of African sleeping sickness is called the: A. Gambian form. B. Rhodesian form. C. Guyanan form. D. Brazilian form.

Rhodesian form - causes acute disease that can progress rapidly and person dies from heart failure in 6 months. Gambian form is chronic and death is from secondary infection years later.

In addition to S. aureus, impetigo may also involve: A) M. luteus. B) S. pyogenes. C) S. epidermidis. D) Pseudomonas species. E) Cutibacterium species

S. pyogenes. Causes pus-tonsiled strep throat too. Pyogenes - generation of pus.

Which of the following is often associated with poultry products? Salmonella AND Pseudomonas Campylobacter AND Lactobacilllus Lactobacillus AND Salmonella Salmonella AND Campylobacter Pseudomonas AND Campylobacter

Salmonella AND Campylobacter

Which of the following molecules would be expected to be immunogenic? - Glucose, a simple sugar. - Serum albumin, a large protein. - Progesterone, a lipid hormone. - Linoleic acid, a fatty acid. - These are all equally immunogenic.

Serum albumin, a large protein.

Why would the Sabin oral polio vaccine need to be eliminated as we get closer and closer to eradication of the polio virus? A. Since it is a live, attenuated viral vaccine, there's always the chance it could revert back into a pathogenic state by mutation. This would introduce new strains still capable of causing the illness into human populations, thwarting elimination. B. The Sabin vaccine is cheaper than the Salk (killed virus) vaccine, but it isn't as effective at producing a protective response. We'll need to shift to the more effective Salk vaccine worldwide eventually to complete the eradication process. C. The Salk vaccine is far cheaper than the Sabin vaccine. To effectively eradicate polio, we'll need to shift all of our resources into the cheapest and easiest to deliver vaccine possible.That is the Salk vaccine. D. The Sabin vaccine can only be administered to human beings. We need to vaccinate bird populations as well to effectively control the spread of polio. Birds are a natural reservoir for the virus.

Since it is a live, attenuated viral vaccine, there's always the chance it could revert back into a pathogenic state by mutation. This would introduce new strains still capable of causing the illness into human populations, thwarting elimination.

Which of the following is not a matching pair? Soil—minimal biodiversity Rhizosphere—soil that adheres to plant root Streptomyces—geosmin production Fungi—lignin degradation Bacillus—endospores

Soil—minimal biodiversity Straight from the end of chapter multiple choice questions.

This term is used to describe the range of different microbes that a compound can kill or inhibit:

Spectrum of activity

Bacterial attachment to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of: A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Clostridium D. Pseudomonas

Staphylococcus Staphylococcus clumping factor

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of bacteria by production of fatty acids from lipids?

Staphylococcus epidermidis AND Propionibacterium species.

CD4 cells are: A) T helper cells. B) natural killer cells. C) T cytotoxic cells. D) macrophages. E) neutrophils.

T helper cells - T cytotoxic cells are CD8 cells

What type of vaccine protects against mumps virus?

The MMR/MMRV is:

What changes might occur in the vagina if lactobacilli were eliminated? A) The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level. B) Lactobacilli often produce the anti-anaerobic bacteria compound hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease states (e.g. gas gangrene). C) There would be no change in the health of the woman-other members of the normal flora would 'fill in the gap' in the population, resulting in no overall change. D) The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level AND lactobacilli often produce the anti-anaerobic bacteria compound hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease states (e.g. gas gangrene)

The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level AND lactobacilli often produce the anti-anaerobic bacteria compound hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease states (e.g. gas gangrene)

Which is true of MRSA strains? A) They are all resistant to vancomycin. B) They carry the R plasmid AND they are all resistant to vancomycin. C) They may be susceptible to linezolid. D) The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. E) The carry the F plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid.

The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. Pretty much just rules out the rest. - not all MRSA is resistant to vancomycin - Yes to R plasmid but no to B because no to A - No to E as F plasmid is fertility plasmid I want the R plasmid one so had to be D.

A drug that inhibits the growth of protozoan cells would not be expected to affect which of the following cell structures? The cell wall The cytoplasmic membrane Mitochondria Ribosomes

The cell wall Protozoan are single celled eukaryotes that don't have cell walls.

How may lung damage or pneumonia occur in a person with tetanus? A) The person may inhale regurgitated (vomited) stomach contents. B) Tetanospasmin causes the release of degradative enzymes in the lungs. C) Tetanospasmin is an A-B toxin that binds to lung epithelial cells, killing them. D) C. tetani releases alpha-toxin that causes the alveoli of the lungs to collapse. E) Spasms of major chest muscles may be so severe that the lungs are damaged.

The person may inhale regurgitated (vomited) stomach contents. Found in textbook.

Which of the following is the definition of clonal selection? A) The killing of antibody-coated target cells by natural killer cells, granulocytes, or macrophages. B) The process in which a lymphocyte's antigen receptor binds to an antigen, allowing the lymphocyte to multiply. C) The process that allows a B cell to change the antibody class it is programmed to make. D) The immune response that protects the mucous membranes, which involves secretory IgA. E) The generation of diversity in antigen specificity through rearrangement of gene segments.

The process in which a lymphocyte's antigen receptor binds to an antigen, allowing the lymphocyte to multiply.

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis? - They are both soil fungi.They are both dimorphic fungi. - They are both life-threatening. - They may be treated with antibiotics. - They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

What is the significance of immune complex formation in infective endocarditis? They lead to the formation of biofilms that are difficult to eliminate. They cause disseminated intravascular coagulation. They result in the enzymatic destruction of neutrophils and macrophages. They lead to the development of autoimmunity. They can be deposited in tissues and organs, causing damage.

They can be deposited in tissues and organs, causing damage. p.667 Correct

T cells mature in the: A) bone marrow. B) thymus. C) Peyer's patches. D) nervous tissue. E) tonsils.

Thymus. - B cells mature in the bone marrow.

The main vector(s) of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western United States is/are ________. A) ticks B) bats AND humans C) humans D) mosquitoes AND ticks E) fleas AND mites

Ticks

The causative agent of syphilis is: papilloma virus. Neisseria gonorrheae. Chlamydia trachomatis. Treponema pallidum.

Treponema pallidum Herpes Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis Treponema pallidum: very slender, highly motile (endoflagellum with corkscrew motion) spirochete that can't be seen using a gram stain. Must visualize by dark field microscopy, immunofluorescense or a special tissue staining called Silver Stain. Doesn't grow in vitro but does in rabbit testes. No enzymes for TCA cycle or ETC so can't generate much ATP. Gets what it needs from host.

Helicobacter pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers. T/F

True

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis. T/F

True

Individuals who have recovered from tetanus are not immune to the disease and must be immunized. T/F

True

Muscles aid the flow of venous blood. T/F

True

Mycobacterium leprae is only grown in living cells. T/F

True

No eukaryotic organisms have been shown to fix nitrogen without the aid of prokaryotes. T/F

True

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population. T/F

True

Protozoa, algae, and fungus are typically found near the surface of soil. T/F

True

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it spontaneously forms L-forms. T/F

True

T/F - Agglutination reactions utilize particles rather than molecules.

True

T/F - All viruses must separate the nucleic acid from the capsid before replication.

True

T/F - An adjuvant has been developed from lipid A.

True

T/F - An infectious disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

True

T/F - Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.

True

T/F - Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.

True

T/F - Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.

True

T/F - Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.

True

T/F - Defensins are short antimicrobial peptides found within mucous membranes and phagocytes.

True

T/F The lambda phage DNA always integrates into the host DNA in the same specific site.

True

The mumps virus initially infects the respiratory tract. T/F

True

The organisms found near warm vents on the bottom of the ocean are typically chemoautotrophic. T/F

True

T or F: The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is commonly infectious.

True p.635 - even the saliva of asymptomatic people can be infectious, posting a risk to dentists and other healthcare workers.

Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States. T/F

True p.646 "Campylobacteriosis is a leading bacterial diarrheal illness in the united states...numerous foodborne and waterborne outbreaks of C. jejuni have been reported (most are sporadic)."

When a person becomes infected with the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the herpesvirus family, they are infected for life. They may occasionally suffer reactivation events that may make them infectious to other individuals once again. T/F

True p.679 - EBV is present in saliva for up to 18 months after infectious mononucleosis and then intermittently for LIFE.

All cases of paralytic polio acquired in the U.S. between 1980 and 1999 were caused by Sabin's polio vaccine. T/F

True p.708 Figure 26.9 - Wild poliovirus was eliminated from the United States by 1980...polio cases acquired in the United States after 1980 were caused by vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV) - which can result from the Sabin (OPV) vaccine.

Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body. T/F

True p.742 - Neisseria gonorrheae (gonococcus, GC) is well adapted to grow within the human host. Like other STI agents, it is a human-specific antigen that survives poorly in the environment. p.743 - N. gonorrhoeae infects only humans, living mainly on the mucus membranes...most strains are susceptible to UV light, cold, desiccation and do not survive well outside the host.

There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea repeatedly. T/F

True p.743 - there is little or no immunity following recovery from gonorrhea - a person can contract gonorrhea repeatedly.

The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis. T/F

True p.747 Table 27.9 Primary stage - infectious Secondary stage - infectious Latent stage - early infectious, late non-infectious. Tertiary stage - non-infectious

Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection. T/F

True • Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) of herpesvirus family: enveloped, double-stranded DNA virus

A filamentous phage is incapable of causing a lytic infection.

True - they leave via extrusion

The most notorious typhoid carrier was: A. Typhoid Tilly. B. Typhoid Tom. C. Typhoid Mary. D. Typhoid Mark.

Typhoid Mary

Which statement regarding CagA and VacA of H. pylori is INCORRECT? VacA is an A-B toxin that increases urea flow into the stomach. CagA interferes with cell signaling and promotes inflammation. VacA interferes with the function of T cells. CagA is delivered into host cells by a secretion system. Strains of H. pylori that produce CagA are associated with stomach cancer.

VacA is an A-B toxin that increases urea flow into the stomach. It's a membrane-damaging toxin

Which statement about the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems is NOT true? The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems are typically sterile. Phagocytes in spleen red pulp remove aging or damaged RBCs, bacteria, and other antigens from the blood. Blood is exposed to immune cells as it passes through the spleen. Veins carry blood away from the heart while arteries carry blood towards the heart. Inflammation of lymphatic vessels is called lymphangitis, which presents as a red streak from an infection site toward the nearest lymph node.

Veins carry blood away from the heart while arteries carry blood towards the heart. Arteries carry blood away, veins carry blood to the heart. Correct

Hemagglutination inhibition tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by:

Viruses Hemagglutination Inhibition - a neutralization test used mostly for the serological typing of viruses. If a person's serum contains antibodies against viruses, the antibodies will react and neutralize the virus. Hemagglutination is also used to determine blood type.

Most enveloped viruses, like hepatitis B, are released by budding, a process whereby the virus acquires its envelope. Before budding occurs, virally encoded protein spikes insert into specific regions of the host cell's membrane. Given this information, which of the following would you tell your friend best describes the structure of the viral envelope? A. Phospholipid bilayer with host-derived proteins. B. Phospholipid bilayer C. Phospholipid bilayer studded with both virus- and host-derived proteins. D. Phospholipid monolayer studded with virus- and host-derived proteins. E. Protein layer with host-derived spikes.

WRONG - B. Phospholipid bilayer - the envelope is a phospholipid bilayer and the spikes are viral-encoded protein. Maybe phospholipid bilayer with both virus and host derived proteins? - found this online: :Phospholipid bilayer derived from host cell membrane. Studded with viral and host cell proteins"

What is the purpose of coagulation in drinking water treatment? Pollutants such as lead are combined into clumps using toxic chemicals, for easy removal. To bind together pollutants, bacteria, and other organisms for removal by chemicals. Suspended material is combined using toxic chemicals for easy removal from water. When suspended material clumps, it sinks and can be easily removed. Antibodies are used bind bacteria into large masses that can be removed by filtration.

When suspended material clumps, it sinks and can be easily removed.

Which symptom is least likely to occur as a result of tertiary syphilis? a) Gummas b) White patches on mucous membranes c) Emotional instability d) Stroke e) Blindness

White patches on mucus membranes. That is Secondary syphilis - picture on patchy tongue on p.746

The most prevalent cause of wine spoilage is the presence of sulfur dioxide. ethanol. carbon dioxide. lactic acid bacteria. acetic acid bacteria.

acetic acid bacteria. Add sulfur dioxide (SO2) to inhibit growth of other microbes on the grapes - including these else your wine could become expensive vinegar.

The shape of the virus is determined by its: - envelope. - capsid. - spikes. - nucleic acid. - tail.

capsid - shapes are icosahedral, helical or complex. It's how the capsomeres are put together into the capsid. HInt: bacillus does not refer to the shape of a virus.

Both S. pneumoniae and K. pneumoniae use this as a virulence factor. A) Pili B) Flagella C) Capsules D) Cilia E) Toxins

capsule

During aerobic decomposition of organic matter the primary gas produced is oxygen. hydrogen sulfide. nitrogen . carbon dioxide.

carbon dioxide

Most colds are probably caused by: A) rhinovirus. B) S. aureus. C) Pseudomonas sp. D) E. coli. E) varicella.

rhinovirus. More than 100 types of human rhinoviruses.

The zone of soil that surrounds the roots and contains a variety of organic exudates is called the mycorrhizae. rootsphere. rhizosphere. geosmin

rhizosphere

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the: selective toxicity. biocide index. biostatic index. therapeutic index.

therapeutic index TI = toxic dose/therapeutic dose - higher is better - means a larger difference between toxic and therapeutic dose (larger therapeutic window)

Helicobacter pylori appears to have some connection with: acid reflux disease. ulcers.dental caries. stomach cancer. ulcers AND stomach cancer.

ulcers AND stomach cancer.

The preferred host of Ixodes scapularis is the moose. wood rat. ground squirrel. white-footed mouse. human.

white-footed mouse.

Your son comes home from school complaining that he is ill. He tells you he thinks he has the flu—he has a sore throat, runny nose, and a cough, and his eyes are very red. Everyone in your family received a influenza vaccine about a month ago, and as the CDC reports that this year's vaccine is approximately 70% effective, you think it is unlikely that your son does in fact have this disease. In addition, your son does not seem to have muscle aches or a headache, which generally occur with flu. Nonetheless, he does look ill and when you take his temperature, you find that he has a fever of 38.9oC. You take him to see his doctor, because you suspect that while your son likely does not have influenza, he also does not have a common cold. The doctor knows that your son is unlikely to have a common cold, based on which sign/symptom? A) Sore throat B) Fever C) Cough D) Runny nose E) Fatigue The doctor checks your son's throat and notes that he has has gray-white pus on the pharynx and tonsils. He also has enlarged lymph nodes in his neck. This suggests to the doctor that your son has the bacterial infection ________, which he attempts to confirm by ________. A) strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. B) pneumococcal pneumonia; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. C) mycoplasmal pneumonia; performing a mantoux skin test and doing a throat culture. D) legionellosis; performing a mantoux skin test and a chest x-ray. E) tuberculosis; doing a throat culture and rapid TB skin test.

- Fever (no fever with common cold) - strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture.

Which statement regarding common colds and adenoviral respiratory tract infections is TRUE? A) Fever is a sign of adenoviral respiratory tract infections, but is not a sign for the common cold. B) The incubation period for adenoviral respiratory tract infections is 1-2 days, while that for common colds is 5-10 days. C) Cold viruses are non-enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses while adenoviruses are non-enveloped single-stranded RNA viruses. D) Cold viruses may cause infections other than respiratory infections while adenoviruses only cause upper respiratory tract infections. E) Adenoviral respiratory tract infections may also be caused by bacteria while the common cold is always caused by a virus of some kind.

- Fever is a sign of adenoviral respiratory tract infections, but is not a sign for the common cold.

- Freshwater streams AND cooling towers.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. What is the likely source of the L. pneumophila in this case? A) The cooling water tower providing feeding air conditioners in the patient's offices. B) The showers or faucets at the local gym where both patients regularly worked out. C) The produce section at the grocery store where vegetables are sprayed with water for freshness. D) The water tank in the patient's building that provides hot water to apartments. E) Further investigation by an agency such as the CDC would be needed to determine this.

- Further investigation by an agency such as the CDC would be needed to determine this. - why this instead of the water at their apartment - I realized that if it was any of these sources then it wouldn't just be the two of them. There are a lot of places they could have been exposed and the CDC should investigate.

Which of the following contribute to antibody diversity? - Positive selection, negative selection AND gene rearrangement - Imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations - Imprecise joining AND negative selection - Gene rearrangement, imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations - Gene rearrangement AND imprecise joining

- Gene rearrangement, imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations

Transduction resulting from a packaging error: Transduction resulting from an error in excision of a prophage:

- Generalized Transduction - Specialized Transduction

In tuberculosis, when a caseous lesion calcifies, it is called a _________. - tubercle - Ghon complex - tuberculous cavity - All of the choices are correct.

- Ghon complex

A mysterious sequel to Campylobacter jejuni infections is: A. Reye's syndrome. B. Tourette's syndrome. C. Pasteur's syndrome. D. Guillain-Barré syndrome.

- Guillain-Barre syndrome. Begins about 10 days after the onset of diarrhea, with tingling in the feet followed by progressive paralysis of the legs, arms and rest of the body. Most need to be hospitalized but recover completely - about 5% die even with treatment.

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media, and conjunctivitis is/are: - S. aureus AND H. influenzae. - H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae. - H. influenzae AND S. epidermidis. - S. pneumoniae AND S. aureus. - S. epidermidis AND S. pneumoniae.

- H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae. Many people carry strains w/o effect. Haemophilus influenzae is a tiny, G- rod. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a G+ diplococcus with a capsule (virulence factor) and is just called pneumoccocus. Strains that infect the conjunctiva have ADHESINS to attach firmly to the conjunctiva.

Which of the following has not been associated with human bites? - syphilis - tuberculosis - hepatitis B - Haverhill fever

- Haverhill fever slide 40 Human Bites • Common; can result in serious infections from normal mouth microbiota; occasionally syphilis, tuberculosis, hepatitis B, hepatitis C transmitted

The common cold - Epidemiology:

- Humans = only source of cold viruses - spread = virus-containing droplets we inhale or infected secretions we rub in w/ contaminated hands. - first 2-3 days - high [virus] in snot/on hands - most likely to transmit virus then - day 4/5 - virus levels undetectable - low levels can be present for 2 wks - infective dose - a few virions - colds NOT highly contagious with preventions like washing hands

Which of the following is associated with the upper respiratory system? - Humidifying inhaled air. - Warming inhaled air AND drying inhaled air. - Cooling inhaled air AND drying inhaled air. - Cooling inhaled air AND humidifying inhaled air. - Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air

- Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air Incoming cold air initiates a nervous response that brings more blood flow to warm incoming air and contact with the mucus membranes humidify incoming air.

What are possible complications of mumps?

- I think: miscarriage, infertility

Which class of antibody accounts for most of the circulating antibodies? A) IgD B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgG

- IgG There is a pic: in primary response of adaptive immunity some IgM is made and a little more IgG is made with a small hill. In secondary response there is a little IgM bump and a HIGE IgG response that turns downward as antigen is bound, pathogen is defeated and the amount of antibody decreases.

Which description of vegetative Bacillus anthracis is correct? It is an endospore-forming, Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. It is an endospore-forming, Gram-positive, motile, rod-shaped bacterium. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, spherical, encapsulated bacterium. It is an acid-fast, non-motile, spherical, nonspore-forming, encapsulated bacterium.

- It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. I picked A - wrong

Which of the following best defines an endemic disease? - It is a disease that is always present at some level in a population. - It is a disease that has a much higher incidence than usual. - It is a disease that is transmitted by an arthropod vector. - It is a disease that used to be common but is eradicated through vaccination programs. - It is a disease that occurs naturally in animals but may spread to people.

- It is a disease that is always present at some level in a population

Which of the following is used to classify viruses? i. Nucleic acid ii. Shape iii. Size iv. Host range v. Biochemical tests

(i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

The common cold - Causative Agent:

- 30-50% caused by the 100+ types of human RHINOVIRUSES - family Picornaviridae - group of naked ssRNA viruses - can be grown in culture - in live cells at 33C and slightly acidic pH (conditions mimic upper respiratory tract) - inactivated if pH drops below 5.3 (too acidic) - so destroyed in the stomach - many other viruses (like some adenoviruses and coronaviruses) can produce signs/symptoms of the common cold

Which is the correct definition of selective toxicity? - A medication that only targets Gram-negative bacteria. - The lowest dose of a medication toxic to the pathogen. - A medication causing greater harm to a pathogen than to the host. - A medication causing greater harm to a host than to a pathogen. - The range between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose of a medication.

- A medication causing greater harm to a pathogen than to the host. That last one is the therapeutic window.

Why do some otitis media cases not respond to antibiotic treatment? - Most cases are caused by bacteria that are resistant to commonly prescribed antibiotics. - About 30% of cases are caused by respiratory viruses—antibiotics do not help these cases. - Otitis media is caused by viruses that constantly undergo antigenic shift and/or antigenic drift. - The bacterial causative organisms mutate frequently, changing their antibiotic target sites. - Unless the exact causative organism is identified, it is impossible to prescribe the correct antibiotic.

- About 30% of cases are caused by respiratory viruses—antibiotics do not help these cases. p.535 "about 1/3 of cases are caused by RESPIRATORY VIRUSES, explaining why sonme infections do not respond to antibiotics, which have no effect on viruses."

The organism that grows anaerobically in dead or damaged tissue and produces dense colonies that are the color and size of sulfur particles is: - Escherichia coli. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Actinomyces israelii. - Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

- Actinomyces israelii. Actinomycosis (Lumpy Jaw) - slide 38 Grows as dense yellowish colonies called "sulfur granules," since color and size of particles of sulfur.

Adenovirus Respiratory Tract Infections -

- Adenoviruses are widespread, cause a dif types of infection depending on the viral serotype. - some cause a sore throat, others eye infections Adenoviruses are representative of the many viruses that cause upper respiratory tract infections characterized by FEVER. Symptoms look much like the common cold but with FEVER - 5-10 days after infection, sore throat, pus on pharynx and tonsils - is why this can be CONFUSED WITH STREP THROAT. - Lymph nodes large/tender, mild cough maybe. - Conjuntivitis and diarrhea maybe. - if severe cough with chest pain, can be mistaken for Pnuemonia - recovery in 1-3 wks

Diphtheria is an acute contagious disease caused by an exotoxin that: - functions by inhibiting protein synthesis. - may cause destruction of cardiac, kidney and nerve tissues. - can be neutralized as a result of immunity produced by the DTaP vaccine. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

The exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae: - causes an inflammatory response. - causes the formation of a pseudomembrane on the respiratory mucosa. - may destroy cardiac and kidney tissue. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following drug(s) is(are) used to treat tuberculosis? - Isoniazid - Ethambutol - Pyrazinamide - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following may be associated with nosocomial disease? - Enterococcus species. - Escherichia coli. - Pseudomonas species. - Staphylococcus aureus. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is considered a function of skin? A) Regulation of body temperature B) Prevention of fluid loss C) Synthesis of vitamin D D) Production of cytokines E) All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. A and B definitely, C I think so and at that point it has to be ALL.

Which of the following is prevented by the DTaP vaccine? - Diphtheria - Whooping cough - Tetanus - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. D- diphtheria - toxoid T - Tetnus - toxoid aP - acellular (subunit) Pertussis

Mumps is a good candidate for elimination from the population due to: - the existence of an effective vaccine. - a human only reservoir. - the absence of a latent state. - a single serotype. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. Remember the MMRV/MMR vaccine

All of the following are examples of fixed macrophages EXCEPT: - Kupffer cells. - alveolar macrophages. - microglia. - All of these are examples of fixed macrophages

- All of these are examples of fixed macrophages Ch 14 again. - liver - lungs - brain

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to: - Vibrio spp. - C. jejuni. - Salmonella spp - .enterobacteria. - All of the choices are correct.

- All the choices are correct I don't like the wording but they all do cause bacterial intestinal infections.

Which is not a component of innate immunity? - Skin - Inflammation - Fever - Antibody

- Antibody

Adenoviruses - Prevention/Tx:

- As with colds, no specific tx for adenoviruses, most patients recover on their own - if secondary bacterial infections occur ->antibiotics - available is an orally given attenuated vaccine against 2 serotypes most likely to cause severe disease but only given to Military recruits

The infectious agent(s) that may arise in a wound from a human bite is/are: A. Escherichia coli. B. Bacteroides. C. Actinomyces israelii. D. Staphylococcus aureus. E. Bacteroides AND Staphylococcus aureus.

- Bacteroides AND Staphylococcus aureus Human Bites slide 40, p.615 Causative Agents • Aerobic and anaerobic members of normal microbiota including streptococci, fusiforms, spirochetes, Bacteroides species, often in association with Staphylococcus aureus (on my chapter quiz - correct)

Cat scratch fever is caused by: - Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae. - Pasteurella multocida. - Teddis nugentaea. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae AND Staphylococcus aureus.

- Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae. slide 45 zoonosis of cats Causative Agent is: • Bartonella henselae: curved, Gram-negative rod

How can Streptococcus pyogenes initially be differentiated from other Streptococcus species that form part of the throat normal microbiotia? - By Gram staining—it is a Gram-positive organism. - By culturing the bacteria on nutrient agar and checking for hemolysis. - By morphology—the bacteria are spherical and grow in long chains. - By detection of the "A" carbohydrate in its cell wall using antibodies. - By specific disease signs and symptoms, including sore throat and fever.

- By detection of the "A" carbohydrate in its cell wall using antibodies. p.537. The organism can be differentiated from other streptococci that normally inhabit the throat by its colony morphology on blood agar - S. pyogenes colonies are surrounded by a characteristic clear zone ob beta-hemolysis. Mos species of Streptococcus that are typically part of the normal throat microbiota are either alpha-hemolytic or non-hemolytic. A few other streptococci are beta-hemolytic too though so what else? S. pyogenes is commonly referred to as GAS - Lancefield grouping uses antibodies to distinguish the cell wall carbs in streptococcal species and S. pyogenes is characterized by the "A" carb in its cell walls. That's why this answer and not the second one.

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus: A) Campylobacter jejuni. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Shigella spp. E) Vibrio cholerae

- Campylobacter jejuni - C. jejuni is a spirally curved, Gram negative rod. It can be cultivated from feces under microaerophilic conditions using a selective medium to suppress the growth of other intestinal organisms.

Which of these bacteria require a special medium and microaerophilic conditions? Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Campylobacter jejuni Salmonella enterica Staphylococcus aureus

- Campylobacter jejuni p.646 Correct

Which of the following organisms is not normally found on the skin? A) Staphylococci B) Diphtheroids C) Candida species D) Malassezia species E) Staphylococci AND diphtheroids

- Candida species Most microbial inhabitants in three groups • DIPHTHEROIDS: oily regions (forehead, upper chest, back) - Cutibacterium (Propionibacteria) most common: obligate anaerobes, grow within hair follicles • STAPHYLOCOCCI: salt-tolerant, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria • MALASSEZIA: tiny lipid-dependent yeasts

What is the most likely reason why smokers are more at risk for respiratory system infections? - Cigarette smoke is carcinogenic (cancer-causing), leading to a much higher incidence of lung cancer. - They aren't; this is just a rumor used to get people to stop smoking. - Smokers take in microbes from their hands into their lungs as they handle cigarettes and inhale the smoke. - Tobacco contains viruses that are inhaled when a person smokes; these cause respiratory infections. - Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract.

- Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract. slide 9 - ciliary movement is impaired by: smoking, alcohol/narcotic abuse, viral infections. Increased the chance of infection if you can't move the mucus up and out of the lungs.

Which of the following gastrointestinal pathogens produce A-B toxins?

- Cholera toxin is A-B - Shigella toxin is A-B

Which of the following is an important function of the skin? A) Hold muscle to bone B) Manufacture blood cells C) Produce antibodies D) Control body temperature E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- Control body temperature Tough but flexible. - Serves as a blood reservoir, barrier to keep things in/out = primary defense along with mucus membranes. Skin: prevents entry, regulates body temperature, restricts fluid loss, senses the environment

Which is the causative agent of the upper respiratory tract infection characterized by the formation of a pseudomembrane on the tonsils or in the throat? - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Mycoplasma pneumoniae - Bordetella pertussis

- Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A bacteriophage is necessary for toxin production in: - E. coli. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Corynebacterium diphtheriae. - Streptococcus pyogenes. - All of the answer choices are correct.

- Corynebacterium diphtheriae. - a lysogenic bateriophage - lysogenic converstion - it makes diphtheria toxin - an A-B exotoxin. Not a good question because the strains of S. pyogenes that make SPEs do so because of lysogenic converstion too. - superantigen - erythrogenic toxin -> scarlet fever.

Which of the following is/are not associated with strep throat? - Sore throat and fever. - Patches of pus in the throat. - Enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. - Cough and nasal discharge. - Abdominal pain and headache.

- Cough and nasal discharge. Strep throat is characterized by sore throat, difficulty swallowing, fever after an incubation period of 2-5 days. Throat red with patches of pus and scattered tiny hemorrhages. Lymph nodes in neck enlarged/tender. In older kids and young adults - abdominal pain or headache. Pts do not usually have a cough, weepy yes or runny nose. Spontaneously recover in 1 wk Many have mild or no symptoms at all.

Why are some tissues damaged by diphtheria toxin while others are unaffected by it? - Diphtheria toxin is a superantigen. Only TH cells are affected by this type of toxin, so tissues lacking TH cells are unaffected. - The causative agent is inhaled into the lungs, so only lung tissue is affected by the toxin released by the organism. - Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. Cells that do not have a receptor for the toxin are unaffected by it. - The causative agent is ingested, so only gastrointestinal tissue is affected by the toxin released by the organism. - Diphtheria is a localized infection. Only tissues in the immediate area of the bacteria are affected by the toxin.

- Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. Cells that do not have a receptor for the toxin are unaffected by it. Cells that do sustain heavy damage -> heart, kidney, nerves - why heart/kidney failure and paralysis can occur later.

Why don't medications such as acyclovir cure oral herpes simplex infections?

- Do not affect latent virus and so cannot cure.

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is: A) Shigella spp. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Giardia lamblia. D) Escherichia coli. E) Campylobacter jejuni

- E. coli "Contrary to common belief, food - not water - is the primary cause. The CDC estimates up to 80% of cases of travelers' diarrhea are caused by bacteria. The most common bacterium that causes travelers' diarrhea is enterotoxigenic E. coli, one of six classes of enterovirulent E. coli. Most E. coli are harmless."

Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells? A) Giardia lamblia B) Escherichia coli C) Taenia spp. D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Entamoeba histolytica

- Entamoeba histolytica "E. histolytica is also capable of phagocytizing red blood cells."

?Which of the following E. coli serovars give rise to a disease similar to that caused by Shigella sp.? Enteroinvasive Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic Enterohemorrhagic All of the choices are correct.

- Enteroinvasive E. coli p. 642 - Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) - these strains invade the intestinal epithelium, causing a disease similar to shegellosis. Correct

Why are some drugs that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria also harmful to humans? - Some drugs are powerful enough to inhibit human cell protein synthesis as well as that of bacterial cells. - Humans and bacteria have very similar types of ribosomes. - Some human cells have mutated ribosomes, which are more susceptible to these drugs. - Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70S ribosomes

- Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70S ribosomes

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? - Protein A - M protein - Lipopolysaccharide - Intact bacteria - Exotoxin

- Exotoxin It is an inactivated toxoid vaccine - doesn't replicate in the host, is exotoxin treated with formalin - Toxoid vaccines use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease. They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the germ itself. That means the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ. DTap - diphtheria, tetnus, pertussis - need a booster every 10 years as immunity decreases after childhood.

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. Rubeola can be effectively prevented with the MMR vaccine. The child in this case has not received any vaccines, because he has been receiving chemotherapy. Why wasn't he given the MMR vaccine? A) It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. B) It is an inactivated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. C) The MMR vaccine is known to cause complications such as autism, and this child already has enough problems with leukemia. D) It is a toxoid vaccine—these vaccines contain deactivated microbial toxins; since the child is severely immunocompromised, the toxin used in the vaccine will damage all of his cells. E) The patient is a child, so will not be able to tolerate any egg proteins that may be present in the MMR vaccine, which is produced in eggs.

- It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient.

The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is: a. Dermacentor virabilis b. Dermacentor andersoni c. Staphylococcus aureus d. lxodes scapularis

- Ixodes scapularis Black-legged (deer) tick Ixodes scapularis most important vector.

Mycoplasmal Pneumonia = Walking Pneumonia

- Leading pneumonia of college students, common among military recruits, children and young adults; generally mild - does not show the severe signs/symptoms of most other pneumonias so is called Atypical Pneumonia Signs/Symptoms: - 2-3 wk incubation (all others were just a couple of days) - onset is gradual; initial symptoms are fever, headache, muscle pain, fatigue. Dry cough after several days; mucoid sputum may be produced later - otitis media in ~15% of cases Causative Agent: - Mycoplasma pneumonia - small bacterium with no cell walls that makes 'fried egg' colonies - grows slowly and is aerobic Pathogenesis: - only a few inhaled cells can start infection - cells use adhesion proteins to attach to respiratory epithelium - Interfere with ciliary action, cause cells to slough off - Inflammatory response with accumulation of lymphocytes and macrophages thickens walls of bronchial tubes and alveoli - damage to mucociliary escalator means more vulnerable to secondary bacterial infections Epidemiology: - s spread by aerosolized droplets shed from about 1 week before symptoms begin to many weeks afterward • Accounts for ~1/5 of bacterial pneumonias • Immunity following recovery not permanent; repeat attacks have occurred within 5 years Tx/Prevention: - Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks cell walls so antibiotics like beta lactams aren't going to work. - • Tetracycline, erythromycin shorten illness if given early, but they are only bacteriostatic • No preventative measures exist except avoiding overcrowding in schools, military facilities

Which of the following bacterial pathogens is found in aquatic environments and is commonly present in air conditioning systems and cooling towers? - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Enterobacter aerogenes - Vibrio cholera - Legionella pneumophila

- Legionella pneumophila - found in natural waters, water system - L. pneumophila is protected from chlorine inside amoebas. (freshwater ones)

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. Select the FALSE statement regarding legionellosis and its causative agent. A) The causative organism survives well in the water systems of buildings, particularly in hot water systems, where chlorine levels are generally low. B) People become infected with L. pneumophila when they inhale aerosol droplets contaminated with the organism. It is not acquired from other infected individuals. C) L. pneumophila produces a β-lactamase, which makes it resistant to many penicillins and some cephalosporins, so is typically treated with a macrolide or a fluoroquinolone. D) Legionella pneumophila is an obligate intracellular parasite that survives in ameba in the environment and in kupffer cells in infected people. E) L. pneumophila prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion in phagocytes, thus avoiding destruction; the bacteria manipulate conditions to multiply within these cells.

- Legionella pneumophila is an obligate intracellular parasite that survives in ameba in the environment and in kupffer cells in infected people. Kupffer cells are macrophges in the liver. L. pneumophila lives in alveolar macrophages.

Which of the following proteins produced by B. anthracis function together to kill phagocytes? A) Local factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor. B) Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor. C) Local factor, protective antibody, AND edema factor. D) Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND endotoxin. E) Lethal factor, protective antibody, AND endotoxin.

- Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor.

Which of the following is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes? - M protein - Capsule - Endotoxin AND pili - M protein AND pili - M protein AND capsule

- M protein AND capsule M protein - adhesin. Inactivates C3b of compliment - INTERFERES WITH PHAGOCYTOSIS Capsule - hyaluronic acid - mimics host cell structure and INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS

Which of the following does NOT form a memory population after activation and differentiation? - T cytotoxic cells. - T helper cells. - Macrophages. - B cells. - These all form memory cells.

- Macrophages.

The member of the normal microbiota sometimes considered responsible for tinea versicolor is: A) Staphylococcus species. B) diphtheroids. C) Candida species. D) Malassezia species. E) Streptococcus species.

- Malassezia species. Fungal diseases: Malassezia furfur generally harmless, commonly found • Can cause scaly rash, dandruff, or tinea versicolor - TINEA VERSICOLOR characterized by patchy scaliness and increased pigmentation of light skin or decreased pigmentation of dark

If you are a 20-year-old healthy young adult and you have to CHOOSE a type of pneumonia to become infected with (and you will NOT get treatment for it), which would be the 'best,' and why? - Pneumococcal pneumonia-it doesn't destroy lung tissue and can be completely recovered from. - Klebsiella pneumonia-it has the shortest recovery time. - Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out. - Viral pneumonia-there are many antiviral medications you can take for this version with very few side effects.

- Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out.

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is to: - dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. - to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. - to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. - None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness.

- None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness. • No proven treatments • Viruses not affected by antibiotics, antibacterial medications **• Analgesics, antipyretics can reduce symptoms but may prolong symptoms and duration**

You are looking after your sister's cat Singa. While playing one evening, Singa accidentally bites you instead of the toy mouse you are holding. The bite wound is very small but is in the fleshy part of your hand. You wash the wound, which is not bleeding much, and put a band aid on it. The next day, your whole hand is red, swollen, and painful, and some lymph nodes in your arm are enlarged and tender. You call your sister, who is an RN. She urges you to go to the doctor, telling you that animal bites can sometimes be infected, and that if that is the case, you will need treatment before the infection gets any worse.The PA goes on to explain that cat bite infections and bartonellosis (cat scratch disease) differ in that: A) the virulence factors of P. multicoda are as yet unknown while B. henselae has an antiphagocytic capsule. B) P. multicoda is transmitted by cat bites, while B. henselae may be transmitted by bites or scratches. C) P. multicoda may be transmitted form person-to-person while B. henselae can only be transmitted by cat bites. D) P. multicoda is a Gram-positive organism while B. henselae is a Gram-negative organism. E) cat bite infections can be prevented with prophylactic antibiotics while bartonellosis may be prevented with an attenuated vaccine.

- P. multicoda is transmitted by cat bites, while B. henselae may be transmitted by bites or scratches. Not A or D, (This was on my chapter quiz) I chose B = Correct

It would be useful if antigens were delivered directly to: - red blood cells. - Peyer's patches. - Peyer's patches AND M cells. - W Cells. - M cells.

- Peyer's patches AND M cells. Talking MALT here.

Select the best description of the causative agent of diphtheria. - Pleomorphic, Gram-negative lysogen. - Gram-positive, spore-forming rod. - Gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-former. - Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. - Pleomorphic, Gram-positive, flagellated lysogen.

- Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pleomorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming G+ rod that is a lysogen because it is a lysogenic bacteriophage that inserts its DNA into the bacteria's genome that causes it to make the diphtheria exotoxin (lysogenic conversion). - club-shaped and often arranged side-by-side in pallisades (like a wooden fence).

How are pleurisy and pneumonia are different? - Pleurisy is inflammation of the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe), while pneumonia is microbial infection of the linings that surround the lungs. - Pneumonia is active microbial infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe). - Pleurisy is caused by viruses (single-stranded or double-stranded RNA), while pneumonia is caused by bacteria (Gram-positive only). - Pneumonia is caused by viruses (single-stranded or double-stranded DNA), while pleurisy is caused by bacteria (Gram-negative or Gram-positive). - Pneumonia is always a fatal infection and cannot be easily treated while pleurisy is not—treatment of this condition is by antiviral medications.

- Pneumonia is active microbial infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe). slide 13. Pneumonitis = inflammation of lungs, often viral. Pneumonitis that causes the alveoli to fill with pus/fluid = pneumonia.

Which of the following is specifically associated with diphtheria? - Pseudomembrane in throat - General malaise - Fever and sore throat - Microhemorrhages - Widespread rash

- Pseudomembrane in throat Signs and symptoms: 2-6 days after infection, mild sore throat, slight fever, extreme fatigue and malaise (general discomfort). Neck swells dramatically, pseudomembrane on tonsils/throat or in nasal cavity, heart/kidney failure and paralysis can happen later. - pseudomembrane - dead epithelial cells, clotted blood, fibrin and WBCs from inflammatory response to bacteria. Can become loose, obstruct airway - pt can suffocate.

Which step(s) of phagocytosis are avoided by Streptococcus pyogenes? - Recruitment of phagocytes AND phagolysosome formation - Phototaxis AND recognition and attachment - Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment - Phagolysosome formation - Phagolysosome formation AND lysis

- Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment Recruitment of phagocytes - makes C5a peptidase Recognition and attachment - capsules, M protein, Protein G = Fc receptors

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by: A) Giardia. B) rotavirus. C) Salmonella. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Trichinella

- Rotavirus Rotaviruses are naked viruses with a double-walled capsid and a dsRNA genome in 11 segments. The viruses represent a major subgroup of the family Reoviridae. - fecal-oral route

Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by: A. herpes. B. hepatitis B. C. Norwalk virus. D. rotavirus.

- Rotavirus p.648 - most cases of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children around the world are caused by rotaviruses.

Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT: A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Vibrio cholerae. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Clostridium botulinum

- Shigella dysenteriae S. dysenteriae strains can make Shiga toxin - an CYTOTOXIN, a chromosomally encoded A-B toxin that interacts with ribosomes in kidney cells, stopping protein synthesis which leads to cell death. Shiga toxin is responsible for HUS - hemolytic uremic synfrom where RBCs lyse in the tiny blood vessels, resulting in anemia and kidney failure. Clostridium perfringins makes the exotoxin alpha toxin that is a pore-forming protein; it causes potassium and fluid leakage from cells, is responsible for gas gangrene and myonecrosis in infected tissues. Vibrio cholerae makes cholera toxin, an enterotoxin, bacteriophage A-B toxin that activates ion transport channels so electrolytes and water leave the cells. Staphylococcus aureus makes the exotoxin exfoliatin - Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. Clostridium botulinum makes the exotoxin botulinum toxin.

Formation of biofilms attached to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of: - Staphylococcus - Streptococcus - Clostridium - Pseudomonas

- Staphylococcus slide 15 - Staphylococcus epidermiditis - Adheres to and colonizes medical devices by binding to fibronectin, which quickly coats surgical implants. Biofilms also problematic

The most frequent genus causing wound infections in healthy people is: - Pseudomonas. - Staphylococcus. - Pasteurella. - Rochalimea.

- Staphylococcus. Correct

Pneumococcal pneumona - causative agent:

- Steptococcus pneumoniae - a G+ diplococcus with a thick polysaccharide capsule (remember of sinusitis, otitis media and conjuntivitis slides) - virulence factor - cells are elongated with tapered end = lancet-shaped - strains with no capsule do not cause invasive disease

Which of the following statements regarding resistance in Klebsiella species is FALSE? A) β-lactamase confers resistance to β-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin. B) Extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL) confers resistance to many of the cephalosporins. C) Carbapenemase confers resistance to carbapenems as well as other β-lactam drugs. D) There are few effective treatments available for carbapenem-resistant K. pneumoniae infections. E) Strains of Klebsiella that produce β-lactamase are resistant to penicillin but will respond to all cephalosporins.

- Strains of Klebsiella that produce β-lactamase are resistant to penicillin but will respond to all cephalosporins.

Which statement about S. pyogenes and strep throat pathogenesis is FALSE? - S. pyogenes strains that produce streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are lysogens. - Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. - Streptolysins O and S produced by S. pyogenes destroy blood cells by making holes in their cell membranes. - Spread of S. pyogenes is aided by streptokinase, an enzyme that breaks down blot clots. - The hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes helps it avoid the innate immune defenses.

- Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. SPEs are superantigens that causes a massive activation of T helper cells, cause them to release anti-inflammatory cytokines = Cytokine Storm -> seriousness of these infections.

The cause of strep throat is: - Staphylococcus aureus. - Streptococcus pyogenes—beta-hemolytic, group A. - Staphylococcus pyogenes—alpha-hemolytic, group B. - Streptococcus pneumoniae. - Staphylococcus aureus—beta-hemolytic, group A.

- Streptococcus pyogenes—beta-hemolytic, group A. Streptococcal pharyngitis (Strep Throat) G+ chains of beta-hemolytic GAS

What was the first practical antimicrobial agent to be widely used? - Penicillin - Vancomycin - Sulfanilamide - Arsenic compounds

- Sulfanilamide Scientist responsible for the discovery of sulfanilamide, the first practical antimicrobial agent used to treat a wide array of bacterial infections. Gerhard Domagk.

Which of the following indicates bacterial conjunctivitis rather than viral conjunctivitis? - Increased tear production - Redness of conjunctiva - Swelling and pus - Sensitivity to light - All of the answer choices are correct.

- Swelling and pus Acute bacterial conjunctivitis - organisms probably inoculated directly onto conjuntiva from airborne respiratory droplets or from transfer from contaminated hands. - resist destruction by lysosyme - attachment aided by degradation of MUCIN, a protective component of surface membrane - attachment, then release tissue-damaging enzymes, sometimes combined with toxins, to harm eye tissue

How is a T-cell receptor different from a B-cell receptor? - T-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule. - B-cell receptors are composed of chains of amino acids, while T-cell receptors are composed of chains of carbohydrates. - T-cell receptors are composed of four protein chains (pieces), while B-cell receptors are composed of only two chains. - T-cell receptors are eventually secreted into the bloodstream by activated T-cells, whereas B-cell receptors are not; they always stay with the B-cell. - B-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule.

- T-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule.

Please select the TRUE statement regarding Toll-like receptors (TLRs). - A number of different TLRs have been described, all of which are found in the phospholipid membranes of endosomes and phagosomes. - TLRs allow cells to detect patterns associated with microbes, indicating that the innate immune responses involve some specificity (although not the specificity of adaptive immunity). - TLRs represent a very important early-warning system for viral infections. They allow any virally infected cell to alert neighboring cells that a virus is present. - TLRs anchored in the membrane of endosomes generally detect components of the outermost layers of microbial cells, including lipopolysaccharide (LPS), lipoproteins, and flagellin. - All of these statements are true of TLRs.

- TLRs allow cells to detect patterns associated with microbes, indicating that the innate immune responses involve some specificity (although not the specificity of adaptive immunity).

Please select the FALSE statement regarding antibiotic resistance. - Changes in the porin proteins can prevent certain antimicrobials from entering a cell's periplasm or cytoplasm. - The bacterial enzyme chloramphenicol acetyltransferase confers resistance to the penicillins. - Modifications in the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) prevent β-lactam antibiotics from binding to them. - Some antibiotic-inactivating enzymes have an extended spectrum and confer resistance to a wide variety of antibiotics. - Bacteria that produce efflux pumps sometimes become resistant to several different antimicrobials simultaneously.

- The bacterial enzyme chloramphenicol acetyltransferase confers resistance to the penicillins.

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? A) It is a bacterial infection. B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested. C) A healthy carrier state exists. D) The mortality rate is high. E) It is often associated with poultry products

- The mortality rate is high. It is bacterial: Salmonella enterica - G- rod, member of Enterobacteriaceae. Often short-lived and mild depending on strain, dose MILD AND MOST PEOPLE RECOVER W/O ANTIMICROBIAL TREATMENT Poultry, eggs often contaminated; many other products (e.g., tomatoes, alfalfa sprouts) have started outbreaks.

Why would it be reasonable to treat strep throat but not diphtheria with antibacterial antibiotics? - The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. - The signs and symptoms of strep throat are mostly from the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic effectively eliminates these exotoxins. - The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The drug would have no effect against this infectious agent. - There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria. - The causative agent of diphtheria is pleomorphic and does not have a cell wall. There are thus no antibiotics that would be effective against this organism.

- The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. - strep throat - signs/symptoms due to virulence factors of S. pyogenes. - causative agent of diphtheria is Corynebacterium diphtheriae - a pleamorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming, G+ rod with irregularly staining metachormatic granules towards the ends. - both penicillin and erythromycin are effective against C. diphtheriae but can't do anything against absorbed toxin - penicillin is beta-lactam, erythromycin is macrolide - primarily bacteriostatic and works against protein synthesis

Which of the following statements concerning mumps virus infection is FALSE? - The virus is present in urine approximately 10 days after the onset of symptoms. - The testes can become inflamed about 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. - The illness frequently begins with painful swelling of one or both parotid glands. - The virus is transmitted in saliva and respiratory secretions.

- The testes can become inflamed about 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. LOOK IN BOOK

Why are there currently no vaccines against Streptococcus pyogenes? - There are many antigenic types in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another. - There is great variation in the polysaccharide capsule of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another. - Antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. - There is great variation in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one M type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. - There is great variation in the polysaccharide capsule of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever.

- There is great variation in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one M type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. First part true - almost picked just that but the second part is true too and we don't want this post-streptococcal sequalae to occur. - an appropriate vaccine would have to protect against many different strains of S. pyogenes without causing an autoimmune resoonse (causing the immune system to act against "self")

How do cytokines function? - They are secreted by lysozomes into the phagosomes of neutrophils to enhance the killing of ingested microbes within those organelles. - They are secreted by one cell type, then work as a series of serum proteins to produce holes in the cytoplasmic membranes of microbes to directly lyse them. - They are secreted by microbes that have been engulfed by phagocytes, causing those cells to produce destructive enzymes and undergo apoptosis. - They are secreted by one cell type, then bind to a receptor on target cell causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response. - They are produced by several cell types and bind directly to microbes to enhance their chance of being ingested, in a process called opsonization.

- They are secreted by one cell type, then bind to a receptor on target cell causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response.

Which of the following is NOT true about diphtheroids? A) They are part of the normal microbiota of the skin. B) They are responsible for body odor. C) They include Cutibacterium acnes. D) They include Malassezia species. E) These are all true.

- They include Malassezia species. These little yeasts are not lumped in with the diphtheroids.

How do adenoviruses avoid the adaptive immune system? A) They cloak themselves with a hyaluronic acid capsule. B) They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class I molecules. C) They synthesize C5a peptidase. D) They block interferon and antiviral protein production. E) They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class II molecules.

- They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class I molecules.

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection. This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

- This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? A) Diphtheria and pneumonia B) Influenza and diphtheria C) Tuberculosis and pneumonia D) Common cold and tuberculosis E) Influenza and tuberculosis

- Tuberculosis and pneumonia TB is in lungs and so is pneumonia. Upper is head and neck, lower is chest.

What happens when a helper T cell is activated? - Activated TH cells produce cytokines that stimulate dendritic cells, converting them into antigen-presenting cells. - Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells produce a variety of antibodies. - Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells. - Two populations of cells are formed: effector TH cells and effector TC cells; these work together to activate B cells and macrophages. - Two populations of cells are formed: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells; the TH cells activate B cells and the TC cells target virus-infected cells.

- Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells.

Which of the following statements about otitis media is FALSE? - The causative organisms may form a biofilm, leading to chronic infections. - It is usually preceded by infections of the nasal cavity and upper pharynx. - It may sometimes spread to the membranes covering the brain, causing meningitis. - Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective. - Otitis media during the "flu" season can be decreased by giving the flu vaccine to infants in day-care facilities

- Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective.

Phage that lyses the bacterial host when completing its life cycle: Phage that is able to incorporate its genome into the host chromosome:

- Virulent Phage -Temperate Phage

Why are viruses more susceptible to nucleotide analogs than their host cells? - Viral DNA polymerases break down nucleotide analogs into toxic by-products, leading to the inactivation of the virus. - The coverings of most viruses are more permeable to nucleotide analogs than are the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells. - Viral DNA is distorted by the presence of nucleotide analogs, whereas the host DNA is not. - Viruses replicate their nucleic acid more rapidly than host cells do.

- Viruses replicate their nucleic acid more rapidly than host cells do.

What kind of media do we culture Corynebacterium diphtheriae on?

- a selective media with potassium tellerite - inhibits growth of normal throat microbiota and C. diphtheriae colonies will grow black or brown. - can also grow on Leoffler's medium - enhances the formation of metachromatic granules.

Molecular Koch's postulates are:

- a set of experimental criteria that must be satisfied to show that a gene found in a pathogenic microorganism encodes a product that contributes to the disease caused by the pathogen. Genes that satisfy molecular Koch's postulates are often referred to as virulence factors.

A localized collection of pus in a wound is termed a(n): leukocyte. dead tissue. granulation mound. abscess.

- abscess Localized collection of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue. • Pus: thick, yellowish fluid composed of living and dead leukocytes, tissue debris, and proteins • Abscesses form as result of body's defenses • Help localize infection, although cells may escape • Difficult to treat: no blood vessels; adjacent blood vessels often blocked by clots

Pneumococcal Pneumonia Signs/Symptoms

- accounts for ~60% of adult pneumonia patients requiring hospitalization - pneumococci are an important cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) - 1-3 days incubation. - preceded by 1-2 days of runny nose, upper respiratory congestion, then sudden fever and shaking chills. - cough, fever, chest pain, sputum production (pus, other material coughed up from lungs) - Sputum becomes pinkish or rust colored from blood, Severe chest pain aggravated by each breath or cough - Causes shallow rapid breathing - Patient develops dusky color from poor oxygenation - w/o tx survivors show profuse sweating and rapid return to normal temp after 7-10 days

In many people, the growth of C. acnes within hair follicles leads to: A) eczema. B) carbuncles. C) boils. D) acne. E) all of these.

- acne Cutibacterium acnes multiples in the sebum -> acne "Cutibacterium acnes (formerly Propionibacterium acnes) is the relatively slow-growing, typically aerotolerant anaerobic, Gram-positive bacterium (rod) linked to the skin condition of ACNE"

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is: A) adenoviral pharyngitis. B) otitis media. C) the common cold. D) tonsilitis. E) bronchitis.

- adenoviral pharyngitis. It's the gray-white pus seen on pharynx and tonsils.

M protein, a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes, directly interferes with which of the following steps of phagocytosis? - elimination - adherence - digestion - chemotaxis

- adherence M protein - adhesin - lets cell attach to host cell. - it inactivates Cb3 - an opsonin - opsonins bind to antigen and make it more attractive to and easier for phagocytes to bind to and engulf. It says Evasion on the pic on slide 17...

Which of the following virulence factors used by Staphylococcus puts holes in host cells? A) Protein A B) Alpha toxin C) Leukocidin D) Clumping factor E) Membrane attack complex

- alpha toxin Table 22.3 Alpha toxin - makes holes in host cell membranes.

Each class of antibody is specifically defined by its: - amino acid sequence of the variable region of the light chain. - ability to bind a range of antigens. - amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain. - presence of disulfide bonds. - ability to cross the placenta.

- amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain.

Helicobacter pylori is able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce neutralizing proteins from glucans. fatty acids from sebum. lactic acid from sugar. ammonia from urea. ammonia from urease.

- ammonia from urea. • H. pylori survives acidic environment of stomach - Produces urease, which converts urea (from proteins) to ammonia, creates alkaline microenvironment

The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of: an endotoxin. modified mucus. an exotoxin flagella.

- an exotoxin. cholera toxin, an A-B toxin - B portion attaches to receptors of microvilli - A portion enters cells, activates a G protein that turns on adenylate cyclase to convert ATP to cAMP - High cAMP causes cell to secrete chloride ions - Sodium and other ions follow, and water follows the salts, yielding outpouring from cells - Toxin does not affect large intestine, but volume of fluid is too much to be absorbed, causing diarrhea - Toxin encoded by bacteriophage: lysogenic conversion

Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n): A. water source. B. human source. C. plant source. D. animal source.

- animal source

Giardiasis may be contracted from: another person. clear mountain streams. chlorinated city water. cold filtered beer. another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

- another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

Rapid diagnostic tests for streptococcal infections may use: - blood agar AND the Kirby-Bauer test. - antibodies AND blood agar. - DNA probes. - the Kirby-Bauer test AND DNA probes. - antibodies AND DNA probes.

- antibodies AND DNA probes. Antibodies is a given, blood agar isn't a rapid test - involves incubation, Kirby-Bauer isn't rapid either... Kirby-Bauer tests test whether particular bacteria are susceptible to specific antibiotics. -What is special about Mueller Hinton agar that makes it useful for the Kirby Bauer test? It is used for the routine susceptibility testing of non-fastidious microorganism by the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion technique. Five percent sheep blood and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide may also be added when susceptibility testing is done on Streptococcus species.

Tetanus antitoxin is: - antibody against the bacteria. - inactivated toxin. - inactivated bacteria. - antibody against the toxin.

- antibody against the toxin A TOXOID is a vaccine; it is used to prevent disease. An ANTITOXIN is a treatment; it is used when a problem is immediately at hand. And that is why this is the answer it is. Correct

Macrophages and dendritic cells are: - antibody-producing cells. - B cells. - antigen-presenting cells. - lymphocytes. - T cells.

- antigen-presenting cells APCs!

The virulence of Klebsiella is due partly to the: A) motility of the organism AND exotoxin produced. B) structure and organization of flagella. C) structure of their pili AND exotoxin produced. D) antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. E) exotoxin produced AND antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.

- antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. Can get into bloodstream and produce endotoxic shock though. K. pneumoniae is G- rod. G- have LPS in their outer membrane. LPS = endotoxin.

Diphtheria is treated with: - antitoxin and antibiotics. - anti-inflammatory drugs and antibiotics. - DPT vaccine. - diuretic drugs and antibiotics.

- antitoxin and antibiotics. Antibiotics to kill the bacteria and antitoxin to stop the toxin.

The RADT and throat culture are both negative for Streptococcus pyogenes, the causative agent of strep throat. The doctor tells you that your son likely has an adenoviral respiratory tract infection. Adenoviruses are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solutions. This indicates that these viruses A) are double-stranded RNA viruses. B) are non-enveloped viruses. C) are enveloped viruses. D) are endospore-formers. E) are also resistant to multiple antibiotics.

- are non-enveloped viruses. Naked viruses are resistant to more things that will inactivate an enveloped one. Adenovirus - nakes, dsDNA and humans are their only reservoir.

Diphtheroids: A. are part of the normal flora of the skin. B. are responsible for body odor. C. include P. acnes. D. include Malassezia spp. E. are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes.

- are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes. Normal skin flora, 3 groups: diphtheroids, staphylococcus (G+), Malassezia yeasts - Acne vulgaris - Cutibacterium (Proprionibacteria) acnes is a diphtheroid.

The most serious consequence of rubella is: A) encephalitis. B) birth defects. C) meningitis. D) deafness. E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

- birth defects.

Factor(s) not found in abscesses is/are: A. pus. B. dead leukocytes. C. tissue remnants. D. blood vessels.

- blood vessels Localized collection of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue. • Pus: thick, yellowish fluid composed of living and dead leukocytes, tissue debris, and proteins

What do hepatitis A and hepatitis B have in common? Both often result in a mild disease. Both can be prevented by a vaccine. Both can result in a carrier state. Both are transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

- both can be prevented by a vaccine No carrier state in HepA, fecal-oral is only HepA and HepB ranges from asymptomatic to severe.

A positive (+) strand of RNA: The negative (-) sense strand of RNA:

- can directly act as mRNA - is used to synthesize more (+) strands.

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is: A) a capsule. B) flagella. C) pili. D) cilia. E) A-B toxin.

- capsule polysaccharide capsule that stops the opsonin C3b to avoid phagocytosis.

The pneumococcal vaccine is directed against the: A) flagella. B) pili. C) cilia. D) capsule. E) A-B toxin.

- capsule. The vaccines contain capsule polysaccharides from the 13 or 23 most common serotypes

Gas gangrene is so named due to the formation of: A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen. C. hydrogen. D. carbon monoxide. E. carbon dioxide AND hydrogen.

- carbon dioxide AND hydrogen. • Severe pain, swelling, and thin bloody or brownish fluid leaks from wound; may look frothy (gas bubbles) slide 35 - Organisms multiply using tissue breakdown products, release HYDROGEN AND CARBON DIOXIDE, which accumulate

Which is deemed the most serious staphylococcal skin infection? A. tinea versicolor B. folliculitis C. furuncles D. carbuncles

- carbuncles Folliculitis (pimples) -> Furuncle (boils) -> Carbuncle - May worsen to form carbuncle, a large area of redness, swelling, pain, draining pus Staphylococcus aureus caused folliculitis.

S. aureus clumping factor: A) causes fibrinogen to clump together. B) causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. C) reacts with prothrombin. D) produces staphylothrombin. E) causes phagocytes to clump bacteria.

- causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. Table 22.3 - clumping factor - attaches the bacteria to fibrin, fibrinogen and plastic devices.

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of: A) salmonellosis. B) cholera. C) bacillary dysentery. D) amebic dysentery. E) tapeworm infestation

- cholera

Which of the following are involved in coating Staphylococcus with host proteins? A. clumping factor B. coagulase C. protein A D. leukocidin E. clumping factor, coagulase AND protein A

- clumping factor, coagulase AND protein A Clumping factor - attaches the bacterium to fibrin, fibrinogen and plastic devices. Coagulase - produces clots in the surrounding capillaries protein A - binds to Fc portion of antibody, prevents opsoniziation Correct

. Staphylococci can be divided into pathogenic and relatively nonpathogenic strains based on whether or not they synthesize _________. A. catalase B. coagulase C. leukocidins D. a capsule

- coagulase Coag-positive is S. aureus Coag-negative is the other Staphylococcus species, including S. epidermidis.

A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is: A) leukocidin. B) coagulase. C) mannose. D) streptokinase. E) catalase.

- coagulase p.577 "Staphylococcus aureus can be distinguished from most other staphylococci because it produces COAGULASE and CLUMPING FACTOR. Coagulates causes a large clot to form in plasma...both coagulase and clumping factor are important virulence factors for S. aureus. Other staphylococcal strains, such as Staphylyococcus epidermidis, cause disease infrequently and lack the genes for coagulase and clumping factor."

Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by: A) biological vectors. B) contaminated food and water. C) unpasteurized milk. D) the respiratory route. E) exposure to contaminated soil

- contaminated food and water

In humans the most common type of anthrax disease is: A. cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin. B. pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of spores attached to dust. C. gastrointestinal anthrax resulting from consumption of undercooked food contaminated with spores. D. tick borne anthrax resulting from direct introduction of vegetative Bacillus anthracis to the blood stream of a host.

- cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin.

Wound infections may result in: A. delayed healing. B. abscess formation. C. extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream. D. aerobic conditions. E. delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.

- delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.

- detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa. Rubeola is measles. KOPLIK SPOTS of mucous membranes are identifying feature.

Viruses are commonly referred to by their ______ name.

- disease AND species

The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by: - disulfide bonds. - hydrogen bonds. - ionic bonds. - oxygen bonds.

- disulfide bonds

According to the clonal selection theory: - antibodies are modified, at the time of antigen exposure, to specifically react with the antigen. - B cells producing autoantibodies are eliminated in the thymus. - self-reactive T cells are killed in the thymus AND B cells producing autoantibodies are eliminated in the thymus. - self-reactive T cells are killed in the thymus. - each B cell is already programmed to produce a specific antibody.

- each B cell is already programmed to produce a specific antibody.

The principal species of Staphylococcus found on the skin is: A. aureus. B. acnes. C. pyogenes. D. epidermidis.

- epidermidis

The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is: A. erythema migrans. B. induration. C. carbuncle. D. furuncle.

- erythema migrans Signs and Symptoms • Early localized infection: erythema migrans, or circular skin rash, follows few days, weeks after tick bite Erythema migrans (New Latin, literally, "migrating redness") is an expanding rash often seen in the early stage of Lyme disease.

Secondary lymphoid organs: - are the site of B cell maturation. - facilitate interactions between cells. - are hematopoietic. - are the site of T cell maturation. - include the bone marrow and thymus.

- facilitate interactions between cells.

A common source of cholera infection is - acid rain. - unpasteurized milk. - fecal contaminated material, especially water. - boiled water. - acid rain AND boiled water.

- fecal contaminated material, especially water. Correct

This chemical compound, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid. calcium chlorine chloramine fluoride

- flouride

A striking feature of Clostridium tetani that differentiates it from other pathogenic species of Clostridium is its ability to: - produce a greenish pigment. - form spores. - form terminally located, spherical spores. - grow aerobically.

- form terminally located, spherical spores. slide 28 Clostridium tetani: anaerobic, Gram-positive, rod-shaped; forms spherical endospore at one end of cell; has swarming growth that quickly spreads over media surface Correct

- fungus; eukaryotic

Which of the following is a fairly reliable method of characterizing strains of S. aureus? A. complement fixation B. protein fingerprint C. genome typing D. LPS pattern

- genome typing I don't know what protein fingerprinting is, S. aureus is G+ so no LPS. Let's look at the DNA!

Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with: A) halitosis. B) cavities. C) gingivitis. D) periodontitis. E) trench mouth

- gingivitis Red, inflamed gums, brush them and they bleed easily.

All of the following are required for tooth decay except: A) Sucrose. B) Glucose. C) Capsule-forming bacteria. D) Acid-producing bacteria. E) None of the above.

- glucose

The nodular, red, translucent surface material of a healing wound is called: - soluble skin. - irritated scab. - granulation tissue. - abscess.

- granulation tissue Wound healing • Begins with outgrowth of connective tissue (fibroblasts) and capillaries from surface to yield GRANULATION TISSUE • Fills space created by wound • Shrinks, is converted to collagen (scar tissue) • Covered by skin or mucous membrane Correct

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes: - are rod shaped - cause necrotizing fasciitis -- have fibronectin binding proteins - have exotoxin A

- have fibronectin binding proteins Correct

The conjuctivae: - have no resident bacteria. - are often covered with bacteria. - are populated with S. aureus. - are populated with S. pyogenes.

- have no resident bacteria. slide 11 - surface of the eye and lining of eyelids covered by conjuntiva. Conjuntiva - very few bacteria present, infection = conjuntivitis.

The surface receptors on B and T cells both: - have two binding sites for antigen. - play the same role in each type of cell. - play the same role in each type of cell AND bind to free antigen. - have variable and constant regions. - bind to free antigen.

- have variable and constant regions.

An IgG molecule has two: - antibody binding sites AND antigen binding sites. - heavy chains, light chains, AND antigen binding sites. - heavy chains, light chains, AND antibody binding sites. - Fc regions AND one Fab region. - light chains, antigen binding sites, AND antibody binding sites.

- heavy chains, light chains, AND antigen binding sites.

Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are two glycoproteins called: A) leukocidin and hemolysin. B) hyaluronidase and coagulase. C) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. D) lysozyme and coagulase. E) coagulase and gp160.

- hemagglutinin and neuraminidase HA spikes attach to receptors on host epithelial cells. NA spikes are critical in the release of new virions - it destroys the host cell surface receptors that bind to budding virions. Subtypes of flu viruses based on HA, NA types - mostly HI,2,3 and Ni,2 infect people.

A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as: A. puncture. B. incised. C. lacerated. D. contused.

- incised • Incisions: produced by knife or other sharp object

Tetanus prevents the release of neurotransmitters from: - muscle cells. - excitatory neurons. - inhibitory neurons. - tetano cells.

- inhibitory neurons. slide 29 Prevents release of neurotransmitter from INHIBITORY NEURONS, so muscles contract without control Correct

Many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by: A) inspection of the rash. B) the type of cough. C) the type of fever. D) the incubation period. E) the gender of the patient.

- inspection of the rash.

The Fc region on IgG: - interacts with complement AND attaches to receptors on macrophages. - reacts with and coats the antigen AND attaches to receptors on macrophages. - attaches to receptors on macrophages AND contains a variable region. - reacts with and coats the antigen AND interacts with complement. - interacts with complement AND contains a variable region.

- interacts with complement AND attaches to receptors on macrophages.

Apoptosis: - refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells. - is a form of programmed cell death AND results specifically in T cell death. - results specifically in T cell death AND refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells. - is a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells. - is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells AND results specifically in T cell death.

- is a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells. (doesn't cause an inflammatory reaction - ch14)

Pertussis "Whooping Cough"

- is preventable by vaccine - causes up to 1/2 million deaths every year and is endemic in the US Signs/Symptoms - 1-2 wks incubation stage - 3 stages - catarrhal, peroxysmal and convalescent stage - Catarrhal = inflammation of mucus membranes. lasts 1-2 wks, signs/symptoms resembling an upper respiratory tract infection (snot, sneeze, low fever, mild cough) - Paroxysmal = repeated sudden attacks, lasts 2-4 weeks or longer, frequent bursts of violent uncontrollable coughing. Dry cough, severe enough to burst small b.vessels in eyes. Tongue protrudes and neck veins stand out. Coughing spasm followed by 'whoops' as forceful attempts to inhale. Vomiting and seizures can occur/pt may become cyanotic ( blue from lack of oxygen) - Convalescent = recovery Not contagious, coughing decreases. Slow recovery over some weeks. Caustive Agent: - Bordatella pertussis = tiny G- rod, with capsule, aerobic. Cells sensitive to drying and sunlight, die quickly outside the host. Pathogenesis: - inhaled, attaches to ciliated cells of respiratory epithelium Attachment aided by 2 COLONIZATION FACTORS: - FHA - filamentous hemagglutinin - pilus from bacterial surface - fimbriae Colonizes upper throat, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles. grow in dense masses on epithelial surface but don't invade tissue. - release 3 TOXINS: - Pertussis toxin (PT) = A-B toxin - Adenylate cyclase toxin - Tracheal cytocoxin

Which of the following is true about protein A? - it binds to the Fc region of antibody - it hides bacteria from phagocytes - it enhances the binding of phagocytes - it digests antibodies - it binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes

- it binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes

Which of the following about Bacillus anthracis is TRUE? A) It contains lipopolysaccharide. B) It is flagellated. C) It is rod-shaped. D) It stains pink in the Gram stain. E) It causes hemolysis on blood agar.

- it is rod-shaped. Anthrax is a disease primarily of livestock but people get it too. Bacillus anthracis is G+, makes endospores, non-hemolytic, non-motile, rod shaped bacterium whose spores can remain in the environment indefinately and whose vegetative cells have a capsule made of an amino-acid polymer instead of polysaccharide.

Legionnaires' disease is so named because: - it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion. - it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion. - it was a common infection among foot soldiers. - None of the choices are correct.

- it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion. Legionnaires' Disease unknown until 1976 • Attendees of American Legion Convention in Philadelphia developed mysterious pneumonia

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? a. Dentin b. Lactic acid c. Crevicular fluid d. Lysozyme e. Sucrose

- lactic acid

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the: a. large intestine b. mouth c. small intestine d. stomach e. stomach and small intestine

- large intestine stomach and large intestine are acidic places to be. • Bacteria make up about one-third of fecal weight, reach concentrations of 1011 cells per gram

Bacterial infections of the lower respiratory system:

- less common than in the upper respiratory system but are much more serious. Pneumonia - disease of lower tract, alveoli fills with fluids like pus and blood. Typically results from an inflammatory response to micrboial infection of lungs and is the LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH due to infectious disease in the US.

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes include all of the following EXCEPT: - protein F. - M protein. - a capsule. - lipopolysaccharide - protein G.

- lipopolysaccharide G+ chains, no outer membrane for LPS. protein F - attachment to fibrin, a protein on epithelial cells M protein - adhesin. Inactivates Cb3 of compliment Capsule - hyaluronic acid - mimics host cell structure. Protein G - binds to Fc of opsonizing IgG, avoids phagocytosis. - not listed are C5a peptidase, SPEs, streptolysins O and S plus tissue degrading enzymes (DNase, streptokinase (breaks down blood clots), hyaluronidase, proteases)

The popular name for tetanus is: - hydrophobia. - lockjaw. - whooping cough. - consumption.

- lockjaw slide 27

The Rickettsial disease that killed Howard Ricketts and Stanislaus Prowazek was: A) louse-borne typhus. B) tick-borne typhus. C) yellow fever. D) bubonic plague. E) unidentified.

- louse-borne typhus Ricketts studied Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) but was unable to grow it on lab media . He went on to study similar LOUSE-BORNE TYPHUS which he got and dies from. - Stanislaus Prowazek, studying same disease, met same fate at nearly the same age - Louse-borne typhus named Rickettsia prowazekii - Agent of RMSF named Rickettsia rickettsii

Toll-like receptors are found on: - lymphocytes. - mast cells. - macrophages. - neutrophils.

- macrophages

Please select the CORRECT statement regarding MHC molecules. - Dendritic cells are the only cells that make MHC class II molecules. - Cytotoxic T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. - Endogenous antigens are presented on MHC class II molecules. - Helper T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. - all nucleated cells express MHC class II molecules.

- macrophages make MHC class II molecules too - cytotoxic T cells recognize MHC class I - endogenous antigens - Exogenous antigens on MHC class II - Correct - all nucleated cells express MHC class I molecules, APCs make class II as well as class I molecules.

Complement: - may be activated through three pathways. - disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells. - is part of the specific defense system. - is a group of blood proteins. - may be activated through three pathways, disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells, AND is a group of blood proteins.

- may be activated through three pathways, disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells, AND is a group of blood proteins.

Adenovirus Respiratory Tract infections - Causative Agent

- more than 50 antigenic types of adenoviruses infect humans - naked, dsDNA - can remain infectious in the environment for long period of time, are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solns BUT are easily inactivated by heat (56C), enough chlorine and various other disinfectants.

The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the: - throat. - urethra. - bladder. - nasal chamber.

- nasal chamber. slide 10 - 20% of healthy people carry Staphylococcus aureus - potential pathogen that is common in the nostrils

The eyes connect directly to the nasal passage through the: - frontal sinuses. - nasolacrimal ducts. - middle ear. - tonsils.

- nasolacrimal ducts. slide 11 - tear ducts connect to nasal chamber. Infection is dacryocystitis.

Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by a(n): - middle ear infection. - pseudomonal infection. - oropharyngeal infection. - nasopharyngeal infection.

- nasopharyngeal infection. Middle ear opens up to the nasopharynx by eustachian tubes - infection damages the ciliated cells, resulting in inflammation and swelling.

Which of the following types of cell is able to create webs of extracellular fibers that help kill a variety of microbes? - platelets - NK cells - neutrophils - eosinophils

- neutrophils Ch 14.

The common cold - Tx/Prevention:

- no proven tx for common cold - analgesics (painkillers)/antipyretics (fever reducers) like aspirin/IBU can reduce symptoms but may prolong symptoms and duration of viral shedding and delay the antibody production that lead to recovery. - Prevention: handwashing, hands away from face, avoid crowded places, avoid people with colds for first few days, when they are shedding high numbers of viral particles. - NO VACCINE = large # of immunologically different viruses cause colds (more than 100 types!)

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. The mother asks you whether her child needs penicillin. You tell her: A) yes—diaper rash is a serious infection, and should be treated promptly with this antibiotic. B) yes—penicillin interrupts protein synthesis, so will kill any type of cell, including a fungus. C) no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall. D) no—penicillin is no longer an effective antibiotic for treating any type of infection. A different antibiotic is needed. E) no—killing C. albicans with an antibiotic increases the risk of endotoxic shock.

- no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall.

he growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the: A. nymph stage. B. egg. C. moulter. D. adult.

- nymph stage

Adenoviruses - Epidemiology:

- only reservoir = humans - can persist in the environment - Naked, ssDNA - spread by respiratory droplets - crowded areas :( - asymptomatic infections common - virus shed from respiratory tract during acute illness and from feces for months afterwards

Influenza is caused by: - orthomyxovirus. - H. influenza. - cytomegalovirus. - adenovirus.

- orthomyxovirus. Not ch 14. That's ok.

The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is: A) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. B) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. C) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine. D) esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine. E) pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

- pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by: - flagella. - cilia. - pseudopodia. - pili.

- pili flagella is movement cilia is eukaryotic cells pseudopodia is for engulfing things pili are for attachment

Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay? A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp B) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in tooth pulp C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp E) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

- plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it: A) hides in macrophages. B) makes a capsule. C) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl. D) makes HCl. E) invades epithelial cells

- possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.

Interleukins are: - involved in directly killing tumor cells. - produced by leukocytes AND protein molecules. - produced by leukocytes. - protein molecules. - important in both innate and adaptive immunity.

- produced by leukocytes AND protein molecules.

Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold include all of the following EXCEPT: A) hand washing. B) avoiding crowds. C) not touching one's face. D) avoiding close contact with people with colds. E) prophylactic antibiotics.

- prophylactic antibiotics.

The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is: A. protein M. B. collagen. C. protein A. D. capsular protein.

- protein A. S. aureus strains have many different virulence factors • Nearly all have cell wall component protein A; many synthesize polysaccharide capsule; Both interfere with phagocytosis - Protein A binds the Fc portion of antibodies Protein M is S. pyogenes - strep throat Collagen is part of connective tissue - gives the skin elasticity.

A virion is composed of: - protein, either RNA or DNA, and possibly lipid. - protein and either RNA or DNA, but no lipid. - protein, and possibly lipid. - lipid, protein, and either RNA or DNA. - protein and both RNA and DNA, but no lipid.

- protein, either RNA or DNA, and possibly lipid.

The disease most feared to develop after an animal bite is: - tetanus. - rabies. - gas gangrene. - actinomycosis

- rabies (on my chapter quiz - correct)

An important feature of many wounds that may lead to more serious problems is that they are: - well aerated. - relatively anaerobic - well fed. - sterile.

- relatively anaerobic. Reasons for this include: - crush injury - presence of dirt/foreign matter in wound - aerobes using up available oxygen Many wounds RELATIVELY ANAEROBIC, allow growth of obligate anaerobes such as Clostridium tetani • Wounds with extensive tissue damage, contaminated with dirt, or small but deep punctures • Multiple species may also produce anaerobic conditions as facultative anaerobes use up available oxygen Correct

The portal of entry of Bacillus anthracis is the: A) respiratory tract. B) epidermis. C) gastrointestinal tract. D) epidermis OR gastrointestinal tract. E) respiratory tract, epidermis, OR gastrointestinal tract.

- respiratory tract, epidermis, OR gastrointestinal tract.

The common cold - Pathogenesis:

- rhinoviruses infect EPITHELIAL CELLS that line the upper respiratory tract - ciliary motions stops, cells die and slough off. - damage -> release of pro-inflammatory cytokines, stimulates nerve reflexes = increased snot, tissue swelling and sneezing (so congested, can't breathe!) - can spread to ears, sinuses or lower respiratory tract before the immune system stops the infection. - cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised.

- rubeola. Measles = rubeola Signs and Symptoms - FEVER, RUNNY NOSE, cough, and SWOLLEN, RED, WEEPY EYES - Fine red RASH appears within a few days, lasts ~1 week

An effective means used early in the 19th century to clear water of the majority of bacteria was the use of chlorine iodine sand filters alcohol

- sand filters sand filtration (since the 1920s) - Later, Koch showed that this kind of filtration yields clear water and removes most bacteria. p.786

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is: - chickenpox. - scarlet fever. - strep throat. - measles.

- scarlet fever. Some strains of S. pyogenes make streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPE) that care called erythrotoxins - red toxins - red rash of scarlet fever. Signs and symptoms: high fever, rough skin, pink-red rash, strawberry tongue. - some SPE-producing stains cause toxic shock and necrotizing fasciitis.

The oily layer that lubricates the hair follicles of the skin is: A) suder. B) eczema. C) sebum. D) acnus. E) mucus.

- sebum Made by sebaceous glands open into hair follicles, moves up the hair to the outside, keeps hair and skin soft and water-repellent.

- secondary bacterial infections such as pneumonia and otitis media. Rubeola (measles) - • Often secondary infections lead to EARACHES, bacterial PNEUMONIA; caused by S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, H. influenzae

The primary treatment for cholera is A. the administration of antibiotics. B. vaccination. C. by blood transfusion. D. simply rehydration. E. vaccination AND by blood transfusion.

- simply rehydration

The rhinovirus contains: A) single-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. B) double-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. C) single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. D) double-stranded RNA and is a non-enveloped virus. E) single-stranded RNA and and is a retrovirus.

- single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. p.543 "a group of NON-ENVELOPED virues with a SINGLE-STRANDED RNA genome" Other quizlet worksheet says A but...

The rhinovirus contains: - single-stranded RNA. - double-stranded RNA. - double-stranded DNA. - multiple pieces of single-stranded DNA.

- single-stranded RNA.

Which of the following pertains to Borrelia burgdorferi? A. coccus B. bacillus C. spirochete D. filament

- spirochete

The fungal disease that may be associated with sphagnum moss is: - candidiasis. - actinomycosis. - cat scratch fever. - sporotrichosis.

- sporotrichosis. First is yeast that causes thrush and yeast infections. Second is Lumpy jaw (bacterial), third is a zoonosis of cats - bartonellosis. Last is fungal, associated with vegetation so yes.

S. pyogenes associated with invasive disease characteristically have: A. leukocidins. B. coagulase. C. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A. D. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin B. E. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A AND B.

- streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A AND B.: slide 18 Group A Streptococcal "Flesh-Eating Disease" Virulent strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce damaging streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs) and enzymes - Exotoxin A: superantigen that causes toxic shock - Exotoxin B: protease that destroys tissue

Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves: - use of an antitoxin. - use of immune globulins. - vaccination with inactivated toxin. - surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.

- surgical removal of dead and infected tissues. Clostridial Myonecrosis (Gas Gangrene) slide 35 Treatment and Prevention • Prompt surgical removal of all dead and infected tissue • Antibiotics, hyperbaric oxygen treatment • No available vaccine

Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed: A) mutualism. B) parasitism. C) symbiosis. D) transient microbiota. E) variance.

- symbiosis Symbiotic relationships = MUTUALISM - both parties benefit COMMENSALISM - one party benefits without harming the other PARASITISM - one party benefits at the expense of the other.

The exotoxin produced by C. tetani is: - tetanoxin. - exotetanus. - tetanospasmin. - endospasmin.

- tetanospasmin slide 28/29 Exotoxin tetanospasmin released from cells - A-B toxin - Plasmid-encoded Exotoxin tetanospasmin is an A-B toxin - B portion attaches to receptors on motor neurons - A portion taken up by endocytosis, is carried to neuron cell body in spinal cord - Prevents release of neurotransmitter from inhibitory neurons, so muscles contract without control Correct

The key virulence factor of S. pneumoniae interferes with: A) the action of C3. B) the action of C3b. C) the action of C5a. D) interferon. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- the action of C3b. 2 Virulence factors mess with the action of C3b - capsule = resistant to phagocytosis - interferes with the opsonin C3b - pneumococcal surface protein (PsaA) interferes with C3b too

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to: - the discovery of new antibiotics. - the development of an effective vaccine - the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae. - improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

- the development of an effective vaccine

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to: A. the discovery of new antibiotics. B. the development of an effective vaccine. C. the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae. D. improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

- the development of an effective vaccine.

Hepatitis A spreads via: the respiratory route. blood transfusion. body fluids. the fecal-oral route.

- the fecal-oral route Body fluids is Hepatitis B Blood transfusion is Hepatitis C. - Hepatitis C is the most chronic blood borne infection in the US.

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever: A) the microorganisms multiply within macrophages. B) the incubation period is much longer. C) the symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder. D) infection is spread only in the feces of domesticated animals. E) infection occurs due to ingestion of endospores

- the incubation period is much longer. Thyphoid fever and paratyphoid fever are ENTERIC FEVERS - systemic diseases that originate in the intestines. - caused by specific serotypes of Salmonella enterica and spread from person to person through fecal-oral transmission. - colonize the intestines, cross the mucus membrane via M cells, multiply inside macrophages and then are carried in the bloodstream to locations body-wide. INCUBATION TIME = 1-4 WEEKS Salmonellosis INCUBATION TIME IS 2 HOURS TO 6 DAYS

What is a Dane particle? A) the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV B) the infectious virion that causes HBV C) the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV D) the filamentous particles that cause HAV E) another name for an HBV surface antigen

- the infectious virion that causes HBV The complete virion - not just an empty envelope with no DNA inside it.

Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because: - the microorganisms stop dividing. - of the chemical nature of the pus. - of the lack of blood vessels. - of the high level of oxygenation. - the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels.

- the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels.

The common cold - Signs/Symptoms:

- the most frequent infectious disease in humans, - accounts for >50% of upper respiratory tract infections each year. - 1-2 days after infection - malaise, then runny nose, sneezing, coughing, mildly sore throat and hoarseness. Snot is copious and water, may thicken and get cloudy. - NO FEVER unless secondary bacterial infection. - 1 wk, mild cough for a bit longer.

Rubella, rubeola, and varicella-zoster are all only acquired via: A) the gastrointestinal route. B) the respiratory route. C) wounds. D) blood transfusions. E) arthropods.

- the respiratory route Problem with this question is that the portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are: - skin AND respiratory route.

The portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are: A) the skin. B) the respiratory tract. C) the genitourinary tract. D) the genitourinary tract AND the gastrointestinal tract. E) the skin AND the respiratory tract.

- the skin AND the respiratory tract. "Transmitted by respiratory secretions and skin lesions"

The eyes are protected from infection by: - the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the use of contact lenses. - the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme. - the chemical action of lysozyme AND the use of contact lenses. - the use of contact lenses AND the dryness of the eye surface. - the dryness of the eye surface AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

- the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

You ask the doctor whether there is a vacccine that your children can be given to prevent further adenoviral infections. He tells you A) that there is no need for a vaccine because your son can be treated with antibiotics AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. B) there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing. C) there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to healthcare personnel BUT that adenovirus infections are easily treated with antibiotics. D) it is not possible to generate vaccines against any double-stranded DNA viruses AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. E) it is not possible to synthesize vaccines for preventing diseases caused by RNA viruses BUT that adenovirus infections can be prevented with prophylactic antibiotics.

- there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing.

What is true of leukocidins? - they bind to Fc regions of antibodies - they kill neutrophils - they are superantigens - they make holes in host cell membranes

- they kill neutrophils - First is protein A and protein G - last one is alpha-toxin

Frequently sporotrichosis is caused when the infectious agent is introduced into the body by: - lotions. - scissors. - thorns. - animal bites.

- thorns Fungal wound infection - sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener's Disease). Think plants. Correct

Why does secondary treatment of wastewater require O2?

- to encourage microbial growth. p.787 - microbial growth is actively encouraged during secondary treatment, allowing aerobic organisms to oxidize the biologically degradable organic material to carbon dioxide and water. - Secondary processes rely on the aerobic activity of bacteria.

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? - protein A - M protein - toxoid - red blood cells

- toxoid Inactivated toxoid booster - diphtheriae, tetanus.

All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT: A) Cyclospora infection. B) giardiasis. C) trichinellosis. D) cholera. E) cryptosporidiosis

- trichinellosis Trichinellosis, also called trichinosis, is caused by eating raw or under-cooked meat of animals infected with the larvae of a species of worm called Trichinella. Cholera - yes to waterborne - bacterial infection, causes water diarrhea. Giardia, Crypto, Cyclosporia as all about waterborne disease of lower digestive system caused by protozoans.

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? - diphtheria and pneumonia - influenza and diphtheria - tuberculosis and pneumonia - common cold and tuberculosis

- tuberculosis and pneumonia slide 5 - lower respiratory tract = chest. Often serious, may be fatal. Upper respiratory tract - head and neck, Colds & sinus infections - uncomfortable but not life-threatening - clear w/o tx in ~1 week.

Antigenic shifts may be the result of: A) two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. B) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses. C) conjugation of two viruses. D) blending of a bacterial and a viral genome. E) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses AND blending of a bacterial and viral genome.

- two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. How flu changes: - Antigenic DRIFT: minor mutations in HA and NA genes, often of a single amino acid; responsible for seasonal influenza - Immunity developed from previous year less effective - Antigenic SHIFT: uncommon; concurrent infection allows mixture of 8 RNA segments; causes pandemic influenza - Human strain can gain novel HA and/or NA antigens - Animal strain can gain ability to infect humans

The immunoglobulin monomer consists of: - five light chains. - three heavy and three light chains. - four large chains. - two heavy and two light chains. - one heavy and two light chains.

- two heavy and two light chains.

Avirulent organisms are: - more likely to cause disease. - more likely to cause severe disease. - unable to cause disease. - pathogenic.

- unable to cause disease.

Pneumococcal Pneumonia - Epidemiology:

- up to 30% of healthy people carry encapsulated pneumococci in throat - bacteria seldom reach lungs because mucociliary escalator removes them - impair the escalator, risk of this pneumonia rises dramatically. - alcohol, narcotic use, viral respiratory infections - increased risk in people over 50, heart or lung disease, diabetes cancer.

Otitis media probably develops from an infection that spread: - from the outer ear to the middle ear. - from the sensory neurons of the middle ear. - upward through the Eustachian tube. - through the tympanic membrane. - via the meninges.

- upward through the Eustachian tube.

- upward through the Eustachian tube. Middle ear connects to nasopharynx by the Eustachian tube - equalized the pressue and drain any fluid away.

- viral pneumonia. These are respiratory signs/symptoms - rapid breathing, SOB, the cyanosis from lack of O2 that makes me think pneumonia instead of the others. - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurological disorder of children and young adults that affects the central nervous system (CNS). It is a slow, but persistent, viral infection caused by defective measles virus. - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a progressive, usually fatal brain disorder occurring months to usually years after an attack of measles. It causes mental deterioration, myoclonic jerks, and seizures. Is why we need to keep up on vaccinations - so we don't see more cases of this down the road.

Intestinal protozoan infections are typically spread by:

- water

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. A) water B) amino acids OR water C) lipids AND amino acids D) water, amino acids, AND lipids E) sebum OR amino acids

- water, amino acids, AND lipids They break down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol for food. Also, these products toxic to other bacteria. Break down proteins too.

The preferred host of Ixodes scapularis is the: A. wood rat. B. white-footed mouse. C. moose. D. human.

- white-footed mouse

If an individual in the infectious stage of chickenpox comes into contact with a person who had chickenpox as a child, that second person: A) will be unaffected by the contact. B) will develop a second case of chickenpox. C) will develop shingles. D) will develop a second case of chickenpox OR will develop shingles. E) will remain healthy if they receive zoster immune globulin.

- will be unaffected by the contact.

The resident microbial population of the human fetus is - zero. - sparse. - complex. - symbiotic.

- zero It exists in an immunologically privilaged space.

The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is: - tetanospasmin. - exoenzyme S. - alpha-toxin. - endoenzyme T.

-alpha-toxin slide 34 Releases α-toxin, an enzyme that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, resulting in cell lysis

The circulation of an agent in the bloodstream is given a name ending in -ase. -ing. -emia. -ation.

-emia.

Viruses: - probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check. - have no effect on the number of bacteria. - increase the number of bacteria. - are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another. -probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another

-probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another

Why is it that the tongue and cheek epithelium doesn't provide a sufficient anaerobic environment for plaque anaerobes to grow, but the surface of teeth might? A. The epithelium is supplied with oxygen by capillary beds. This makes it a relatively aerobic environment and hostile to anaerobes. B. The tooth enamel is supplied with oxygen by capillary beds. This makes it a relatively anaerobic environment and hostile to aerobes. C. The surface of the tongue and cheek are constantly scraped by the action of consuming food. Layers of bacterial growth that might help to supply an anaerobic environment are scraped away, exposing lower levels to oxygen-rich air. D. The surface of teeth (especially the molars) have many pits and crevices that can serve as 'pockets' for layers of bacteria to grow in. Once the layers get deep enough, the bottom portions are anaerobic. This isn't possible on the very smooth surface of the tongue and cheek epithelium.

. The epithelium is supplied with oxygen by capillary beds. This makes it a relatively aerobic environment and hostile to anaerobes. Correct

Would you expect an individual with giardiasis who has diarrhea to be more likely to transmit the disease than an individual with giardiasis who does NOT have diarrhea?Why or why not? A. No-this illness is spread by respiratory droplets, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease. B. No-this illness is spread by sexual contact, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease. C. Yes-this illness is spread by the fecal-oral route, so presence of diarrhea as a symptom should dramatically increase the possibility of transmission of infection. D. Yes-this illness is spread by insects that feed on contaminated fecal matter, becoming infected themselves. The disease is spread to new individuals when these infected insects bite a susceptible person, transmitting the cysts of the protozoan. As such, diarrhea as a symptom would increase the risk of transmission through biting insects to new individuals.

. Yes-this illness is spread by the fecal-oral route, so presence of diarrhea as a symptom should dramatically increase the possibility of transmission of infection.

Please select the FALSE statement regarding tooth decay.

...

Why does removal of plaque reduce the chance of forming cavities?

... Tooth decay occurs when foods containing carbohydrates (sugars and starches), such as breads, cereals, milk, soda, fruits, cakes, or candy are left on the teeth. Bacteria that live in the mouth digest these foods, turning them into acids. The bacteria, acid, food debris, and saliva combine to form plaque, which clings to the teeth. The acids in plaque dissolve the enamel surface of the teeth, creating holes in the teeth called cavities.

For growth, most bacteria require water activity levels above 1.00. 0.80. 0.70. 0.90

0.90 - which explains why fresh, moist foods spoil more quickly than dried, sugary or salted foods. Fungi can grow at a water activity as low as 0.80, so forgotten bread, cheese, jam and dried foods often become moldy.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

1) Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE? A) They are prokaryotes. B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls. C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles. D) They evolved before bacteria. E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

E) cladogram

14) Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in the others listed? A) nucleic acid hybridization B) nucleic acid-base composition C) amino acid sequencing D) biochemical tests E) cladogram

B) genus

19) In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the A) specific epithet. B) genus. C) family. D) order. E) kingdom.

Most large cities have required the pasteurization of milk and milk products since ________. 1800 1850 1920 1985 1900

1900

The last case of naturally contracted smallpox occurred in: A) 1900. B) 1950. C) 1965. D) 1977. E) 1989.

1977 - in Somalia, Africa. The WHO started an aggressive vaccination campaign and smallpox is now said to be completely irradicated.

A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

20) The arrangement of organisms into taxa A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms. B) shows relationships to common ancestors. C) was designed by Charles Darwin. D) is arbitrary. E) is based on evolution.

Vocab quiz - don't even know where some of these came from.

20/20

D) considered prokaryotic cells

21) Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following? A) peptidoglycan cell walls B) methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis C) sensitivity to antibiotics D) considered prokaryotic cells E) plasma membrane ester linkage

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

22) Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms? A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution C) a mixed population of cells,genetically distinct, but with highly similar phenotypic characteristics D) groups of cells all derived from and identical to a single parent species E) same as a species

Please select the correct sequence for the steps of phagocytosis: 1. Conditions in the phagosome change, increasing its antimicrobial activities. 2. The phagocytic cell binds microbial invaders and engulfs them, internalizing them in a phagosome. 3. Phagocytic cells are recruited to the site of an injury by chemoattractants. 4. Within the phagolysosome, various factors work together to destroy an engulfed invader. 5. The phagosome fuses with enzyme-filled lysosomes, forming a phagolysosome.

3, 2, 1, 5, 4

A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

30) A clone is A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell. B) a genetically engineered cell. C) a taxon composed of species. D) a mound of cells on an agar medium. E) None of the answers is correct.

The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is A. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter. B. 500-800 grams per milliliter. C. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter. D. 300-400 milligrams per liter

300-400 milligrams per liter p.787 - the BOD of raw sewage is approximately 300-400 mg/liter, whereas the dissolved oxygen content of natural waters is generally 5-10 mg/liter. So adding raw sewage to a lake could easily deplete the dissolved oxygen from the water.

A) 2, 3, 5

32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya? A) 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 4, 6 C) 3, 5 D) 2, 3 E) 1, 2, 5

B) 4, 6

33) In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes? A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4, 6 C) 2 D) 1 E) 2, 4, 5

B) Bacteria

36) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protista

Most human pathogens grow best at temperatures near 37ºC. 97ºF. 25ºC. 45ºC. 20ºC.

37ºC.

A) Citrobacter

39) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. A) Citrobacter B) Escherichia C) Lactobacillus D) Pseudomonas E) Staphylococcus

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.

4) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? A) All members are photosynthetic. B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter. C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter. D) All members are microscopic. E) All members are macroscopic.

You are reviewing for your nursing school entry exam with your study group. Each person in the group agrees to cover one disease. You select toxoplasmosis for your presentation. Toxoplasmosis can be a serious problem for those who are immunosuppressed, as well as for fetuses. Even in healthy people, the immune system may not clear the organism, resulting in a latent infection that can reactivate when immunity declines.Please identify the correct sequence of events in the pathogenesis of toxoplasmosis. 1. Each cyst contains large numbers of bradyzoites, a smaller form of T. gondii which persists in a latent infection. 2. As host immunity develops, a tough, fibrous capsule forms around infected host cells, forming a tissue cyst. 3. Within the small intestinal cells, sporozoites develop rapidly into tachyzoites which spread systemically. 4. T. gondii enters the host when either mature oocysts containing two sporocysts are eaten. 5. Sporozoites emerge from each of the sporocysts, and invade the cells of the small intestine. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

4, 5, 3, 2, 1

Most bacteria are inhibited by a pH of 6.5. 7.0. 6.0. 7.2. 4.5.

4.5

A) Neisseria

40) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. A) Neisseria B) Pseudomonas C) Staphylococcus D) Streptococcus E) Micrococcus

A) Animalia

41) Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

42) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

43) In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related? A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium

C) Their DNA can hybridize together

44) Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related? A) Both are cocci. B) Both ferment lactose. C) Their DNA can hybridize together. D) Both normally live in clams. E) Both are motile.

E) None of the answers is correct.

45) Data collected to date indicate that A) humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens. B) marine mammals do not get infectious diseases. C) new species of bacteria will not be discovered in wild animals. D) marine mammals don't have an immune system. E) None of the answers is correct.

C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified

46) For a serological bacterial identification test to be performed, you must have ________ in your possession. A) DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified B) RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified D) fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify

E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify

47) When performing phage typing to identify an unknown bacterium, you must have ________ in your possession. A) DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified B) RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified D) fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify

B) an antigen from a particular pathogen

48) In a direct ELISA test, the method is determining if ________ is/are present in the patient's sample by attempting to bind a labeled antibody to it. A) antibodies against a pathogen found in a patient's blood B) an antigen from a particular pathogen C) a bacteriophage that can infect a particular bacterial strain D) a known sequence of DNA from a pathogen

A) in bacterial identification.

49) Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used A) in bacterial identification. B) in DNA sequencing reactions. C) in serological identification methods. D) in DNA fingerprinting.

You are a nurse on a post-surgical ward. One of your patients is an elderly woman who has just had her gallbladder removed. When you go into her room to check on her, you find that she has significant...

5 of these... Gallbladder was originally spelled gallbaldder.

Your brother is an enthusiastic hiker. He returns from a walking vacation and tells you that although he had a good time, he ran into a bit of trouble on one of the days he was away because he had got lost in the woods for several hours. Although he took enough food for the day, your brother ran out of water. Luckily, he came across a small stream and was able to fill up his water bottle and to finish his hike without any further problems. Your brother mentions as an aside that he must have eaten something bad while he was away, because he has had pretty bad diarrhea since he got back. He tells you he doesn't feel too bad, but that he has been having what he describes as "explosive diarrhea." He also complains of abdominal pain. You urge him to go to the doctor because you suspect that he may have something more than just food-related diarrhea. Which statement about rotavirus gastroenteritis is false? Most cases of the disease occur in infants and children. There are no vaccines available for preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis. Rotaviruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route. Rotaviruses mainly infect the epithelial cells in the upper part of the small intestine .Deaths related to the disease are usually caused by dehydration Giardiasis involves: treatment with mitochondria-targeting medications. production of resistant, infectious cysts. a protozoan that uses fimbriae for attachment.

5 of these... When searching this, spell enthusiastic as 'enthusiatic'. The false one is : There are no vaccines available for preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis. Giardiasis involves: production of resistant, infectious cysts.

TRUE

5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.

D) They use organic carbon sources.

5) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE? A) They are multicellular. B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells. C) They undergo photosynthesis. D) They use organic carbon sources. E) They synthesize organic molecules.

Your brother is an enthusiatic hiker. He returns from a walking vacation and tells you that although he had a good time, he ran into a bit of trouble on one of the days he was away because he had got lost in the woods for several hours. Although he took enough food for the day, your brother ran out of water. Luckily, he came across a small stream and was able to fill up his water bottle and to finish his hike without any further problems. Your brother mentions as an aside that he must have eaten something bad while he was away, because he has had pretty bad diarrhea since he got back. He tells you he doesn't feel too bad, but that he has been having what he describes as "explosive diarrhea." He also complains of abdominal pain. You urge him to go to the doctor because you suspect that he may have something more than just food-related diarrhea. There are several stages in the life cycle of G. lamblia. Which is the correct sequence? 1. Trophozoites multiply in the intestine. 2. Mature cysts or trophozoites are released in feces. 3. Cysts pass through the stomach to the lower small intestine. 4. Dehydration in the large intestine stimulates formation of cysts. 5. Cysts enter the mouth by ingestion of contaminated food or water. 6. Trophozoites are released from the cysts. 5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2 2, 5, 6, 1, 3, 4 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 1, 5, 4, 6

5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2 Correct

D) identity

50) Flow cytometry, where a cell is passed through a light source such as a laser beam, can directly indicate all EXCEPT which one of the following about a cell? A) size B) shape C) density D) identity

The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about A. 20-30ºC. B. 55-66ºC. C. 62-75ºC. D. 90-100ºC.

55-66ºC. - achieving high temperatures is important to kill pathogens that might be present in the solid waste. Thermophilic organisms (45-70ºC) thrive at the high temperature, so they continue decomposing the material.

C) They undergo photosynthesis.

6) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE? A) They are multicellular. B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells. C) They undergo photosynthesis. D) They ingest nutrients through a mouth. E) They are heterotrophs.

A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time. A. 10% B. 30% C. 60% D. 100%

60% Not in my textbook...

There are ________ major families of DNA-containing viruses that infect vertebrates.

B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.

7) A genus can best be defined as A) a taxon composed of families. B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family. C) a taxon belonging to a species. D) a taxon comprised of classes. E) the most specific taxon.

FALSE

7) Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.

D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

8) A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species A) does not breed with other species. B) has a limited geographical distribution. C) can be distinguished from other bacterial species. D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics. E) breeds with its own species.

TRUE

8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.

TRUE

9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antibodies in the serum of an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains

9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains. B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions. C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions. D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments. E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.

Which characteristic(s) is/are not common to c. tetani and c. perfringens...

Which signs and symptoms are not quickly resolved in a person with tetanus when they are given antibiotics?

how may lung damage or pneumonia occur in a person with tetanus?

Which of the following does not usually result from a wound infection?

? Infected wounds can have serious consequences • Delayed healing • Formation of abscesses • Spread of bacteria or toxins elsewhere in body

Why is it difficult to treat P. aeruginosa wound infections?

? Only a few antimicrobial medications effective • Established infections difficult to treat

Antibiotics are given to a person with gas gangrene to:

? Clostridial myonecrosis = Gas Gangrene Treatment. If gas gangrene is suspected, treatment must begin immediately. High doses of antibiotics, typically penicillin and clindamycin, are given, and all dead and infected tissue is removed surgically. - the antibiotic is to kill the bacteria itself - Clostridium perfringins - Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming pathogenic bacterium of the genus Clostridium.

Mycoplasma genitalium infections frequently go undiagnosed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: p.744 - no widely available detection methods are available - infections are often asymptomatic - when signs and symptoms do occur, they can be similar to those of other bacterial STIs.

?? Mycoplamsa genitalium is an emerging cause of genital tract infections in men and women worldwide. p.744 - it cannot be detected by gram stain. - very difficult to culture. Fastidious and grow very slowly, generation time of at least 16 hrs and takes months to grow in vitro. - infections are frequently asymptomatic. - signs and symptoms are similar to those of chlamydia and gonorrhea.

C3b is involved in: A) opsonization. B) interferon production. C) properdin activation. D) endotoxin production. E) inflammation.

The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by: A) disulfide bonds. B) hydrogen bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) oxygen bonds. E) ligases.

What would be an appropriate response if an antigen is presented on MHC class II molecules? A) An effector CD4 cell activates the presenting cell. B) An effector CD8 cell activates the presenting cell. C) An effector CD4 cell kills the presenting cell. D) An effector CD8 cell kills the presenting cell. E) An effector CD8 cell activates a naive CD4 cell.

Which of the following are enzymes found in neutrophil granules, saliva, and milk that react with hydrogen peroxide to form antimicrobial compounds? A) Peroxidases B) Lactoferrins C) Transferrins D) Peroxidases AND lactoferrins E) Lactoferrins AND transferrins

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the interferon response? 1. IFN induces synthesis of inactive antiviral proteins (iAVPs). 2. Virus enters host cell (cell 1) and replicates, producing long dsRNA. 3. Activated AVPs induce apoptosis of infected cell. 4. dsRNA induces synthesis and secretion of IFN to neighboring cells. 5. Entry of virus into cell armed with iAVPs (cell 2) activates these proteins. A) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 D) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 E) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

Which of the following statements about interferon is incorrect? A) It only works on a few specific types of virus. B) It makes cells resistant to viral infection. C) It is a species specific molecule. D) It does not directly inactivate viruses. E) IFNs regulate several immune responses.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. Your friend asks you how her B cells "know" when to make antibodies. You tell her that B cells must become activated, and that she has another type of cell that assists in this. These are the: A) TH cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that B cell. B) TC cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that B cell. C) TH cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that T cell. D) TC cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that T cell. E) TH cells that present the antigen to the B cell, leading to activation of that B cell.

Your patient has recently been diagnosed with an immunodeficiency disorder. Your supervisor asks you to help the patient understand what this means and the impact it will have on her. You explain to your patient the role of the lymphocytes in her adaptive immune response. In the middle of your explanation, you are distracted and you tell her something that is NOT correct. Identify that statement. A) After activation, T lymphocytes divide and proliferate to form a population of helper T cells and a population of cytotoxic T cells; activated T cells secrete cytokines that exert an effect on other cells. B) After activation, B lymphocytes divide and proliferate to form a population of plasma cells and a population of memory cells; plasma cells produce antibodies that tag microbial invaders for elimination by phagocytes. C) Once activated, helper T cells form a population of TH effector cells and a population of TH memory cells; TH effector cells produce cytokines that activate B cells and macrophages. D) Once activated, cytotoxic T cells form a population of TC effector cells and a population of TC memory cells; TC effector cells produce cytokines that induce apoptosis in virally infected self cells. E) Effector B cells and T cells express traits that help eliminate invaders in a primary response. Memory B cells and T cells are responsible for the effectiveness of the secondary response.

Why might an individual with an STD need to be checked for other STDs, even though he/she has no symptoms of any others? A. Several STD-causing pathogens are known to 'piggy back' on each other, being carried into the genital tract together. B. A diagnosis of an STD implies that the individual engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse. Several STDs are largely asymptomatic, so it is wise to test for a variety of typical STDs when the patient admits to or shows signs of engaging in such risky behavior. C. They don't need to be tested-all STDs are highly obviously symptomatic, so there is no need to test for other diseases than the one currently manifesting itself in the patient. D. It's a public health issue-it's best to know who is positive for what in the population of sexually-active individuals. This lets healthcare professionals act to best safeguard the population as a whole from the range of STDs.

A diagnosis of an STD implies that the individual engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse. Several STDs are largely asymptomatic, so it is wise to test for a variety of typical STDs when the patient admits to or shows signs of engaging in such risky behavior.

Which statement regarding phage replication is TRUE? - Lambda can be a lytic or a temperate phage. - Lambda is a good example of a lytic phage. - When integrated into host DNA, phage DNA is called a virophage. - A lysogen is a virus that has bacterial DNA in it. - A lysogen is a bacterial cell with an integrated prophage.

A lysogen is a bacterial cell with an integrated prophage.

Select the correct sequence for proving Koch's postulates. 1. The microorganism must be recovered from the experimentally infected hosts. 2. The microorganism must be present in every case of the disease. 3. The same disease must be produced when a pure culture of the microorganism is introduced into susceptible hosts. 4. The microorganism must be grown in pure culture from diseased hosts. A) 2, 4, 3, 1 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 4, 3, 1, 2 E) 4, 1, 2, 3

A) 2, 4, 3, 1

Select the sequence that indicates the steps that occur in the chain of infection. 1. Transmission. 2. Susceptible host. 3. Reservoir of infectious agent. 4. Portal of exit. 5. Portal of entry. A) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 B) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 E) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

A) 3,4,1,5,2 Need a portal of entry first, then the host has to be susceptible because susceptible or not, doesn't matter if it can't get in.

What is a naive lymphocyte? A) A lymphocyte that has an antigen receptor but has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by the receptor. B) A lymphocyte that has encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but has not yet made antibodies. C) A lymphocyte that has encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but has not yet made antibodies and cytokines. D) A lymphocyte that has encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but has not yet undergone apoptosis. E) A lymphocyte that has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but is making antibodies.

A) A lymphocyte that has an antigen receptor but has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by the receptor.

What is the difference between a primary pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen? A) A primary pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is a microbe that causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location or into an immunocompromised host. B) An opportunistic pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while a primary pathogen is a microbe that causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location or into an immunocompromised host. C) A primary pathogen is an environmental microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is always a member of the normal microbiota and causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location. D) A primary pathogen is an environmental microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is always a member of the normal microbiota and only causes disease in an immunocompromised host. E) A primary pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while opportunistic pathogens are the microorganisms routinely found growing in and on the body of a healthy individual.

A) A primary pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is a microbe that causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location or into an immunocompromised host.

Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine? A) Acellular subunit B) Whole cell attenuated C) Adjuvant D) Toxin E) Partial cell attenuated

A) Acellular subunit - sneaky: p.460 "The vaccine currently used to prevent whooping cough (pertussis) is a subunit vaccine, referred to as the acellular pertussis (aP) vaccine. It does not cause the side effects that sometimes occurred with the KILLED WHOLE-CELL VACCINE USED PREVIOUSLY."

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. You describe to Jay the initial events that must have occurred in order for him to become ill. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) All pathogens must inject molecules into the host cell that induce a specific change in those cells; this is performed via structures called injectisomes. B) Following adhesion, the pathogen must colonize the host, growing on the host cell surface. C) Pathogens must adhere to host cells to initiate infection; bacteria use adhesins to attach to receptors on host cells. D) In order to colonize, a pathogen must often compete with the normal microbiota, prevent binding of secretory IgA, and obtain iron. E) All of these statements are correct.

A) All pathogens must inject molecules into the host cell that induce a specific change in those cells; this is performed via structures called injectisomes. - Gram negative bacteria have these structures. Type III secretory structure, like a hypodermic needle.

What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just a subunit of that agent for a vaccine? A) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral AND cell-mediated adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available. B) There is no advantage. It's much more dangerous to use an attenuated agent over a subunit vaccine due to the possibility of reversion of the microbe to a pathogenic state. C) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the antibody production (humoral response) of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection. D) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the cytotoxic T cell (CTL, cell-mediated) side of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection. E) There is no advantage. If a subunit is used from that agent, all the T cells that are activated will make antibodies against that single antigen, causing a very strong response.

A) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral AND cell-mediated adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.

Which is more likely to happen—antigenic DRIFT, or antigenic SHIFT—and why? A) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. B) Antigenic SHIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. C) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required and random mutations occur more readily in this situation than if two virus strains are present. D) Antigenic SHIFT, since multiple viruses in a cell at once means more RNA polymerase to copy the RNA, and therefore more possibilities for mistakes to be made (leading to mutations). E) Antigenic drift and antigenic shift occur at the same frequency. Genetic change is just as likely to occur if one viral strain or more than one strain is/are present.

A) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.

Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner's vaccination process? A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. B) Disease is caused by viruses. C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again. D) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner. E) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.

A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. Milder coxpox protected milk maids from smallpox.

Which of the following is not a vector? A) Fomite B) Human C) Fly D) Flea E) Fomite AND human

A) Fomite A vector is any living organism that can carry a disease-causing organism. Usually applied to arthropods (insects and arachnids).

Which of the following is not a mechanical vector? A) Fomite B) Human C) Fly D) Flea E) Fomite AND human

A) Fomite Keyword: VECTOR - fomite is not a living organism.

A recombinant vaccine is used to protect against: A) hepatitis B. B) polio. C) diphtheria. D) pertussis. E) influenza.

A) Hep B - subunit vaccines produced using genetically engineered mircroorganisms are called Recombinant (subunit) vaccines. The vaccine against Hepatitis B is made using yeast cells engineered to produce part of the viral protein coat.

In opsonization with IgG, why would it be important that IgG react with the antigen BEFORE a phagocytic cell recognizes the antibody molecule? A) If the IgG is bound to the phagocyte BEFORE opsonization, it would most likely be ingested by the phagocyte before it could bind to a pathogen (it would be "naked," so to speak). B) Binding of IgG by phagocytes would block the antigen binding sites on the IgG molecules, preventing them from binding to the microbes. C) Binding of IgG by phagocytes changes their conformation—and by changing their protein conformation, their antigen binding sites are changed and they can no longer recognize their specific antigenic epitopes. D) Binding of antibody by phagocytes results in immediate release of protein-destroying enzymes to the outside of the cell. Since antibodies are proteins, they would be destroyed by these enzymes (and would then be unable to bind to their specific antigenic epitopes).

A) If the IgG is bound to the phagocyte BEFORE opsonization, it would most likely be ingested by the phagocyte before it could bind to a pathogen (it would be "naked," so to speak).

Why would it be important for the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test to use a standard concentration (number of cells in the sample) of each of the bacterial strains being tested? A) If you were to use one strain that was stationary phase (high concentration, replicating very slowly or not at all), and another strain that was just beginning log phase (low concentration but replicating quickly), you could see different results in the test, affecting your interpretation. B) Growth on the Mueller-Hinton agar plates utilized is very sensitive to the phase of the growth curve the bacteria are in when they are placed on the plate. If they are not in the log phase when they are placed on the plate, they will not grow and the test will be worthless. C) Antibiotic resistance is usually only manifested by bacteria that have achieved a very high concentration. It's important to use bacteria specifically at this particular point for disc diffusion testing. D) Antibiotics only work within a narrow range of cell concentrations. If you use a concentration that is too low or too high, you will get inaccurate measurements of the zone of inhibition. E) Bacteria only develop resistance when there are more than 1012 cells/ mL. If resistance is to be detected, the test must use at least this concentration of cells. If fewer cells are used, no zone of inhibition will develop.

A) If you were to use one strain that was stationary phase (high concentration, replicating very slowly or not at all), and another strain that was just beginning log phase (low concentration but replicating quickly), you could see different results in the test, affecting your interpretation.

Why does passive immunity not give lifetime protection, while active immunity may? A) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing a memory cell population that can respond to a subsequent exposure to the same antigen. Passive immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body. B) In passive immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing a memory cell population that can respond to a subsequent exposure to the same antigen. Active immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body. C) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing an effector cell population that continually produces antibodies for the duration of the person's lifetime. Passive immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body. D) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing an effector cell population that continually produces antibodies for the duration of the person's lifetime. Passive immunity results in the production of antibodies only when an antigen is present. E) This question is misleading. Both passive immunity and active immunity provide lifetime protection.

A) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing a memory cell population that can respond to a subsequent exposure to the same antigen. Passive immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body.

What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)? A) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vitro. B) It is the highest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vitro. C) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vivo. D) It is the highest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vivo. E) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that kills 99.9% of cells of a given bacterial strain in vitro.

A) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vitro. -in vitro - in the lab, in vivo - in life

The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as: A) Pasteur's postulates. B) Lister's aseptics. C) Linnaeus' taxonomics. D) Koch's postulates. E) Bergey's manual

A) Koch's postulates. - not every microorganism fits each of the steps Ex) some can't be grown in pure culture - like if a disease is caused by several working in concert.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. L. pneumophila was unrecognized as the causative agent of legionellosis for a long time. Why is this? A) L. pneumophila both stains poorly with common methods, and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. B) The organism is fastidious and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. C) L. pneumophila stains poorly with common methods, so is difficult to detect. D) L. pneumophila has no surface antigens and thus cannot be stained with fluorescence. E) There is no way to grow L. pneumophila in vitro; this organism can only be cultivated in cell cultures or viruses.

A) L. pneumophila both stains poorly with common methods, and is difficult to culture in the laboratory.

Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins? A) Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule. B) The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came. C) The lipid A portion is heat sensitive. D) They are proteins. E) The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

A) Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.

The publication of the CDC that reports new cases of reportable infectious diseases is titled: A) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR). B) State Health News Letter (SHNL). C) Federal Report of Infectious Disease (FRID). D) National Morbidity Weekly (NMW). E) Monthly Death and Disease Report (MDDR).

A) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR).

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of: A) Mycobacterium. B) Streptococcus. C) Staphylococcus. D) Pseudomonas. E) Mycoplasma.

A) Mycobacterium. slide 63

A) Peptidoglycan synthesis I admit that I don't understand the wording of this question.

Explain the most likely reason why smallpox was successfully eradicated but rabies probably never will be. A) Smallpox was only found in humans; rabies is found in numerous animal reservoirs. We cannot reasonably eliminate rabies in all of the animal reservoirs that exist. B) It was far easier to vaccinate the world population against smallpox than against rabies, due to the lower number of injections required for the smallpox vaccine. It becomes a compliance issue. C) Since there are very few cases of rabies each year, there is little financial incentive to push health organizations to eradicate the illness through worldwide vaccination. D) The symptoms of smallpox are easier to identify than the symptoms of rabies, so some carriers of rabies are not accurately diagnosed. This can lead to asymptomatic carriers present within the population of susceptible individuals, spreading the virus. E) Smallpox was eradicated because anyone who got the disease died from it, so at some point there was no reservoir for the virus.

A) Smallpox was only found in humans; rabies is found in numerous animal reservoirs. We cannot reasonably eliminate rabies in all of the animal reservoirs that exist.

The guidelines designed for prevention of nosocomial disease during care of all patients is called: A) Standard Precautions. B) Universal Disposables. C) Disinfection Manifesto. D) Asepsis Preference. E) Hand Hygiene Precautions.

A) Standard Precautions.

Which is not involved in adaptive immunity? A) Tear flow B) Antibody production C) T cells D) B cells E) Tear flow AND B cells

A) Tear flow

Your class decides to celebrate the last day of spring break by having a picnic. You arrange to meet at your local park and everyone agrees to bring a dish of food to the event. On the day, there is a wide variety of things to eat, but the snack that everyone agreed was the best was the hot chicken wings made by Paul. Almost everyone ate at least two to three wings. The picnic was a huge success. The next morning you wake up feeling awful. You have a low grade fever and you have both vomiting and diarrhea. You call your friend Susan to tell her you won't make it to class that day and to please take good notes, which she promises to do. About 20 minutes later, Susan calls you back and tells you that three other people have also called her and are experiencing the same symptoms as you. You realize that you must have all eaten something at the picnic that is causing your illness. After finding out that none of the vegetarians or vegans in the class are ill, you figure out that it was likely a meat product. There were 27 students at the picnic, of which 18 developed illness. The attack rate was thus nearly 67%. What does this mean? A) The attack rate describes the number of susceptible people who become ill in a population after exposure to an infectious agent, in this case 67%. B) The attack rate is the number of new cases in a specific time period in a given population, in this case 27. C) This describes the number of people in a defined population who die during a given period, in this case nearly 18%. D) The attack rate is the total number of cases at any time or for a specific period in a given population, in this case 27. E) It describes the situation in which a particular disease arises from several genera of a person's own normal microbiota, in this case 18.

A) The attack rate describes the number of susceptible people who become ill in a population after exposure to an infectious agent, in this case 67%.

What allows for selective toxicity in a medication? A) The medication acts against an essential component or biochemical process of microorganisms that does not exist in human cells. B) The medication is converted into a non-toxic form by the liver in people, but remains highly toxic in bacteria which cannot process the drug. C) The medication acts against an essential component or biochemical process of human cells that does not exist in microorganisms. D) Only some medications cross from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid of humans. E) Some medications have a very extended half-life AND only some medications cross from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid of humans.

A) The medication acts against an essential component or biochemical process of microorganisms that does not exist in human cells.

What would be a primary advantage of passive immunity with diseases such as tetanus or botulism? A) Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life during the period it takes for their own active immune response to occur. B) Cost. It's much cheaper to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine. C) Safety of delivery. It's far safer to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine. D) Handling of treatment. It's difficult to keep vaccines stored properly to keep their potency, especially in countries without adequate refrigeration facilities. It's much easier to keep antibodies stable, even in extremes of heat and humidity. E) Recovery time. Even if the person actually develops the disease, the antibodies that are delivered in passive immunity will actively seek out and destroy the pathogen, facilitating a quicker recovery.

A) Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life during the period it takes for their own active immune response to occur. - give antibodies directly when the person is infected with something really bad or when a person is severely immunocompromised and has really low antibody counts of their own.

Why must vancomycin be administered intravenously except when used to treat intestinal infections? A) Vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract. B) Vancomycin is toxic but less so if injected intravenously. C) Injected vancomycin is easier to target to the site of infection. D) Vancomycin is effective against only Gram-positive bacteria. E) Vancomycin has a high therapeutic index.

A) Vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract. p.507. Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic - most widely used one in the US. "Vancomycin in poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract, so it must be administered intravenously except when used to treat intestinal infections."

Why would antimicrobials that have toxic side effects be used at all? (select the BEST reason) A) We want the largest possible number of choices of drugs in case a microbe shows resistance. With more possible weapons (even toxic ones), we have greater ability to eliminate infections. B) Every person is different. What is toxic to one person may not be toxic to another person. To eliminate a useful drug because it's toxic to 1% of people treated is a waste. C) Depending on the location of the infection, we may have no choice but to utilize a drug that has some toxic side effects to the patient. D) They shouldn't be used. We have enough of a selection of drugs that we can always select a drug with no toxicity. Drugs with toxicity are simply leftovers from a time when we didn't have as many drug options. E) These are all reasons to use antimicrobials that have a low therapeutic index.

A) We want the largest possible number of choices of drugs in case a microbe shows resistance. With more possible weapons (even toxic ones), we have greater ability to eliminate infections.

Would an antibody response against the B subunit of an A-B toxin protect against the effects of the toxin? A) Yes. If antibodies bind to the B portion, the toxin can no longer bind to target cells and will thus not affect those cells. B) No. Even if antibodies bind to the B portion of the toxin, it is the A portion that actually causes damage to the cell. C) Yes. If antibodies bind to the B portion, that portion of the toxin does not become activated, and thus does not damage the host cell. D) No. Even if antibodies bind to the B portion of the toxin, the toxin is still taken into the host cell by phagocytosis, damaging that cell. E) This question cannot be answered. The immune system does not mount a strong response against proteins, so this situation is unlikely to occur.

A) Yes. If antibodies bind to the B portion, the toxin can no longer bind to target cells and will thus not affect those cells.

Many inactivated vaccines contain an adjuvant, a substance that enhances the immune response to antigens. An adjuvant that uses a derivative of lipid A has recently been developed.Would lipid A work well as an adjuvant? A) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-negative bacteria. It would similarly alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. B) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-positive bacteria. It would likely also alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. C) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-negative AND Gram-positive bacteria. It would similarly alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. D) No. Lipid A is actually unlikely to be successful as an adjuvant because it always causes an intense inflammatory reaction in a host, resulting in extensive tissue damage. E) No. Lipid A is actually unlikely to be successful as an adjuvant because even minimal amounts of this molecule causes endotoxic shock in a person, usually resulting in death.

A) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-negative bacteria. It would similarly alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. No idea where this information came from.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting DNA gyrase, an enzyme involved in DNA replication. Resistance to this antibiotic is most commonly by: A) a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance. B) enzymatic modification of the ribosomal target, an example of innate resistance. C) a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of innate resistance. D) due to a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase, an example of adaptive resistance. E) increased efflux of the drug from the target cell, an example of innate resistance.

A) a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance.

Your first patient of the day is complaining of pain in the area of his new tattoo. When you examine the tattoo, you note that the area around it is firm, red, and swollen. There is no evidence of pus, and your patient has a normal pulse, and no fever. You tell your patient that you have seen this type of response to a tattoo before, and that it is called a granulomatous reaction. You give him more information on the condition. You tell your patient that tattoo ink can sometimes cause the skin reaction he is experiencing; red ink in particular can cause this because it commonly contains mercury and/or other heavy metals. Your patient has developed a granuloma at the site of his tattoo. When he asks you what a granuloma is, you tell him: A) a collection of macrophages, giant cells, and T cells. B) a collection of neutrophils, giant cells, eosinophils and red blood cells. C) a mass of macrophages, activated complement proteins, and keratin. D) an acute inflammation response involving mast cells and dendritic cells. E) a collection of microbes, keratin, and white blood cells.

A) a collection of macrophages, giant cells, and T cells.

You are about to graduate as a RN. Your final term project is to prepare a presentation on HIV/AIDS. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus—it is an enveloped single-stranded virus that has duplicate copies of a single-stranded RNA genome. All retroviruses encode reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA genome as a template to make a complementary DNA strand. HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most important are the helper T cells (also called CD4 cells)—the virus infects these cells and causes their death; their numbers slowly decline until the immune system can no longer resist infections or tumor development. You give your presentation to the class and are asked by your professor at the end of the session to answer some questions that your peers have on diagnosing HIV. The initial test used to diagnose HIV is the ELISA test. This test is: A) a colorimetric assay that is used to locate enzyme-labeled antibodies bound to antigens, often in a microtiter plate. B) a piece of equipment that separates and determines the relative concentrations and certain characteristics of fluorescent-antibody-labeled cells. C) the use of fluorescence microscopy to locate fluorescently labeled antibodies bound to antigens fixed to a microscope slide. D) a "sandwich method" in which a known antigen is trapped between two radioactively labeled microscope slides for viewing. E) None of the answer choices is correct.

A) a colorimetric assay that is used to locate enzyme-labeled antibodies bound to antigens, often in a microtiter plate.

Monoclonal antibodies obtained from a hybridoma provide: A) a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular epitope. B) a single antibody that recognizes many epitopes. C) many epitopes that recognize a specific antibody. D) a large number of B cells. E) a large amount of an antibody that reacts with a wide range of epitopes.

A) a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular epitope. Same if it says 'antigen' instead of 'epitope'. - drugs end in 'mab' - animal B cell (short lived) + myeloma cell (cancerous plasma cell that divides forever, doesn't make antibodies and dies with drug aminopterin) = fusion -> HYBRIDOMA cells that aren't susceptible to aminopterin, live forever and make antibodies that are identical.

Each class of antibody is specifically defined by its: A) amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain. B) amino acid sequence of the variable region of the light chain. C) ability to cross the placenta. D) presence of disulfide bonds. E) ability to bind a range of antigens.

A) amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain.

The number of cases of a specific disease per one hundred people exposed is called the: A) attack rate. B) index rate. C) mortality rate. D) obesity rate. E) attack index.

A) attack rate. The attack rate describes the number of susceptible people who become ill in a population after exposure to an infectious agent. Is expressed as a percent so per 100 people makes sense.

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include all of the following EXCEPT: A) bacitracins. B) aminoglycosides. C) tetracyclines. D) macrolides. E) streptogramins.

A) bacitracins. Bacitracins mess will cell wall synthesis.

People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any apparent signs or symptoms of illness are called: A) carriers. B) primary infectors. C) secondary infectors. D) mutualists. E) opportunists.

A) carriers.

Sulfonamides work as: A) competitive inhibitors. B) noncompetitive inhibitors. C) ribosome-binding molecules. D) feedback inhibitors. E) coenzymes.

A) competitive inhibitors.

The type of epidemiological study that determines the characteristics of the persons involved and the time and place of the outbreak is calleda(n): A) descriptive study. B) inspection study. C) cohortive study. D) retrospective study. E) cohesive study.

A) descriptive study. Studies all the facts about the person, time and place.

Pyrogens are: A) fever-inducing substances. B) fever-inhibiting substances. C) phagocytosis-enhancing substances. D) complement activators. E) pus-producing substances.

A) fever-inducing substances.

The single most important measure to prevent the spread of disease is: A) hand washing. B) canning. C) pasteurization. D) home cooking. E) antibiotics.

A) hand washing. Mechanical removal of (possible) pathogens.

T-independant antigens: A) include polysaccharides. B) require the involvement of T cells. C) interact with MHCI molecules. D) are usually proteins. E) include polysaccharides AND require the involvement of T cells.

A) include polysaccharides.

The number of organisms necessary to cause infection is termed the: A) infectious dose. B) fatal number. C) minimum lethal dose. D) pathogenic number. E) incidence number.

A) infectious dose. ID50 = amount to infect 50% of the population

What is the consequence of fever? A) inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions B) enhances bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions C) inhibits bacterial growth AND triggers complement activation D) speeds up the body's reactions AND triggers complement activation E) enhances bacterial growth AND triggers complement activation

A) inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions

Fever: A) inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. B) enhances bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. C) inhibits bacterial growth AND triggers complement activation. D) speeds up the body's reactions AND triggers complement activation. E) enhances bacterial growth AND triggers complement activation.

A) inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions.

Factors that work generically against any foreign substance entering the host are described as: A) innate immunity. B) specific immunity. C) irregular immunity. D) immune metabolism. E) adaption.

A) innate immunity.

C5a peptidase: A) is a virulence factor. B) synthesizes C5a. C) is produced by the host cell in response to infection. D) is a molecule promoting chemotaxis. E) is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

A) is a virulence factor. - a pathogen is trying to avoid phagocytosis and makes this virulence factor that splits C5a so it can't act as a chemoattractant to get phagocytes to the area.

A) it is a disease that can be easily transmitted from one host to another.

The "hygiene hypothesis" proposes that: A) lack of exposure to microbes can lead to development of allergies. B) good hygiene always prevents development of disease. C) hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection. D) the immune system develops best in a clean environment. E) adaptive immunity only develops in a sterile environment.

A) lack of exposure to microbes can lead to development of allergies. slide 13 - to allergies and autoimmune diseases

A fly that walks on feces and picks up E. coli O157:H7 then lands on food and transfers the microorganisms, is considered a: A) mechanical vector. B) biological vector. C) mechanical OR biological vector. D) fomite. E) cross-contaminator.

A) mechanical vector.

The number of people in a defined population who die during a given period is called the: A) mortality rate. B) morbidity rate. C) attack rate. D) incidence rate. E) case rate.

A) mortality rate. morbidity is number of illnesses, mortality of number of deaths. - number of cases of a specific disease per on hundred people exposed is called the Morbidity Rate. - fraction of the population who die from a specific disease is called the Mortality Rate.

An elderly patient comes to see you complaining of a very painful rash. When he lifts his shirt, you see that he has a rash of small blisters (vesicles) on one side of his back. You think he likely has shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Herpesviridae family. You explain this to your patient, who asks you to please give him an antibiotic for his infection. You tell him an antibiotic will not help him, and give him information on virus infections and their treatment. Acyclovir is selective and low in toxicity, causing little harm to uninfected cells, because: A) only a virally encoded enzyme can convert the medication into its active form (from nucleoside analog to nucleotide analog). B) only a virally encoded enzyme can convert the medication into its active form (from nucleotide analog to nucleoside analog). C) viral DNA is structurally very different from cellular DNA. D) host cells have the ability to repair the damage caused by nucleotide analogs. E) host cells have an enzyme that prevents the conversion of the medication into its active form.

A) only a virally encoded enzyme can convert the medication into its active form (from nucleoside analog to nucleotide analog).

A) people acquire while receiving treatment in a healthcare setting such as a hospital, therapy center, urgent care facility, or long-term care residence.

Interferons function to make cells: A) prevent viral replication. B) lyse when exposed to virus. C) non-motile when infected with virus. D) resistant to phagocytosis. E) form endospores.

A) prevent viral replication.

If the number of people who become ill during an epidemic rises gradually, this is called a(n): A) propagated epidemic. B) promulgated epidemic. C) common source epidemic. D) index epidemic. E) confluent epidemic.

A) propagated epidemic. First case is the index case. First person is infected, infects a few more and they go out and infect more...break in infection numbers are incubation periods (get shorter as more people get infected - the gaps, not the incubation period.).

The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a: A) protein. B) carbohydrate. C) lipid. D) lipopolysaccharide. E) carbohydrate.

A) protein. -heat destroys exotoxins

The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infectingagent, is called: A) seroconversion. B) complement fixation. C) ELISA. D) serum reversion. E) serology.

A) seroconversion.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. The situation in which the effect of two antimcrobials given together is more effective than the effect of either medication given individually is referred to as: A) synergism. B) antagonism. C) nihilism. D) symbiosis. E) dysbiosis. Correct answer: A

A) synergism.

Antigens interact with antibodies at: A) the outer end of each arm of the Y. B) the junction of heavy and light chains. C) different regions depending on the class of antibody. D) the bottom stem of the heavy chain of the Y. E) the disulfide bridges of the antibody molecule.

A) the outer end of each arm of the Y.

The function of the secretory component of the IgA molecule is: A) to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes. B) to coat the antigen. C) to facilitate opsonization. D) to protect breast-fed infants against intestinal pathogens. E) to protect IgA from being destroyed by lipases.

A) to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes.

All of the following are true about attenuated agents EXCEPT: A) they only induce immunity after several doses. B) they may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals. C) they multiply in the body. D) they may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains. E) they cause a strong cell-mediated immune response.

A. - attenuated agents need only 1 or 2 doses to induce long-lasting immunity due to microbes multiplying in the body. Immune system is exposed to more antigen for longer than with inactivated agents.

26. The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are A. 121C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. B. 63C for 30 minutes. C. 160C for 2 hours. D. 71.6C for 15 seconds. E. 100C for 30 minutes.

A. 121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes

Please choose the class of antimicrobials that would have the most selective toxicity. A. Antimicrobials that inhibit cell wall synthesis B. Antimicrobials that interfere with nucleic acid structure and function C. Antimicrobials that interfere with cell membrane structure and function D. Antimicrobials that inhibit protein synthesis

A. Antimicrobials that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A. The group of antimicrobial medications that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis and have a shared chemical structure called a β-lactam ring. B. The administration of two or more antimicrobial medications simultaneously to prevent the growth of mutants that might be resistant to one of the antimicrobials C. The resistance of an organism to an antimicrobial due to the inherent characteristics of that type of organism D. An antimicrobial able to inhibit or kill a wide range of microorganisms, often including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria E. A transporter that moves molecules out of the cell

A. Beta (β)-lactam drugs B. combination therapy C. intrinsic, innate resistance D. Broad-spectrum antimicrobial E. efflux pump

A. A type of horizontal gene transfer occuring when a phage carries a random piece of bacterial DNA acquired when a packaging error occurs during the assembly of phage particles B. Infection that develop slowly and persist for months or years C. Characterized by a lipid bilayer surrounding the nucleocapsid D. The modification of cell properties resulting from expression of phage DNA integrated into a bacterial chromosome E. Infection in which the infectious agent is present but not active

A. Generalized Transdution B. Chronic Infection C. Enveloped Virus D. Lysogenic Conversion E. Latent Infection

A. Urticaria; an allergic skin reaction characterized by the formation of itchy red swellings B. The antibody molecules with a single specificity produced in vitro by lymphocytes fused with a type of malignant myeloma cell C. The fluid portion of blood remaining after blood clots D. Latex beads, to which specific antibodies have been attached, produce visible clumps of aggregates in the presence of the specific antigen E. An autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoantibodies

A. Hives B. monoclonal antibodies C. serum plasma D. latex agglutination E. myasthenia gravis

A. The lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that prevents growth of a given microbial strain in vitro B. An antimicrobial medication that inhibits or kills a limited range of bacteria C. The procedure used to determine bacterial susceptibility to concentrations of an antimicrobial medication usually present in the bloodstream of an individual receiving the drug D. The target of β-lactam antimicrobial medications and heavy metals E. Strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are resistant to methicillin

A. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration, MIC B. Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial C. Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion assay D. Penicillin-binding proteins, PBP E. MRSA S. aureus

Which of the following microbes is of growing concern due to increasing resistance to "first-line medications," including isoniazid and rifampin.: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Enterobacteriaceae C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What would be the effect of using a medication combination where one medication is bacteriostatic and the other is bactericidal for actively dividing cells only? A. The medications would interfere with each other and become less effective. B. The medications would enhance each others activity by killing microbes that are both slow growing and fast growing. C. The medications would have no effect on each other since they target two different things.

A. The medications would interfere with each other and become less effective.

A. In virology, the separation of the protein coat from the nucleic acid of the virion B. The structures on the outside of the virion that bind to host cell receptors C. The group of viruses possessed of a single-stranded RNA genome; their enzyme, reverse transcriptase, synthesizes a DNA copy that is then integrated into the host cell chromosome D. The group of fatal neurodegenerative diseases in which brain tissue develops sponge-like holes E. The viral particle in its inert, extracellular form

A. Uncoating B. Spikes (attachment proteins) C. Retroviruses D. Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE's) E. Virion

How do all viruses differ from bacteria? A)Viruses are not composed of cells. B)Viruses do not have any nucleic acid. C)Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. D)Viruses do not reproduce. E)Viruses are filterable.

A. Viruses are not composed of cells. - viruses are not cells, are not alive, are acellular infectious agents.

A. The procedure using labeled antibody molecules to detect specific proteins that have been separated by gel electrophoresis B. The generalized allergic reaction caused by IgE, resulting in a profound drop in blood pressure C. The modified form of a toxin that is no longer toxic but still able to stimulate the production of antibodies capable of neutralizing the toxin D. The measure of the concentration of a substances in solution E. The specific unresponsiveness of the adaptive immune system reflecting its ability to ignore any given molecule such as normal cellular protein

A. Western Blot B. systemic anaphylaxis C. toxoid D. titer E. tolerance

41. HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A. air. B. liquids. C. human tissues. D. medical instruments. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. air

10. The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. fegerming.

A. antisepsis

12. The betadine swab before blood donation is an example of A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. sanitation.

A. antisepsis

13. The alcohol wipe before an injection is an example of A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. virilization.

A. antisepsis

A. A preparation of serum containing protective antibodies B. The immunity acquired through artificial means such as vaccination or administration of immune globulin C. A hypersensitivity reaction cause by immune complexes and neutrophils D. An antigen causing an allergy E. An organ or tissue transplanted between genetically nonidentical members of the same species

A. antiserum B. Artificially Acquired Immunity C. Arthus reaction D. allergen E. allograft

A. Protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus B. Major change in a viral surface antigen that render antibodies made against the previous version ineffective C. Illness characterized by signs and symptoms that develop quickly but last a relatively short time D. Arthropod-borne virus; one of a large group of RNA viruses carried by insects and mites that act as biological vectors E. A virus that infects bacteria; often abbreviated to phage

A. capsid B. Antigenic shift - shift is a MAJOR change whereas drift is a minor change. C. Acute Infection D. Arbovirus E. Bacteriophage

A. A vaccine composed of a polysaccharide antigen covalently attached to a large protein molecule, thereby converting what would be a T-independent antigen into a T-dependent antigen B. The phenomenon occuring when a critical concentration of immune hosts prevents the spread of an infectious agent C. A disease of the fetus or newborn cause by transplacental passage of maternal antibodies against the baby's red blood cells, resulting in red cell destruction; usually anti-Rhesus (Rh) antibodies are involved and the disease is called Rh disease; also called erythroblastosis fetalis D. A disease produced as a result of an immune reaction against one's own tissues E. The release of mediators from a cell's granules such as histamine released from mast cells

A. conjugate vaccine B. herd immunity C. Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn D. autoimmune disease E. degranulation

A. The small regulatory protein produced by cells to affect the behavior of other cells B. The molecule that reacts specifically with an antibody or lymphocyte C. The portion of an antibody molecule that does not vary in amino acid sequences among molecules of the same immunoglobulin class D. The region of an antigen recognized by antibodies and antigen receptors on lymphocytes E. The process allowing a B cell to change the antibody class it is programmed to make

A. cytokine B. antigen C. constant region D. epitope E. class switch

20. Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state (three-dimensional configuration) of the proteins. A. denature B. bind C. dissolve D. activate E. All of the choices are correct.

A. denature

36. Removal of moisture by dehydration is called A. desiccation. B. flash freeze. C. lyophilization. D. pasteurization. E. sterilization.

A. desiccation

4. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

A. disinfection

A. The increase in internal body temperature to 37.8ºC or higher B. The substance to which antibodies may bind but unable to ellicit the production of those antibodies unless attached to a large carrier molecule C. The lymphocyte type programmed to activate B cells and macrophages as well as assist other components of adaptive immunity D. The bone marrow cell able to give rise to all blood cell types E. Collection of lymphocytes and macrophages accumulating in certain chronic infections; an attempt by the body to wall off and contain persistent organisms and antigens

A. fever B. hapten C. helper T cell D. hemopoietic stem cell E. granuloma

A. The number of microorganisms or viruses sufficient to establish and infection; often expressed as ID50 in which 50% of the hosts are infected B. The transfer of a pathogen from on person to another through contact, ingestion of food or water or via a living agent such as an insect C. The first identified case of a disease in an epidemic D. An infection acquired during hospitalization E. The protein in the cell walls of Group A streptococci that is associated with virulence

A. infectious dose B. horizontal transmission C. index case D. noscomial E. M protein

22. Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids? A. moist heat B. ultraviolet light C. X rays D. ethylene dioxide E. formaldehyde

A. moist heat

A. An infection acquired during hospitalization B. The membrane-damaging toxin that enzymatically removes the polar head group on phospholipids C. The transmission of organisms colonizing the intestine by ingestion of fecally contaminated material D. The stage consisting of early, vague symptoms indicating the onset of disease E. The source of a pathogen

A. nosocomial/Hospital Acquired Infection B. phopholipidase C. oral-fecal transmission D. prodromal stage E. reservoir of infection

A. Found in neutrophil granules, saliva, and milk that together with hydrogen peroxide and halide ions make up an effective antimicrobial system B. An effector B cell, fully differentiated to produce and secrete large amounts of antibody C. A mononuclear phagocyte of the blood; part of the mononuclear phagocyte system of so-called professional phagocytes D. The group of pattern recognition receptors located on the surface of cells and within endosomes E. The receptors which bind lipopolysaccharide, peptidoglycan, and other molecular patterns associated with microbes

A. peroxidase enzyme B. plasma cell C. monocyte D. Toll-like receptors, TLR E. Pattern recognition receptors, PRR

A. The clear area in a monolayer of cells B. The protein that when bound to the operator site prevents transcription C. The latent form of a temperate phage whose DNA has been inserted into the host DNA D. Infectious protein causing a neurodegenerative disease E. A viral infection causing the host cell to lyse

A. plaque B. Repressor C. Prophage D. prion E. Lytic infection

A. Occurring irregularly B. The subjective effect of a disease experience by the patient such as pain and nausea C. The array of effects including fever, drop in blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation, resulting from infection of the bloodstream or circulating endotoxin D. The prolonged association of two dissimilar organisms or symbionts E. Virus particles circulating in the bloodstream

A. sporadic B. symptom C. septic shock D. symbiosis E. viremia

54. Ethylene oxide is A. sporicidal. B. only effective with high heat. C. the active agent in household bleach. D. used as an antiseptic against anaerobes. E. a halogen.

A. sporicidal

28. The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the A. thermal death point (TDP). B. thermal death time (TDT). C. sporicidal time. D. death phase point. E. None of the choices is correct.

A. thermal death point (TDP)

39. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube? A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light B. gamma rays C. 121C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D. 160C for 2 hours E. All of the choices are correct.

A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light

Gastroenteritis A.Acute inflammation of the stomach and intestines; often applied to the syndrome of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Jaundice E.Yellow color of the skin and eyes caused by buildup of bilirubin in the blood. Microvilli D.Tiny cylindrical projections from luminal surfaces of cells such as those lining the intestine; increases surface area of the cell. Myonecrosis C.Also known as gas gangrene. Potassium iodide B.Effective as a non-antibiotic treatment for infection with Sporotrichosis.

Abrasion C.Occurs where the epidermis is scraped off. Bile E.Yellow-colored fluid produced by the liver that aids in the absorption of nutrients from the intestine. Collagen B.Fibrous support protein found in skin, tendons, scars, and other tissues. Contusion D.Produced by a blow that crushes tissue. Cyst A.Dormant resting protozoan cell characterized by a thickened cell wall.

In treating an oil spill, why might biostimulation be preferred over bioaugmentation? In fact, biostimulation is not generally favored as an approach. Biostimulation often leads to the generation of antibiotic—resistant microbes, which become a problem for other organisms in the environment. Bioaugmentation is the favored approach because adding nutrients to the area simply enhances the activities of the bacteria already present. Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels. Biostimulation and bioaugmentation are always used simultaneously. This is done because neither one of these approaches works well individually. Adding bacteria to an environment will never be successful unless nutrients are also added to that environment. Bioaugmentation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are highly genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Biostimulation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function. Biostimulation involves adding novel microbes to boost the populations of resident microbes. These novel microbes are generally genetically engineered to enhance their abilities to metabolize pollutants such as oil, so are very effective. Bioaugmentation merely involves adding nutrients, so all microbes are favored, even those not performing a useful function.

Adding new microbes (bioaugmentation) poses some risk—when new microbes are added to an environment, the consequences of those additions on resident populations are unknown. Adding nutrients (biostimulation) is safer because once those nutrients are used up, the microbial populations are likely to return to their original levels.

Yellow fever is transmitted by ticks. fleas. Anopheles mosquitoes. Aedes mosquitoes.

Aedes mosquitoes. Bunch of viruses from mosquitoes - Yellow fever - main vector = Aedes aegypti mosquito - Dengue fever - main vector = Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus - Chikungunya - Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes - Zika - Aedes aegypti and Aedes olbopictus (less frequently) Anopheles mosquitoes carry Plasmodium for Malaria. Fleas is Yerisinia pestis and plague. Ticks is Lyme disease - but Ebola and Marburg - fruit bats reservoir

You go hiking in the woods with some of your classmates. A few days after the hike, your friend Alice calls to tell you she is not feeling well and that she is going to skip soccer practice that evening. She says she has a weird rash on her leg and wonders if she was bitten by a spider while your were hiking. She sends you a photo of the rash. You are in your final semester of nursing school and have recently studied disease of the cardiovascular system. You think that the rash that Alice has is a sign of Lyme disease, and offer to take her to the urgent care to get medical help. While you are waiting to see a clinician, you review answer Alice's questions about Lyme disease.What causes the characteristic erythema migrans of Lyme disease? Borrelia bergdorferi is an encapsulated organism. The capsule of these cells is composed of hyaluronic acid that causes a widespread inflammatory response in the skin of the host that manifests as a rash. Borrelia bergdorferi cells propel themselves from host cell to host cell using actin tails, in a manner similar to Shigella cells. As they move, the bacteria destroy the host cells, causing the characteristic rash. After being introduced into the skin by the bite of an infected mosquito, the Gram-positive bacteria migrate outward in a corkscrew-like manner; the NAGs and NAMs in their cell wall causes an inflammatory reaction. After a person acquires the causative bacteria by eating contaminated meat, the bacteria migrate to the skin in a corkscrew-like motion, killing host cells as they move and causing the bull's-eye rash. After being introduced into the skin by the bite of an infected tick, the Gram-negative bacteria migrate outward in a circular manner; the LPS in their outer layer causes an inflammatory reaction.

After being introduced into the skin by the bite of an infected tick, the Gram-negative bacteria migrate outward in a circular manner; the LPS in their outer layer causes an inflammatory reaction. p.672 Correct

The scientist responsible for the development of the first anti-plague vaccine in 1866 was Alexandre Yersin. Robert Koch. Louis Pasteur. Josef Marburg.

Alexandre Yersin p.664 - Yersin studies plague - reported discovery of a bacillus (rod) always present in swollen lymph nodes of plague victims. Could be cultivated, made rats sick and they made other rats sick. Yersin's plague bacillus was named Yersinia pestis, used to make a VACCINE and then an antiserum - led to first successful treatment of a plague victim.

Explain how nutrient-rich runoff can cause waters to become hypoxic. The nutrients in the runoff often include toxic chemicals that kill anaerobes such as cyanobacteria. Aerobes flourish, depleting the amount of oxygen present. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff. Heterotrophic microbes then flourish on the organic molecules produced by these organisms, using oxygen in the process and leading to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. It doesn't. This claim is a scare tactic used by environmental extremists to prevent farmers and individuals from fertilizing their crops and lawns. There is no induction of a hypoxic state in bodies of water where runoff occurs. Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff, using oxygen in the process. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area. The nutrients in the runoff often include chemicals that spontaneously oxidize in the presence of oxygen. They tend to deplete the amount of oxygen present in an area simply by being present themselves. This consumption of oxygen leads to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area.

Algae and cyanobacteria flourish on the nutrients in the runoff. Heterotrophic microbes then flourish on the organic molecules produced by these organisms, using oxygen in the process and leading to a hypoxic state in the area. Larger animals cannot survive in the hypoxic area.

Cryptosporidium parvum may infect pigs. humans. dogs. cattle. All of the choices are correct.

All are correct p.657 - Cryptosporidium parvum is difficult to control because it has a wide host range, infecting domestic animals such as dogs, pigs and cattle. Feces from these animals, a well as from humans, can contaminate food and drinking water.

Why is it virtually impossible to eradicate a disease caused by a zoonotic virus? - You would have to drive the vector organism extinct to do so. - Many viruses transmitted in this manner may utilize more than one vector organism. - Many zoonotic viruses may be able to reside in more than one host organism, complicating control measures. - Many vector organisms have multiple stages of their life cycle that can carry a zoonotic virus, which complicates controlling the vector-borne transmission. - All of the answer choices are correct.

All are correct.

Viral central nervous system infections may result in: A. meningitis. B. encephalitis. C. poliomyelitis. D. rabies. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the above can be caused by viruses.

Why is it important to learn about rabies when only a few cases occur in the United States each year? A. The US isn't the entire world. Rabies might be more common in other areas, and it's important to understand due to its lethality. B. The only reason why rabies isn't common in the US is due to our lack of interaction with animal carriers. We could very easily have an outbreak on our hands if we don't know the warning signs to watch for that we've learned about by studying the virus and disease. C. Rabies can never be completely eliminated-it has too many different animal reservoirs/carriers. As such, we need to remain constantly aware of how to protect human populations, both by preventing and treating the illness. We can only do that by learning about it. D. All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

Prions - replicate by converting normal host proteins into prion proteins. - responsible for "mad cow disease" can cause a similar disease in humans. - can be transmitted by consumption of dried or cooked food. - that cause Spongiform Encephalopathy have the same amino acids - but different folding properties from PrPc. - all of the above

All of the above.***

Which of the following may be used by prokaryotes, under anaerobic conditions, as terminal electron acceptors? carbon dioxide sulfate nitrate nitrite All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be: - Protein F. - M Protein. - a capsule. - Protein G. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct - Protein F attaches to surface protein on epithelial cells called fibrin. M protein is an adhesin and inactivates opsonin C3b and avoids activating complement inflammatory response. Capsule mimics host cell hyaluronic acid and hides cell from phagocytes, Protein G is an Fc receptor that binds Fc part of opsonizing IgG.

Naturally occurring microbial chemicals may include benzoic acid. lysozyme. allicin. peroxidase. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct benzoic acid - in cranberries lysozyme - in egg whites allicin - in garlic peroxidase -Peroxidase is an enzyme found in a wide variety of organisms, from plants to humans to bacteria. Its function is to break down hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), which is one of the toxins produced as a byproduct of using oxygen for respiration. (The fact that it's toxic is what makes hydrogen peroxide useful in first aid kits.

The animal(s) often associated with Salmonella strains is/are: turtles. ducks. baby chickens. iguanas. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct p.644 Correct

Which is true of listeriosis? A. It is a foodborne disease. B. It may result in meningitis. C. It is usually asymptomatic in healthy people. D. It is caused by an organism that can grow at refrigerator temperatures. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct p.702 - Meningitis is the most common result of listeriosis, a foodborne disease caused by Listeria monocytogenes. - motile, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobe, Gram positive rod that can grow at 4 C even on vacuum-packed refridgerated food - epidemics - GI route - can cross the placenta - abscesses in fetus

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to sterility. urinary tract infections. prostatic abscesses. orchitis. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct p.741 - In men, an inflammatory response to the infection can cause scar tissue formation that partially obstructs the urethra, slowing urination and creating a predisposition to UTIs. The infection may spread to the prostate gland and the testes, producing prostatic abscesses and orchitis (inflammation of the testes). If scar tissue blocks the tubes that carry the sperm, or if testicular tissue is destroyed by the infection , infertility can result.

Entamoeba histolytica cysts survive passage through the stomach. causes amebiasis. may form cysts. may produce a cytotoxic enzyme. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

In which of the following diseases does the spleen enlarge? infectious mononucleosis malaria leishmaniasis brucellosis All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Limiting the activity of microbes in food can be accomplished by cold storage. lowering the pH. growth inhibiting substances. pasteurization. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Memory cells may take the form of: - B cells. - T cytotoxic cells. - T helper cells. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Sludge A. is a byproduct of sewage treatment. B. may be a source of pollution. C. takes up space in a land fill. D. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct.

The damage caused by parasites may be due to: - competition for nutrients. - the physical blocking of organs. - the direct digestion of host tissue. - the host's immune response. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Treponema pallidum -is the organism that causes syphilis -is a spirochete -can be more easily viewed with dark field illumination -has become less virulent over time

All of the choices are correct.

Wastewater treatment decreases the amount of phosphate. biodegradable carbon. pathogens. ammonia and nitrate. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which is true of listeriosis? It is usually asymptomatic in healthy people. It may result in meningitis. It is a foodborne disease. It is caused by an organism that can grow at refrigerator temperatures. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following groups contain diarrhea-causing E. coli? A. enterotoxigenic B. enteroinvasive C. enteropathogenic D. enterohemorrhagic E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following play some role in sewage treatment? A. activated sludge B. trickling filter C. septic tank D. lagooning E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct.

Central nervous system (CNS) diseases caused by fungus may occur in: A. cancer patients. B. diabetics. C. AIDS patients. D. immunosuppressed people. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. - in immunocompromised individuals

Blood and lymph may carry antibodies. complement. lysozyme. interferon. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Antibodies = duh complement are blood proteins p.655 - Blood and lymph both carry infection-fighting leukocytes and antimicrobial proteins, including ANTIBODIES, COMPLEMENT, LYSOZYME AND INTERFERON. Correct

Which is true of the Clostridium botulinum toxin? A. It is heat-sensitive. B. It is a neurotoxin. C. It blocks nerve to muscle signal transmission. D. It is a two-part toxin. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Botulinum toxin - C. botulinum is G+ so is an exotoxin - heat sensitive - is a neurotoxin - attaches to motor neurons and stops transmission of signals to the muscles, producing paralysis - is an A-B toxin - B on motor nerve endings. A in nerve cell where it inactivates proteins that regulate the release of neurotransmitters - stops muscle contraction = Flaccid paralysis

Which is true about C. botulinum? A. It is anaerobic. B. It may form spores. C. It produces a neurotoxin. D. It does not grow well below pH 4.5. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Botulism is not a nervous system disease but its key symptom is paralysis. Clostridium botulinum - G+, anaerobic, endospore-forming, rod shaped bacterium. The endospore can germinate in favorable conditions = nutrient-rich, anaerobic environment, a pH above 4.5 and a temperture above 4 C. Botulinum toxin (types A, B and E) is a neurotoxin and causes paralysis.

Treatment of gas gangrene may involve _________. A. wound debridement B. antitoxins C. hyperbaric chambers D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Clostridium perfringens -> Clostridial Myonecrosis Treatment and Prevention • Prompt surgical removal of all dead and infected tissue = DEBRIDEMENT • Antibiotics, HYPERBARIC oxygen treatment • No available vaccine Makes ALPHA TOXIN so ANTITOXIN, too

Which of the following produce lactic acid? Lactobacillus Leuconostoc Streptococcus Lactococcus All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Know these so you will remember which do and will be better able to choice "Which of the following does NOT produce lactic acid?" if asked.

The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are: A. dryness. B. saltiness. C. acidity. D. toxicity. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Too dry, salty, acidic, and toxic for most pathogens - Those that tolerate often shed with dead skin cells.

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show: Lactobacillus. Staphylococcus. Corynebacterium. Bacteroides. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. p.7.29 - the lower urethra has a normal resident microbiota that includes species of Lactobacillus, Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, Haemophilus, Streptococcus and Bacteroides.

Bacterial cystitisis: a common nosocomial disease. is typically caused by E. coli. may occur through the use of a catheter. is unusual in men under 50. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. p.730/31 - is a frequent HAI - usually originates from the normal intestinal microbiota - more than 80% of cases are caused by specific uropathogenic strains of E. coli. - hospitalized patients, and people with long-standing bladder catheters are often chronically infected - catheters allow for formation of biofilms that let bacteria reach bladder - UTIs are unusual in men until about age 50 when the prostate enlarges

Which of the following is important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani? A. Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil B. Prophylactic use of antitoxin C. Administration of penicillin D. All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani.

All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani: anaerobic, GRAM POSITIVE, rod-shaped; forms spherical endospore at one end of cell; swarming growth quickly spreads over media surface Treatment and Prevention • Human tetanus immune globulin (TIG) injection - Antibodies bind to free toxin molecules, provide passive immunity, but do not neutralize attached tetanospasmin or repair nerve damage - Muscle relaxants, supportive care necessary • CLEANING WOUND, antibiotics, vaccine • VACCINATION with tetanus toxoid (inactivated tetanospasmin) PREVENTS - Table 23.3 says TETANUS ANTITOXIN

Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health? - They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader. - They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins. - They produce antimicrobial substances. - They stimulate the immune system. - All of the choices are true.

All of the choices are true.

Why is it important to continue vaccinating children in the United States against measles, even though it is now a rare disease in the Western Hemisphere? A) A rare complication of measles is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) that is characterized by progressive brain degeneration, and generally results in death within 2 years. B) Measles that occurs during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, premature labor, and low-birth-weight babies. C) Occasionally, the measles virus causes viral pneumonia, with rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color from lack of adequate O2 in the blood. D) Encephalitis is a rare but serious complication of measles that sometimes results in permanent brain damage, with mental disability, deafness, and epilepsy. E) All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

Which statement does NOT apply to water treatment? Advanced treatment of wastewater is often designed to remove ammonia, nitrates, and phosphates. Secondary treatments are designed to convert suspended solids into inorganic compounds and microbial biomass. The primary treatment of wastewater is a physical process designed to remove materials that settle out. An important goal of wastewater treatment is the increase of the BOD that stimulates microbial growth. Biosolids that result from anaerobic digestion of sludge can be used to improve soils and promote plant growth.

An important goal of wastewater treatment is the increase of the BOD that stimulates microbial growth. Goal is to DECREASE the BOD

Why are signs and symptoms not quickly resolved in a person with tetanus when they are given antibiotics? Antibiotics will prevent the production of additional tetanospasmin but will not repair nerves already damaged by the toxin. Clostridium tetani is an acid-fast organism; it thus has a slow generation time, so it takes several weeks for an antibiotic to be effective in killing the cells. Clostridium tetani is an acid-fast organism; it thus has a waxy cell wall that prevents antibiotics from entering the cell. The antibiotics are given prophylactically, to prevent secondary infections. Nerves damaged by tetanospasmin need time to repair. Clostridium tetani is resistant to most antibiotics; treatment thus involves several weeks of combined antibiotic therapy.

Antibiotics will prevent the production of additional tetanospasmin but will not repair nerves already damaged by the toxin. Correct

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of meningococcus? A. Antigenic variation prevents the development of a vaccine. B. It uses pili for attachment to mucosal epithelium. C. It is a diplococcus. D. It is an encapsulated bacterium. E. It can vary its surface antigens.

Antigenic variation prevents the development of a vaccine. WRONG - I checked the PP and the textbook and it has to be A. Neisseria miningitidis - Gram negative encapsulated diplococcus - most serious infections are due to serotypes A, B, C, W and Y - inhaled in airborne droplets attach by pili to mucus membranes and then multiply. Like N. gonorrheae, N. meningitidis can vary some of its antigens. Hello, there are 2 vaccines p.700

Soy sauce is made by fermentation of soybeans and wheat by - lactic acid bacteria. - Saccharomyces. - Aspergillus. - lactic acid bacteria AND Saccharomyces.

Aspergillus. Soy sauce is made by inoculating equal parts of cooked soybeans and roasted cracked wheat with a culture of either Aspergillus oryzae or Aspergillus sojae. The mixture (called KOJI) stands for several days while carbs and proteins in soybeans are broken down - making a yellow-green liquid full of fermentable sugars, peptides and amino acids. This is added to a solution of 18% NaCl (brine) where salt-tolerant microbes grow and produce flavor changes over time. Microorganisms involved in this stage of fermentation: lactobacilli, pediococci, and yeasts. The brine sits for 8-12 months, then the liquid soy sauce is removed and the remaining solids are used as animal feed.

Given the name "leukocyte adhesion deficiency," which of the following steps in the inflammation process given below do you think is/are not carried out in a person with this condition? 1. Tight junctions between endothelial cells are disrupted, allowing fluid to leak from the vessels into the tissue. 2. The phagocytes bind to the endothelial cells and exit the blood vessel by a process called diapedesis. 3. Once in the tissues, phagocytic cells engulf and destroy any microbial invaders. 4. The increase of fluids in the tissues causes the swelling and pain associated with inflammation. 5. The diameter of local blood vessels increases due to the action of inflammatory mediators. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 and 2 E) 2, 3, and 5

How long after initiation of a primary response do significant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?: A. One day B. 10-14 days C. 4 weeks D. 6 months

When microbes are introduced into normally sterile body sites, or when tissues are damaged, inflammation occurs. The purpose of this is to contain a site of damage, localize the response, eliminate the invader, and restore tissue function. Select the correct sequence of events for an inflammation response. 1. The phagocytes then produce other adhesion molecules that strengthen their attachment to the endothelial cells. 2. Tight junctions between endothelial cells are disrupted, allowing leakage from the vessels into the tissue. 3. Endothelial cells of the blood vessels produce adhesion molecules that loosely "grab" phagocytic cells. 4. In response to various chemoattractants, the phagocytes leave the blood vessels and move into the surrounding tissues. 5. The diameter of local blood vessels increases due to the action of inflammatory mediators, slowing blood flow in the area. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 C) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 D) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 E) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3

Your first patient of the day is complaining of pain in the area of his new tattoo. When you examine the tattoo, you note that the area around it is firm, red, and swollen. There is no evidence of pus, and your patient has a normal pulse, and no fever. You tell your patient that you have seen this type of response to a tattoo before, and that it is called a granulomatous reaction. You give him more information on the condition. You go on to explain to your patient that his skin and mucous membranes are protected from microbes by a number of antimicrobial substances. You inadvertently make a mistake during this explanation. Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) Lysozyme—enzyme that degrades the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cell wall. B) Defensins—short chains of carbohydrates that have strong antimicrobial properties. C) Peroxidases—enzymes found in neutrophils, saliva, and milk that react with H2O2 to form antimicrobial compounds. D) Transferrin—an iron-binding protein found in blood and tissue fluids that deprives microbes of Fe, inhibiting their growth. E) Perspiration—source of salty residue on the skin that inhibits all microbes except those that are salt-tolerant.

Your patient has recently been diagnosed with an immunodeficiency disorder. Your supervisor asks you to help the patient understand what this means and the impact it will have on her. You inform your patient that the human body has several mechanisms of defense: innate immunity, which is routine protection present at birth, and adaptive immunity, which is a more specific response that develops after birth. You tell your patient that her adaptive immune response uses two basic strategies for eliminating foreign material: humoral immunity, which involves ________ and cell-mediated immunity, which involves ________. A) T lymphocytes; B lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes; T lymphocytes C) T lymphocytes; NK cells D) B cells; neutrophils E) neutrophils; macrophages

If a disease affects only a human and not an animal, then it would be difficult to fulfill Koch's postulate number ________. A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 8

B) 3 1- find organism causing diease 2- isolate and grow in pure culture 3- use to infect animal host, watch disease develop as with first 4- isolate same organism

Approximately what percentage of hospitalized patients may develop a nosocomial infection? A) 0% B) 5% C) 15% D) 20% E) 70%

B) 5%

Which of the following pathogens/diseases would be the easiest to eradicate? A) A pathogen that only infects humans and rarely causes signs and symptoms. B) A pathogen that only infects humans and causes obvious signs and symptoms. C) A pathogen that causes disease in both animals and humans. D) A pathogen that mostly infects animals but also sometimes causes disease in humans. E) A disease that is asymptomatic and is carried by a large number of people in a population.

B) A pathogen that only infects humans and causes obvious signs and symptoms.

Why is it important to include a placebo in a scientific study to assess the effectiveness of a drug? A) It's actually unethical to include a placebo and it is usually not done. If you have a drug that you know to be effective, it's unethical to withhold that treatment from an ill patient. B) A placebo-treated group will determine if the changes observed in the drug-treated illness group are due to a psychological effect rather than a physiologic/pharmacologic one. C) It isn't scientifically important to include a placebo. A placebo simply helps investigators satisfy the legal requirements of the Food and Drug Administration in their testing process. D) A placebo-treated group will determine if the changes observed in the illness in this non-treated group are due to a physiologic/pharmacologic effect rather than a psychological one. E) Both groups of people are actually given the drug and a placebo. This is a way to ensure patient compliance, without which the study would not yield any useable information.

B) A placebo-treated group will determine if the changes observed in the drug-treated illness group are due to a psychological effect rather than a physiologic/pharmacologic one

Identify the role(s) of natural killer cells: A) Phagocytosis of virus infected cells AND production of cytokines that help regulate and direct certain immune responses. B) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity AND negative selection of lymphocytes that recognize normal "self" molecules AND regulation and direction of certain immune responses. C) Destruction of stressed host cells such as those infected with viruses AND negative selection of lymphocytes that fail to recognize normal "self" molecules. D) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity OR destruction of stressed host cells such as those infected with viruses. E) Regulation and direction of certain immune responses AND phagocytosis of virus infected cells AND stimulation of MHC class I molecules.

B) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity AND negative selection of lymphocytes that recognize normal "self" molecules AND regulation and direction of certain immune responses.

Which is more dangerous to human beings: antigenic DRIFT or antigenic SHIFT? A) Antigenic DRIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it. B) Antigenic SHIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it. C) Antigenic DRIFT; the small changes make the virus look like something we already have an immune response in place for, but we actually don't, letting the virus hide from the immune responses for a longer period of time. D) Antigenic SHIFT; the process completely changes the virus, allowing it to jump from one species to another (such as from birds into humans). As such, we have no responses in place for the new virus. E) These are equally dangerous. In both cases, major genetic and phenotypic changes occur in the virus, which means that people have absolutely no immune responses in place for dealing with the infection.

B) Antigenic SHIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it.

B) Attenuated vaccines are very stable in all temperatures, so are easily transported to remote areas and do not require special storage. - they aren't heat stable and need to be kept cool, difficult in remove/underdeveloped areas

The normal microbiota provides protection against potentially harmful organisms and stimulates the immune system. Why would the immune responses to members of the normal microbiota cross-react with pathogens? A) Because one person's normal microbiota is another person's pathogen—when we pick up "normal" microbes from a different person, they will always cause infection within us. B) Because pathogens are often more virulent strains of our own normal microbiota, so they will appear similar to those cells to our immune system, and may be acted upon by our immune responses. C) Because the normal microbiota keeps the adaptive immune responses tuned up, active, and ready to respond to broad, general categories of microbes such as Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria and viruses. D) Because if the immune system isn't used on a regular basis, it loses the ability to respond to pathogens. The normal microbiota keeps the system going so that it can be ready to respond to pathogens when we're exposed to them. E) Because normal microbiota are often more virulent strains of our pathogens, so they will appear similar to those cells to our immune system, and may be acted upon by our immune responses.

B) Because pathogens are often more virulent strains of our own normal microbiota, so they will appear similar to those cells to our immune system, and may be acted upon by our immune responses.

How is the central portion of a T cell receptor complex functionally analogous to the center of the B cell receptor complex? A) It has two protein chains, just like a B-cell receptor. B) Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules). C) Both bind structures directly on the surface of microbes. D) Both can be secreted from lymphocytes to bind to pathogens under certain situations. E) Both have two heavy chains and two light chains.

B) Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules).

Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host? A) Plasmids B) Capsule C) Pili D) Flagella E) Spikes

B) Capsule slide 40 - using a capsule to avoid recognition and attachment by/to phagocytes like macrophages and neutrophils

A poorly understood, yet promising type of vaccine that causes the host to produce microbial antigens for a short time involves the use of: A) subunits. B) DNA. C) alum. D) toxoids. E) glycoproteins.

B) DNA - slide says, "DNA-based vaccines - inject into muscle tissue, which expresses for a short time"

Explain how the incubation period can influence the spread of an infectious agent. A) Incubation period does not affect the spread of an infectious agent. An infectious carrier will only spread the illness when they are showing acute symptoms. As such, the length of incubation period is not important for spreading the illness. B) Depending on the microbe and the illness, an asymptomatic carrier in the incubation period might be shedding infectious microbes to his/her surroundings. In such a case, a longer incubation period would lead to a greater spread of the disease as the carrier comes into contact with more individuals while he/she is generally appearing to be healthy. C) A very short incubation period will place a patient into the highly infectious active disease state sooner. Since people avoid contact with actively ill individuals, a very short incubation period will always lead to a decrease in the spread of an infectious disease. D) A very long incubation period will place a patient into the highly infectious active disease state later. Since people generally avoid contact with actively ill individuals, a very long incubation period will always lead to a decrease in the spread of an infectious disease. E) A short incubation period leads to an increase in the spread of an infectious agent. This is because diseases with a short incubation period are always far more severe than those with a long incubation period, so the infectious agent is spread more vigorously.

B) Depending on the microbe and the illness, an asymptomatic carrier in the incubation period might be shedding infectious microbes to his/her surroundings. In such a case, a longer incubation period would lead to a greater spread of the disease as the carrier comes into contact with more individuals while he/she is generally appearing to be healthy.

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was: A) Koch. B) Ehrlich. C) Hooke. D) Fleming. E) Salvarsan.

B) Ehrlich He saw that bacterial cells took up dye differently than animal cells and realized that there must be some fundamental difference between them - thought it might be possible to find a chemical that selectively harms bacteria w/o affecting human cells (some "Magical Bullet"). The 606th arsenic compound he tested, arsphenamine, treated syphilis in animals. medication given name Salvarsan = salvation + arsenic. His discovery proved that some chemclals could selectively kill microbes.

What two functions do phagocytes serve in immune responses? A) Production of antibodies AND engulfment/destruction of foreign cells. A) Production of antibodies AND engulfment/destruction of foreign cells. B) Engulfment/destruction of foreign cells AND alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader. C) Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion. D) Production of antibodies AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion. E) Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND production of antibodies. C) Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion. D) Production of antibodies AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion. E) Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND production of antibodies.

B) Engulfment/destruction of foreign cells AND alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader.

Which antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgM D) IgD E) IgM and IgG

B) IgG

Which of the following is NOT true of naturally acquired immunity? A) It is the gain of adaptive immunity through normal events, such as exposure to an infectious agent. B) It involves injecting a person with antibodies produced by other people or animals. C) It occurs as a result of breast feeding; the secretory IgA in breast milk protects the digestive tract of the child. D) It occurs during pregnancy when the mother's IgG antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus. E) These all characterize naturally acquired immunity.

B) It involves injecting a person with antibodies produced by other people or animals. - injections are artifically acquring immunity - injecting antibodies is artificial passive immunity

Explain how using a combination of two antimicrobial drugs helps prevent the development of spontaneously resistant mutants. A) All drugs work synergistically with each other. Their combined effects are far greater than either could achieve individually. Two drugs together helps to eliminate microbes, even if they have developed spontaneous mutations that would make them resistant to the drugs. B) It is highly unlikely that the microbe might spontaneously develop two specific mutations to resist the effects of a pair of drugs. As such, even if one drug is resisted by the microbe, the second drug will eliminate the mutated microbe, thus preventing the development of spontaneously resistant mutants overall. C) All drugs work antagonistically with each other. Their combined effects are far greater than either could achieve individually. Two drugs together helps to eliminate microbes, even if they have developed spontaneous mutations that would make them resistant to the drugs. D) Drugs can also select for mutations that will enhance the activity of another drug. Therefore, each of the paired drugs will help to select for spontaneous mutations that enhance the activity of the other drug in the pair. E) Bacteria can only ever develop resistance to a single antibiotic. If more than one drug is used, the organisms will definitely become resistant to one of them but it will not become resistant to both of them. The second antibiotic will kill the organism.

B) It is highly unlikely that the microbe might spontaneously develop two specific mutations to resist the effects of a pair of drugs. As such, even if one drug is resisted by the microbe, the second drug will eliminate the mutated microbe, thus preventing the development of spontaneously resistant mutants overall.

Which of the following members of the normal microbiota inhibit the growth of Candida albicans? A) E. coli B) Lactobacillus species C) Staphylococci species D) Propionibacterium species E) All of the answer choices are correct.

B) Lactobacillus species slide 12 - The protective role of normal microbiota = Lactobacillus is predominate in the female vagina and suppresses the growth of Candida albicans. Some antibiotics suppress Lactobacillus, the Candida grows and she gets vulvovaginal candidiasis.

How are macrophages and neutrophils similar, and how are they different? A) Macrophages and neutrophils both circulate in the blood. Macrophages are phagocytic cells while neutrophils are granulocytes but not phagocytes. B) Macrophages and neutrophils are both phagocytic cells. Macrophages reside in the tissues while neutrophils typically circulate in the blood. C) Macrophages and neutrophils are both abundant cell types in tissues. Macrophages are phagocytic cells while neutrophils are not. D) Macrophages and neutrophils are both phagocytic cells. Macrophages are granulocytes while neutrophils are effector cells. E) Macrophages and neutrophils are both leukocytes. Macrophages are granulocytes and neutrophils are lymphocytes.

B) Macrophages and neutrophils are both phagocytic cells. Macrophages reside in the tissues while neutrophils typically circulate in the blood.

The body's own cells do not trigger the alternative pathway of complement system activation. Why is this? A) Host cells produce convertase 3b which changes C3b into C3a that does not activate the complement pathway. B) Molecules in host cell membranes bind regulatory proteins that will inactivate any C3b molecules that attach to the membrane. C) C3b triggers the alternative pathway in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes. D) Molecules in host cell membranes bind regulatory proteins that will stimulate the binding of C3b molecules to bacterial cells. E) Molecules in host cell membranes bind any MACs, deactivating them and preventing the activation of the alternative pathway.

B) Molecules in host cell membranes bind regulatory proteins that will inactivate any C3b molecules that attach to the membrane.

Is antigenic shift alone likely to lead to influenza pandemics? A) Yes. ONLY antigenic shift can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. B) Perhaps, but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. C) No. ONLY antigenic DRIFT can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. D) No. Antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain. E) No. Antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain.

B) Perhaps, but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. The other options don't actually make sense at all, and the use of ONLY = no.

The four cardinal signs of inflammation are: A) Flare, wheals, fever, cough B) Redness, heat, swelling, pain C) Rash, pus, heat, rubor D) Heat, pain, vesicles, fever E) Heat, pain, redness, fainting

B) Redness, heat, swelling, pain

B) Respiratory hygiene includes instructing symptomatic healthcare personnel to stay home from work for at least two weeks.

Who is credited with first observing cells? A) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Robert Koch E) Carolus Linnaeus

B) Robert Hooke Cork, common bread mold

The doctor responsible for introducing the idea of hand washing before attending patients was: A) Klein. B) Semmelweis. C) Koch. D) Pasteur. E) Galen.

B) Semmelweis. He saw that 4x the puerperal fever cases in the doctor's ward vs the midwife's birthing area was related to doctors performing autopsies (midwives don't) after a friend got cut during an autopsy and died of an infection like puerperal fever. They weren't washing their hands and were spreading disease!

Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal, or polyclonal? A) Since the infection is from only a single agent/microbe, the antibodies would be monoclonal. B) Since a single pathogen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal. C) Since the pathogen would most likely mutate slightly during the infection (producing different epitopes), the responding antibodies would be polyclonal. D) Since the pathogen would acquire and modify self-antigens during the infectious process, the antibodies produced during the response would be polyclonal. E) Since only one B cell is ever activated in response to a pathogen, the antibodies that are produced would be monoclonal.

B) Since a single pathogen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.

Please select the FALSE statement regarding viral avoidance of the immune response. A) Some viruses interfere with antigen presentation by MHC class I molecules. B) Some viruses produce enzymes that, when activated, make holes in the phagocyte membrane, killing the cell. C) Some viruses move directly from one cell to its immediate neighbors, thus avoiding antibodies. D) Some viruses encode proteins that shut down expression of host genes such as those encoding IFNs and AVPs. E) Some viruses display "fake" MHC class I molecules, tricking the immune system into believing that the cell is uninfected.

B) Some viruses produce enzymes that, when activated, make holes in the phagocyte membrane, killing the cell. Viruses want to replicate their DNA not lyse the cell and lose the machinery. (I know lytic viruses do kill the host but that is to release completed virions, not about avoiding the immune response.).

Which statement concerning viral structure is true? A) The proteins in the envelope are capsomeres. B) Spikes are found on some viruses. They are very consistent in structure and can be used for identification. C) Animal viruses usually contain tail sheaths and spikes. D) All viruses contain an envelope, which is made of lipid, carbohydrate, and protein.

B) Spikes are found on some viruses. They are very consistent in structure and can be used for identification.

Which of the following is/are secondary lymphoid organ(s)? A) Thymus AND spleen B) Spleen AND lymph nodes C) Lymph nodes AND bone marrow D) Spleen AND bone marrow E) Thymus AND bone marrow

B) Spleen AND lymph nodes Primary: Thymus, bone marrow Secondary: spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, SALT, MALT

Why is it not possible to use Koch's postulates to show that Treponema pallidum causes syphilis? A) T. pallidum is a Gram-negative organism. B) T. pallidum cannot be grown in pure culture. C) T. pallidum causes different diseases in different hosts. D) Syphilis is a polymicrobial disease; T. pallidum is only one of the causative agents involved in the disease. E) T. pallidum does not contain a genome.

B) T. pallidum cannot be grown in pure culture.

Please select the FALSE statement regarding tissue distribution, metabolism, and excretion of medications. A) Patients who have liver dysfunction often metabolize medications more slowly, so their doses must be adjusted to avoid toxic levels. B) The half-life of a medication is the time it takes for the serum concentration of that chemical to decrease by 100%. C) Medications that are unstable at low pH are typically given by intravenous or intramuscular injection. D) A medication with a half-life of over 24 hours is taken only once a day or less. E) A medication that has a very short half-life usually needs to be taken several times a day.

B) The half-life of a medication is the time it takes for the serum concentration of that chemical to decrease by 100%. - it's by 50%

A number of viruses often include a similar set of symptoms when they cause an infectious disease state (fever, headache, fatigue, runny nose). Why would they all cause the same symptoms if they're different viruses? A) They all possess the same basic virulence genes and molecules, so they all trigger the same responses. B) The symptoms are associated with the immune system's response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves. Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar. C) Most viruses infect the upper respiratory tract. This leads to the common set of symptoms listed above. Only a few viruses infect areas away from this region. D) Viruses specifically infect mainly epithelial membranes. As such, the virally induced reaction is similar in different areas of the body due to the same basic cell types (epithelial cells) being infected in each area. E) All animal viruses must attach to and enter host cells. Since this step in the life cycle is identical in all viruses, the signs and symptoms that follow will also be identical.

B) The symptoms are associated with the immune system's response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves. Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar.

Which statement about skin and mucous membranes is NOT correct? A) They are the first line of innate immunity. B) They are the first line of adaptive immunity. C) They act as physical barriers to infection. D) They contain antimicrobial secretions. E) They separate us from our environment.

B) They are the first line of adaptive immunity.

Which is/are TRUE of viruses? A) They may suppress the production of MHC class II molecules. B) They may prevent induction of host cell apoptosis. C) They may bind to MHC class II antigens. D) They may produce an MHC class III mimic molecules. E) They are facultative intracellular parasites.

B) They may prevent induction of host cell apoptosis. slide 58 - they may suppress the production of MHC class I molecules - intracellular antigens, avoiding Tc cells.

Is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell? A) No, it ISN'T a good strategy. Host cells could use an alternative receptor and shut down production of the main receptor. The microbe would not have anything to attach to and the cell would thus prevent infection. B) Yes, it IS a good strategy. If it's a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn't have an alternative receptor to switch to, so even though that receptor makes the cell susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there. This benefits the microbe. C) No, it ISN'T a good strategy. Microbes need to evade detection and elimination by the immune system. If they adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function, they are less likely to trigger destructive immune responses. This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation. D) No, it ISN'T a good strategy. By binding to receptors, the microbes will be phagocytosed by cells and destroyed within them, thus failing to infect the host cell. E) Yes, it IS a good strategy. If the microbe attaches to a critical receptor, the host cell will be forced to try to rid itself of the pathogen. One way it can do this is to phagocytose the pathogen, thereby taking it into its own nucleus, which benefits the pathogen.

B) Yes, it IS a good strategy. If it's a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn't have an alternative receptor to switch to, so even though that receptor makes the cell susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there. This benefits the microbe.

B) adhesins; receptors

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are: A) energetic. B) antagonistic. C) additive. D) synergistic. E) commensal.

B) antagonistic. Not synergistic and not antagonistic then it's additive. You get the effects of both just added, not more like in synergistic or less like in antagonistic. slide 15

An immune complex is defined as: A) antigen combined with antigen. B) antigen combined with antibody. C) antibody combined with antibody. D) complement combined with LPS. E) complement bound to neutrophils.

B) antigen combined with antibody.

The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must: A) invade host tissues. B) attach to host cells. C) evade phagocytes. D) produce toxins. E) cause apoptosis.

B) attach to host cells.

Your patient has brought her 2-year old in to see you because he has a bad cold. The child has leukemia and is receiving chemotherapy, and until relatively recently has been immunocompromised, although he is currently stable. You give the mother advice on what to do for her child's illness, and they leave your office. The next child you see also has the signs and symptoms of what appears to be a cold, but on further examination you discover that she has a fever of 39.8oC. She also has a rash and when you look at her throat, you notice small white spots called Koplik's spot. These are diagnostic for measles, caused by measles virus. You question the child's parent and discover that the child has not received her MMRV vaccine. You are very concerned about the child with leukemia who was in your office before you saw the measles patient. You know that the two children had been in the same waiting room for at least 20 minutes and that measles is a highly contagious disease. You also know that the patient with cancer has not received his MMRV vaccine because: A) attenuated vaccines that contain fully virulent pathogens, and thus poses a significant risk to immunocompromised people who cannot fight off any microbial infection. B) attenuated vaccines contain live but weakened disease agents; these may occasionally mutate to become pathogenic again, so there is some risk in giving these vaccines to immunocompromised people. C) all vaccines are dangerous because of the adjuvants and additives in them, and should only be given to people who are at significant risk of life-threatening diseases such as rabies. D) measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella are very mild childhood diseases that pose no risk; the leukemia child's immune system is already overwhelmed by fighting that cancer. E) the child with leukemia is only two, which is way too young to receive too many vaccines; he should probably only get the MMR vaccine before he goes away to college.

B) attenuated vaccines contain live but weakened disease agents; these may occasionally mutate to become pathogenic again, so there is some risk in giving these vaccines to immunocompromised people.

Apparently healthy people who may transmit a pathogen they harbor are called: A) vectors. B) carriers. C) fomites. D) vehicles. E) arthropods.

B) carriers. Asymptomatic carriers can shed pathogenic particles in the incubation period or when they aren't experiencing any signs/symptoms of illness. One way nosocomial infections can be spread by healthcare workers.

The complement pathway that requires antibodies to be activated is the: A) alternate pathway. B) classical pathway. C) properdin pathway. D) inflammatory pathway. E) lectin pathway.

B) classical pathway

Your class decides to celebrate the last day of spring break by having a picnic. You arrange to meet at your local park and everyone agrees to bring a dish of food to the event. On the day, there is a wide variety of things to eat, but the snack that everyone agreed was the best was the hot chicken wings made by Paul. Almost everyone ate at least two to three wings. The picnic was a huge success. The next morning you wake up feeling awful. You have a low grade fever and you have both vomiting and diarrhea. You call your friend Susan to tell her you won't make it to class that day and to please take good notes, which she promises to do. About 20 minutes later, Susan calls you back and tells you that three other people have also called her and are experiencing the same symptoms as you. You realize that you must have all eaten something at the picnic that is causing your illness. After finding out that none of the vegetarians or vegans in the class are ill, you figure out that it was likely a meat product. The situation described in this case study is an example of a(n): A) propagated epidemic, because one student became ill, followed by others over several days. B) common-source epidemic, because several students became ill in the same time frame. C) propagated epidemic, because several students became ill in the same time frame. D) epidemic, because one student became ill and then spread the causative organism to many others. E) cohort study, because there was a group of students all affected by the same pathogen.

B) common-source epidemic, because several students became ill in the same time frame.

The Salk vaccine: A) contains live attenuated virus. B) contains inactivated virus. C) contains a portion of the polio virus. D) occasionally causes disease. E) is a DNA-based vaccine.

B) contains inactivated virus. - inactivated whole agent vaccines include influenza, rabies and the Salk polio vaccine (text says HepA too).

Important sources of contamination in crowded locations are: A) droplets of blood. B) droplets of saliva or mucus. C) restrooms. D) kitchen surfaces. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

B) droplets of saliva or mucus. Think about it: a lot of people, everyone breathes, some sneeze, cough, spit, etc and in a crowded place? Contamination waiting to happen.

The peptides presented by MHC class II peptide molecules are: A) from plasma cells. B) exogenous antigens. C) endogenous antigens. D) from T helper cells. E) antibodies.

B) exogenous antigens. MHC class I present endogenous antigens.

The serology test that may show the antigen-antibody complex as yellow-green under the microscope while using an ultraviolet light is known as the: A) Western blot. B) fluorescent antibody test. C) ELISA test. D) agglutination test. E) the Ouchterlony test.

B) fluorescent antibody test.

Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are: A) vectors. B) fomites. C) vehicles. D) reservoirs. E) arthropods.

B) fomites.

The immunity of some black Africans to malaria is probably due to their A) general health. B) genetic background. C) cultural practices. D) age. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

B) genetic background. They don't have the receptors on their RBCs needed for binding by the Plasmodium species that causes malaria.

Precipitation reactions carried out in agarose are called: A) hemagglutination tests. B) immunodiffusion tests. C) complement fixation tests. D) ELISA tests. E) disc diffusion assays.

B) immunodiffusion tests. - used for the detection of antigen (direct) or antibodies (indirect).

A young couple brings their 3-month old baby to the emergency department where you work as a triage nurse. The parents tell you that the baby had a runny nose, low grade fever, and mild cough two days earlier, which they assumed was a cold. However, the cough has become significantly worse and they are really worried about the gasping sound the child makes when breathing in after a coughing spell. The baby's cough is so bad that she has been vomiting and is refusing to feed. You are concerned that the baby has pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough. You give the parents some information while they are waiting for a physician to examine their child. The parents tell you that their baby has already had a DTaP vaccine and that they thought this would protect the child from pertussis. You explain that this vaccine is given in a series and that with each shot in the series, the child's immunity will increase. You explain that while their baby was born with ________ immunity, she only started to develop ________ immunity after birth, so is still vulnerable to certain infections such as pertussis. A) adaptive; innate B) innate; adaptive C) cell-mediated; humoral D) humoral; cell-mediated E) cell-mediated; B-cell

B) innate; adaptive

Adhesins are: A) involved in the first step of the infectious process AND are endotoxins. B) involved in the first step of the infectious process AND are often found at the tip of pili. C) often found at the tip of pili AND are endotoxins. D) exotoxins AND are involved in the first step of the infectious process. E) are exotoxins OR are endotoxins.

B) involved in the first step of the infectious process AND are often found at the tip of pili.

You are about to graduate as a RN. Your final term project is to prepare a presentation on HIV/AIDS. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus—it is an enveloped single-stranded virus that has duplicate copies of a single-stranded RNA genome. All retroviruses encode reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA genome as a template to make a complementary DNA strand. HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most important are the helper T cells (also called CD4 cells)—the virus infects these cells and causes their death; their numbers slowly decline until the immune system can no longer resist infections or tumor development. You give your presentation to the class and are asked by your professor at the end of the session to answer some questions that your peers have on diagnosing HIV. One of your peers asks you to explain the term immunoassay. You tell him that it: A) is an in vivo test in which known antibodies or antigens are used to detect or quantify given antibodies or antigens. B) is an in vitro test in which known antibodies or antigens are used to detect or quantify given antibodies or antigens. C) is the study of in vitro antibody-antigen reactions, particularly those that detect antibodies in serum. D) is an in vitro test that uses unlabeled antibodies to detect a very common antigen in a sample. E) is an in vitro test in which unknown antigens are used to detect unknown antibodies.

B) is an in vitro test in which known antibodies or antigens are used to detect or quantify given antibodies or antigens. in vitro = (of a process) performed or taking place in a test tube, culture dish, or elsewhere outside a living organism.

The threat of bioterrorism: A) is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND has prompted WHO to prepare a readiness plan. B) is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND may include rarely seen infectious agents. C) is exaggerated in light of the efficiency of our healthcare system AND has prompted WHO to prepare a readiness plan. D) has prompted the CDC to prepare a readiness plan AND is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases. E) has prompted the WHO to prepare a readiness plan, may include rarely seen infectious agents, AND is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases.

B) is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND may include rarely seen infectious agents.

The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a: A) protein. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) nucleic acid. D) lipid. E) carbohydrate.

B) lipopolysaccharide. Lipopolysaccharide in the outer layer of gram negative microorganisms = endotoxin

2) A feature that may be found in viruses but never in bacteria is A) the ability to pass through 0.22 micrometer pore filters. B) may contain an RNA genome. C) they cannot reproduce themselves outside a host. D) a sensitivity to antibiotics. E) an ability to infect more than one type of host.

B) may contain an RNA genome.

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the: A) infectious effective dose. B) minimum inhibitory concentration. C) lethal dose. D) most effective concentration. E) minimal death dose.

B) minimum inhibitory concentration. MIC. Find via serial dilutions, use to create pate counts to find the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC).

Virulent pathogens are: A) more likely to cause disease. B) more likely to cause severe disease. C) unable to cause disease. D) more likely to be opportunists. E) most likely normal microbiota.

B) more likely to cause severe disease - if pathogens cause disease then virulent pathogens -> severe disease

The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called: A) abnormal microbiota. B) normal microbiota. C) transient microbiota. D) variant microbiota. E) random biota.

B) normal microbiota. Can be Resident, Transient, Opportunistic...

Herd immunity: A) only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune. B) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune. C) only provides protection to those that are already immune. D) is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases. E) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.

B) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune. - develops when a critical portion of the population is immune to the disease; infectious agent unable to spread due to insufficient susceptible hosts.

In 1918-1919, an influenza virus infected about 500 million people worldwide, killing at least 50 million of them. This disease is best described as a(n) ________. A) epidemic B) pandemic C) outbreak D) sporadic outbreak E) endemic disease.

B) pandemic Did you see the WORLDWIDE part?

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed: A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) independence. D) mutualism. E) normal microbiota.

B) parasitism.

The vaccine that is stable to heat, has little unwanted material and causes minimal side effects is called a(n): A) inactive vaccine. B) peptide vaccine. C) active vaccine. D) toxoid. E) lipid vaccine.

B) peptide vaccine - my chapter slides just say 'key antigenic peptides from pathogens' A peptide vaccine is any peptide which serves to immunize an organism against a pathogen. Peptide vaccine are often synthetic and mimic naturally occurring proteins from pathogens.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Initially, GC was treated with penicillin, which targets ________, and tetracycline which targets ________. A) protein synthesis; peptidoglycan synthesis B) peptidoglycan synthesis; protein synthesis C) protein synthesis; capsule formation D) capsule formation; ergesterol formation E) cell membrane integrity; folic acid synthesis

B) peptidoglycan synthesis; protein synthesis

Only antigen presenting cells: A) produce MHC class I molecules. B) produce MHC class II molecules. C) produce antibodies. D) activate cytotoxic T cells. E) activate regulatory T cells.

B) produce MHC class II molecules. All nucleated cells make MHC class I so APCs have both MHC class I and II on their surface.

The natural habitat of a pathogen is referred to as its: A) home. B) reservoir. C) primary inhabitance. D) infectious site. E) place.

B) reservoir. Possible reservoirs = people, animals and the environment.

The reservoir of infection for botulism and tetanus is: A) humans. B) soil. C) water. D) animals. E) soil AND water.

B) soil. Soil can act as an environmental reservoir. Hard to eliminate when in the soil...

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce: A) penicillin. B) sulfanilamide. C) erythromycin. D) Salvarsan. E) Salvarsan AND penicillin.

B) sulfanilamide. Penicillin was an incidental observation of mold, not synthesized in a lab. Domagk discovered that a red dye called Prontosil could be used to treat streptococcal infections in animals. The Prontosil had no effect ion streptococci in test tubes. Why? Enzymes in blood split the Prontosil molecules producing a smaller molecule = sulfanilamide, which acts against the infecting streptococci. The discery of sulfanilamide -> first of the class of sulfa drugs was luck + science.

Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens: A) are usually saprophyte, like fungi. B) take advantage of special circumstances. C) are usually mutualistic. D) always cause disease. E) are never normal microbiota.

B) take advantage of special circumstances. slide 19

The damage caused by parasites may be due to all of the following EXCEPT: A) competition for nutrients. B) the parasite's immune response. C) the physical blocking of organs. D) the direct digestion of host tissue. E) the host's immune response.

B) the parasite's immune response.

The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called: A) abnormal microbiota. B) transient microbiota. C) variant microbiota. D) normal microbiota. E) random biota.

B) transient microbiota.

B) viral nucleic acid synthesis.

Antiviral drugs may target all of the following EXCEPT: A) viral uncoating. B) viral ribosomes. C) nucleic acid synthesis. D) viral assembly. E) viral entry.

B) viral ribosomes.

Diseases that primarily exist in animals, but may be transmitted to humans are called: A) parasitic. B) zoonotic. C) symbiotic. D) epidemic. E) commensal.

B) zoonotic. = zoonoses

Toxoids are used in vaccines against: A) Haemophilus influenza type b. B) diphtheria. C) herpes simplex type I. D) polio. E) diphtheria AND herpes simplex type I.

B. - inactivated, Toxoid vaccines - takes off toxin part, leaves epitomes alone, diphtheria and tetnus

Which of the following microbes, a leading cause of pneumonia in the United States, is of growing concern due to increased resistance to penicillin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Enterobacteriaceae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

34. What instrument is most effective for pressure-temperature sterilization? A. oven B. autoclave C. water bath D. Bunsen burner E. incubator

B. autoclave

30. Placing organisms at 4 C is A. bacteriocidal. B. bacteriostatic. C. decontamination. D. sterilization. E. None of the choices is correct.

B. bacteriostatic

47. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for mucous membrane irrigation, obstetrical washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is A. carbolic acid. B. chlorhexidine. C. triclosan. D. formalin. E. quarternary ammonium compounds.

B. chlorhexidine

9. The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms from inanimate objects is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. degerming.

B. disinfection

40. Which of the following forms of radiation is in order from the most penetrating to the least penetrating? A. gamma, cathode, X rays B. gamma, X rays, cathode C. cathode, gamma, X ray D. cathode, X ray, gamma E. X ray, gamma, cathode

B. gamma, X rays, cathode

52. Heavy metals work by A. rupturing the cell membrane. B. inactivating proteins. C. binding to DNA. D. dissolving the cell wall. E. mutating DNA.

B. inactivating proteins

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis? A. the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit B. interference with alanine-alanine bridges C. the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit D. movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next E. the tRNA docking site

B. interference with alanine-alanine bridges

The causative agent of whooping cough is: A) parvovirus. B) M. pneumoniae. C) B. pertussis. D) S. aureus. E) W. pertussis.

B. pertussis. Bordatella pertussis - tiny G- rod with capsule, aerobic - sensitive to sunlight, drying, quickly dies outside host

58. Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method? A. bleaching a kitchen counter B. salting meat C. rinsing a cut with Betadine D. Both bleaching a kitchen counter and rinsing a cut with Betadine are correct.

B. salting meat

2. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores on inanimate objects is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

B. sterilization

27. The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the A. thermal death point (TDP). B. thermal death time (TDT). C. sporicidal time. D. death phase point. E. None of the choices is correct.

B. thermal death time (TDT)

37. _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers. A. Infrared B. Ultraviolet C. Gamma D. Particle E. Ionizing

B. ultraviolet

8. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are \ A. prions. B. vegetative bacteria and fungi. C. endospores. D. protozoan cysts. E. mycobacteria and staphylococci.

B. vegetative bacteria and fungi

Presenters on the morning news channel that you watch alert consumers to a food recall. A particular brand of ice cream has tested positive for Listeria monocytogenes, an organism that causes asymptomatic or relatively mild disease in otherwise healthy individuals, but can be problematic in pregnant women. Your sister is expecting her first child, so you call her immediately and tell her about the recall. You fill her in on what you know about this organism and the disease it causes, having just learned about it yourself in your pre-nursing microbiology class. Your sister has questions that you are able to answer. Why is listeriosis so important in pregnant women even though it usually causes them few symptoms? Listeriosis causes significant signs and symptoms in pregnant women and may prove fatal because they cannot take medication while pregnant. Bacteremia commonly occurs, resulting in infection of the fetus; miscarriage, stillbirth, or infection of the newborn can result. Listeriosis suppresses the woman's immune system; she fails to make IgG that would protect her fetus. Listeriosis in a pregnant woman usually leads to untreatable meningitis. Neither she nor her fetus is able to survive the infection. Infants born with listeriosis are sensitized against the foods in which the causative agent is found, such as soft cheeses. They can never eat these foods.

Bacteremia commonly occurs, resulting in infection of the fetus; miscarriage, stillbirth, or infection of the newborn can result.

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?' A. Bacteremia is an infection with bacteria. Septicemia is an infection with Septic protozoans. B. Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. C. Septicemia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Bacteremia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. D. There is no difference-both terms denote the presence of living bacterial cells in the bloodstream.

Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?' Bacteremia is an infection with bacteria. Septicemia is an infection with Septic protozoans. Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. Septicemia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Bacteremia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. There is no difference-both terms denote the presence of living bacterial cells in the bloodstream.

Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents.

Next is Genital System Diseases

Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) - bacterial Vulvovaginal Candidiasis (VVC) fungal Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (bacterial - toxin)

Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be all of the following EXCEPT Bacteroides. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages. Clostridia. bacteriophages. Enterococci.

Bacteroides. p.794

Bartonella henselae; local lymph node enlargement

An early contributor to the understanding of nitrogen fixation was Hooke. Pasteur. Winogradsky. Beijerinck

Beijerinck

Above this is all correct (I know because they were mine.)

Below - did my best to make sure.

What is the difference between biostimulation and bioaugmentation? Biostimulation is a bioremediation process designed to remove pollutants from an environment. Bioaugmentation is a method used in laboratories to promote the growth of fastidious microbes. Biostimulation generally occurs in situ and is less disruptive while bioaugmentation is performed off site using a bioreactor, a large tank designed to accelerate microbial processes. Bioaugmentation enhances the growth of local microbes in a contaminated site by providing additional nutrients while biostimulation relies on activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population. Biostimulation is a method of degrading environmental pollutants while bioaugmentation is a method of supplementing microbial populations in landfills and composters. Biostimulation enhances the growth of local microbes in a contaminated site by providing additional nutrients while bioaugmentation relies on activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population.

Biostimulation enhances the growth of local microbes in a contaminated site by providing additional nutrients while bioaugmentation relies on activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population.

Which of the following about bacterial cystitis is false? a) About one-third of all women will have it at some time during their life. b) Catheterization of the bladder markedly increases the risk of contracting the disease. c) Individuals who have a bladder catheter in place indefinitely risk bladder infections with multiple species of intestinal bacteria at the same time. d) Bladder infections occur as often in men as they do in women.

Bladder infections occur as often in men as they do in women. SO MUCH more common in women.

You go hiking in the woods with some of your classmates. A few days after the hike, your friend Alice calls to tell you she is not feeling well and that she is going to skip soccer practice that evening. She says she has a weird rash on her leg and wonders if she was bitten by a spider while your were hiking. She sends you a photo of the rash. You are in your final semester of nursing school and have recently studied disease of the cardiovascular system. You think that the rash that Alice has is a sign of Lyme disease, and offer to take her to the urgent care to get medical help. While you are waiting to see a clinician, you review answer Alice's questions about Lyme disease. Lyme disease is a zoonosis with humans being an accidental host. What does this mean? Borrelia bergdorferi is transmitted to animals from humans AND the bacterium cannot complete its life cycle in humans. Borrelia bergdorferi is found predominantly in zoo animals AND the tick vector cannot complete its life cycle in humans. Borrelia bergdorferi is found predominantly in zoo animals AND the bacterium cannot complete its life cycle in humans. Borrelia bergdorferi is found predominantly in zoo animals AND humans are not the normal host for the tick vector. Borrelia bergdorferi is transmitted to humans from animals AND humans are not the normal host for the tick vector.

Borrelia bergdorferi is transmitted to humans from animals AND humans are not the normal host for the tick vector. Correct Borrelia burgdorferi - bacteria- Gram negative, microaerophilic spirochete with many plamsids and a chromosome that is linear and present in multiple copies

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.

Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi: large, Gram-negative, microaerophilic spirochete with multiple copies of linear chromosome - Also contains numerous circular and linear plasmids with genes usually found on bacterial chromosomes

Select the TRUE statement regarding staphylococci and staphylococcal wound infections. Staphylococcus epidermidis produces several virulence factors, including exotoxins. Some S. epidermisis strains produce superantigens that activate many helper T cells, causing a cytokine storm. Staphylococcus aureus forms biofilms but lacks virulence factors and is not very pathogenic. S. aureus and S. epidermidis are both coagulase-positive, encapsulated organisms. Both HA-MRSA and CA-MRSA are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including sulfa drugs and tetracyclines.

Both HA-MRSA and CA-MRSA are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including sulfa drugs and tetracyclines.

You are looking after your sister's cat Singa. While playing one evening, Singa accidentally bites you instead of the toy mouse you are holding. The bite wound is very small but is in the fleshy part of your hand. You wash the wound, which is not bleeding much, and put a band aid on it. The next day, your whole hand is red, swollen, and painful, and some lymph nodes in your arm are enlarged and tender. You call your sister, who is an RN. She urges you to go to the doctor, telling you that animal bites can sometimes be infected, and that if that is the case, you will need treatment before the infection gets any worse.You are given a prescription for both a penicillin derivative AND a β-lactamase inhibitor. Why are you given these medications? Both P. multicoda and B. henselae produce β-lactamases. They are thus treated with β-lactamase-inhibiting medications. In addition, skin microbiota such as S. epidermidis respond to penicillins. Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Streptobacillus moniliformis. The causative organisms of cat bite infections and bartonellosis are not well characterized. For this reason, penicillin derivatives and inhibitors of these medications are given synergistically. Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus. Both P. multicoda and B. henselae are encapsulated, so respond well to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus. p.616 Correct

Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis? Brucella sp. Staphylococcus aureus Francisella tularensis Mycobacterium tuberculosis Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis Brucellosis - Brucella sp. prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion Tularemia - Francisella tularemia escape from the phagosome TB - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - mycolic acids in the bacterial cell wall prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion, bacteria leaves the phagosome, multiplies in cytoplasm. p.553

How does F. tularensis avoid the immune system? By escaping from the macrophage phagolysosome AND by producing streptokinases. By having altered surface components AND by destroying lymphocytes. By synthesizing a large polysaccharide capsule AND by escaping the macrophage phagolysosome. By having altered surface components AND by escaping the macrophage phagolysosome. By synthesizing a large polysaccharide capsule AND by degrading complement component C3b.

By having altered surface components AND by escaping the macrophage phagolysosome. p.676 Correct

Why would the use of a known, reliable starter culture improve the safety of fermented meat products? a) We need to be very careful which microbes are introduced into a food product. Some microbes can interact with microbes already present in the food, producing toxins and toxic byproducts that might harm human beings. b) By using pure starter cultures, we KNOW what we're adding in, and how much. We can control the microbial fermentation precisely to best prepare the food product. c) It doesn't. All fermented meat products are inherently unsafe since we can't determine what fermentation products are left behind in the food. Some of them may be toxic. d) It doesn't. Every fermenting microbe ferments the same way, producing the same products. Whatever we start with, the outcome is the same.

By using pure starter cultures, we KNOW what we're adding in, and how much. We can control the microbial fermentation precisely to best prepare the food product.

Why would a person who has their tonsils removed be more susceptible to certain types of infections of the throat and respiratory tract? A) Tonsils are primary lymphoid organs found in the oral cavity that produce high levels of lactoferrin and transferrin; these are strong natural antibacterial compounds that protect the lungs. B) Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs found in the oral cavity that produce large amounts of interferons; these are natural antiviral compounds that protect the respiratory tract. C) Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs; they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas. D) Tonsils are the location where T cells develop and mature. Without them, a person won't have T cells, and will be more likely to suffer from infections that would normally be eliminated by such cells. E) Tonsils are primary lymphoid organs; they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the gut, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas.

You explain to your patient the role of cytotoxic T cells in immunity, telling her that: A) TC cells induce apoptosis in infected "self" cells. B) TC produce antibodies AND TC destroy cancerous "self" cells. C) TC destroy cancerous "self" cells AND TC cells induce apoptosis in infected "self" cells. D) TC cells activate B cells AND TC cells induce apoptosis in infected "self" cells. E) TC cells activate B cells and macrophages AND TC cells produce antibodies AND TC destroy cancerous "self" cells

Your first patient of the day is complaining of pain in the area of his new tattoo. When you examine the tattoo, you note that the area around it is firm, red, and swollen. There is no evidence of pus, and your patient has a normal pulse, and no fever. You tell your patient that you have seen this type of response to a tattoo before, and that it is called a granulomatous reaction. You give him more information on the condition. Your patient doesn't understand all of the cell names that you have used. You educate him on the role of each cell type. One cell type that plays a role in adaptive immunity rather than innate immunity. Which cell is this? A) Neutrophils—type of phagocytic cell in the blood that quickly move to infected tissues, where they engulf and destroy invading microbes. B) Macrophages—type of phagocytic cell that resides in tissues, engulfing invaders and debris, and producing pro-inflammatory cytokines. C) Dendritic cells—antigen-presenting cells that "show" antigens to T cells, playing an essential role in their activation. D) Eosinophils—primary role is to rid the body of parasitic worms; also involved in allergy. E) Mast cells—tissue cells that are important in the inflammatory response and immediate allergic reactions.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. Ellie doesn't understand why it is important as to whether a woman has a first or subsequent exposure to a pathogen such as T. gondii when she is pregnant. You explain to her the difference between a primary and a secondary immune response. Which of the following would you NOT say to her? A) When memory B cells become activated, some quickly differentiate to form plasma cells, resulting in the rapid production of antibodies. IgG crosses the placenta and protects the fetus. B) In the first (primary) exposure to an antigen, it takes about 10 to 14 days for a significant concentration of antibodies to accumulate. IgM is made, followed by IgG. C) The second exposure to an antigen, which characterizes the memory of adaptive immunity, causes rapid production of relatively large quantities of IgM but no IgG. D) If the same antigen is encountered later in life, a stronger antigen-specific adaptive immune response occurs, called the secondary response. Large amounts of IgG are made. E) The first adaptive immune response to an antigen is the primary response; effector cells and memory cells are formed as a result of this initial encounter.

Large respiratory droplets typically travel no farther from point of release than: A) 3 meters. B) 5 meters. C) 1 meter. D) 20 meters. E) 12 inches.

C) 1 meter.

Why is a false positive more significant in HIV testing of patients than in screening donated blood for transfusions? A) It isn't—both are equally dangerous/significant. False positives in people can lead to psychological trauma, but false positives in blood could lead to the useful blood being discarded. B) A false positive in a person is easily re-testable. This makes it more significant, because we would simply quickly retest the person to verify their actual HIV status. C) A false positive in blood is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status. D) This statement is backwards. False positives in blood testing are more significant. If the false positive rate is high, we're more likely to discard useful blood that may lead to acute blood shortages for patients needing transfusions. E) This question is misleading because like all immunological testing, the HIV test is infallible and there is absolutely no possibility of false positive results.

C) A false positive in blood is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status.

Which of the following is NOT a political/societal reason for a decrease in rates of childhood immunizations? A) Distrust of the healthcare body administering the vaccinations. B) Distrust of the government funding the vaccination process. C) A lack of a proper "cold chain" for stable transport of vaccines into tropical areas. D) Distrust of the scientific community advocating for administration of vaccines. E) Lack of awareness of the seriousness of diseases such as pertussis.

C) A lack of a proper "cold chain" for stable transport of vaccines into tropical areas.

A young couple brings their 3-month old baby to the emergency department where you work as a triage nurse. The parents tell you that the baby had a runny nose, low grade fever, and mild cough two days earlier, which they assumed was a cold. However, the cough has become significantly worse and they are really worried about the gasping sound the child makes when breathing in after a coughing spell. The baby's cough is so bad that she has been vomiting and is refusing to feed. You are concerned that the baby has pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough. You give the parents some information while they are waiting for a physician to examine their child. You are very concerned about your patient because you know that B. pertussis releases three toxins that play a role in disease progression. One of these, pertussis toxin (PT) is an A-B toxin that causes an increase in mucus production by cells in the respiratory tract. The parents ask you to explain what you mean by an A-B toxin. Which of the following would you NOT tell them? A) Exotoxins are proteins, so the immune system can generally produce neutralizing antibodies against them. B) A-B toxins consist of two parts: the A subunit is the toxic (active) portion and the B subunit binds to a specific surface molecule on cells. C) A-B toxins are exotoxins that are produced by Gram-positive cells but not by Gram-negative cells. D) Epithelial cells of the respiratory system possess receptors to which the B portion of PT can bind. E) A vaccine that protects against toxin-mediated disease are call toxoids; these vaccines contain inactivated toxins.

C) A-B toxins are exotoxins that are produced by Gram-positive cells but not by Gram-negative cells. Table 16.2 - exotoxins can be made by BOTH G+ and G- bacteria.

Who is credited with first observing microorganisms? A) Robert Koch B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Carolus Linnaeus E) Louis Pasteur

C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek Made his own 300x microscope and say "animalcules" in pond water.

Antibodies are made by: A) red blood cells. B) macrophages. C) B cells/plasma cells. D) T cells. E) all leukocytes.

C) B cells/plasma cells

Your class decides to celebrate the last day of spring break by having a picnic. You arrange to meet at your local park and everyone agrees to bring a dish of food to the event. On the day, there is a wide variety of things to eat, but the snack that everyone agreed was the best was the hot chicken wings made by Paul. Almost everyone ate at least two to three wings. The picnic was a huge success. The next morning you wake up feeling awful. You have a low grade fever and you have both vomiting and diarrhea. You call your friend Susan to tell her you won't make it to class that day and to please take good notes, which she promises to do. About 20 minutes later, Susan calls you back and tells you that three other people have also called her and are experiencing the same symptoms as you. You realize that you must have all eaten something at the picnic that is causing your illness. After finding out that none of the vegetarians or vegans in the class are ill, you figure out that it was likely a meat product. Some populations more than others are likely to be affected by a given pathogen. Many population characteristics influence the occurrence of disease. Which of the following MOST likely explains why some students at the picnic did not get ill? A) Herd immunity, that protects non-immune people from an infectious agent—the agent cannot spread in a population because most potential hosts are immune. Most students were probably immune to the foodborne pathogen. B) Age, because the immune system starts to weaken after childhood, and consequently people are vulnerable to certain diseases when they reach adulthood. The younger students in the group remained healthy. C) Behavioral practices, that significantly influence the rate and type of disease transmission; in this case the vegetarians and vegans remained healthy, suggesting that not eating meat protected them from the pathogen. D) Gender, because females are always more likely than males to acquire gastrointestinal diseases due to differences in their gut normal microbiota populations. The students who got ill were all female. E) None of these factors explain the outcome of the picnic

C) Behavioral practices, that significantly influence the rate and type of disease transmission; in this case the vegetarians and vegans remained healthy, suggesting that not eating meat protected them from the pathogen.

Please select the CORRECT definition regarding interactions between hosts and microbes. A) Immunocompetent—having a weakness or defect in the innate or adaptive defenses. B) Parasitism—relationship between two organisms in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected. C) Dysbiosis—an imbalance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. D) Secondary infection—infection in a previously healthy person, such as measles in a child who has not had measles before. E) Fc receptors—molecule that binds the antigen-binding region of an antibody.

C) Dysbiosis—an imbalance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. A is immunocompromised, B is Commensalism.

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for HIV by using the: A) complement fixation test. B) agglutination test. C) ELISA method. D) Ouchterlony test. E) light microscope.

C) ELISA method. The Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is a technique used to detect antibodies or infectious agents in a sample. - Western Blot more reliable.

You are about to graduate as a RN. Your final term project is to prepare a presentation on HIV/AIDS. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus—it is an enveloped single-stranded virus that has duplicate copies of a single-stranded RNA genome. All retroviruses encode reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA genome as a template to make a complementary DNA strand. HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most important are the helper T cells (also called CD4 cells)—the virus infects these cells and causes their death; their numbers slowly decline until the immune system can no longer resist infections or tumor development. You give your presentation to the class and are asked by your professor at the end of the session to answer some questions that your peers have on diagnosing HIV. You explain to the class that ELISA tests may be direct or indirect. Please select the FALSE statement regarding these tests. A) In direct ELISAs, specific antigens in the sample are "captured" by antibodies that have been attached to the inside surface of the well B) ELISAs have advantages over other common immunoassays in that they are easy to do and often require minimal technical skills. C) ELISA tests are 100% accurate; unlike other immunoassays, ELISAs never yield false positive results, so additional testing is not required. D) ELISA tests are often done in microtiter plates, allowing multiple samples to be tested all at once. E) Indirect ELISAs require a labeled secondary antibody to detect the unlabeled first (primary) antibody.

C) ELISA tests are 100% accurate; unlike other immunoassays, ELISAs never yield false positive results, so additional testing is not required. - see question 70

In two of Koch's postulates (#2 and #3), a pure culture of the organism is required. Which of the following would NOT be a possible consequence of using a contaminated culture? A) You can't necessarily attribute the illness directly to the microbe in question; it may in fact be caused by the contaminating microbe. B) There's the possibility that the test animal might be acutely susceptible to the contaminating microbe, but completely resistant to the microbe you suspect causes the illness of interest. As such, when you introduce it into the test animal, it could confuse your final results. C) Even though there's a contaminating microbe present, as long as the original suspect microbe is also present, the disease should still manifest in test animals and the organism should still be recoverable from test animals. As such, there's really no consequence to using a contaminated culture. D) The problem is that one microbe may be toxic to the other. It may have killed all of your suspect microbe in the culture. Therefore, you can't be sure that you're infecting your test animals with the microbe you suspect is causing the illness, or if it's only the second (contaminating) microbe. E) These would all be consequences of using contaminated cultures.

C) Even though there's a contaminating microbe present, as long as the original suspect microbe is also present, the disease should still manifest in test animals and the organism should still be recoverable from test animals. As such, there's really no consequence to using a contaminated culture. - that last part, from 'As such...' was like a red flag.

Which of the following tests allows the separation of cells according to their sizes, densities, and surface markers tagged by specific fluorescentantibodies? A) Western blotting B) ELISA C) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter D) FA test on a microscope slide E) DNA gel electrophoresis

C) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter

In what clinical situation is it most appropriate to use a broad-spectrum antimicrobial? A) In an example of a viral pediatric otitis media (middle ear) infection. We can't properly test for the specific drug that would best eliminate the infection due to its location, so we use a broad-spectrum drug instead. B) In a case of viral meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. C) In a case of bacterial meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. D) In a case of Staphylococcus aureus skin infection. Since this microbe can be resistant to several types of drugs, we want to use one that has the broadest spectrum possible to treat this microbe-specific infection. E) There are no appropriate situations for using broad-spectrum antibiotics, because they almost always lead to resistance. It is much better to use a narrow-spectrum medication.

C) In a case of bacterial meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. Use a broad spectrum antimicrobial in acute, life-threatening cases when there is no time for a C&S (then do one and switch to a narrow spectrum if needed).

Which of the following is NOT true of artificially acquired passive immunity? A) It involves injecting a person with antibodies produced by other people or animals. B) It can be used to prevent disease immediately before or after likely exposure to a pathogen. C) It can be used to cure certain diseases. D) It can be used to limit the duration of certain diseases. E) It can be used to block the action of microbial toxins.

C) It can be used to cure certain diseases.

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by: A) Francesco Redi. B) John Needham. C) Louis Pasteur. D) Lazzaro Spallanzani. E) Rudolf Virchow.

C) Louis Pasteur. Made swan neck flasks, boiled broth and showed there was no 'vital force' in the air that created life, the broth would stay sterile even exposed to air if the microorganisms were filtered out and only when tipped to meet the filter would the broth cloud with growth.

Phagocytes were first discovered and named by A) Pasteur. B) Koch. C) Metchnikoff. D) Lister. E) Hooke.

C) Metchnikoff. - he was studying starfish larvae

Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the human body? A) Erythrocytes AND neutrophils B) Neutrophils AND megakaryocytes C) Neutrophils AND macrophages D) Megakaryocytes AND leukocytes E) Macrophages AND erythrocytes

C) Neutrophils AND macrophages - erythrocytes are red blood cells, megakaryocytes are where platelets come from, leukocytes means all the white blood cells and not all WBCs are phagocytes.

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is true? A) Viruses are usually about the same size as bacteria. B) Viruses possess enzymes for protein synthesis and ATP generation. C) The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach. D) Viruses contain both DNA and RNA, and they undergo binary fusion.

C) The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach.

Which of the following does NOT explain why a patient with Klebsiella pneumonia is more likely to die than one with pneumococcal pneumonia? A) Treatment options for Klebsiella pneumonia are limited because the causative agent is resistant to many antibiotics. Pneumococcal pneumonia can be treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. B) The causative agent of Klebsiella pneumonia is Gram-negative and may cause septic shock. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive bacterium so does not have endotoxin. C) The most severe types of Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented with the PPSV23 vaccine. There is no vaccine that protects against Klebsiella pneumonia. D) Klebsiella pneumoniae causes lung abscesses which may result in the death of the patient. Pneumococcal pneumonia does not result in permanent lung damage. E) All of these statements explain why Klebsiella pneumonia is more frequently fatal than pneumococcal pneumonia.

C) The most severe types of Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented with the PPSV23 vaccine. There is no vaccine that protects against Klebsiella pneumonia.

Which statement about complement proteins is FALSE? A) They may be activated through three different pathways. B) They disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells. C) They are part of the specific immune defense system. D) They are a group of blood proteins produced by the liver. E) They are part of the innate immune response.

C) They are part of the specific immune defense system.

What are two advantages of automated tests used to determine antimicrobial susceptibility? A) They are easier to perform. B) They produce results more quickly than conventional tests. C) They produce results more quickly than conventional tests AND they are easier to perform. D) They take longer to perform BUT they give fewer false results. E) They are cheaper than conventional tests AND they give more accurate results.

C) They produce results more quickly than conventional tests AND they are easier to perform.

Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection? A) Adherence B) Dose C) Toxicity D) Virulence factors E) None of these is important

C) Toxicity

What happens when a helper T cell is activated? A) Two populations of cells are formed: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells; the TH cells activate B cells and the TC cells target virus-infected cells. B) Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells produce a variety of antibodies. C) Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells. D) Two populations of cells are formed: effector TH cells and effector TC cells; these work together to activate B cells and macrophages. E) Activated TH cells produce cytokines that stimulate dendritic cells, converting them into antigen-presenting cells.

C) Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells.

A new serotype of Vibrio cholerae, V. cholerae 0139, has picked up the ability to produce: A) pili. B) flagella. C) a capsule. D) a toxin. E) endotoxin.

C) a capsule.

C) a type III secretion system. - injectisome, G- only.

Robert Koch identified the cause of: A) diphtheria. B) tuberculosis. C) anthrax. D) smallpox. E) AIDS.

C) anthrax.

Immunological tests may determine the presence of: A) only antibody. B) only antigen. C) antigen or antibody. D) neither antibody nor antigen. E) only IgG.

C) antigen or antibody. - immunological tests depend on antibody-antigen specificity - if you don't know one, you can use the known other to figure it out.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Azithromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that interferes with protein synthesis. Ceftriaxone is a β-lactam antibiotic and is primarily bactericidal. This means that: A) azithromycin kills bacterial cells while ceftriaxone inhibits the growth of bacterial cells. B) bacteria are sensitive to azithromycin but are resistant to ceftriaxone. C) azithromycin inhibits the growth of bacterial cells while ceftriaxone kills bacterial cells. D) bacteria are resistant to azithromycin but are susceptible to ceftriaxone. E) azithromycin can only be used against Gram-positive bacteria.

C) azithromycin inhibits the growth of bacterial cells while ceftriaxone kills bacterial cells.

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called: A) isolate usable. B) stress-induced. C) broad-spectrum. D) narrow-spectrum. E) intermediate.

C) broad-spectrum. slide 14

An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be: A) preventing encounters with phagocytes. B) avoid the killing effects of complement system proteins. C) changing the pilus type. D) surviving within a phagocyte. E) protease production.

C) changing the pilus type.

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of: A) antibiotics. B) toxins. C) chemotherapy. D) inhibitors. E) vaccination.

C) chemotherapy p.501 Salvarsan and Prontosil are chemotherapeuitc agents, meaning chemicals used to treat disease. Because they are used to treat microbial infections, they can also be called antimicrobial medications, antimicrobial drugs, or, more simply, antimicrobials.

If the number of people who become ill during an epidemic rises and falls rapidly, this is called a(n): A) propagated epidemic. B) promulgated epidemic. C) common source epidemic. D) index epidemic. E) contagious epidemic.

C) common source epidemic. Means all the cases come from people being exposed at the same time to the same source of infectious disease/pathogen. See question 9 for propagated epidemic

Schistosomiasis has increased in areas where: A) snails have become a delicacy. B) crayfish are eaten. C) dams have been built. D) swamps have been drained. E) people fish for sport.

C) dams have been built. Factors contributing to the emergence and re-emergence - Development: Dams extending range of schistosomiasis by increasing habitat for snail host.

An experimental study in which neither the doctor nor the patient knows who is getting the actual treatment is called a ________ study. A) single-sided B) double-sided C) double-blind D) double-barrier E) test-sided

C) double-blind Type of experimental test - used more for testing the effectiveness of drugs - actual drug and a placebo.

The interaction of all organisms within a biological community with their environment is called a(n): A) group. B) cluster. C) ecosystem. D) network. E) family.

C) ecosystem.

The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is: A) exocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) endocytosis. D) phagosome fusion. E) endofusion.

C) endocytosis.

A dramatic increase in the incidence of a specific disease in a given population is referred to as a(n): A) pandemic. B) endemic. C) epidemic. D) mortality. E) outburst.

C) epidemic.

Monoclonal antibodies: A) are usually of different classes. B) usually recognize several epitopes. C) have the same variable regions. D) are always IgE. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

C) have the same variable regions - they have the same constant and variable regions - all the same class, all recognize the same apitope - all are identical.

C) illness phase. - showing signs and symptoms of illness

The period of time between exposure to an agent and the onset of disease signs and symptoms is called the: A) prodromal phase. B) decline phase. C) incubation period. D) lag phase. E) carrier phase.

C) incubation period. - followed by illness, then by convelescence in an acute infection, by long period of illness in a chronic infection.

The amount of infecting agent received by susceptible individuals is called the: A) exposure. B) infectious number. C) infectious dose. D) infecting level. E) infective exposure.

C) infectious dose. Number of cells needed to be enough to cause an infection.

C) is composed of a weakened form of the pathogen that is generally unable to cause disease.

The infectious dose: A) is the same for all microorganisms. B) may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella. C) is defined as the number of microbes needed to cause infection. D) is defined as the number of microbes needed to kill the host. E) is the same for all bacteria but varies for viruses.

C) is defined as the number of microbes needed to cause infection. slide 20 - 10-100 cells of Shigella, 10^6 cells of Salmonella = infectious dose for these organisms.

C) it contains a nucleotide analog and a sugar.

Interferons, complement, lysozyme, and lactoferrin are all examples of: A) specific antimicrobial factors. B) immune enzymes. C) nonspecific antimicrobial factors. D) cytokines. E) antipeptides.

C) nonspecific antimicrobial factors.

An epidemic that spreads worldwide is called a(n): A) epidemical. B) endemic. C) pandemic. D) syndemic. E) plague.

C) pandemic. When an epidemic spreads over several continents - like AIDS has - it is called a pandemic. p.478

What are epitopes? A) parts of the antibody molecule B) T-cell receptors C) parts of an antigen recognized by an antibody D) B-cell receptors E) parts of an antibody recognized by an antigen

C) parts of an antigen recognized by an antibody

Vertical transmission involves: A) droplet transmission. B) fomites. C) pregnant woman to fetus. D) pasteurization. E) insect to human.

C) pregnant woman to fetus. Horizontal transmission is lateral, person to person, environment to person, transmission in any other way.

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically act on: A) peptidoglycan precursors. B) penicillin-binding proteins. C) ribosomes. D) porin proteins. E) transfer RNA.

C) ribosomes. The 30S and 50S of the bacterial 70S ribosome.

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called: A) anti-metabolic. B) catabolic. C) semi-synthetic. D) synthetic. E) semi-catabolic.

C) semi-synthetic.

Precipitation reactions depend on: A) the antigen having one epitope. B) the antibody having one epitope. C) the antigen having two or more epitopes. D) the antigen having no epitopes. E) the epitope have one or more antigens.

C) the antigen having two or more epitopes.

The spread of toxin via circulation is called ________. A) septicemia B) bacteremia C) toxemia D) sepsis E) viremia

C) toxemia

Giant cells are: A) a fusion of B cells. B) a fusion of T cells. C) used to contain bacterial infections. D) activated T helper cells. E) used to engulf very large pathogens.

C) used to contain bacterial infections.

The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called: A) Oriental poxination. B) humoral immunity. C) variolation. D) naturally acquired immunity. E) vacciolation.

C) variolation. E. Jenner - transferred cowpox materials from a milkmaid to a boy and then 6 wks later boy was exposed to but didn't get small pox - used this to spread the practice of variolation.

Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called: A) disease factors. B) colonization factors. C) virulence factors. D) mutualistic factors. E) pathogenic factors.

C) virulence factors. slide 18 - Virulence Factors = microbial components that contribute to the ability to cause disease in a susceptible host

All of the following are true about the term vaccination EXCEPT: A) is a general term that would include the process of variolation. B) was coined by Jenner. C) was coined by Pasteur and comes from the Latin for cow, variola. D) comes from the Latin for cow, vacca. E) was coined by Jenner and comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

C) was coined by Pasteur and comes from the Latin for cow, variola. GOT TO WONDER IF THIS IS OLD OLD BECAUSE VACCINATION WAS TERMED SUCH BY PASTEUR, NOT BY JENNER.

Attenuated agents are: A) dead viruses. B) toxins. C) weakened but replicating microbes. D) parts of an organism. E) weakened, nonreplicating microbes.

C) weakened but replicating microbes. - difference between attenuated and inactivated is that attenuated agents can still replicate. - attenuated cause a stronger immune response but can sometimes cause disease

15. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A. Cells die at increasingly greater rates. B. Only older cells die in a culture. C. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. D. Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time. E. Cells become metabolically inactive, but are never killed.

C. Cells in a culture die at constant rate.

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for AIDS by using the: A. complement fixation test. B. radioimmunoassay test. C. ELISA method. D. RIA test.

C. ELISA method.

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bind molecules on pathogens. Why is this helpful to the immune response? a) TLRs are capable of directly lysing (destroying) the microbes, helping our immune responses by eliminating pathogens. b) It provides a highly specific response to very small and highly unique areas on an individual pathogenic microbe, providing the most specific and selective response possible. c) It provides a general response to broad categories of molecules/cells that should NOT be in our system, as we don't have these molecules on our own cells. d) These secreted molecules help bind pathogens and then direct them to receptors on the immune system cells that can eliminate them from our systems. TLRs are delivery mechanisms for the immune responses.

C. It provides a general response to broad categories of molecules/cells that should NOT be in our system, as we don't have these molecules on our own cells.

Explain the difference between MIC and MBC. A .MBC is the maximum dose of an antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the growth of an organism, while MIC is the maximum dose of that medication needed to kill the organism. B. MBC is the minimum dose of an antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of an organism, while MIC is the minimum dose of that medication that kills the organism. C. MIC is the minimum dose of an antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of an organism, while MBC is the minimum dose of that medication that kills the organism. D. MIC is the maximum dose of an antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the growth of an organism, while MBC is the maximum dose of that medication needed to kill the organism.

C. MIC is the minimum dose of an antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of an organism, while MBC is the minimum dose of that medication that kills the organism.

Which of the following statements concerning development of antibiotic resistance is FALSE? A. It is often mediated by R-plasmids. B. Resistant cells are normally in the minority in a bacterial population. C. Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells. D. New resistance genes can be gained through transformation, transduction, or conjugation. E. Resistance can occur through mutation of existing bacterial genes.

C. Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells.

Why would a person who has their tonsils removed be more susceptible to certain types of infections of the throat and respiratory tract? A. Tonsils produce high levels of lactoferrin, a strong natural antibacterial compound. B. Tonsils produce large amounts of interferons, natural antiviral compounds. C. Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs-they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas. D. Tonsils are the location where T cells develop and mature. Without them, a person won't have T cells, and will be more likely to suffer from infections that would normally be eliminated by such cells.

C. Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs-they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas.

5. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. ionization

C. antisepsis

6. Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. ionization.

C. antisepsis

45. All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except A. release hypochlorous acid in solution. B. cause denaturation of enzymes. C. found in iodophors. D. used to disinfect water, restaurant, and medical equipment. E. found in common household bleach.

C. found in iodophors

49. The chemical agent that produces highly toxic and reactive free radicals is A. cidex. B. cationic detergents. C. hydrogen peroxide. D. chlorhexidine. E. iodophors.

C. hydrogen peroxide

11. The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. degerming.

C. sterilization

Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which all antimicrobial agents can be evaluated? A. their spectrum of action B. their efficacy C. their activity against cell walls D. their route of administration E. their safety

C. their activity against cell walls

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea? C. trachomatis M. pneumonia T. pallidum E. coli

C. trachomatis Chlamydial infections are the most common bacterial STIs. Mostly asymptomatic, signs and symptoms similar, infertility, PID, neonatal conjunctivitis/pneumonia - just like with gonorrhea.

p. 537 Table 21.1 Virulence Factors of Streptococcus pyogenes C5a peptidase, Hyaluronic acid capsule, M protein, protein F, protein G, Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs), Streptolysins O and S, Tissue-degrading enzymes

C5a peptidase - inhibits recruitment of phagocytes by destroying complement component C5a. Hyaluronic acid capsule - inhibits phagocytosis. M protein - interferes with phagocytosis by causing inactivation of complement component C3b, an opsonin; involved in attachment to host cells. protein F - responsible for attachment to host cells. protein G - binds to Fc portion of antibodies, thereby interfering with opsonization. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs) - superantigens responsible for scarlet fever, toxic shock, "flesh-eating" fasciitis Streptolysins O and S - Lyse leukocytes and erythrocytes Tissue-degrading enzymes - enhance spread of bacteria by breaking down DNA, proteins, blood clots, tissue and hyaluronic acid.

HIV typically attaches to: protein A. C3b. C5a. CD4.

CD4 CD4 cells - T helper cells, macrophages, dendritic cells - means they can be targeted by HIV.

A physician is attempting new therapies for HIV patients who are suffering from an impaired immune response. He decides to try using a recombinant form of colony-stimulating factor cytokine (CSF). Why? - CSF is a strong inducer of antiviral activities in our cells, and may help our immune system fight off the effects of an HIV infection for a longer period of time. - CSF will drive up the production of lactoferrin and transferrin, strong antiviral compounds produced in our mucus membrane secretions that trap and destroy viruses. - CSF is a cytokine that allows cells to communicate. If levels of CSF are elevated, HIV-infected cells can alert other healthy cells so that they produce protective IFNs. - CSF will help to stimulate the production of new lymphocytes, the very cells that are affected by HIV. This may help to keep the patients' immune responses "normal" for a period of time. - CSF will hyperstimulate the activities of the macrophages, leading to aggressive ingestion and successful destruction of HIV-infected cells.

CSF will help to stimulate the production of new lymphocytes, the very cells that are affected by HIV. This may help to keep the patients' immune responses "normal" for a period of time.

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus A) Campylobacter. B) Escherichia. C) Salmonella. D) Shigella. E) Vibrio.

Campylobactor - spirals!

Candida albicans

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. In the laboratory, rubella virus, VZV, rubeola virus and Rickettsia rickettsii must be cultivated in host cells. Candida albicans does not need to be cultured in cells—why? A) Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite. B) This fungus is an aquatic organism that requires fresh water for culture. C) Candida species are yeasts and require a medium such as bread for culture. D) Candida albicans is an obligate intracellular parasite. E) Yeasts are autotrophs and are thus able to grow independent of other organisms.

Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite. Nope, it's a yeast - a fungus.

Which statement regarding canning and pasteurization is TRUE? Canning and pasteurization are essentially the same process—one is used on fresh food while the other is used on preserved food; both result in sterilization of the product. Pasteurization uses a process that destroys all microorganisms that can grow under normal storage conditions; the resulting product is commercially sterile. Canning significantly decreases the number of spoilage microbes and eliminates pathogens; however, viable organisms still remain. Canning and pasteurization both use a process that destroys all microorganisms that can grow under normal storage conditions; the resulting products are commercially sterile. Canning and pasteurization both significantly decrease the number of spoilage microbes and eliminates pathogens; however, viable organisms still remain. Canning uses a process that destroys all microorganisms that can grow under normal storage conditions; the resulting product is commercially sterile. Pasteurization significantly decreases the number of spoilage microbes and eliminates pathogens; however, viable organisms still remain.

Canning uses a process that destroys all microorganisms that can grow under normal storage conditions; the resulting product is commercially sterile. Pasteurization significantly decreases the number of spoilage microbes and eliminates pathogens; however, viable organisms still remain. WRONG!!! Pasteurization uses a process that destroys all microorganisms that can grow under normal storage conditions; the resulting product is commercially sterile. Canning significantly decreases the number of spoilage microbes and eliminates pathogens; however, viable organisms still remain.

The resistance of the tubercle bacillus to various factors is probably due to its: A) cell wall. B) capsule. C) larger ribosomes. D) ability to adhere tightly.

Cell Wall Mycobacterium tuberculosis - slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium, aerobe with a generation time of over 16 hours. - cell wall contains mycolic acids, cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkalis, responsible for acid-fast staining. - easily killed by PASTURIZATION

Why can an infection in the brain's ventricles usually be detected in spinal fluid obtained from the lower back (lumbar region)? When ventricles are infected, the brain reacts by pumping the causative pathogens into the CFS so that they can be removed by the immune system. There is a set of lymph nodes specifically in place to drain the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ventricles. They are found in the lumbar region of the spinal column. There is a high degree of vascularity that exists, allowing easy transfer of bacteria in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the blood. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord. This is an incorrect statement. Since the central nervous system (CNS) is a protected site due to the blood-brain barrier, there can never BE an infection in the ventricles.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord.

Which of the following descriptions fits a chronic viral infection?

Characterized by continuous production of low levels of viral particles, potentially even in the absence of active symptoms of disease. The organism is usually still highly infectious during this time.

Cirrhosis Liver problem. p.674 Correct

Which of the following is/are treatment(s) for advanced periodontal disease? Cleaning out gingival crevices, minor gum surgery, AND antibiotic therapy. Cleaning out gingival crevices AND removing plaque and tartar. Removing plaque and tartar. Brushing and flossing, filling cavities with amalgam, AND antibiotic therapy. Removing plaque and tartar AND minor gum surgery.

Cleaning out gingival crevices, minor gum surgery, AND antibiotic therapy.

Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be A. Clostridia. B. Enterococci. C. bacteriophages. D. Bacteroides. E. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages

Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages - but NOT bacteroides.

A 37-year-old man is admitted to the hospital where you work with dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision, and slurred speech. In addition, he reports abdominal symptoms, including pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The patient's family tells you that he was recently at a church potluck, where he ate bread, streak, homemade tomato-beef stew and home-canned green beans. Based on the patient's signs and symptoms, the physician with whom you are working suspects botulism, and the patient is immediately given botulinum antitoxin. He develops breathing difficulty and is placed on a mechanical ventilator.A stool sample from the patient is cultured, and confirms the presence of Clostridium botulinum. In addition, the stool sample as well as leftover stew and green beans are tested for botulinum toxin—toxin is present in the green beans and in the stool sample, but not in the stew. These results confirm the diagnosis of foodborne botulism. You are one of the RNs taking care of the patient—he remains in the hospital for several weeks, before being discharged. Please select the statement that does NOT apply to botulism. The causative agent is an obligate anaerobe. Vegetative Clostridium cells release botulinum toxin, a potent neurotoxin. Boiling home-canned foods for 10 minutes will destroy any botulinum toxin present. The causative agent is Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium endospores can germinate in food with an acidic pH.

Clostridium endospores can germinate in food with an acidic pH. Not true - this is why acidic foods don't need such stringent canning procedures - Clostridium endospores are inhibited by low/acidic pH. Clostridium botulinum - Gram positive, anaerobe, motile, endospore former.

All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT: A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Shigella spp. E) Yersinia enterocolitica

Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming pathogenic bacterium of the genus Clostridium.

Which of the following may aid Staphylococcus in resisting phagocytosis? A. leukocidin B. coagulase C. granulation enzyme D. hemolysin

Coagulase

You go for your regular Pap test and are informed by your OBGYN that you are positive for HPV16. You are surprised because you have not noticed any signs or symptoms of infection. Your doctor explains that sexually transmitted HPV strains are among the most common of the STI agents, and that while some HPV strains cause warty growths of the external and internal genitalia, other strains cause non-warty lesions of mucosal surfaces such as the uterine cervix. These strains are of concern because they are a major factor in the development of cervical cancer. You ask your doctor a number of questions regarding HPV and HPV infection. I know HPV is sexually transmitted, but my male partner knows he is HPV positive, so always wears a condom whenever we have sex. I am not sure how I contracted this virus. How can this be explained? - Condoms are never an effective way of preventing transmission of viruses. People who avoid HPV infections take daily doses of prophylactic antibiotics as long as they are sexually active. - Condoms are never an effective way of preventing transmission of viruses. People who avoid HPV infections take daily doses of antiviral medications as long as they are sexually active. - Condoms do not provide complete protection against HPV because the virus can be transmitted by exposure to areas not covered by the condom. - Only latex condoms prevent the transmission of HPV because there are medications in the latex that destroy viruses. Other types of condoms lack these medications. - Condoms prevent the transmission of bacterial pathogens but do not protect against viral diseases because viruses are small enough to get through the latex.

Condoms do not provide complete protection against HPV because the virus can be transmitted by exposure to areas not covered by the condom.

Giardia intestinalis is found worldwide and is one of the most common intestinal parasites in the U.S. Which of the following factors contributes to the high incidence of infection, particularly in urban and suburban settings in the U.S? Contamination of fruits and vegetables Ability to infect a wide range of mammals Extremely resistant cysts Contamination of public drinking water sources

Contamination of public drinking water sources?? Giardia does have cysts that survive stomach acid... Contamination of fruits and veggies is Cyclosporiasis. wide host range is Cryptospiridium.

Corneal implants have been implicated in a few cases of: A.botulism. B. trypanosomiasis. C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob. D. scrapie.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob prion disease, a type of Transmissible Spongiform Encephalophathy. Most cases occur as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). - occurs in people over 45, median age 28 - has been transmitted from human to human through corneal transplants, contaminated surgical instruments and injections of human hormone replacements.

The "voices" of a cell, which carry messages, are: A) surface receptors. B) cytokines. C) platelets. D) antigens. E) adhesion molecules.

Cytokines - chemical messengers "any of a number of substances, such as interferon, interleukin, and growth factors, which are secreted by certain cells of the immune system and have an effect on other cells."

During apoptosis, a cell will: A) die because it is damaged and, as a result, cause an inflammatory response. B) self-destruct and, as a result, cause an inflammatory response. C) die because it is accidentally damaged, and, as a result, cause fever. D) self-destruct without causing an inflammatory response. E) divide to repair damaged tissue, leading to an inflammatory response.

Please identify the incorrect definition. A) Cytotoxic T cell—type of lymphocyte programmed to destroy infected or cancerous "self" cells. B) Plasma cell—effector form of a B cell; it functions as an antibody-secreting factory. C) T cell receptor—molecule on a T cell that enables the T cell to recognize a specific antigen. D) MHC class II—molecules that cells use to present antigen to cytotoxic T cells. E) Fab region—portion of an antibody molecule that binds to the antigen.

Please select the CORRECT statement regarding MHC molecules. A) Cytotoxic T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. B) Dendritic cells are the only cells that make MHC class II molecules. C) All nucleated cells express MHC class II molecules. D) Helper T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. E) Endogenous antigens are presented on MHC class II molecules.

Your first patient of the day is complaining of pain in the area of his new tattoo. When you examine the tattoo, you note that the area around it is firm, red, and swollen. There is no evidence of pus, and your patient has a normal pulse, and no fever. You tell your patient that you have seen this type of response to a tattoo before, and that it is called a granulomatous reaction. You give him more information on the condition. Your patient wonders what giant cells are and how they form. You explain that giant cells: A) are very large cells with a single nucleus; they are formed by the fusion of many neutrophils during a chronic inflammatory response. B) are macrophages that have large extensions in their cytoplasmic membranes which both increases their size and enhances their phagocytic ability. C) are any cells in body that have a diameter of greater than 10-3 m. D) are very large cells with multiple nuclei; they are formed by the fusion of many macrophages during a chronic inflammatory response. E) cells that have engulfed a large number of particles that get stored inside the cell, causing it to absorb water and swell.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. A fetus is protected by maternal antibodies that cross the placenta. You explain to Ellie that the fetus: A) is protected by both maternal IgG and maternal IgM, because these can easily cross the placenta. B) is protected by maternal IgM but not by maternal IgG, because IgM can cross the placenta but IgG cannot because it is a pentamer. C) will make large amounts of its own IgG and IgM immediately if the mother contracts some type of pathogen. D) is protected by maternal IgG but not by maternal IgM—IgG can cross the placenta but IgM cannot because it is a pentamer. E) will make its own IgG if the mother contracts any type of pathogen; it cannot make IgM because this is a pentamer.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. Ellie wonders whether she has fully understood what you have told her, so she tells you what she knows but she makes one mistake. Which statement made by your friend is INCORRECT? A) When a person is exposed to an antigen, B cells get activated by TH cells, proliferating and differentiating to form populations of plasma cells and memory cells. B) Plasma cells produce antibodies which are specific proteins that bind to the antigens, tagging them for elimination by other immune cells such as macrophages and neutrophils. C) On first exposure to an antigen, a person makes IgM followed by IgG. On second exposure to that same antigen, memory cells produce large amounts of IgG. D) If a woman experiences a primary exposure to a particular while pregnant, she makes IgM in response. This antibody crosses the placenta and protects her fetus from that pathogen. E) If a woman experiences a secondary exposure to a particular pathogen while pregnant, she makes IgG that crosses the placenta and protects the fetus from that antigen.

Your sister recently had her first child, a boy who she names Owen. Unfortunately, Owen seems to get sick really often, and after some investigation, he is diagnosed with an extremely rare genetic disorder called leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD). People with LAD suffer from repeated bacterial infections because their leukocytes have adhesion defects—they cannot adhere to the endothelium and as a result are unable to leave the blood vessels to move into tissues containing microbial invaders. Without this inflammatory response, the person experiences severe tissue infections and frequently has neutrophilia (high levels of neutrophils in the blood). You help your sister understand this disease, using your knowledge of the immune system. Which of the following do you think would be a possible way to cure a person with LAD? A) Giving the person inflammatory mediators daily to enhance the vasodilation process during inflammation. B) Giving the person a single blood transfusion with blood containing healthy leukocytes. C) Keeping the person on multiple antimicrobial medications for their whole life to fight any potential infections. D) Giving the person a hematopoietic stem cell transplant—this would replace the person's defective leukocytes with healthy leukocytes. E) Keeping the person in a completely microbe-free environment so that they are never at risk of contracting a microbial infection.

For which of the following childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended? A) Polio B) Measles C) Hepatitis B D) Pertussis E) Chickenpox

D - whooping cough - acellular pertussis (aP) vaccine. Inactivated vaccine - subunit type.

The characteristic function and properties of each class of antibody is determined by the: A) variable region on the light chains. B) hinge region of all chains. C) constant region on the light chains. D) constant region on the heavy chains. E) variable region on the heavy chains.

D -Fab is arms, Fc is stem. Arms are variable, stem is constant. Arms are 1 heavy + 1 light chain each, stem is 2 heavy chains - disulfide bonds hold all together.

If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256, the titer is ________. A) 128 B) 1/512 C) 1/256 D) 256 E) 512

D) 256 - use of SERIAL DILUTIONS to find the concentration (titer) of antibody molecules. Titer is the RECIPROCAL of the last dilution that gives a detectable antigen-antibody reaction.

The Western blot is used to confirm the results of an ELISA test. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps involved in this procedure? 1. To determine if a patient's serum has antibodies specific for any of the proteins in the sample (in this case HIV proteins), some of that serum is added to the blot, after which unbound antibodies are washed off. 2. The antigen proteins separate according to size. The separated proteins in the gel are then transferred ("blotted") to a nylon membrane to immobilize them in the same positions they were in the gel. 3. A type of gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE) is used to separate the proteins of an antigen, which involves loading the sample onto a polyacrylamide gel matrix, and running an electrical current through it. 4. Labeled anti-human IgG antibodies are added, which bind to any serum antibodies that have attached to the proteins. Unbound labeled antibodies are then washed off and attached label is detected. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3, 2, 4, 1 C) 3, 4, 2, 1 D) 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 2, 4, 3, 1

D) 3, 2, 1, 4

Which of the following would you prescribe to treat a person with M. pneumoniae? A) A β-lactam antibiotic such as penicillin B) A glycopeptide antibiotic such as vancomycin C) Bacitracin D) A macrolide such as erythromycin E) Bacitracin OR penicillin

D) A macrolide such as erythromycin Macrolides work by binding to a specific subunit of ribosomes (sites of protein synthesis) in susceptible bacteria, thereby inhibiting the formation of bacterial proteins. In most organisms this action inhibits cell growth; however, in high concentrations it can cause cell death. - includes erythromycin, roxithromycin, azithromycin and clarithromycin.

Which of the statements about transmission of pathogens is TRUE? A) Vertical transmission of a pathogen is from the environment to a person. B) Horizontal transmission refers to spread of a pathogen from mother to fetus. C) Sexual intercourse is an example of indirect contact. D) Droplet transmission is a particularly important source of contamination in densely populated buildings such as schools. E) Droplet nuclei are large drops of pathogen-containing fluid discharged by talking; they fall to the ground within a meter of the person.

D) Droplet transmission is a particularly important source of contamination in densely populated buildings such as schools.

Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease? A) Severe headache B) Throbbing pain C) Intense nausea D) Fever of 39°C E) All of these are signs

D) Fever of 39°C Key word here is SIGN. Signs are objective and others can see/detect them. Symptoms are subjective and patient reported.

Which of the following methods allows monitoring of the progressive destruction of CD4 T cells during an HIV infection by tagging the cells with specific antibodies to CD4 surface proteins and measuring their concentrations in serum? A) Western blot B) ELISA C) Latex beads agglutination D) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter E) FA test on a microscope slide

D) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter FACS = Fluorescence-activated cell sorter

Please select the FALSE statement. A) A common source epidemic occurs when all of the cases result from exposure to a single source of the infectious agent. B) A case-control study occurs when all of the cases result from exposure to a single source of the infectious agent. C) The natural habitat of a pathogen is called the reservoir of infection. D) Herd immunity can never be overcome by a pathogen. E) Emerging infectious diseases are those that are novel or have recently increased in incidence.

D) Herd immunity can never be overcome by a pathogen. It can. In the individual an enormous amount of pathogen can overwhelm the immune system. Herd immunity works best if >90% are immune - extend the previous statement to herd immunity. Voila.

Please identify the INCORRECT definition regarding innate immunity. A) First line defenses—the barriers that separate and shield the interior of the body from the surrounding environment (skin and mucous membranes). B) Sentinel cells—host cells that help the immune system detect signs of invasion by producing cytokines when their PRRs recognize an invading microbe. C) Inflammatory response—coordinated innate response involved in containing a site of damage, localizing the response, eliminating the invader, and restoring tissue function. D) Innate lymphoid cells—a group of lymphocytes that have increased specificity in their mechanism of antigen recognition (example: natural killer (NK) cells). E) RIG-like receptors—a group of pattern recognition receptors within cells that recognize molecules associated with infecting viruses.

D) Innate lymphoid cells—a group of lymphocytes that have increased specificity in their mechanism of antigen recognition (example: natural killer (NK) cells). Natural killer cells, or NK cells, are a type of cytotoxic lymphocyte critical to the innate immune system. ... NK cells are known to differentiate and mature in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, and thymus, where they then enter into the circulation. RIG-I-like receptors are a type of intracellular pattern recognition receptor involved in the recognition of viruses by the innate immune system.

Why did it take so long to understand that L. pneumophila is the cause of a respiratory tract infection? A) It stains poorly and is difficult to detect. B) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture. C) It is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population. D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. E) It is extremely small and can only be detected using electron microscopy AND it is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population.

D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. -rare in nature and seldom present in a population.

Select the FALSE statement regarding artificially acquired passive immunity. A) Immune globulin is used to prevent or treat specific diseases, for example using rabies immune globulin (RIG) to protect against rabies. B) It involves the use of antiserum (a preparation of serum that contains protective antibodies) or antitoxin (antibody preparation that protects against a given toxin). C) Hyperimmune globulin is used to protect unvaccinated people who have been recently exposed to certain diseases, including measles and hepatitis A. D) It occurs naturally in response to infections, and artificially in response to vaccination, when antigens are deliberately introduced into the body. E) These statements are all false.

D) It occurs naturally in response to infections, and artificially in response to vaccination, when antigens are deliberately introduced into the body. - this is Naturally acquired immunity

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by: A) Wasserman. B) Semmelweis. C) Lister. D) Koch. E) Pasteur.

D) Koch Studied anthrax in mice. Koch's Postulates

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of: A) S. aureus. B) S. epidermidis. C) M. luteus. D) M. tuberculosis. E) E. coli.

D) M. tuberculosis. isoniazid is a first line drug against TB.

D) Medical devices such as urinary catheters AND inadequately sterilized instruments used in invasive procedures.

Please select the TRUE statement regarding bacterial resistance to antimicrobials. A) Gram-positive bacteria are intrinsically resistant to certain medications because the lipid bilayer of their outer membrane prevents the molecules from entering. B) Intrinsic resistance generally occurs through spontaneous mutation or horizontal gene transfer. C) The genes for antimicrobial resistance are often carried on fertility plasmids (F plasmids). D) Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, so they are resistant to penicillin that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis. This is an example of intrinsic resistance. E) Acquired resistance is very limited because microorganisms cannot evolve, so are incapable of developing mechanisms to avoid the effects of medications.

D) Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, so they are resistant to penicillin that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis. This is an example of intrinsic resistance. A. G- have outer membrane, not G+ B. Acquired resistance, intrinsic is something they have, not something they get by mutation or transfer. C. R plasmids, not F. E. Just no.

Why are nucleoside analogs active only against replicating viruses? A) These drugs can only be taken up by cells that are infected by viruses. They are shut out from non-infected cells. This makes them effective only against cells where viruses are replicating. B) Each of these drugs is specifically activated by enzymes produced by the viruses. The viruses will only produce these enzymes when they are replicating, so the drugs can only become activated when these processes are occurring. C) Nucleoside analogs work by directly inhibiting the activity of nucleic acid polymerases. If the virus isn't actively replicating, there's no DNA/RNA polymerase active for the drug to inhibit, so the drug cannot work. D) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. Thus, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well. E) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of amino acids during enzyme synthesis. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new viral proteins are only being created when the virus is replicating, so these medications only work if that is the case.

D) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. Thus, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well.

Why would co-administration of a bacteriostatic drug interfere with the effects of penicillin? A) Since most bacteriostatic drugs are produced from bacteria but penicillin is produced from mold, the two drugs are incompatible with each other. B) A bacteriostatic drug interferes with the ability of a bacterial cell to take in compounds from the outside environment. Penicillin must be taken in by the cell in order to have its effect, so this would directly inhibit it. C) The bacteriostatic drugs would bind directly to the penicillin, preventing both its uptake by the cell and its ability to perform its duty within the bacterial cell. D) Penicillin interferes with cell wall production so it only works when the cells are actively replicating and MAKING new peptidoglycan. A bacteriostatic drug works by shutting down replication, holding the cells "static." This would interfere with the mode of action required by the penicillin. E) Nothing interferes with the effects of penicillin. It is the most effective medication that we have, so is never used with the addition of a second drug when treating a person.

D) Penicillin interferes with cell wall production so it only works when the cells are actively replicating and MAKING new peptidoglycan. A bacteriostatic drug works by shutting down replication, holding the cells "static." This would interfere with the mode of action required by the penicillin.

Which activity of the virally invaded cell triggers production of interferon? A) Activation of rRNA B) Movement of nuclear proteins to the cytoplasm C) Production of glycolipids D) Production of dsRNA E) Production of dsDNA

D) Production of dsRNA

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was: A) penicillin. B) sulfa. C) erythromycin. D) Salvarsan. E) Erlichsan.

D) Salvarsan - an arsenic compound, Ehrlich tried and on the 606th try, got it right.

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called: A) penicillin. B) sulfa. C) erythromycin. D) Salvarsan. E) erlichsan.

D) Salvarsan arsphenamine (Salvarsan) - Ehrlich - syphilis

Your patient had abdominal surgery three days ago. She seemed to be doing well after the surgery, but today the skin around the surgical incision is red and swollen. In addition, your patient has a high fever and is complaining of muscle aches. She also has a rash and has diarrhea. You realize that her wound has become infected, despite your best efforts as a nurse, and you are concerned that she has developed toxic shock syndrome. You explain the details of this type of infection to the patient's family.You explain general mechanisms of antibiotic resistance to your patient's family. Which of the following mechanisms is not one used by S. aureus? A) Some bacteria are able to make minor structural changes in the cellular target of a drug. This can prevent the medication from binding to that target, thereby protecting the organism from its effects. B) Some bacteria produce enzymes that chemically modify a specific medication, interfering with its function. An example is the β-lactamases that inactivate different β-lactam antibiotics. C) Some bacteria use efflux pumps to transport antimicrobials and other damaging compounds out of the cell. Sometimes the pumps are structurally altered, conferring resistance to several different antimicrobials simultaneously. D) Some bacteria can make changes in porin proteins of the outer membrane and can therefore prevent certain antimicrobials from entering the cell's cytoplasm. By stopping entry of an antimicrobial, an organism avoids its effects. E) Resistance in S. aureus may involve any of these mechanisms.

D) Some bacteria can make changes in porin proteins of the outer membrane and can therefore prevent certain antimicrobials from entering the cell's cytoplasm. By stopping entry of an antimicrobial, an organism avoids its effects. Used by G-. S. aureus is G+.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for avoiding destruction by a phagocyte? A) Some pathogens escape from the phagosome before it fuses with lysosomes. B) Some pathogens prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion. C) Some microbes can survive the destructive environment within the phagolysosome. D) Some microbes produce IgA protease that cleaves IgA, the class of antibody found in mucus and other secretions. E) These are all mechanisms for avoiding phagocytic destruction.

D) Some microbes produce IgA protease that cleaves IgA, the class of antibody found in mucus and other secretions. - that is about avoiding antibodies

How do some pathogens prevent complement activation or avoid the effects of activated complement? A) Some pathogens produce C5a peptidase that destroys complement C5a, a chemoattractant that recruits phagocytes to the area of infection. B) Some pathogens hijack the host's regulatory membrane proteins that inactivate C3b, preventing the triggering of the alternative activation pathway. C) Some pathogens produce C5a peptidase that causes destruction of phagoctyes recruited to the area of infection. D) Some pathogens hijack the host's regulatory membrane proteins that inactivate C3b, preventing the triggering of the alternative activation pathway AND some pathogens produce C5a peptidase that destroys complement C5a, a chemoattractant that recruits phagocytes to the area of infection. E) Some pathogens hijack the host's regulatory membrane proteins that inactivate C3b, preventing the triggering of the alternative activation pathway AND some pathogens produce C5a peptidase that causes destruction of phagoctyes recruited to the area of infection.

D) Some pathogens hijack the host's regulatory membrane proteins that inactivate C3b, preventing the triggering of the alternative activation pathway AND some pathogens produce C5a peptidase that destroys complement C5a, a chemoattractant that recruits phagocytes to the area of infection.

Syphilis, an STI, was once treated by intentionally infecting the patient with the parasite that causes malaria, a disease characterized by repeated boutsof fever, shaking,andchills. Why might this treatment cure syphilis? A) Malaria parasites produce strong antibacterial compounds (since they're eukaryotic in nature-they are trying to eliminate their competition for resources). This helps to eliminate ALL bacteria in and on the human body for a short period of time. B) Malaria parasites track down and feed upon ALL bacterial cells in the human body as a part of their life cycle. This makes them a "natural antibiotic" of sorts, and highly effective at clearing the bacterial infection of syphilis. C) One of the side effects of malarial infection is a massive overproduction of macrophages. This drives up the ability to ingest and destroy any microbe, including the bacterium that causes syphilis. D) The effect of driving up the body temperature for periods of time can shut down the temperature-sensitive replication of the bacterium that causes syphilis. This gives the immune system time to eliminate it properly. E) The bacteria that cause syphilis track down and destroy the protozoan that causes malaria. By doing this, the bacteria are "occupied" and do not cause damage to the human host.

D) The effect of driving up the body temperature for periods of time can shut down the temperature-sensitive replication of the bacterium that causes syphilis. This gives the immune system time to eliminate it properly.

Why are pneumococcal pneumonia infections so dangerous in nursing homes? A) There is a vaccine for protecting children against pneumococcal pneumonia but no vaccine available for protection of older adults. B) There is no longer an antibiotic effective against the infection, and older adults are unable to fight the infection without medication. C) This type of pneumonia causes permanent lung damage, and old people often have impaired lung function in the first place. D) The immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia. E) This question is misleading. Pneumococcal infections are not dangerous.

D) The immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia.

Which statement about penicillins is INCORRECT? A) Penicillins + β-lactamase inhibitor is a combination of agents that protects the penicillin against enzymatic digestion. B) Broad-spectrum penicillins are active against penicillin-sensitive Gram-positive bacteria and also many Gram-negative bacteria. C) Some S. aureus strains have the ability to make altered penicillin binding proteins to which most β-lactam antibiotics do not bind as well. D) The penicillins produced naturally by the mold P. chrysogenum are broad-spectrum, effective against all Gram-positive and many Gram-negative bacteria. E) Bacteria that produce penicillinase are resistant to the natural penicillins.

D) The penicillins produced naturally by the mold P. chrysogenum are broad-spectrum, effective against all Gram-positive and many Gram-negative bacteria. - these penicillins are NARROW SPECTRUM

A patient is tested for antibodies to a particular infectious agent and is found to be positive. What would account for the positive result inthisperson? A) The person is currently infected with the agent AND the person was previously vaccinated against the agent. B) The person was previously vaccinated against the agent. C) The person was infected with the agent sometime in the past AND the person is currently infected with the agent. D) The person is currently infected with the agent, the person was infected with the agent sometime in the past, OR the person was previously vaccinated against the agent. E) The person was previously exposed to the infectious agent OR the person was previously vaccinated against the agent AND the person is currently infected with the agent.

D) The person is currently infected with the agent, the person was infected with the agent sometime in the past, OR the person was previously vaccinated against the agent.

An elderly patient comes to see you complaining of a very painful rash. When he lifts his shirt, you see that he has a rash of small blisters (vesicles) on one side of his back. You think he likely has shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Herpesviridae family. You explain this to your patient, who asks you to please give him an antibiotic for his infection. You tell him an antibiotic will not help him, and give him information on virus infections and their treatment. Viruses are completely unaffected by antibiotics because: A) they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity. B) they have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics. C) they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity AND most viruses are innately resistant to broad- and narrow-spectrum antibiotics. D) They have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics AND they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity. E) most viruses are innately resistant to broad- and narrow-spectrum antibiotics.

D) They have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics AND they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity.

Which of the following is NOT true about the role normal microbiota plays in maintaining host health? A) They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader. B) They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins. C) They produce antimicrobial substances. D) They inhibit the innate immune system. E) All of the choices are true.

D) They inhibit the innate immune system. Normal microbiota so I bet the adaptive immune system has a tolerance to them unless they get out of line.

You are a newly qualified RN and have just been employed at your first job at a state hospital. Before you start your work with patients, you are required to complete a refresher course on nosocomial infections. You are asked to watch a short video and are then asked a series of questions, which are given below. You are somewhat nervous but need not be because you understand the risks of these infections and you know how they can be avoided. You answer the questions are directed. The organisms that cause healthcare-associated infections can originate from a number of different sources, including other patients, the healthcare environment, healthcare workers, visitors, and the patient's own microbiota. Select the INCORRECT statement. A) P. aeruginosa is resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobial medications, and requires few nutrients, which enables it to multiply in environments containing little other than water. B) A healthcare worker who is an asymptomatic carrier of a pathogen such as Staphylococcus aureus may inadvertently infect patients; sometimes personnel do not realize that they pose a risk to patients until they are implicated in an outbreak. C) Nearly any invasive procedure can transmit organisms of a patient's normal microbiota to otherwise sterile body sites—for example, skin microbiota such as Staphylococcus epidermidis may gain access to the bloodstream. D) Transmission of HAI-causing infectious agents may be direct through contact with others, including healthcare personnel. However, indirect transmission almost never occurs in hospitals because they are a sterile environment. E) Healthcare personnel should routinely wash or disinfect their hands after touching one patient before going to the next. They should also wear gloves when they have contact with patient's blood, mucous membranes, broken skin, or body fluids.

D) Transmission of HAI-causing infectious agents may be direct through contact with others, including healthcare personnel. However, indirect transmission almost never occurs in hospitals because they are a sterile environment.

Which of the following is NOT a likely reason why diseases caused by opportunists are becoming more frequent in the U.S. population? A) People with impaired immune systems such as those with HIV disease survive longer due to more effective therapies, but this gives them a longer period of time to be infected by opportunists. B) People in the U.S. are living longer than ever before, but they're living with a number of chronic health issues that can impair the immune system. This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections. C) Cancer treatments have improved significantly in the last 30 years, but they often suppress the immune system. This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections in people receiving these treatments. D) Travel into and out of the U.S. has increased significantly. This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals. E) People in the U.S. are living longer than ever before, but their immune systems decline with age. This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections, especially if they receive any kind of invasive procedure.

D) Travel into and out of the U.S. has increased significantly. This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals.

What is apoptosis? A) a form of programmed cell death AND results specifically in T cell death B) induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells AND results specifically in T cell death C) results specifically in T cell death AND refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells D) a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells E) refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells

D) a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells

Precipitation occurs when: A) antigen combines with antigen at optimal proportions. B) antibody combines with antibody at optimal proportions. C) antibody combines with complement at optimal proportions. D) antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions. E) antigen combines with complement at optimal proportions.

D) antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions. - zone of optimal proportion is where the concentration of each antibody and antigen are right to form percipitate.

Transmission-Based Precautions: A) is an online informative course all health workers must take on an annual basis. B) are guidelines from WHO for dealing with emerging infectious diseases. C) are instructions on the care of all patients given to nurses at their place of employment. D) are guidelines to use with patients infected with a highly transmissible or epidemiologically important pathogen. E) are guidelines given to patients before they enter the hospital to educate them on HAIs.

D) are guidelines to use with patients infected with a highly transmissible or epidemiologically important pathogen.

Gonorrhea is a disease that may be: A) zoonotic. B) pandemic. C) syndemic. D) asymptomatic. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

D) asymptomatic. About 50% of infected women have no symptoms.

The suffix -emia means in the: A) body. B) lymph. C) interstitial fluid. D) blood. E) cerebrospinal fluid.

D) blood. - toxemia - toxins in the blood - bacteremia - bacteria in the blood - viremia - viruses in the blood - septicemia or sepsis = acute, life-threatening illness caused by infectious agents or products in the bloodstream. slide 25

Toll-like receptors: A) are cytokines, are embedded in cellular membranes, AND are part of adaptive immunity. B) each recognize a specific "danger" molecule AND are cytokines. C) are embedded in cellular membranes AND are part of adaptive immunity. D) each recognize a specific "danger" molecule AND are embedded in cellular membranes. E) each recognize a specific "danger" molecule AND are part of adaptive immunity.

D) each recognize a specific "danger" molecule AND are embedded in cellular membranes.

Which describes toll-like receptors? A) cytokines, embedded in cellular membranes, AND are part of adaptive immunity B) recognize a specific MAMP AND are cytokines C) embedded in cellular membranes AND are part of adaptive immunity D) each recognize a specific MAMP AND are embedded in cellular membranes E) each recognize a specific MAMP AND are part of adaptive immunity

D) each recognize a specific MAMP AND are embedded in cellular membranes

Diseases constantly present in a population are called: A) epidemic. B) chronic. C) latent. D) endemic. E) prodromic.

D) endemic. Endemic diseases (like flu and pneumonia) can become epidemic when they occur in unusually large numbers of cases in a population.

DNA vaccines work by: A) stimulating production of antibodies against DNA. B) stimulating interferon production. C) inactivating the host DNA. D) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen. E) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make inactivating microbial mRNA.

D) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen. - which causes an immune response. Artificial Active Immunity!

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is: A) to dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. Reducing fever speeds up recovery. B) to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. C) to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. Vitamin C destroys cold viruses. D) let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time. E) take an antibiotic such as penicillin that will rid the body of the cold virus.

D) let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time.

An infection acquired during hospitalization is referred to as a(n) ________ infection. A) antibiotic-induced B) therapeutic C) medication-stimulated D) nosocomial E) herd initiated

D) nosocomial

The length of the incubation period depends on a variety of factors, including: A) the growth rate of the pathogen AND environmental conditions. B) the host's condition AND the carrier's vaccination status. C) number of infectious cells or virions encountered AND the host's condition. D) number of infectious cells or virions encountered, the host's condition, AND the growth rate of the pathogen. E) the growth rate of the pathogen only.

D) number of infectious cells or virions encountered, the host's condition, AND the growth rate of the pathogen.

The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch's postulates is to: A) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal. B) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals. C) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal. D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. E) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.

D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. From this list the order would be: D,E,C,A,B - I think. :)

The variable region of an antibody occurs: A) only on the heavy chains. B) only on the light chains. C) on one of the light chains. D) on all four chains. E) at the hinge region only.

D) on all four chains.

A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n): A) avirulent infection. B) colony. C) commensal. D) pathogen. E) virulent.

D) pathogen. Pathogenicity = ability to cause disease Virulence = the ability of an agent of infection to produce disease. The virulence of a microorganism is a measure of the severity of the disease it causes.

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. You think that Jay may have a Salmonella infection. Although a person's normal gastrointestinal microbiota protects them from pathogenic infections, in this case, Jay has contracted the disease. You explain to Jay the role his normal microbiota plays in excluding pathogens, including: A) covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment by a pathogen B) consuming available nutrients (thus "starving") the pathogen AND reducing water and oxygen availability in their immediate environment C) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria AND phagocytizing any incoming pathogenic cells D) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria, consuming available nutrients (thus "starving" the pathogen) AND covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment by a pathogen. E) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria, secreting carbohydrate "traps" that catch foreign bacteria AND phagocytizing any incoming pathogenic cells

D) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria, consuming available nutrients (thus "starving" the pathogen) AND covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment by a pathogen.

The Salk polio vaccine: A) protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection. B) protects only against gastrointestinal infection. C) is a subunit vaccine. D) protects only against nervous system infection. E) protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection AND is a subunit vaccine.

D) protects only against nervous system infection. Poliomyelitis virus gets in through the mouth, infects cells lining throat and GI tract, invades bloodstream and then goes to NERVE CELLS and causes the disease poliomyelitis. Salk virus lowers the rate of disease - which is at he NERVE CELLS. - later Sabin vaccine provides mucosal immunity (secretory IgA response) starting at mouth level - provides better herd immunity.

Women died after childbirth of: A) S. aureus intoxication. B) toxic shock syndrome. C) Klein's disease. D) puerperal fever. E) shock.

D) puerperal fever. Another name for childbed fever is: puerperal fever.

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are: A) cold sores AND influenza. B) genital herpes AND pneumonia. C) chickenpox AND influenza. D) shingles, genital herpes, AND cold sores. E) shingles, genital herpes, AND common colds.

D) shingles, genital herpes, AND cold sores. Infection can cause ACUTE, CHRONIC and LATENT disease. Some cause more than one.

A young couple brings their 3-month old baby to the emergency department where you work as a triage nurse. The parents tell you that the baby had a runny nose, low grade fever, and mild cough two days earlier, which they assumed was a cold. However, the cough has become significantly worse and they are really worried about the gasping sound the child makes when breathing in after a coughing spell. The baby's cough is so bad that she has been vomiting and is refusing to feed. You are concerned that the baby has pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough. You give the parents some information while they are waiting for a physician to examine their child. You examine the baby thoroughly, telling the parents that you need to record all signs and symptoms for your report to the clinician who will also assess the baby. The parents tell you they know what symptoms are but they don't know what you mean by signs. You tell them that: A) symptoms are objective and can be measured (such as fever) while signs are subjective and cannot be measured (such as pain). B) signs are objective and can be measured (such as pain) while symptoms are subjective and cannot be measured (such as a rash). C) symptoms are objective and can be measured (such as pain) while signs are subjective and cannot be measured (such as a rash). D) signs are objective and can be measured (such as fever) while symptoms are subjective and cannot be measured (such as nausea). E) signs and symptoms mean the same thing, and can be used interchangeably.

D) signs are objective and can be measured (such as fever) while symptoms are subjective and cannot be measured (such as nausea).

Because of the natural evolution of microorganisms, it is necessary to use techniques that allow distinguishing them at the level of: A) species. B) genus. C) family. D) strain. E) domain.

D) strain. Natural evolution of microbes explains why you might not be immune to something later - it evolves and changes just enough.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Penicillin is a(n): A) β-lactam antibiotic and has a low therapeutic index, meaning that it is of high toxicity to the host. B) carbapenam and is thus resistant to extended spectrum β-lactamases. C) glycopeptide antibiotic and is thus used as an antibiotic of last resort. D) β-lactam antibiotic and has a high therapeutic index, meaning that it is of low toxicity to the host. E) aminoglycoside and may sometimes cause kidney damage.

D) β-lactam antibiotic and has a high therapeutic index, meaning that it is of low toxicity to the host.

57. Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by A. blocking its synthesis. B. digesting it. C. inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis. D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct

Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci are responsible for _________. A. rheumatic fever B. necrotizing fasciitis C. pharyngitis D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Advanced treatment of sewage A. is done to prevent nutrient enrichment. B. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms. C. involves the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds. D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct. p.789 - advanced treatment is often designed to REMOVE AMMONIA, NITRATES AND PHOSPHATES - compounds that foster growth of algae and cyanobacteria in receiving waters (so remove so to PREVENT POSSIBLE OVERPRODUCTION OF ALGAE AND OTHER ORGANISMS). The concentration of these nutrients is normally low in receiving waters which limits the growth of photosynthetic organisms but add the nutrients and see them multiply, BOD increase and other forms of aquatic life threatened (so advanced treatment IS DONE TO PREVENT NUTRIENT ENRICHMENT of the receiving waters so that doesn't happen).

1. Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A. naked viruses B. protozoan cysts C. fungal spores D. bacterial endospores E. yeast

D. bacterial endospores

The E test determines which of the following? A. susceptibility B. MBC C. MIC D. both susceptibility and MIC E. both MBC and MIC

D. both susceptibility and MIC

The attraction of leukocytes to the area on inflammation is referred to as: A. parasitism. B. infection. C. phototaxis. D. chemotaxis.

D. chemotaxis - see in Ch 16 - C5a is a chemoattractant for phagocytes like macrophages.

19. Surfactants work by A. coating the organism, preventing interaction with its environment. B. blocking transport into the organism. C. blocking transport out from the organism. D. disrupting membrane integrity. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. disrupting membrane integrity

43. _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them. A. Boiling B. Sterilization C. Radiation D. Filtration E. Disinfection

D. filtration

All blood cells originate from the: A) erythrocyte stem cell. B) leukocytic stem cell. C) eosinophilic stem cell. D) hematopoietic stem cell. E) osteocytes (bone cells).

D. hematopoietic stem cells - in the bone marrow

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in: A. direct fluorescent antibody tests. B. complement fixation test. C. radioimmunoassay. D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

7. Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility? A. virucide B. bactericide C. germicide D. sporicide E. fungicide

D. sporicide

24. Sterilization is achieved by A. flash pasteurization. B. hot water. C. boiling water. D. steam autoclave. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. steam autoclave

33. A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ treatment, uses 134C for 1 to 2 seconds. A. pasteurization B. batch pasteurization C. flash pasteurization D. ultra high temperature E. None of the choices is correct.

D. ultra high temperature

Which of the following statements about landfills is FALSE? Dangerous levels of methane gas can accumulate. The excavated site has a plastic liner to prevent wastes from leaching into groundwater. Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive. Recycling greatly reduces the amount of wastes sent to landfills. All of the answer choices are true.

Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive.

The major vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western U.S. is: a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.

Dermacentor andersoni. A is the bacteria that causes RMSF B is the cause of louse-borne typhus C is the cause of lyme disease D is the type of tick that carries the bacteria - the vector. Table 22.7 a zoonosis transmitted by the bite of an infected tick, usually Dermacentor species.

Which is a characteristic of the septicemic phase of leptospirosis?

Disease is often asymptomatic. 2 phases (biphasic) 1 - First phase is mild = Septicemic phase - characterized by PHOTOPHOBIA (sensitivity to light) and red eyes (dilation of small blood vessels). 2 - Second (Immune) phase - symptoms recur after 1-3 days of feeling well. Same symptoms plus bleeding from various sites, vomiting, rash and confusion. More severe.

Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is false? a) The incubation period is less than a week. b) Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is almost invariably preceded by prominent urogenital symptoms. c) DGI can result in arthritis of the knee. d) Phase and antigenic variation helps the causative organism evade the immune response. e) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is common in untreated women.

Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is almost invariably preceded by prominent urogenital symptoms. p.742 - certain strains of N. gonorrhoeae can produce disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI). This systmeic infection is characterized by fever rash and arthritis caused by growth of the pathogen within the joint spaces. It can also lead to infective endocarditis and meningitis. DGI is not usually preceded by urogential symptoms.

A scientist reports the isolation of a new blood-borne virus that completely shuts down presentation of viral epitopes on MHC molecules in thecells it infects.He producesan internet video describing the virus, claiming it will be indestructible by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells and will kill millions of people. The medical community quickly denounces the warning as irrelevant, and the whole thing is quickly forgotten. Why? A) CD8+ T cells are not the cells that are responsible for killing virally infected cells. The scientist has confused the information. The medical community denounces the information so that people are not unnecessarily alarmed by the video. B) While CD8+ T cells ARE important for eliminating a viral infection, they are not the ONLY things that can do so. Natural killer cells can kill virally infected cells that have shut down MHC antigen presentation, and interferons can assist in cleaning virally infected cells. C) A blood-borne virus would not be capable of rapidly infecting millions of people, due to its difficult mode of transmission AND CD8+ T cells are not the cells that are responsible for killing virally infected cells. The scientist has confused the information. The medical community denounces the information so that people are not unnecessarily alarmed. D) B cells would be primed right away to produce complement proteins to destroy the virus. This would prevent cells from being infected with it in the first place. The medical community denounces the scientist's video to prevent people from becoming alarmed. E) While CD8+ T cells ARE important for eliminating a viral infection, they are not the ONLY things that are capable of doing so. Natural killer cells can kill virally infected cells that have shut down MHC antigen presentation, and interferons can assist in cleaning virally infected cells AND a blood-borne virus would not be capable of rapidly infecting millions of people, due to its difficult mode of transmission.

Normal microbiota: A) are the organisms that typically reside on and in your body. B) protect against infection by pathogens. C) enhance infection by pathogens. D) play no role in affecting pathogen growth. E) are the organisms that typically reside on and in your body AND protect against infection by pathogens.

Which of the following do not induce a strong immune response? A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Polysaccharides D) Simple sugars E) Lipids AND simple sugars.

Would a denatured antigen be expected to have the same epitopes as its native (non-denatured) counterpart? Why? A) Yes; epitopes are just a sequence of amino acids in a row, so they do not change regardless of 3D shape of the protein molecule they lie within. B) Yes; all proteins must be broken down into individual epitopes for presentation to B and T cells on MHC molecules, so each antigen protein MUST be denatured to yield ANY epitopes. C) No; ALL epitopes are dependent on being in the proper original 3D conformation of the protein. Denaturing them would destroy them by destroying that conformation. D) No; denaturing an antigen results in epitopes with a different amino acid sequence from those on an intact antigen, so they are not the same at all. E) Yes AND No; SOME epitopes are dependent on 3D conformation (conformational epitopes), while some simply depend on the sequence of amino acids (linear epitopes). So, really, it depends on the particular epitope.

You describe for your patient the sequence of events that occurs when a B cell is activated. Please select the correct order of statements. 1. TH cells recognize the presented antigen-MHC complex on the B cell and bind to it. 2. B cell receptor binds to an antigen and the antigen is internalized by endocytosis. 3. The bound TH delivers cytokines to the B cell that initiate the process of clonal expansion of that particular B cell. 4. The antigen is degraded and peptide fragments are expressed at the B cell membrane with MHC class II molecules. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 2, 4, 1, 3

Your first patient of the day is complaining of pain in the area of his new tattoo. When you examine the tattoo, you note that the area around it is firm, red, and swollen. There is no evidence of pus, and your patient has a normal pulse, and no fever. You tell your patient that you have seen this type of response to a tattoo before, and that it is called a granulomatous reaction. You give him more information on the condition. Your patient questions why he has developed a granuloma. You explain to him that granulomas: A) are formed to recruit macrophages and neutrophils to an area of persistent inflammation such as that observed with a tattoo. B) result from activation of complement proteins; once complement C3 is activated, it causes a cascade of activation of C4 - C25. These activated proteins concentrate to form the granuloma. C) are immune cells that are normally synthesized to fight virus infections. In your patient's case, these cells were formed in response to ink particles. D) are proteins that recognize compounds unique to microbes or tissue damage; in your patient's case, these are made as a result to the tissue damage caused by the tattoo. E) are formed as an attempt by the body to wall off and contain persistent antigens - in his case, the red tattoo ink (red ink contains mercury compounds).

Iron: A) is required by microorganisms. B) binds to lactoferrin. C) is necessary for the functioning of some enzymes. D) binds to transferrin. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

E - iron is one of the major components bacteria need for growth. Bind up the iron and stall the growth of invading microbes.

Please select the correct definition of balanced pathogenicity. A) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host, causing maximal harm. The pathogen becomes more virulent while the host becomes increasingly susceptible. B) A generated balance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. It generally helps the host maintain optimal health. C) A mechanism that allows bacteria to transfer gene products directly into host cells, inducing changes such as altering the cell's cytoskeleton structure. D) A situation in which an abnormally high number of TH cells (effector helper T cells) are stimulated, causing a massive release of cytokines (a "cytokine storm"). E) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host while causing minimal harm. The pathogen becomes less virulent while the host becomes less susceptible.

E) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host while causing minimal harm. The pathogen becomes less virulent while the host becomes less susceptible.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an inactivated vaccine? A) Toxoid vaccines B) Subunit vaccines C) Conjugate vaccines D) Virus-like particles E) Adjuvants

E) Adjuvants

Newborn babies acquire microbiota: A) when passing through the birth canal. B) through breastfeeding. C) by contact with the mother's skin. D) from the environment. E) All of the above are a source of microbiota.

E) All of the above are a source of microbiota. Babies born via C-section are exposed to different microorganisms than those born vaginally. slide 14

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

Regarding Louis Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The possibility of contamination was removed. B) All preexisting microorganisms were killed. C) A food source was provided. D) Air exchange was involved. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Colonization of the body is inhibited by: A) the shedding of skin cells. B) the movement of mucus by cilia. C) peristalsis in the digestive tract. D) the flushing action of the urinary tract. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Immunodiffusion tests: A) allow detection of specific antigens. B) are a simple method that produces visible results in the zone of optimal proportion. C) allow quantitation of antigen concentrations. D) None of the choices is correct. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following contributes to nosocomial disease? A) Susceptible population B) Hospital environment C) Other patients D) Patient's own normal microbiota E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Which is true of hantavirus? A) It is a zoonosis involving mice. B) It has three segments of single-stranded RNA. C) The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid. D) Shock and death occur in 30% of the cases. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct. Caused by hantaviruses of bunyavirus family • Enveloped; ssRNA genome in three segments • Each type infects rodent species; harmless to them • Inflammatory response to viral antigen causes capillaries to leak plasma into lungs, suffocating patient, causing blood pressure to fall • Shock and death occur in more than 40% of cases (text = 30%)

Since many childhood diseases such as mumps and measles are rare now within the United States, why is it still important for children to be immunized against them? A) If we lose herd immunity by removing mandatory vaccination, our population will become susceptible to these illnesses again in a short period of time. B) There is always the likelihood that an individual from another country could import one of these illnesses into the United States, sparking an outbreak of new infections, if we aren't all properly vaccinated. C) By keeping the population vaccinated, we keep incidence rates of these illnesses very low. This helps to protect people that cannot be vaccinated (very young children, pregnant women, immunocompromised individuals, the elderly). D) Many of these diseases are HIGHLY contagious, and commonly through respiratory droplet (airborne) transmission. This makes an outbreak within a susceptible population very possible. Keeping the population resistant through mandatory vaccination prevents this possibility. E) All of the options are correct.

E) All of the options are correct.

Home-canned foods should be boiled before consumption to prevent botulism. Considering that this treatment does NOT destroy endospores, why would it be helpful in preventing the disease? A) Because it would destroy the vegetative cells, and only the vegetative cells cause the disease. B) Because it would at least weaken the endospores, making them more susceptible to elimination by our immune system. C) Because the heat would denature the botulism endotoxin and inactivate it. The endotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer. D) Because although botulism exotoxin is harmless, it has a bad odor and boiling removes this, making the food more appealing to eat. E) Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it. The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

E) Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it. The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

Select the INCORRECT definition regarding the progression of an infectious disease. A) Illness phase—period of time during which symptoms and signs of disease occur. B) Incubation period—interval between the entrance of a pathogen into a susceptible host and the onset of illness caused by that pathogen. C) Prodromal period—a period of early, vague symptoms indicating the onset of a disease. D) Period of convalescence—period of recuperation and recovery from an illness. E) Carrier phase—period in which a pathogen is harbored without noticeable ill effects, but may be transmitted to other hosts.

E) Carrier phase—period in which a pathogen is harbored without noticeable ill effects, but may be transmitted to other hosts. There are carriers but NO carrier phase.

All of the following are commonly associated with nosocomial disease EXCEPT: A) Enterococcus species. B) Clostridium difficile. C) Pseudomonas species. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Clostridium botulinum.

E) Clostridium botulinum. Think canned food.

Which of the following drugs does NOT target peptidoglycan? A) Penicillin B) Cephalosporin C) Vancomycin D) Bacitracin E) Doxycycline

E) Doxycycline

Which pathogen is INCORRECTLY matched with a portal of exit? A) Influenza virus—respiratory droplets. B) Vibrio cholerae—feces. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis—droplets of saliva and mucus. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae—urethral and vaginal secretions. E) E. coli—urine.

E) E. coli—urine. E. coli is an enteric - it lives in guts and leaves in feces.

Which of the following is least likely to be detected by pattern recognition receptors? A) O antigen on Gram-negative bacteria B) Peptidoglycan in Gram-positive cells C) Flagellin and pilin D) Double-stranded viral RNA E) Enzymes involved in glycolysis

E) Enzymes involved in glycolysis

Which of the following is recommended by the Standard Precautions guidelines? A) Glove use AND hand washing B) Hand washing AND a face shield C) A face shield AND antibiotics D) Antibiotic use AND glove use E) Glove use, hand washing, AND a face shield

E) Glove use, hand washing, AND a face shield

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial? A) Minimum inhibitory concentration B) Minimum bactericidal concentration C) Minimally-lethal dose D) Antibiotic stimulating zone test E) Kirby-Bauer test

E) Kirby-Bauer test

Which is involved in reacting to virus-infected cells? A) B cells AND cell-mediated immunity B) MHC class II molecules, B cells AND cytotoxic T cells C) B cells, leukocytes AND MHC class II molecules D) MHC class I molecules, helper T cells AND humoral immunity E) MHC class I molecules, cell-mediated immunity AND cytotoxic T cells

E) MHC class I molecules, cell-mediated immunity AND cytotoxic T cells

Mycoplasmal and Klebsiella pneumonias: A) have similar incubation periods. B) have causative agents that lack cell walls. C) are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization. D) are both relatively mild diseases. E) None of the choices is correct.

E) None of the choices is correct.

Colds are effectively treated with: A) antibiotics. B) aspirin and acetaminophen. C) proteases. D) nucleotide analogs. E) None of the choices is correct.

E) None of the choices is correct. - Viruses don't respond to antibiotics. - aspirin and APAP are about making symptoms less so the person is more comfortable No vaccines for the common cold so none of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is considered a zoonotic disease? A) Measles B) Typhoid C) Common cold D) Influenza E) Plague

E) Plague

Which of the following would NOT be considered virulence factor(s)? A) Adhesins B) Capsules C) Endotoxins D) Proteases E) Ribosomes

E) Ribosomes slide 19 - Virulence Factors = traits that allow microorganism to cause disease

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. Finally, you use a diagram to illustrate to Jay how some pathogens avoid phagocytosis, which is part of the innate immune defense. You tell him that Salmonella is able to avoid phagocytosis by preventing formation of the phagolyososome. Which of the following is NOT a way for a pathogen to avoid phagocytosis? A) Some pathogens escape from the phagosome before it fuses with lysosomes. B) Some pathogens survive the destructive environment within the phagolysosome. C) Some pathogens avoid being recognized by phagocytes and thus avoid being engulfed by the cell. D) Some pathogens kill phagocytes, often by using toxins to form pores in their membranes. E) Some pathogens are serum-resistant, avoiding the killing effects of phagocyte complement proteins.

E) Some pathogens are serum-resistant, avoiding the killing effects of phagocyte complement proteins. - no complement proteins INSIDE phagocytes

Which of the following cause a foodborne intoxication? A) Staphylococcus aureus AND E. coli O157:H7 B) E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum C) Clostridium botulinum AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis AND Staphylococcus aureus E) Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7, AND Clostridium botulinum

E) Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7, AND Clostridium botulinum - make toxins that get ingested

Your patient has brought her 2-year old in to see you because he has a bad cold. The child has leukemia and is receiving chemotherapy, and until relatively recently has been immunocompromised, although he is currently stable. You give the mother advice on what to do for her child's illness, and they leave your office. The next child you see also has the signs and symptoms of what appears to be a cold, but on further examination you discover that she has a fever of 39.8oC. She also has a rash and when you look at her throat, you notice small white spots called Koplik's spot. These are diagnostic for measles, caused by measles virus. You question the child's parent and discover that the child has not received her MMRV vaccine. You explain to the parent of the child with measles the importance of vaccinations. She responds by saying that measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella are very rare diseases in developed countries and she doesn't want her child to go through getting her shots. She worries about the safety of the MMRV vaccine. Which is the best response regarding this concern? A) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination BUT the pathogens still exist and with enough susceptible hosts, they can spread in a population. B) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination AND the MMRV vaccine is safe and does NOT cause autism. C) An immunocompromised person such as your patient with leukemia depends on others being vaccinated to remain healthy (herd immunity) AND the MMRV vaccine is safe and is NOT associated with autism. D) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination BUT the pathogens still exist, and with enough susceptible hosts they can spread in a population AND the MMRV vaccine is safe and does NOT cause autism. E) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination, but the pathogens still exist, and with enough susceptible hosts they can spread in a population. The MMRV vaccine is safe and is NOT associated with autism, and immunocompromised people who cannot receive an attenuated vaccine depend on herd immunity to remain healthy.

E) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination, but the pathogens still exist, and with enough susceptible hosts they can spread in a population. The MMRV vaccine is safe and is NOT associated with autism, and immunocompromised people who cannot receive an attenuated vaccine depend on herd immunity to remain healthy.

Which is true about superantigens? A) They are a type of exotoxin AND they stimulate an abnormally high number of TC cells. B) They bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells AND they are a type of endotoxin. C) They bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells AND they enhance specific antibody production. D) They are processed intracellularly AND they are a type of endotoxin. E) They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells.

E) They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells. - exotoxin - bind to MHC class II on APC and T-cell receptor at the same time (on Helper T cells - makes them think they recognize an antigen though they wouldn't if that superantigen wasn't there) and cause a massive release of cytokines (cytokine storm)

How do cytokines function? A) They are produced by several cell types and bind directly to microbes to enhance their chance of being ingested, in a process called opsonization. B) They are secreted by lysozomes into the phagosomes of neutrophils to enhance the killing of ingested microbes within those organelles. C) They are secreted by one cell type, then work as a series of serum proteins to produce holes in the cytoplasmic membranes of microbes to directly lyse them. D) They are secreted by microbes that have been engulfed by phagocytes, causing those cells to produce destructive enzymes and undergo apoptosis. E) They are secreted by one cell type, then bind to a receptor on target cell causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response.

E) They are secreted by one cell type, then bind to a receptor on target cell causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response.

Which is true of aminoglycosides? A) They are bacteriostatic AND they reversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit. B) They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they block DNA replication. C) They block peptidoglycan synthesis AND they bind to the 80S ribosomal subunit. D) They are bactericidal AND they block DNA replication. E) They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

E) They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

You tell the class that ELISAs and Western blots are performed in a clinic or laboratory. However, there are a variety of tests that can be performed at home. With the oral fluid antibody self-test, a person swabs their own mouth and uses a kit to test the sample. The kit looks similar to a pregnancy test. Saliva is collected on a swab which is then inserted into the "tube" containing a test strip on which certain HIV proteins are bound. The saliva moves up the test strip until it reaches two windows on the tube - one is labeled C and the other is labeled T. When the saliva reacts with the bound virus proteins, a color change is seen. Results are interpreted as follows: No color in the C window—test is not working. Color in the C window but none in the T window—negative result. Color in the C window and color in the T window—positive result. Given this information, select the FALSE statement. A) The C window is a positive control—if color appears there, it confirms that the test is working properly. B) The T window is the test window. If color appears both there and in the C window, it indicates that anti-HIV antibodies are present in the person's saliva. C) This test is an ELISA test that is used to detect antibodies in a person's saliva. D) If color appears in the T window but not in the C window, the kit is not working properly. E) This test is an ELISA test that is used to detect the presence of viral capsid proteins in a person's saliva.

E) This test is an ELISA test that is used to detect the presence of viral capsid proteins in a person's saliva.

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? A) Viruses contain a protein coat. B) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell. C) Viruses have genes. D) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. E) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.

E) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.

Injection of a single antigen usually results in production of: A) antibody to a single epitope. B) an antibody that recognizes several epitopes. C) additional antigen. D) epitopes against that particular antigen. E) a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope.

E) a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope. - polyclonal antibodies - makes it hard to standardize expiramental results because the antibody composition will be different each time the antiserum is made.

Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called: A) primary substances. B) secondary substances. C) adjuncts. D) secondary adjuncts. E) adjuvants.

E) adjuvants. - provide the 'danger signals' to dendritic cells so they will produce the co-stimulatory signals that activate T helper cells which activate B cells.

The most common adjuvant is: A) ethanol. B) formalin. C) aluminum. D) hydroxide. E) alum.

E) alum

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. You explain to Jay that infections and the associated diseases are often described according to the timing and duration of the symptoms. You define the different categories to him, telling him that he has A) a chronic infection, which is an infection that develops slowly and may last for months or years. B) a latent infection—the microbe causing Jay's illness will continue to exist in him, although likely without causing any symptoms. C) a localized infection, in which the microbe is limited to a small area—in Jay's case the gastrointestinal tract. D) an inopportunistic infection, because Salmonella species are part of a person's gastrointestinal normal microbiota. E) an acute infection, characterized by symptoms that develop quickly but last only a short time.

E) an acute infection, characterized by symptoms that develop quickly but last only a short time.

What comprises the humoral immune response? A) antibodies B) T cells C) B cells D) antigens E) antibodies AND B cells

E) antibodies AND B cells

penicillin binding proteins (PBPs): A) primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs. B) are enzymes. C) are involved in cell wall synthesis. D) inhibit non-growing bacteria. E) are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

E) are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

Antibiotics are produced by: A) bacteria. B) protozoa. C) fungi. D) viruses. E) bacteria and fungi.

E) bacteria and fungi.

Spontaneous development of resistance to a particular antimicrobial is difficult if the drug: A) targets a single type of molecule AND binds to a single site on that target molecule. B) targets several different molecules AND affects the cytoplasmic membrane. C) affects only one molecule. D) affects the cytoplasmic membrane. E) binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different molecules.

E) binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different molecules.

Prevention of patient-to-personnel transmission of disease depends on limiting contact with: A) patients. B) personnel. C) administrators. D) physicians. E) body fluids.

E) body fluids.

Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed: A) symptomatic. B) clinical. C) acute. D) latent. E) communicable.

E) communicable. also = contagious Non-communicable diseases do not spread from one host to another - arise from the environment or from a person's own normal microbiota.

An elderly patient comes to see you complaining of a very painful rash. When he lifts his shirt, you see that he has a rash of small blisters (vesicles) on one side of his back. You think he likely has shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Herpesviridae family. You explain this to your patient, who asks you to please give him an antibiotic for his infection. You tell him an antibiotic will not help him, and give him information on virus infections and their treatment. Acyclovir interferes with viral DNA replication. Other mechanisms of antiviral medications include all of the following EXCEPT: A) preventing fusion and inhibiting viral entry into a host cell. B) interfering with viral uncoating and release of viral nucleic acid in a host cell. C) preventing the assembly viral proteins to form capsids. D) inhibition of viral particle release from host cells. E) destroying viral ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis.

E) destroying viral ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis. No viral ribosomes. Uses the host cell's, remember?

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in: A) direct fluorescent antibody tests AND indirect ELISA. B) indirect ELISA AND Western blot. C) Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests. D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests. E) indirect ELISA, Western blot, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

E) indirect ELISA, Western blot, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Anti-human IgG antibodies are often used in: A) direct fluorescent antibody tests, radioimmunoassay, AND direct ELISA. B) complement fixation test, radioimmunoassay, AND Western blotting. C) radioimmunoassay, indirect ELISA, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests. D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests, complement fixation tests, AND Western blotting. E) indirect ELISA, Western blotting, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

E) indirect ELISA, Western blotting, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests. - in the indirect tests and the Western Blot there is an organism, we want to see if serum sample has antibodies to it so we add serum with antibodies in, wash, then add anti-human IgG that has been labelled to attach to any IgG attached to organism, wash and then look for the labels.

A viroid is a(n) A) complete, infectious virus particle. B) capsid without nucleic acid. C) infectious protein. D) provirus. E) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.

E) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid. - viroid = RNA only Complete, infectious (extracellular) virus particle = Virion Infectious protein = Prion Provirus = a virus genome that is integrated into the DNA of a host cell. Talking about a bacteriophage? It's called a prophage.

C3a and C5a are involved in: A) inflammation AND fever. B) interferon production AND attraction of phagocytes. C) properdin activation AND inflammation. D) attraction of phagocytes AND properdin activation. E) inflammation AND attraction of phagocytes.

E) inflammation AND attraction of phagocytes.

Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus: A) invade host cells AND cause a rash. B) produce a toxin AND cause a rash. C) cause diarrhea AND are delivered by flea bites. D) are delivered via flea bites AND produce a toxin. E) invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

E) invade host cells AND produce a toxin. slide 27 Patterns of Pathogenesis - produce toxins that are ingested - colonize mucous membranes, produce toxins - invade host tissues, avoid defenses - invade host tissues, produce toxins

The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the: A) lack of any cytokine production. B) presence of endotoxins. C) lack of any cytokine production AND secretion of exotoxins. D) presence of endotoxins AND secretion of exotoxins. E) lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

E) lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

Serological tests are most often conducted in: A) test tubes. B) flasks. C) graduated cylinders. D) Petri dishes. E) microtiter plates.

E) microtiter plates - plastic plates with lots of tiny wells that hold tiny volumes of sample. Lot easier/cheaper than using test tubes and lots of reagent

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's: A) molecular weight AND concentration. B) stability. C) concentration AND stability. D) molecular weight AND stability. E) molecular weight, stability, AND concentration.

E) molecular weight, stability, AND concentration.

WHO has targeted for elimination of: A) polio. B) dracunculiasis. C) measles. D) plague. E) polio, dracunculiasis, AND measles.

E) polio, dracunculiasis, AND measles. They say we got smallpox, let's get these too!

Antimicrobials may cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) allergic reactions. B) toxic effects. C) suppression of normal microbiota. D) dysbiosis. E) resistance in people.

E) resistance in people. Bacteria can become resistant to antimicrobials, the meds aren't against the host!

All of the following is/are reservoirs of infection in a hospital setting EXCEPT: A) patient's normal microbiota. B) other patients. C) medical personnel. D) visitors. E) sterile surgical equipment.

E) sterile surgical equipment.

The low molecular weight protein produced by animal cells in response to viral infections is: A) complement. B) lysozyme. C) histamine. D) interferon. E) transferrin.

E) transferrin

Whole agent vaccines may contain: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) polysaccharides. E) viruses OR bacteria.

E) viruses OR bacteria. - contains killed microorganisms or inactivated viruses - formalin/chemical treatment - inactivated whole agent vaccines include influenza, rabies and the Salk polio vaccine (text says HepA too).

Agglutination tests can be used to detect: A) bacteria AND viruses. B) hormones AND drugs. C) fungi, bacteria, AND viruses. D) viruses, bacteria, AND hormones. E) viruses, bacteria, fungi, hormones AND drugs.

E) viruses, bacteria, fungi, hormones AND drugs.

50. Hydrogen peroxide can be A. sporicidal. B. fungicidal. C. bactericidal. D. virucidal. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct

Attenuated agents: A. may induce immunity after a single dose. B. may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals. C. multiply in the body. D. may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct

Agglutination tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by A. bacteria. B. hormones. C. fungi. D. viruses. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Monoclonal antibodies may be used in the rapid diagnosis of A. pregnancy. B. hepatitis. C. influenza. D. chlamydia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Ag-Ab binding may result in: A. neutralization. B. immobilization. C. agglutination. D. opsonization. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct. Ch 17

16. Which of the following factors will influence the action of microbial agents? A. the number of microorganisms B. the kind of microorganisms C. temperature and pH D. mode and dosage of the agent E. All of these will influence the action.

E. All of these will influence the action

Which of the following statements is true of selective toxicity? A. Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural differences between host and pathogen. B. To be effective, an antimicrobial agent must be more toxic to the patient than the pathogen. C. Selective toxicity takes advantage of metabolic differences between host and pathogen. D. Antimicrobial agents must target structural differences between host and pathogen and be more toxic to the patient than the pathogen. E. Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen.

E. Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen.

38. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? A. meats like ground beef and pork B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin C. operating room air D. surgical gloves E. All of the choices are correct.

E. all of the choices are correct

44. Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity? A. the material being treated B. the length of exposure C. the strength of the germicide D. the microorganism being treated E. All of these are factors.

E. all of these factors

*A member of the normal flora that becomes an opportunist if it invades the urinary bladder is...

E. coli

18. Each of the following is the target of antimicrobial agents except A. cell walls. B. cell membranes. C. ribosomes. D. cellular proteins. E. cytoplasm.

E. cytoplasm

53. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A. iodophor B. chlorhexidine C. 3% hydrogen peroxide D. betadine (povidone-iodine) E. glutaraldehyde

E. glutaraldehyde

23. Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except A. ultraviolet radiation. B. boiling water. C. HEPA filters. D. pasteurization. E. hydrogen peroxide.

E. hydrogen peroxide

C3a and C5a are involved in: A. inflammation. B. interferon production. C. properdin activation. D. attraction of phagocytes. E. inflammation AND attraction of phagocytes.

E. inflammation AND attraction of phagocytes.

The term vaccination: A. is a general term that would include the process of variolation. B. was coined by Jenner. C. was coined by Pasteur. D. comes from the Latin for cow, vacca. E. is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

E. is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

The connection between unpasteurized milk and brucellosis in humans was made by Pasteur. Evans. Fleming. Ehrlich. Koch.

Evans

Everything above I was asked

Everything below to help me study

Which statement regarding Staphyloccocus aureus is FALSE? A) MRSA strains that can be traced to hospitals and clinics are referred to as HA-MRSA (hospital-acquired MRSA). B) CA-MRSA strains have a group of genes that codes for a leukocyte-destroying leukocidin. C) Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. D) MRSA strains are resistant to nearly all β-lactam antibiotics except ceftaroline, a new cephalosporin. E) Some hospitals screen patients for MRSA when they are discharged so they do not take a MRSA strain home with them.

Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. From Hair Follicle Infections slide: - Most MRSA originally hospital-acquired (HA-MRSA), but strains now widespread in healthy carriers, yield community-acquired (CA-MRSA) infections - Many hospitals now screen patients to limit spread

What virulence factory of P. aeruginosa inhibits host cell protein synthesis?

Exotoxin A - stops host cell protein synthesis

T/F - "Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease.

False

T/F - Peptide vaccines have proven to be cheap and very immunogenic.

False

T/F - Substances with a molecular weight of less than 10,000 Daltons make good antigens.

False

TRUE OR FALSE: Completed filamentous phages are often found in the cytoplasm of infected bacteria.

False

The illness in strep throat is largely from the exotoxin produced. An antibiotic effectively eliminates exotoxins T/F

False

T/F - The effectiveness of DNA vaccines stems from the effective production of antibodies against the naked DNA molecule.

False - I suspect the effectiveness of DNA vaccines comes from having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen that the body can then mount an immune response to.

Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria. T/F

False - It can be cause by any bacteria that gets into the bloodstream. More Gram positives cause sepsis but cases from Gram negatives are worse.

Diphtheria is a contagious disease that spreads from person to person mainly by the fecal-oral route. T/F

False - Spread by AIR, acquired via inhalation or from fomites. Cutaneous diphtheria with chronic ulcers - may be a source is a person comes into contact with them.

Sulfur occurs in all living matter primarily as a component of carbohydrates. T/F

False - component of amino acids methionine and cysteine

T/F - Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

False - did you read the 'obligate intracellular parasite' part? An obligate intracellular pathogen may only survive and grow inside a cell.

All cases of paralytic polio acquired in the U.S. between 1980 and 1999 were caused by Salk's polio vaccine. True False

False - from Sabin vaccine

T/F - T cell independent antigens lead to a memory response.

False - memory B cells do not exist for T independent antigens

Prions are small single-stranded pieces of RNA.

False - misfolded copy of normal protein

T/F - A monoclonal antibody is typically IgE and recognizes several epitopes.

False - monoclonal antibodies recognize 1 specific epitope and I'd think they could be which ever class is needed.

T/F - Infection always leads to disease.

False - subclinical infection may cause no damage and have no signs or symptoms.

Oligotrophic waters are usually hypoxic. T/F

False - these waters have few nutrients - not in danger of going hypoxic.

The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC. T/F

False 55 to 66 degrees Celsius

False Antibiotics don't work on viruses, antivirals do.

T/F - Antibody and antigen are held to one another by covalent bonds

False Antibodies bind antigens through weak chemical interactions, and bonding is essentially non-covalent. Electrostatic interactions, hydrogen bonds, van der Waals forces, and hydrophobic interactions are all known to be involved depending on the interaction sites. - the chains in antibodies are held together by disulfide bonds

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an invasive, toxin-producing, pleomorphic spore-forming bacterium that aggressively enters tissues and the bloodstream. T/F

False Bacterium stays in the throat - is non-motile = Non-invasive non-spore forming It's the A-B exotoxin it produces (lysogenic conversion) that enters the blood stream and moves throughout the body (toxemia).

T/F - Carbapenems are easily inactivated by the extended-spectrum β-lactamases (ESBLs) produced by certain Gram-negative bacteria so cannot be usedto treat these infections.

False Beta-lactam antibiotic, carbapenems are NOT easily inactivated by ESBLs produced by certain G- bacteria so they are usually reserved as a last resort for treating severe diseases caused by ESBL-producing organisms. p.507

Individuals entering the room of a patient with Legionnaires' disease should wear a mask to prevent acquiring the disease from exposure to the patient. T/F

False Ch 21 After Legionella pneumophila grows and multiplies in a building water system, water containing Legionella then has to spread in droplets small enough for people to breathe in. People can get Legionnaires' disease or Pontiac fever when they breathe in small droplets of water in the air that contain the bacteria. The bacteria don't spread from person to person. Most people exposed to the bacteria don't get sick.

Once the initial case has occurred, Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic. T/F

False Common Source, I'd think.

The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The antibiotic would have no effect. T/F

False Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pleomorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming G+ rod that is a lysogen.

T/F - Cross-sectional surveys are very useful in establishing cause of a disease.

False Cross-sectional surveys look at a slice of time - all the factors at one moment, more about seeing what was involved right then.

Foodborne intoxication requires the ingestion of living organisms. T/F

False Foodborne intoxication involves ingesting toxins and foodborne infection is ingesting the living cells.

High BOD values reflect small amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material. T/F

False High BOD values reflect large amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material.

T/F - The portal of entry typically has little effect on the course of a disease.

False If it gets in the wrong portal of entry it may not be able to cause infection, might just go on to be a part of the normal microbiota.

Clostridium tetani is a highly invasive pathogen that causes tetanus, characterized by spastic paralysis. T/F

False Is localized, not invasive.

All Staphylococci are coagulase positive. T/F

False Most, including Staphylococcus epidermiditis are coag-negative. Correct

T/F - In a double-blind test the treating physician knows who is getting the actual treatment.

False Neither the researcher or the test subject know who is getting the actual treatment or the placebo.

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics. T/F

False No cell wall so...

Actinomycosis is a fungal disease. T/F

False Originally thought to be a fungal disease. Causative Agent • Most commonly Actinomyces israelii: Gram-positive, filamentous, branching, slow-growing anaerobe

Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS. T/F

False Protease inhibitors stop viral encoded protease from cutting polypeptides made during viral genome replication into individual proteins. - No cure for AIDS yet.

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients. T/F

False Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-POSITIVE diplococci with a capsule

T/F - A gradual rise in numbers during an epidemic indicates a common source epidemic.

False That is a propagated epidemic. Common source epidemic is a sharper rise and fall.

EHEC is a major cause of diarrhea in developing countries and may result in the death of small children. T/F

False There is no EHEC. There is STEC, ETEC, EIEC, EPEC, EAEC, DAEC.

Only females should receive the 9vHPV vaccine. T/F

False no cure but the symptoms can be treated - Gardasil 9 - boys and girls ages 9-12 - 2 doses and up to age 26 in women, 21 in men - 3 doses for age 15 and older..

The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is not infectious. T/F

False p.635 - even the saliva of asymptomatic people can be infectious, posting a risk to dentists and other healthcare workers.

False p.716 - Immunosuppressed patients who test positive for antibody to T. gondii are presumed to have a latent infection and are given prophylactic medication.

Dental caries can also be referred to as periodontal disease. T/F

False NOT the same thing.

People infected with M. tuberculosis are always highly infectious to everyone around them-true or false, and why? - True-they are constantly shedding bacteria to the environment around them in high numbers, facilitating transmission. - False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. - True-as the mode of transmission is direct contact, anyone or anything they touch can be infected. - False-since TB requires a very high infectious dose, in the early stages of the disease, the patients aren't producing enough bacteria in their respiratory secretions to be infectious.

False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. - infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis results in asymptomatic lung infection - Mycobacterium tuberculosis • Slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium • Strict aerobe with generation time over 16 hours • Unusual cell wall contains mycolic acids: cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkali; responsible for acid-fast staining • Easily killed by pasteurization

Fever allows the body to fight microbial invaders by which of the following mechanisms? - Fever prevents microbes with lower optimum temperatures from growing, giving the immune system time to eliminate those cells. - Fever increases the inflammatory response, but reduces the production of interferons unless the invader is a dsRNA virus. - A moderate fever reduces the inflammatory response but stimulates phagocytic activity in neutrophils and eosinophils. - Fever increases the multiplication of lymphocytes and enhances the release of substances that attract basophils that then engulf the microbial invader. - Fever plays all of these roles in the body.

Fever prevents microbes with lower optimum temperatures from growing, giving the immune system time to eliminate those cells.

What is the likely fate of a fish living in a eutrophic stream? Fish will first thrive as they have more food from the increase in photosynthetic organisms; as they deplete the dissolved oxygen, however, they will die. Fish will first thrive as they have more oxygen from the increase in photosynthetic organisms; eutrophic streams are low in nutrients however, so they will quickly die. Eutrophic streams are always anoxic. This means that only anaerobic fish will be able to survive in a eutrophic environment. Eutrophic streams have high levels of carbon dioxide. Fish will be able to use this for aerobic respiration, so will thrive in this environment. Eutrophic streams have low levels of nutrients in them. Only fish that feed off other fish will be able to survive in these streams.

Fish will first thrive as they have more food from the increase in photosynthetic organisms; as they deplete the dissolved oxygen, however, they will die.

What leads to organ failure in sepsis? Helper T cells and dendritic cells undergo apoptosis, causing immunosuppression that results in organ rejection. Uncontrolled inflammation that leads to neutrohpils releasing damaging toxins and lysosomal enzymes. Formation of small clots in capillaries, impairing blood flow to organs and causing hypoxia and cell death. Accumulation of endotoxins released from Gram-negative bacteria in the organs, causing tissue damage and cell death. Organisms from an infected site generate biofilms that break apart, leading to emboli and organ destruction.

Formation of small clots in capillaries, impairing blood flow to organs and causing hypoxia and cell death. p.668 Correct

Please select the definition regarding aspects of the digestive system that is INCORRECT. Dysentery—diarrhea characterized by fecal pus and blood. Cirrhosis—liver scarring that interferes with function. Gingivitis—inflammation of the teeth and gums. Dysbiosis—imbalance of the intestinal normal microbiota. Cariogenic—causing dental caries.

Gingivitis—inflammation of the teeth and gums. gingivitis is swelling and redness of the gums

Which of the following is more likely to cause fatal septicemias? Gram-positive bacteria Gram-negative bacteria negative stained bacteria acid-fast stained bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria Systemic infection by any microorganism can cause sepsis- more than 50% of cases are caused by Gram-positives but most fatal cases involve Gram-negatives because of the LPS (endotoxin) in their outer membrane.

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for periodontal disease? A) Gram-positive cocci B) Gram-positive rods C) Gram-negative cocci D) Gram-negative

Gram-positive rods CHECK THIS ONE OUT

Gram-positive, pyogenic, facultative anaerobes. Staphylococcus - surgical wounds - pus... - not acid fast - not pyrogenic = cause fever - Gram positive - stains purple - is a facultative anaerobe (many, many wounds anaerobic) Correct

What is the purpose of grinding yard waste before putting it into composting piles? Grinding yard waste is a method for introducing degradative microbes into the mix, needed for composting. Grinding the material breaks down some of the components that microbes cannot digest, such as cellulose. Grinding the material increases the surface area available for microbial action, so that the material can be degraded more efficiently. Grinding the matter introduces large amounts of oxygen into the material, which is essential for microbial degradation of matter. Bacteria are microscopic organisms and can only break down very small pieces of matter, which grinding produces.

Grinding the material increases the surface area available for microbial action, so that the material can be degraded more efficiently.

Which of the following hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route? HAV and HBV HAV and HCV HAV and HEV HAV, HBV, and HCV All hepatitis viruses

HAV and HEV Chart on p.651 Correct

Why is it not surprising that AIDS patients frequently suffer a viral-induced tumor?

HIV genomes integrate into the host cell chromosome. This integration might result in loss of control of the cell cycle (also known as cancer).

What underlying infection should a physician immediately suspect when confronted with a patient with confirmedcryptococcal meningoencephalitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, and why? A. Influenza infection. The 2 viruses are often transmitted together in respiratory droplets. B. HIV infection. People with normal immune systems generally fend off this fungal infection before it becomes clinically symptomatic. C. Varicella zoster virus (chicken pox). During the incubation period for chicken pox, and during its latency, C. neoformans has an increased ability to colonize the respiratory tract. D. Syphilis. This sexually-transmitted illness depletes CD4+ helper T cells that are necessary to directly attack the fungal infection of C. neoformans.

HIV infection. People with normal immune systems generally fend off this fungal infection before it becomes clinically symptomatic.

Explain why HIV becomes resistant so quickly when a single drug is used therapeutically.

HIV uses reverse transcriptase to make a cDNA version of its RNA genome. This polymerase is "'sloppy," with a high rate of error and lack of a proofreading capability. This leads to a high rate of mutation of the viral genome and increased chance for drug resistance.

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth? Escherichia coli. Treponema pallidum. Neisseria gonorrheae. Haemophilus ducreyi.

Haemophilus ducreyi Chancroid, bacterial STI = Haemophilus ducreyi - tastidious, pleomorphic, Gram-negative coccobacillus (short rod) that can be cultivated only on a rich medium such as chocolate agar.

The varicella-zoster virus is a member of which virus family? A) Paramyxoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Togaviridae D) Papillomaviridae E) Retroviridae

Herpesviridae

Select the pair that is INCORRECTLY matched. High BOD—low organic content Potable water—lacks pathogenic microbes and harmful chemicals Total coliforms—lactose-fermenting members of the family Enterobacteriaceae Primary treatment—removal of material that settles High BOD—high organic content

High BOD - low organic content This one is almost identical to a multiple choice question at the end of the chapter.

What does circulating HBeAg indicate about people with chronic HBV infection? Antibodies against this antigen confer immunity to HBV. High levels of this antigen are associated with increased risk of liver cancer. Low levels of this antigen are associated with increased risk of liver cancer. IgM against this antigen indicate active viral replication. High levels of this antigen are associated with decreased risk of liver cancer.

High levels of this antigen are associated with increased risk of liver cancer.

Please choose the reason why gas gangrene infections can be treated with oxygen therapy successfully. A) oxygen reacts with water within the cell producing hydrogen peroxide, which kills the bacterial cells.The oxygen, delivered in low concentration, creates an anaerobic environment in which the Clostridium does poorly. B) Oxygen poisons the clostridial cells. C) The oxygen delivery produces a radioisotope of oxygen within the tissue, destroying the necrotic tissue.High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium. D) High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium.

High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium. (on my chapter quiz - correct)

Gonococci are parasites of: cows. iguanas. sheep. humans. cows AND sheep.

Humans Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus, GC) is well adapted to grow within the human host. Like other STI agents, it is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment.

Which of the following interferes with phagocytosis of S. pyogenes? - Hyaluronic acid capsule - M protein - C5a peptidase - Protein G - All of the answer choices are correct.

Hyaluronic acid capsule - I think it should be ALL. Table 21.1 literally says, "INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS" Capsule mimics host cell component - phagocytes don't see it. M protein in S. pyogenes is an important adhesin that functions in attachment to the host cell - the antibodies that attach to M protein prevent infection. M protein also interferes with phagocytosis by inactivating the opsonin C3b from compliment, prevents complement activation too. C5a peptidase inactivated the chemoattractant C5a - avoids calling phagocytes to the area. Protein G is an Fc receptor that binds Fc part of opsonizing IgG - so phagocytes don't want to eat it.

Select the TRUE statement regarding clostridial myonecrosis. Prevention of clostridial myonecrosis can be achieved with the DCTaP vaccine. Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. Clostridium perfringens infects healthy tissue and grows easily in well oxygenated tissues. The causative agent produces α-toxin, an A-B toxin that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, leading to cell lysis. C. perfringens is an endospore-forming organism, and produces large number of spores in wounds or cultures.

Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues.

Select the TRUE statement regarding clostridial myonecrosis. Prevention of clostridial myonecrosis can be achieved with the DCTaP vaccine. C. perfringens is an endospore-forming organism, and produces large number of spores in wounds or cultures. Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. Clostridium perfringens infects healthy tissue and grows easily in well oxygenated tissues. The causative agent produces α-toxin, an A-B toxin that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, leading to cell lysis.

Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. Correct

I put the whole thing further up

The replicative form of nucleic acid in filamentous phages is: - dsRNA. - dsDNA. - positive ssDNA. - negative ssDNA. - positive ssRNA.

I said dsDNA (the RF - replicative form) and got it wrong. Fig 13.8 says the filamentous phage has positive ssDNA. If asked again... -but pg341 "This double stranded DNA is referred to as the replicative form (RF)."

When Lyme disease was first being investigated, the observation that frequently only 1 person in a household was infected was a clue leading to the discovery that the disease was spread by arthropod bites. Why was this so? A. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) are never inside a house. They are strictly outdoor animals, so they couldn't spread the infection inside the household. B. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) only bite once in their life cycle. As such, they can only transmit the illness once before they die. Even if an infected mosquito was inside a house, it could therefore only infect one human. C. If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. D. Arthropods lose their mechanical ability to bite a human after a single bite, much like certain bees that lose their stinger after a single sting. This prevents them from transmitting the infection to more than one individual in a household.

If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. A, B and D have nutty statements in them, so no.

When Lyme disease was first being investigated, the observation that frequently only one person in a household was infected was a clue leading to the discovery that the disease was transmitted by arthropod bites. Why was this so? Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) are never inside a house. They are strictly outdoor insects, so they couldn't spread the infection inside the household. If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) only bite once in their lifetime. As such, they can only transmit the illness once before they die. Even if an infected mosquito was inside a house, it could only infect one human. Arthropods lose their mechanical ability to bite a human after a single bite, much like certain bees lose their stinger after a single sting. This prevents them from transmitting the infection to more than one individual in a household. These are all valid reasons that support the theory that Lyme disease must be transmitted by arthropod bites.

Which of the following class of antibody is primarily found in external secretions? - IgG - IgD - IgE - IgM - IgA

IgA

Which of the following is the most abundant immunological class produced? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgG D) IgE E) IgM

IgA

The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is ________. - IgM - IgA - IgE - IgG - IgD

IgE - also the least amount in serum

Which is the most efficient at initiating the classical pathway of the complement cascade? - IgG - IgE - IgD - IgA - IgM

IgM

Please select the TRUE statement regarding impetigo. A) Signs and symptoms of impetigo result from inflammation in the keratinized outer epidermal layer. B) The causative organism of impetigo is Cutibacterium acnes. C) Patients with impetigo experience fever, pain, and malaise. D) Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production. E) Treatment of impetigo requires administering at least two different antibiotics.

Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production. "Most common type of PYODERMA, skin infection characterized by PUS production resulting from infection of insect bite, burn, scrape, or other wound" Streptococcal Impetigo is caused by: Streptococcus pyogenes, also Staphylococcus aureus; both have group A carbohydrate

Why does the rash of shingles occur in only a limited region, as opposed to the widespread rash of chickenpox? A) In chickenpox, the replicating virus originates from multiple infected nerve cells, while in shingles it is limited to the bloodstream. B) In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. C) In chickenpox, the virus spreads through the bloodstream to all parts of the body, while in shingles, the virus remains in the chest area after inhalation. D) The chickenpox virus is a double-stranded DNA virus that is able to infect any nucleated cells, while the shingles virus is a single-stranded RNA virus that only infects epidermal cells. E) This question is misleading because the rash of both chickenpox and shingles is widespread throughout the body.

In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. - virus replicates in nucleus of nerve cell and moves to skin, spreading locally. originates from single infected nerve cell rather than from bloodstream.

Please select the statement regarding antimicrobial testing that is FALSE. The MIC and the MBC are quantitative measures of a bacterial strain's susceptibility to an antimicrobial medication. In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test, a clear zone around the antibiotic disc following incubation indicates that the antibiotic is bactericidal. Disc diffusion tests can determine whether an organism is susceptible, intermediate, or resistant to a variety of different antimicrobials. In the Kirby-Bauer test, the clear area in which there is no visible growth of bacteria is called a zone of inhibition. Commercial tests for determining antimicrobial sensitivity are less labor-intensive and often more rapid than conventional tests.

In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test, a clear zone around the antibiotic disc following incubation indicates that the antibiotic is bactericidal. might just be bacteristatic.

Why do Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae seldom cause meningitis in newborns? These pathogens are unable to colonize infants. Infants seldom come into contact with these pathogens. Infants are vaccinated against these pathogens. Infants are protected by maternal IgM against these pathogens. Infants are protected by maternal IgG against these pathogens.

Infants are protected by maternal IgG against these pathogens. p.701 - the common causes of meningitis in children (Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae) seldom cause meningitis in newborns because most mothers have antibodies (IgG) against them. These antibodies can cross the placenta and protect the baby until it is about 6 months old.

Most temperate phages integrate into the host chromosome, whereas some replicate as plasmids. Which kind of relationship do you think would be more likely to maintain the phage in the host cell, and why? - Integration, because plasmids are frequently lost during cell division, which could leave a daughter cell without the virus genome. - Plasmids; they're smaller, so they would be easier to replicate by the host cell. - Integrated; the host cell would be less likely to view this DNA as "foreign" on subsequent rounds of replication, and would retain it more easily. - Plasmids; these structures often carry other genes that may give the host cell a selective advantage over cells that don't have them. - Either plasmids or integration because once a virus genome is in a host cell, there is not way for that genome to be removed from the infected cell.

Integration, because plasmids are frequently lost during cell division, which could leave a daughter cell without the virus genome.

How does protein A help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? A) It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. B) It binds the Fab portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. C) It coats the bacterial cell, destroying LPS and preventing recognition by phagocytes. D) It makes holes in the cytoplasmic membrane of phagocytes, killing them. E) It degrades complement protein C5a, preventing phagocyte recruitment and attachment.

It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. Acts like Streptococcus pyogenes's protein G. Table 22.3 - protein A - binds to Fc portion of antibody, thereby interfering with opsonization.

It can cause meningitis during the first month of life. - notile, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobe, G+ rod that can grow at 4 C. - It is widespread in natural waters and vegetation *babies infected at birth usually develop meningitis after an incubation period of 1-4 wks. True p.703 - in epidemics the portal of entry is the Gi tract - most strains remain susceptible to penicillin

Choose the one correct statement about leptospirosis. a) Humans are the only reservoir. b) Most infections produce severe symptoms. c) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route. d) It can lead to unnecessary abdominal surgery. e) An effective vaccine is generally available for preventing human disease.

It can lead to unnecessary abdominal surgery. a) It is a zoonosis - animal resorvoirs b) leptospirosis infections are often asymptomatic c) contaminated urine is the main mode of transmission - humans contract leptospirosis from water, soil or food contaminated with infected animal urine. Person to person transmission does not seem to occur. e) mild cases resolve without treatment, though antibiotics can be given. Available vaccines are for animal use or for preventing disease in high risk individuals like farmers and vets.

How does coagulase help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? A) It coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein. B) It coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. C) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area. D) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. E) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.

It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. Table 22.3 - coagulase - may slow progress of leukocytes into affected area by producing clots in the surrounding capillaries.

Rowley Pharmaceutical company produces a drug that promotes new blood vessel growth. Is there any application for this drug in wound treatment? A. It could be very beneficial-one of the biggest problems with wound infections is their largely anaerobic nature. The blood supply to the area is usually compromised, helping to create the anaerobic environment. Certain pathogenic microbes then thrive in this environment, creating very serious wound infections. B. It could be disastrous! Part of the reason abscesses lack blood flow is to keep toxins and bacteria from spreading to other areas of the body. Increasing blood flow to the area will provide a highway for these bacteria to seed other organ systems! C. It could be dangerous-wounds need to cut off blood supply to prevent the patient from bleeding to death. Increasing blood vessel development in the wound site might cause the patient to bleed out. D. There would be no beneficial effect-the immune response is already in place in the wound site, so increasing blood cell delivery to the area wouldn't increase or decrease the rate of wound healing.

It could be very beneficial-one of the biggest problems with wound infections is their largely anaerobic nature. The blood supply to the area is usually compromised, helping to create the anaerobic environment. Certain pathogenic microbes then thrive in this environment, creating very serious wound infections.

Which of the following statements about Mycoplasma genitalium is not true?

It has a wide array of regulatory genes, many of which other bacteria lack. Has a tiny genome actually. p.744

Choose the one FALSE statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod. Some strains can grow in nutrient-poor environments, including distilled water. It secretes pigments that together produce a green color. Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically. It is widespread in nature, commonly found in plants.

It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.

Choose the one FALSE statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It secretes pigments that together produce a green color. Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically. Some strains can grow in nutrient-poor environments, including distilled water. It is widespread in nature, commonly found in plants. It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.

It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod. p.607/608 - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a motile, G- rod with a single polar flagellum. Found in a variety of environments such as soil and water, where it grows easily and fast. Is an aerobe but it also respires anaerobically i the absence of O2 if nitrate is present (important for it to form biofilms. Widespread in nature. Can grow in most places there is moisture: contact lens soln, hot tubs, even distilled water. Can be introduced into hospitals on flowers, potted plants and fruit baskets so these aren't allowed in ICU.

Why is Rickettsia rickettsii difficult to grow in culture? A) It is a double-stranded DNA virus. B) It is an obligate intracellular parasite. C) It is resistant to multiple antibiotics. D) It is an obligate anaerobe. E) It is Gram-negative.

It is an obligate intracellular parasite. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

Why do water-testing procedures look for coliforms rather than pathogens? - It is always somewhat dangerous to culture pathogens in a laboratory setting - people in the lab are at risk of contracting serious disease. It is much safer to test for coliforms which simply indicate that humans have been swimming in the water. - Pathogens are seldom found in water. Testing for coliforms is a way of determining whether there is any human normal microbiota contamination in that water, which should then be treated with chlorine. - Pathogens and coliforms are the same thing. Testing for one is also testing for the other. - It is not possible to test for all of the potential pathogens in water, so indicator organisms such as coliforms are used. These microbes are found in feces, so finding them suggests fecal contamination, and indicates a greater likelihood that intestinal pathogens are also present. - Pathogens are extremely fastidious in their nutrient requirements and require special growth conditions. Coliforms are easier to culture in a laboratory setting, so it makes sense to test for these rather than for actual pathogens.

It is not possible to test for all of the potential pathogens in water, so indicator organisms such as coliforms are used. These microbes are found in feces, so finding them suggests fecal contamination, and indicates a greater likelihood that intestinal pathogens are also present.

Pick the one false statement about vulvovaginal candidiasis. a) It often involves the external genitalia. b) It is readily transmitted by sexual intercourse. c) It is caused by a yeast present among the normal vaginal microbiota in about one-third of healthy women. d) It is associated with prolonged antibiotic use. e) It involves increased risk late in pregnancy.

It is readily transmitted by sexual intercourse. p.736 - fungal infection. Like BV, it seems to occur after a disruption of the normal microbiota. Associated with many sexual partners or a new partner, but can occur in the absence of sexual intercourse.

What is the epidemiological significance of shingles? A) It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals. B) It shows that we must always be vigilant against this deadly and highly infectious secondary infection in elderly and immunocompromised individuals. C) It shows that, as a chronic viral infection, individuals infected are always infectious to others around them, even when they do not show outward symptoms. D) It shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever had contracted the illness have died. E) It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals AND it shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever contracted the illness have died.

It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals AND it shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever contracted the illness have died. I know the second part reads nutty but go with it.

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? A) It is a virus. B) It stains poorly with conventional dyes. C) It is Gram-non-reactive. D) It is an acid-fast bacterium. E) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes. - Legionella pneumophila G- rod, fastidious (needs added nutrients if we want to culture it) Stains poorly in tissue/with conventional dyes Facultative intracellular parasite - live in freshwater amoebas and can persist in biofilms (if disturbed, huge numbers can be released) p.556 "the organism stains poorly with conventianal dyes, but it can be detected using immunofluorescence."

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? A) It stains poorly with conventional dyes. B) It is Gram-non-reactive. C) It is an acid-fast bacterium. D) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. E) It is a virus.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes. This is from Ch 21.

How does Legionella pneumophila survive adverse conditions? A) It forms endospores when in dry or hot environments. B) It produces cysts. C) It is acid-fast and resists dehydration. D) It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. E) It is an intracellular parasite in fish.

It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. Facultative intracellular parasite; survives well in freshwater amebas, which can form cysts during adverse conditions, allowing bacteria within to survive - inhaled in aersolized water, they lodge in lungs and promote their uptake by alveolar macrophages. - surface protein called macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) aids entry into macrophages - the cells also bind C3b as an opsonin

Why is it possible to prevent rabies with vaccine given after exposure to the virus? The virus replicates extremely slowly. It is possible to prevent the disease by vaccinating while the viral load is very low. It takes some time for the virus to invade the CNS and travel to the peripheral nerves. Vaccination before this occurs will prevent the disease. Rabies vaccine contains anti-rabies antibodies. These bind to the rabies and virus and destroy it before it is able to cause any neuronal damage. People receive a rabies vaccine in their childhood. Giving a vaccine after exposure to the virus quickly boosts their memory cell populations, protecting them. It takes some time for the virus to invade the peripheral neurons and travel to the CNS. Vaccination before this occurs will prevent the disease.

It takes some time for the virus to invade the peripheral neurons and travel to the CNS. Vaccination before this occurs will prevent the disease.

Which is FALSE about pertussis toxin? A) It uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell. B) It uses part A to inactivate G protein. C) It affects the level of cAMP in a cell. D) It affects the level of mucus secretion. E) It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell.

It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell. Pertussis toxin is an A-B toxin - part B does attach to receptors on the host cell - part A does inactivate G protein (regulatory protein in host cell) - it does affect the level of cAMP in cell which affects the level of mucus secretion

Former president Ronald Reagan once commented at a press conference that the best way to combat the spread of AIDS in the US was to prohibit everyone from having sexual contact for 5 years. What would be the success of such a program if it were possible to carry out? A) It would 'cure' the population of HIV/AIDS. Everyone that had it would die off, and no new cases would occur, since sexual contact is the only mode of transmission for this virus. B) It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus. C) It would be a failure-many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume. D) It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus, AND many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume.

It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus, AND many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume. A is stupid, B and C are both good and D = B+C.

A pathologist claims it's much easier to determine the causative agent of meningitis than an infection of the skin or intestines. Is this true? Why or why not? A. It's not true-an infection is an infection, and it's always difficult to track down the exact causative agent. The organ system involved in the illness has nothing to do with identification of the causative agent. B.It's true-because the central nervous system (CNS) is generally microbe free, whereas the skin and intestines have a diverse normal flora. Separating out a pathogenic causative agent from the normal microbiota in these areas would be much harder to do than in the central nervous system (CNS). C.It's not true-the ventricles of the brain can provide a direct route for microbes to enter the central nervous system (CNS) from the bloodstream/extracellular fluid. Therefore, it would be just as likely to find a pathogenic microbe in the central nervous system (CNS) as it would be in the skin or intestines. D. It's true-there are only 1 or 2 microbes that can cause meningitis, yet there are hundreds (if not thousands) that can cause skin/intestinal infections. This makes it much easier to determine the causative agent for a case of meningitis.

It's true-because the central nervous system (CNS) is generally microbe free, whereas the skin and intestines have a diverse normal flora. Separating out a pathogenic causative agent from the normal microbiota in these areas would be much harder to do than in the central nervous system (CNS).

________ is the physician first associated with vaccination. A) Koch B) Escherich C) Pasteur D) Jenner E) Lister

Jenner - better/safer methods of variolation with cowpox to grant immunity to smallpox. - Pasteur coined 'vaccination' - vacca = cow

The causative agent of the pneumonia that results in permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial, and has a high mortality if untreated is: A) S. pneumoniae. B) K. pneumoniae. C) S. pyogenes. D) S. aureus. E) M. pneumoniae.

K. pneumoniae. Klebsiella pneumoniae - G- rod with large capsule and makes large, mucoid colonies when grown on agar.

Legionella pneumophila, a fastidious Gram-negative rod.

Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to: Escherichia coli. Staphylococcus aureus. Leptospira interrogans. herpes virus.

Leptospira interrogans. Treponema pallidum - syphilis - STI - very slender, highly motile (endoflagellum with corkscrew motion) spirochete that can't be seen using a gram stain. Leptospira interrogans - Leptospirosis - UTI, bacteria gets to urinary tract via bloodstream - slender, aerobic G- spirochete with hooked ends and more than 250 antigenic types

Which of the following genitourinary tract infections is a zoonosis?

Leptospirosis

Which of the following genitourinary tract infections is a zoonosis? Leptospirosis M. genitalium infection Cystitis Syphilis Genital herpes

Leptospirosis

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as cystitis. pyelonephritis. candidiasis. leptospirosis.

Leptospirosis - cystitis is bladder infection, causative agents generally reach the bladder by moving up the urethra. - pyelonephritis is kidney infection that can cause kidney failure - more serious condition that develops with bacterial cystitis - candidiasis is a fungal genital system disease - Leptospirosis - zoonosis (animal urine) - bacteria enters the body through a mucus membrane or wound and is then carried to the urinary system by the bloodstream.

The malolactic fermentation of wine is performed by Aspergillus species. Saccharomyces species. Leuconostoc species. Lactobacillus species. acetic acid bacteria.

Leuconostoc species.

Which S. aureus virulence factor is not correctly matched with its function? A) Capsule—avoiding phagocytosis. B) Hyaluronidase—facilitates spread in tissues. C) Protein A—interferes with opsonization. D) α-Toxin—makes holes in host cell membranes. E) Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes.

Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes. Leukocidin kills leukocytes (WBCs).

Which of the following describes a latent viral infection?

Long periods of time with essentially zero viral replication, punctuated by outbreaks of active replication and disease manifestation. Infected individuals are largely non-infectious between outbreak periods.

Please select the statement that does NOT apply to strategies of bioremediation. Bioaugmentation involves adding microorganisms to contaminated material, complementing the resident population. Providing optimal bacterial growth conditions is likely to promote pollutant degradation. Biostimulation enhances pollutant degradation by enhancing growth of resident microbes in a contaminated site through providing additional nutrients. Low temperature, arid conditions and acidic pH will speed up the rate of pollutant degradation. Co-metabolism occurs when an enzyme produced by a microbe to degrade an added substrate in an environment degrades a pollutant as well.

Low temperature, arid conditions and acidic pH will speed up the rate of pollutant degradation. - it's an increase in temperature, near neutral pH and optimal moisture that will speed up the rate of pollutant degradation.

Lumbar puncture; antibiotics

Two weeks following a hiking trip in which several ticks were noticed and numerous mosquitoes were biting, a 25-year-old man notices a rash shaped like a red ring on the back of his thigh. He was not concerned because he had no other symptoms. Three months later he noticed significant pain in his elbows and his knees. What is the most likely cause of his illness? A. West Nile encephalitis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D. Ehrlichiosis

Lyme disease - the rash in a red ring.

Which is NOT a reason that it would be more difficult to eradicate Lyme disease than rubeola or rubella? Rubeola and rubella only infect humans—if all humans were immune (through vaccination for example), the diseases would be eliminated. The causative agent of Lyme disease is harbored in intermediate hosts (mice and deer)—elimination of these would be impossible. Lyme disease is transmitted by Ixodes tick vectors—it would be impossible to eliminate these ticks from earth. Lyme disease is cannot be treated successfully with antimicrobials, while rubella and rubeola can be successfully treated—it is thus easier to eliminate them. These are all valid reasons to explain why eradicating Lyme disease would be more difficult than eliminating rubella and rubeola.

Lyme disease is cannot be treated successfully with antimicrobials, while rubella and rubeola can be successfully treated—it is thus easier to eliminate them. This is NOT a reason because Lyme disease can be treated with antimicrobials. CORRECT!

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? - M protein - protein A - collagen - pilin

M protein Table 21.1 literally says, "interferes with phagocytosis" M protein in S. pyogenes is an important adhesin that functions in attachment to the host cell - the antibodies that attach to M protein prevent infection. M protein also interferes with phagocytosis by inactivating the opsonin C3b from compliment, prevents complement activation too. More than 80 antigenic types of M protein exist! - Different S. pyogenes strains with in GAS are distinguished by variations in the virulence factor M protein on their surface.

What is the target of anthrax protective antigen (PA), edema factor, and lethal factor? A. Endothelial cells lining the capillaries B. Cells lining the alveoli in the lungs C. Neurons D. Macrophages

Macrophages

Select the statement about plague that is TRUE. DIC causes the dusky color of skin and mucous membranes characteristic of bubonic plague. When Yersinia pestis infects the lungs, septicemic plague always develops. The causative agent of plague is a facultatively anaerobic, Gram-positive rod. Bubonic plague is transmitted by the bite of infected mosquitoes that have also bitten rats. Bubonic plague is almost always fatal.

Maybe the first one. - that's septic plague - not always - facultative anaerobe, G-, not + - bite of infected fleas - 50-80% fatal is not treated... but it is treatable so NOPE (tried, it was wrong)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of landfills? Methane gas that is produced in landfills as the organic waste material anaerobically decomposes must be removed. Only a limited number of sites are available for making landfills near urban and suburban areas. Pollutants such as heavy metals and pesticides frequently leak from landfill sites, reaching underground aquifers and contaminating drinking water, AND only a limited number of sites are available for making landfills near urban and suburban areas. Pollutants such as heavy metals and pesticides frequently leak from landfill sites, reaching underground aquifers and contaminating drinking water. Methane gas that is produced in landfills as the organic waste material anaerobically decomposes must be removed AND only a limited number of sites are available for making landfills near urban and suburban areas.

Methane gas that is produced in landfills as the organic waste material anaerobically decomposes must be removed AND only a limited number of sites are available for making landfills near urban and suburban areas. p.795

Why is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell?

Microbes want to evade detection and elimination by the immune system-the closer they can adhere to host cells, the less likely they are to trigger destructive immune responses. This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation.

What are indicator organisms? Microbes that alert a physician to the presence of a gastrointestinal illness. Microbes that are contaminants in laboratory media. Microbes whose presence in an environment suggests the presence of animal urine. Microbes whose presence in an environment suggests fecal contamination. All of the choices are correct.

Microbes whose presence in an environment suggests fecal contamination.

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin? S. aureus S. epidermidis M. luteus Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma With no cell wall and not peptidoglycan synthesis - what's a penicillin to do?

Which of the following refers to a symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi? Lichens Mycorrhizae Ant gardens Extremophiles Geosmins

Mycorrhizae fungi = myco, roots = rizzhae

Perforin is produced by: - macrophages. - B cells. - B cells AND NK cells. - NK cells. - T helper cells.

NK cells - is a lymphocyte, delivers "death packages" of perforin and proteases, can see cells who have had their MHC class I molecule taken away by an infecting virus (so cytotoxic T cells can't see and kill them) and kills them anyway.

Characteristic inclusion bodies formed by cells of organisms infected with rabies are called: A. Negri bodies. B. metachromatic bodies. C. polyphasic bodies. D. Koplik spots.

Negri bodies Koplik spots is measles (rubeola)

Epidemics of meningitis appear to involve: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Haemophilus influenzae. C. Neisseria meningitidis. D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Neisseria meningitidis p699 - Neisseria meningitidis, often called meningococcus, is frequently responsible for epidemics of meningitis. -cause of meningococcal meningitis - Gram negative diplococcus with capsule - respiratory droplets, attach with pili

Would ID50 and LD50 necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value), for example the rhinovirus (common cold virus).

An antibiotic is added to a culture of E. coli, resulting in death of the cells. Bacteriophages are then added. Would the phages replicate in the E. coli cells? Why or why not? - No, because the bacteriophages would depend too much on having the active machinery of a living host cell for replication. - Yes, because bacteriophages are capable of reanimating dead cells to force them to produce more virus particles. - No, because dead E. coli cells do not have any receptors on their cell walls to which the bacteriophages can attach for entry into the host cell by fusion. - Yes, because the cellular machinery of the bacteria is most likely still active. The bacteriophages could use that machinery to replicate new virus particles. - No, because entry of the bacteriophages into the target cell is dependent on the cell being alive to conduct endocytosis of the virus.

No, because the bacteriophages would depend too much on having the active machinery of a living host cell for replication.

Would you expect an individual with giardiasis who has diarrhea to be more likely to transmit the disease than an individual with giardiasis who does NOT have diarrhea? Why or why not? A. No. This illness is spread by respiratory droplets, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease.B. No. This illness is spread by sexual contact, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease. C. Yes. This illness is spread by the fecal-oral route, so presence of diarrhea as a symptom should dramatically increase the possibility of transmission of infection. D. Yes. This illness is spread by insects that feed on contaminated fecal matter, becoming infected themselves. The disease is spread to new individuals when these infected insects bite a susceptible person, transmitting the cysts of the protozoan. As such, diarrhea as a symptom would increase the risk of transmission through biting insects to new individuals. E. No. This illness is spread when people ingest cysts, and a person with severe diarrhea excretes primarily trophozoites; an asymptomatic person is more likely to excrete cysts and is therefore more infectious.

No. This illness is spread when people ingest cysts, and a person with severe diarrhea excretes primarily trophozoites; an asymptomatic person is more likely to excrete cysts and is therefore more infectious.

Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? cat-scratch disease Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome rabies tapeworm None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses

None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with: A) antibiotics. B) lysozyme. C) proteases. D) nucleotide analogs. E) None of the choices is correct.

None of the choices is correct.

Would you expect the number of virions to be the same if you measured them by the plaque assay or by counting using the electron microscope? Why? - Yes—both methods measure the total number of virus particles in a solution. - Yes—only fully functioning viruses will be released from a host cell, so the quantified number of virus particles in a plaque assay should be identical to the number of free virus particles counted by electron microscopy. - No—the plaque assay only measures viable virus particles, while the electron microscope cannot distinguish between defective and viable virus. - No—you cannot count virus particles by using a plaque assay. You can only get a relative difference in quantity from one preparation of virus particles to another with this method.

No—the plaque assay only measures viable virus particles, while the electron microscope cannot distinguish between defective and viable virus.

Which of the following produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds? E. coli S. aureus S. pyogenes P. aeruginosa

P. aeruginosa slide 21 Water-soluble pigments (fluorescent yellow pyoverdin and blue pyocyanin) yield characteristic green color

The Gram-negative opportunistic rod that can grow in a wide variety of environments, including disinfectants and soaps, is: E. coli. S. aureus. S. pyogenes. P. aeruginosa.

P. aeruginosa slide 24 Pseudomonas aeruginosa widespread in nature, grows in most places that have moisture - Soaps, ointments, eyedrops, contact lens solutions, cosmetics, disinfectants, swimming pools, hot tubs, even distilled water - Introduced into hospitals on ornamental plants, flowers, produce; also found on hospital equipment, inner soles of shoes, illegal injectable drugs

A patient presents with a wound that contains green pus. This suggests to you that the wound is infected with P. aeruginosa, which multiplies in photosynthetic biofilms that are green. S. epidermidis, which produces the water-soluble pigments pyoverdin and pyocyanin. S. pyogenes, which produces a water-soluble blue-green capsule. P. aeruginosa, which produces the water-soluble pigments pyoverdin and pyocyanin. either S. epidermidis or S. aureus, both of which produce pigment soluble coagulase

P. aeruginosa, which produces the water-soluble pigments pyoverdin and pyocyanin. yellow and blue make green pyocyanin - sidiophore to steal host cell iron Correct

Which of the following most accurately describes the pathogenesis of inhalation anthrax? A) EF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. B) PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. C) LF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or PA to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. D) PA and EF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. E) EF and LF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA to enter the cells, where it disrupts critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema.

PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. See, the endospores sit in the lungs for up to 60 days before they head to the chest lymph nodes to germinate but the vegetative cells make 3 proteins that function together as anthrax toxin to kill phagocytes and damage surrounding tissues. p.558 "First, PA (protective antigen) binds to host cells, forming a pore that allows EF (edema factor) or LF (lethal factor) to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This results in pulmonary edema, and triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell."

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to: DNA gyrases. LPS. ribosomes. PABA.

PABA. Sulfonamides are structural analogs of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and thus act as competitive antagonists in microbial cells. Microbes need PABA to form dihydrofolic acid, a precursor of folic acid. Folic acid is required for purine and pyrimidine synthesis and hence nucleic acid synthesis. Sulfonamides not only block formation of folic acid - they are incorporated into the precursors, forming a pseudometabolite that is reactive and antibacterial. Mammalian cells are not susceptible to sulfonamides as they absorb and use preformed folic acid, resulting in a wide therapeutic index.

Haemophilus influenzae meningitis

PATHOGEN: Haemophilus influenzae MORPHOLOGY: Gram-negative rod PORTAL OF ENTRY: Respiratory tract METHOD OF TRANSMISSION: Endogenous infection; aerosols TREATMENT: Cephalosporin Prevention: Capsular Hib vaccine

Pasteurella multocida OR Bartonella henselae. First one - worry for all animal bites Second one - more cat bite specific Correct

Which antibiotics may be completely ineffective in treating a mycoplasmal infection? A) Penicillin AND tetracycline B) Penicillin AND cephalosporin C) Tetracycline AND cephalosporin D) Cephalosporin AND erythromycin E) Erythromycin AND tetracycline

Penicillin AND cephalosporin Both work against the cell wall, mycoplasma has no cell wall.

Which of the following statements regarding Vibrio vulnificus infections in FALSE? The causative agent of the disease, V. vulnificus, is a Gram-negative halophile. People consuming V. vulnificus typically develop signs and symptoms of gastroenteritis. V. vulnificus causes different signs/symptoms, depending on the portal of entry. Liver disease increases the risk of developing severe illness with V. vulnificus infections. People with V. vulnificus infection always develop life-threatening sepsis.

People with V. vulnificus infection always develop life-threatening sepsis. - Is a halophile - seafood right? So tolerates sea water. Salty. - when ingested, an otherwise healthy person may develop only a self liming case of gastroenteritis. - Signs and symptoms do depend on the portal of entry (mouth/open wounds). - in a person with liver disease, the bacteria may invade the bloodstream, leading to fevers, chills, severe skin blistering and shock due to sepsis, which is often fatal. - nope! can be self-limiting or more severe. Depends.

Please identify the mismatched pair. - Alveolar macrophages—lungs - Peritoneal macrophages—meninges - Mesangial macrophages—kidneys - Microglial cells—brain - Kupffer cells—liver

Peritoneal macrophages—meninges

Which of the following does not apply to staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome? Person-to-person spread frequently occurs. It may lead to kidney failure. The causative organism produces superantigens. The causative organism usually does not enter the bloodstream. It is can occur in males and females.

Person-to-person spread frequently occurs. p.737 - it does not spread from person to person

What sign would differentiate meningococcal meningitis from pneumococcal meningitis? It is impossible to differentiate between pneumococcal meningitis and meningococcal meningitis. Petechiae are seen in pneumococcal meningitis but not in meningococcal meningitis. Headache and neck stiffness are experienced with pneumococcal meningitis but not with meningococcal meningitis. Petechiae are seen in meningococcal meningitis but not in pneumococcal meningitis. Headache and neck stiffness are experienced with meningococcal meningitis but not with pneumococcal meningitis.

Petechiae are seen in meningococcal meningitis but not in pneumococcal meningitis.

The 3 toxins that Bordatella pertussis produces:

Petussis Toxin (PT) - an A-B toxin, B attaches to receptor on host cell, A detaches and gets into cytoplasm where it is activated into an ENZYME. It activates a membrane-bound regulatory protein that controls production of cAMP, leading to more cAMP being made. High levels of cAMP interfere with cell isgnalling -> significant increase in mucus made, decreased killing ability of phagocytes, massive release of lymphocytes into blood, ineffective NK cells and low blood sugar. Adenylate cyclase toxin (ACT) - an a membrane-damaging toxin and an enzyme. Toxin reduces phygocytosis by causing lysis of accumulating WBCs. INsdie the cell it also catalyzes the rxn that converts ATP to cAMP. Tracheal cytotoxin (TCT) - is a fragment of peptidoglycan that B. pertussis released during growth and it causes host cells to release a fever-inducing cytokine (interleukin-1). Is also toxic to ciliated epithelial cells - they die and slough off, rapid decline in ciliary action.

How would crowded conditions in cities favor spread of bubonic plague? Plague is transmitted by mosquitoes; more people close together gives an infected mosquito more chances to bite humans and transmit the causative agent, spreading plague. Plague is transmitted by infected fleas; these fleas may be found on rodents (such as rats). More people in an area means a greater chance of interactions with animals carrying infected fleas, increasing the spread of plague. Plague is transmitted by rats; more people means more waste, and more waste means more rats. This would favor the spread of plague. Plague is transmitted by direct contact (e.g. skin to skin). More people in an area provides more chances for infected individuals to directly contact and infect other individuals, spreading plague. Bubonic plague is transmitted by aerosol droplets. People in cities are always dependent on public transport, which is typically overcrowded, so are at risk of acquiring plague bacteria.

Plague is transmitted by infected fleas; these fleas may be found on rodents (such as rats). More people in an area means a greater chance of interactions with animals carrying infected fleas, increasing the spread of plague. Correct Plague - fleas - rats.

Dental plaque E.A biofilm on teeth. Dysentery D.Condition characterized by crampy abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. Enterotoxigenic E. coli, ETEC B.Pathogenic E. coli which secrete plasmid-encoded enterotoxins. Fasciitis C.Inflammation of the fascia, bands of fibrous tissue that underlie the skin and surround muscle and body organs. Fibrinogen A.A blood protein that is converted to fibrin at a wound site.

Probiotic E.Live, beneficial microorganisms. PulseNet A.Surveillance network established by the CDC to facilitate the tracking of foodborne disease outbreaks. Pus B.Thick, opaque, often yellowish material that forms at the site of infection, made up of dead neutrophils and tissue debris. Superantigen C.Toxins that non-specifically activate many T cells, resulting in excessive cytokine production that leads to severe reactions and sometimes fatal shock. Tetanospasmin D.Neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani.

Which of the following virulence factors of Yersinia pestis aid(s) in attachment to host cells? Endotoxin Pla PsaA Yersinia outer proteins (Yops) V antigen

PsaA p.670/Table 25.3 endotoxin = no Pla is about clearing the way to spread Yops is about inhibiting phagocytosis V antigen controls the type III secretion system that delivers the Yops to host cells. PsaA = adhesin - role in ATTACHMENT to host cells. Correct

Which of the signs and symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not typical of other diseases that manifest in a similar way? A) Fever B) Rash C) Headache D) Joint pain E)Muscle pain

Rash RMSF rash starts on palms, soles and moves up extremities to the trunk. Opposite more other rashes.

Rebecca Lancefield - demonstrated that streptococci can be classified according to their cell wall carbohydrates. - this system : Lancefield grouping Before Lancefield streptococcal classification was based on the type of hemolysis displayed when organism were grown on blood agar. - beta hemolysis = clear spots on blood agar - alpha hemolysis = greenish partial clearing on blood agar

Rebecca Lancefield • divided streptococci into groups based on surface antigens instead of blood agar hemolysis • α-hemolytic streptococci • classified β-hemolytic streptococci according to cell wall carbohydrates • System now known as "Lancefield grouping" • Strains from human infections have same cell wall carbohydrate ("A"), different from other sources • Better predictor of pathogenic potential then hemolysis •

Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite? A) Micrococcus luteus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

Rickettsia rickettsii Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

In which of the following does a rash start on the palms and soles and progress toward the trunk? A) Epidemic typhus B) Typhoid C) Measles D) Impetigo E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Rash from blood leakage appears on palms, wrists, ankles, soles; spreads up arms and legs to rest of body.

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 4 to 24 hours isprobably caused by: A) Giardia B) Rotavirus C) Salmonella D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Trichinella

Rotavirus

A public health official was asked to speak about immunizations during a civic group lunch. One parent asked if rubella was still a problem. In answering the question,the official cautioned women planning to have another child to have their present children immunized against rubella. Why did the official make this statement to the group? A) Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. B) Rubella is passed very easily between children, so the official was trying to protect the child that would soon be born from this infection that might be brought in by its siblings after it was born. C) The official is getting kickbacks and bribes from the companies making the vaccines, and he's trying to pad his pockets by getting as many people immunized as possible, regardless of whether they need it or not. D) Rubella infections often lead to very serious and potentially fatal complications. While a woman is pregnant, she may not be able to take care of a sick child as easily. The vaccine will prevent the child already in the family from falling ill and potentially dying due to these possible complications. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. Rubella (German measles, 3-day measles) Early in pregancy, virus particles can cross placenta, infect fetus; less likely later in pregnancy - Nearly all types of fetal cells susceptible - Some are killed, others develop persistent infection with impaired cell division and chromosomal damage - Yields pattern of fetal abnormalities: congenital rubella syndrome - May include eye defects, brain damage, deafness, heart defects, low birth weight; stillborn babies

How is Staphylococcus aureus distinguished from Staphylococcus epidermidis? It is spherical in shape. It is Gram-positive. S. aureus produces coagulase. It is an opportunistic pathogen. It does not produce coagulase.

S. aureus produces coagulase. Staphylococcus aureus is coag-positive Staphylococcus apedermidis is coag-negative just as all other Staphylococcus species other than S. aureus are. Correct

Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus and S. pyogenes is FALSE? A) S. aureus appears as clusters of spherical cells while S. pyogenes appears as chains of spherical cells. B) S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. C) S. aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive while S. pyogenes is catalase negative and coagulase negative. D) The Fc receptor of S. aureus is protein A while the Fc receptor of S. pyogenes is protein G. E) S. aureus is a facultative anaerobe while S. pyogenes is an obligate fermenter.

S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. Both Staphylococus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are Gram positive so stain PURPLE.

Why should scarring of a fallopian tube raise the risks of an ectopic pregnancy? a. Scarring may slow the progression of the ovum (egg) from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. If it is fertilized by a sperm cell while it is stopped in the fallopian tube, it may implant there, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy. b. Scarring can completely block the ovum (egg) from being able to exit the fallopian tube to enter the uterus. It may implant in the wall of the fallopian tube (since it can't enter the uterus) and result in an ectopic pregnancy. c. Scarring may allow the sperm cells to enter the fallopian tubes and bind to the scar tissue. The inflammatory response generated when this occurs is termed an ectopic pregnancy. d. Scarring of the fallopian tubes results from undiagnosed bacterial infections. These bacteria can also make the lining of the uterus inhospitable to implantation of a fertilized egg. If the fertilized egg can't implant into the wall of the uterus, it may travel back into the fallopian tube and implant there instead, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

Scarring may slow the progression of the ovum (egg) from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. If it is fertilized by a sperm cell while it is stopped in the fallopian tube, it may implant there, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy. Slow the progression. Complete blockage of fallopian tube means no sperm gets in to fertilize anything. Correct

Which of the following statements regarding sepsis and septic shock is TRUE? - Sepsis can be prevented with an attenuated vaccine. - Sepsis initially starts due to an overstimulation of the inflammatory response. - A patient surviving the initial stages of sepsis will always recover fully. - Sepsis and septic shock are always caused by Gram-negative bacteria.The signs and symptoms of sepsis include drop in urine output and dusky skin color. - Sepsis and septic shock are easily treated by administering combinations of antibiotics.

Sepsis initially starts due to an overstimulation of the inflammatory response. Problems with each of the other statements.

Gardeners sometimes plant clover between productive growing seasons. Why would this practice be beneficial? A. Several types of nitrogen-fixing bacteria form a symbiotic relationship with the roots of clover. This would increase the amount of nitrogen in the soil available for subsequent seasons of other plants' growth. B. Clover is consumed by a number of animals. This would encourage the animals to feed/graze on the areas, leaving behind nitrogen-rich manure that would act as a natural fertilizer for subsequent seasons of other plants' growth. C. Clover is a unique plant that is capable of atmospheric nitrogen-fixation (pulling nitrogen directly out of the air and turning it into ammonia or amino acids). This directly provides nitrogen compounds for the soil for subsequent seasons of other plants' growth. D. The beneficial effect is more for water retention and elimination of soil erosion in between growing seasons. It has nothing to do with nitrogen compounds in the soil.

Several types of nitrogen-fixing bacteria form a symbiotic relationship with the roots of clover. This would increase the amount of nitrogen in the soil available for subsequent seasons of other plants' growth. So it's about replenishing the nitrogen in the soil.

You are a nurse on a post-surgical ward. One of your patients is an elderly woman who has just had her gallbaldder removed. When you go into her room to check on her, you find that she has significant diarrhea, as well as fever and abdominal pain. You suspect that she has Clostridium difficile infection (CDI), and send a sample of her feces down to the hospital lab for analysis. The test result indicates that your patient does indeed have CDI. You make your patient comfortable and answer her questions about her illness.Your patient wonders how she contracted CDI. Which of the following would be a good explanation for her? Most surgical equipment is contaminated with C. difficile endospores, which are ubiquitous. Most likely your patient acquired CDI directly from her surgery. She has been on antibiotic therapy because of her surgery. The antibiotics disrupted her normal intestinal microbiota, allowing any C. difficile present to flourish. Nobody knows how people contract CDI. The causative bacterium is a common environmental organism and it is not known how it becomes pathogenic. C. difficile is usually a community-acquired organism. She most likely came to the hospital already infected with it but it takes several days for signs and symptoms of CDI to appear. She is elderly; elderly people frequently develop gastrointestinal complaints such as CDI. It is to be expected in an aging person.

She has been on antibiotic therapy because of her surgery. The antibiotics disrupted her normal intestinal microbiota, allowing any C. difficile present to flourish.

Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site? Pasteur Snow Koch Smith

Snow • John Snow (London physician) demonstrated CHOLERA transmitted by contaminated water in 1854 • During outbreak, observed victims got water from well on Broad Street; neighbors elsewhere unaffected • Even though germ theory not yet described, Snow convinced authorities to remove handle on pump

Why might the presence of Apsergillus flavus in grain products be a problem? Some species of Aspergillus cause systemic infections in animals that consume them. Some species of Aspergillus produce aflatoxin, a potent carcinogen. All species of Aspergillus produce aflatoxin, a potent carcinogen. Presence of Aspergillus indicates a highly contaminated environment. Some species of Aspergillus produce aflatoxin, which kills plants and causes crop loss.

Some species of Aspergillus produce aflatoxin, a potent carcinogen. - it produces AFLATOXIN, a potent carcinogen monitored by the FDA. Aflatoxin mycotoxins are toxic to humans and even more toxic to animals. They also cause cancer in humans and animals

Why is ham is a common vehicle for S. aureus food poisoning? Ham is a particularly moist meat, so encourages the growth of the staphylococci, which can only survive on foods with a high aw. Ham is an untreated raw meat. As such, it is prone to contamination by the staphylococci that thrive on meat, resulting in food poisoning. Staphylococci are able to act synergistically with the normal microbiota of pigs, creating toxins that result in food poisoning. S. aureus is part of the normal microbiota of cows, so is a frequent cause of S. aureus food poisoning. Staphylococci are adapted to salty conditions and thrive with little competition on cured meats such as ham.

Staphylococci are adapted to salty conditions and thrive with little competition on cured meats such as ham.

Which of the following organisms can grow at a lower water activity than most spoilage bacteria? Pseudomonas sp. most yeasts Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus It faces too much competition normally but it is salt tolerant and can grow on salty ham where there will be less competition from other spoilage bacteria. (salty foods have a reduced water availability but S. aureus tolerates salt so it's fine.)

Which of the following is mismatched regarding protection of the body from pathogens? - Respiratory tract—mucociliary escalator - Stomach—acid conditions and normal microbiota - Saliva—lysozyme, peroxidase, and lactoferrin - Peroxidases—milk, saliva, mucus, and some phagocytes - Skin—salt, fatty acids, and normal microbiota

Stomach—acid conditions and normal microbiota

Neonatal meningitis

Streptococcus agalactiae - Group B strep enter into infant's blood stream during delivery and is often associated with sepsis in mother and infant as well Encapsulated strains of E. coli from Mom's gut Listeria monocytogenes from bloodstream of infected mom.

The principal cause of dental caries is: S. mutans. S. salivarius. S. mitis. S. sanguis.

Streptococcus mutans Streptococcus mutans, related species are cariogenic (caries generating); live only on teeth • Thrive in acidic environments - Produce lactic acid from fermentation - Convert sucrose into extracellular insoluble polysaccharides called glucans - Glucans essential for development of dental caries on smooth tooth surfaces

Which of the following mostly causes typically pneumonia but may also cause meningitis? Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma meningitidis Neisseria meningitidis Mycoplasma pneumoniae

The leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is: A. Escherichia coli. B. Haemophilus influenzae. C. Streptococcus pneumoniae. D. Neisseria meningitidis.

Streptococcus pneumoniae p.698 - Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, part of the normal microbiota in the nose and throat of many healthy individuals. Although best known as a cause of pneumonia, it is also the leading cause of meningitis in adults. Streptococcus pneumonia = pneumococcus. Gram-positive diplococcus, lancet shaped cells, polysaccharide capsule. common cause of otitis media, sinusisit and pneumonia. Penicillin. Some strains resistant.

Which of the following has been associated with the flesh-eating organism? H. lechter Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes Slide 17/18 Group A Streptococcal "Flesh-Eating Disease" Nectrotizing Fasciitis • Streptococcus pyogenes commonly infects wounds • Generally easy to treat: susceptible to penicillin

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by producing hydrogen peroxide?

Streptococcus species.

which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages? gonorrhea syphilis trachoma non-gonococcal urethritis

Syphilis Primay - hard, painless chancre - infectious (intense inflammatory response) Secondary - bacteria goes systemic - lesions on mucus membranes like tongue - infectious (immune complexes with antibodies) Latent - early stages still infectious, later not infectious Tertiary - not infectious (hypersensitivity reactions to small numbers of T. pallidum that grow and persist in tissues) - can be gummatous, cardiovascular or neurosyphilis

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are: red blood cells. nerve cells. platelets. T helper cells.

T helper cells p.755 - HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most significant is T helper cells. - CD4 T cells.

Early work with Clostridium tetani and Corynebacterium diphtheriae demonstrated: - the importance of thoroughly cooking food. - the usefulness of vaccines. - the potential threat from spore-forming bacteria. - that disease can be caused by poisonous substances produced by bacteria.

TAKE WITH GRAIN OF SALT - the usefulness of vaccines I think this: - that disease can be caused by poisonous substances produced by bacteria. Kitasato determined that C. tetani is obligate anaerobe, devised method of cultivating • Discovered animals injected with C. tetani developed tetanus, but no cells found elsewhere in body • SHOWED BACTERIAL TOXIN RESPONSIBLE FOR DISEASE• Emil von Behring similarly demonstrated diphtheria caused by toxin from Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which statement regarding the treatment of tetanus is FALSE? TIG neutralizes tetanospasmin that is already attached to nerve tissue, preventing damage to that nerve. The person is given tetanus vaccine that results in the production of anti-tetanospasmin antibodies. TIG antibodies bind to circulating toxin molecules, neutralizing their effects and providing passive immunity. The patient is given muscle relaxants and supportive care, including being placed on a ventilator if needed. An antibacterial medication such as metronidazole is given to kill any actively multiplying bacterial cells.

TIG neutralizes tetanospasmin that is already attached to nerve tissue, preventing damage to that nerve. Hint - it doesn't. Correct

You're a famous eye surgeon, specializing in corneal transplants. Give your choice, would you rather have a cornea for transplantation from a 20 year old individual, or a 60 year old individual (assuming there are no optical defects due to age), and why? A. The 60 year old-clearly, if the individual has gone 60 years with no optical defects, this is a very good organ for transplantation. The 20 year old cornea may have defects that simply haven't become apparent yet. B. The 20 year old cornea-younger is always better when dealing with tissue transplants.You want to give the transplant the longest possible time for survival in the recipient. C. The 20 year old cornea-while extremely rare, it may be possible to transmit prions through corneal transplants. It's less likely that a 20 year old would have encountered and become contaminated by prions than the 60 year old. D. The 20 year old cornea-never mind prions, there are a variety of agents that can hide in corneal tissues and that might cause disease. It's far more likely that the 60 year old would be harboring one or more of these pathogens than the 20 year old.

The 20 year old cornea-while extremely rare, it may be possible to transmit prions through corneal transplants. It's less likely that a 20 year old would have encountered and become contaminated by prions than the 60 year old.

Which would be more likely to cause illness: a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for E. coli O157:H7? Both would be equally capable of causing illness because all coliforms cause illness. The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness. This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage. Neither; there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water. The coliform-positive sample would be more likely to cause illness. Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli. The coliform-positive sample would be more likely to cause illness. Coliforms indicate the presence of fecal contamination, which always leads to illness.

The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness. This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.

Why is it important to give the MMRV vaccine to healthy, non-immune contacts of people with immunodeficiencies? A) The MMRV vaccine is a toxoid vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. B) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts. C) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. D) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts. E) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd trending.

The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. Attenuated vaccines contained weakened but still able to replicate microorganisms. Possibility of causing severe disease.

Smoking impairs the ciliated cells of the middle portion of the respiratory tract. Many analgesic drugs (painkillers) impair peristalsis (the churning motion of the digestive tract). The result of either of these activities leads to an increased risk of infection in their respective areas. Why? Chemicals in cigarette smoke and the chemicals in painkillers impair our immune systems, making us generally more predisposed to infections (regardless of the tissue area). Chemicals in cigarette smoke and the chemicals in painkillers impair the ability of our immune system cells to move into areas that are infected. As such, they can't perform their job of eliminating microbes as well as they should and infections result more easily. The actions of the cells in these areas help to propel pathogens out of the area, serving as a part of the physical barrier system. When they are impaired/slowed, bacteria and other pathogens have an easier time adhering to the tissues in the area and causing an infection. Ciliated cells also line the digestive tract, and these cells secrete strong natural antibacterial compounds. When they are impaired, bacteria can more easily infect these areas. The actions of the cells in these areas help to propel pathogens into the stomach, where they are destroyed by acid. When they are impaired/slowed, bacteria and other pathogens do not get destroyed by and can cause an infection.

The actions of the cells in these areas help to propel pathogens out of the area, serving as a part of the physical barrier system. When they are impaired/slowed, bacteria and other pathogens have an easier time adhering to the tissues in the area and causing an infection.

A 37-year-old man is admitted to the hospital where you work with dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision, and slurred speech. In addition, he reports abdominal symptoms, including pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The patient's family tells you that he was recently at a church potluck, where he ate bread, streak, homemade tomato-beef stew and home-canned green beans. Based on the patient's signs and symptoms, the physician with whom you are working suspects botulism, and the patient is immediately given botulinum antitoxin. He develops breathing difficulty and is placed on a mechanical ventilator.A stool sample from the patient is cultured, and confirms the presence of Clostridium botulinum. In addition, the stool sample as well as leftover stew and green beans are tested for botulinum toxin—toxin is present in the green beans and in the stool sample, but not in the stew. These results confirm the diagnosis of foodborne botulism. You are one of the RNs taking care of the patient—he remains in the hospital for several weeks, before being discharged. How did the antitoxin help the patient? The antitoxin is a mixture of antibodies that bind to and thereby neutralize the different serotypes of botulinum toxin. The antitoxin binds to and destroys Clostridium botulinum cells, preventing them from releasing botulinum toxin. The antitoxin stimulates phagocytes to neutralize botulinum toxin type A. The antitoxin contains antibodies to botulinum toxin type A, which is the type that causes illness. The antitoxin is a mixture of antigens that bind to and thereby neutralize the different serotypes of botulinum toxin.

The antitoxin is a mixture of antibodies that bind to and thereby neutralize the different serotypes of botulinum toxin. This is from a scenario question in the text! p.811 - this is the first line of the first discussion question answer. :)

Why is oil not degraded when in a natural habitat underground, yet susceptible to bioremediation in an oil spill? a) The bacteria can't be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground. Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity. b) It IS degraded underground-but it happens at a much slower rate because a portion of the cycle is photosynthetic in nature. This process is dramatically increased nearer to the water's surface. c) The high pressure the oil is subjected to underground prevents bacteria from growing and consuming it. d) The bacteria that degrade the oil require a higher than normal salt content, much like what is found in seawater. Underground, they lack this salt level.

The bacteria can't be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground. Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity. p.797 - petroleum-degrading bacteria are naturally present in seawater, but they degrade oil at a very slow rate because the low levels of certain nutrients, including nitrogen and phosphorus, limit their growth. To enhance bioremediation of oil spills, a fertilizer containing these nutrients - and which adheres to oil - was developed. When this fertilizer is applied to an oil spill, microbial growth is stimulated, leading to at least a threefold increase in the speed of degradation. - for oil spills - biostimulation is better than bioaugmentation.

Rickettsia rickettsii are readily phagocytized by macrophages. Why doesn't this control the infection and prevent the development of Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A. The bacteria interfere with the development of antibodies. B. The bacteria are toxic for T cells and prevent the development of cell-mediated immunity. C. The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytoplasm of the phagocyte. D. The bacteria are unable to inactivate complement.

The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytoplasm of the phagocyte. Ch 22

What is NOT a reason why an abscessed wound might not respond to antibiotic treatment? A. The bacteria within the abscess have ceased replicating, and many antibiotics require actively replicating cells in order to be effective. B. The blood vessels that would bring the drug to the area have been destroyed or clogged with clots, preventing the drug from getting to the microbes in the abscess. C. The bacteria in an abscess have all acquired multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect. D. The chemical composition of the pus in the abscess often inactivates antibiotic drugs, making them ineffective.

The bacteria in an abscess have all acquired multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect. Factors why microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents is because - the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels. Correct

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. L. pneumophila is a facultative intracellular parasite. How does it manipulate the immune system so as to enter host cells? A) The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis. B) The bacteria have macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages. C) The bacteria cause necrosis of alveolar cells, leading to an inflammatory response. D) The bacteria survive in alveolar macrophages by preventing phagosome-lysosome fusion AND the bacteria cause necrosis of alveolar cells, leading to an inflammatory response. E) The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis AND the bacteria have a surface protein (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages.

The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis AND the bacteria have a surface protein (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages.

Why are secondary infections a common complication of measles? A) The causative agent damages the keratinized epidermal layer. B) The causative agent severely suppresses the immune system. C) Phagocytes are killed by the causative agent of measles. D) The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes. E) The causative agent prevents B cells from producing protective antigens.

The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes.

Which statement about bacterial vaginosis is FALSE? BV in pregnant women should be treated because it may cause premature birth. Women voluntarily inoculated with cultures of Gardnerella vaginalis, and members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus do not always develop BV. The causative agent of the disease is Gardnerella vaginalis that interacts antagonistically with members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus. Women with BV can be diagnosed by the presence of clue cells and a fishy vaginal odor caused by metabolic byproducts of anaerobic bacteria. Low numbers of G. vaginalis, and members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus can occur in vaginal secretions of healthy women.

The causative agent of the disease is Gardnerella vaginalis that interacts antagonistically with members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus.

Which statement regarding the pathogenesis of necrotizing fasciitis is INCORRECT? The causative agent produces SPE A, a superantigen that causes helper T cells to release large amounts of cytokines, leading to toxic shock. SPE B is a protease produced by S. pyogenes that causes tissue death and breakdown, leading to fluid accumulation in the area and intense swelling. M protein-fibrinogen complexes causes neutrophils to release inflammatory molecules that increase vascular permeability and lead to a blood pressure drop. The causative agent sheds antibodies that attach to fibrinogen and recruit natural killer cells that destroy muscle fascia through ADCC. A hyaluronic acid capsule and M protein allow the causative agent to evade the immune responses.

The causative agent sheds antibodies that attach to fibrinogen and recruit natural killer cells that destroy muscle fascia through ADCC. Correct

Which statement regarding meningitis is FALSE? If bacterial meningitis is suspected, a person is given broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately, without waiting for identification of the causative organism. The cerebrospinal fluid of people with either viral meningitis or bacterial meningitis is cloudy and opaque rather than being clear and pale yellow in color. Meningitis is a relatively rare disease, because it is very difficult for the causative agents to cross the blood-brain barrier. Bacterial causative agents of meningitis are transmitted through respiratory droplets, while viral agents of the disease may also be transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Vaccines protect against the most important types bacterial meningitis but prevention of viral meningitis depends on increased hand washing and avoiding crowded areas.

The cerebrospinal fluid of people with either viral meningitis or bacterial meningitis is cloudy and opaque rather than being clear and pale yellow in color. Viral = looks clear - aseptic meningitis

Why can't botulism be transmitted from person to person? The disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin. Botulism is a toxin-mediated blood-borne disease AND people with botulism die before they can transmit the disease to others. The disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin AND people with botulism die before they can transmit the disease to others. The disease is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin AND the disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin. The disease is a toxin-mediated disease; it is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin produced under anaerobic conditions by Clostridium tetani.

The disease is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin AND the disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin. Check out that last choice. C. tetani? That's tetanus. This is C. botulinum.

Why is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome sometimes fatal? A) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk secondary bacterial infection. B) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection. C) The causative organism is Gram-negative and may cause endotoxic shock. D) Exfoliatin can bind to cardiac cells, causing disruption of the heart rhythm and heart failure. E) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of severe dehydration.

The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection.

Which one of these statements about chlamydial genital infections is false? a) The incubation period is usually shorter than in gonorrhea. b) Infected cells develop inclusion bodies. c) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can be complicated by infection of the surface of the liver. d) Tissue damage largely results from cell-mediated immunity. e) Fallopian tube damage can occur in the absence of symptoms.

The incubation period is usually shorter than in gonorrhea. - gonorrhea incubation period is 2-5 days. - chlamydia incubation period is 7-14 days

Why is it difficult to determine the causative agents of periodontal disease? The agents are fastidious bacteria that cannot be cultured in the laboratory. The infections are polymicrobial, so multiple species of interacting bacteria are involved. The causative agents are encased in biofilm polysaccharides that cannot be removed. Identification requires 16S rDNA sequencing and not all bacteria have this gene. The causative agents are typically viruses, which are difficult to identify.

The infections are polymicrobial, so multiple species of interacting bacteria are involved.

You are graduating from nursing school in three months and have already lined up a new job. However, your employer informs you that before you start your job, it is mandatory for you to be vaccinated against hepatitis B, a double-stranded DNA virus that can cause the disease hepatitis. Your boyfriend, a biology major, wonders why you need to get the vaccine. You aced your microbiology class and you know a lot about both viruses and vaccines, so you understand why getting this vaccination is essential. You give your boyfriend a mini lesson on this by answering a few of his questions. You tell your friend that you are happy to be receiving your vaccination because hepatitis B is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer). Select the FALSE statement regarding viruses and cancer. - Viruses that lead to cancer formation are called oncogenic viruses. - Viruses that insert their genome into the host cell's chromosome may cause changes at the insertion site, converting a proto-oncogene into an oncogene. - Some viruses carry an oncogene—infection with these viruses interferes with the host cell's own growth-control mechanisms. - The majority of tumors are caused by oncogenic viruses but some may be caused by mutations in host genes that regulate cell growth. - The most common viral causes of tumors are certain DNA viruses such as hepatitis B virus.

The majority of tumors are caused by oncogenic viruses but some may be caused by mutations in host genes that regulate cell growth. - pg 351 says "the majority of tumors are not caused by oncogenic viruses, however, but by mutations in host genes that regulate cell growth."

Why is legionellosis not treated with β-lactam medications? A) The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. B) The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly. C) The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications AND the causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate. D) The causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate AND the causative organism produces endospores so is highly resistant to these medications. E) The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications.

The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. Legionella pneumophila produces a beta lactamase, makes it resistant to many penicillins and some cephalosproins. Because the bacteria multiply inside the alveolar macrophages, medication must be able to accumulate within these cells to be effective, which beta lactam antibiotics do poorly. p.557

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever A) The microorganisms become invasive. B) The symptoms are due to an exotoxin .C) The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder. D) The classic symptom is diarrhea. E) Chemotherapy is highly effective.

The microorganisms become invasive.

Why might the Yersinia pestis from a patient with pneumonic plague be more dangerous than the same organism from fleas? The organism acquired this way is already fully virulent, so is especially dangerous. The organism mutates in a person with pneumonic plague, so is more dangerous. The organism involved in pneumonic plague is resistant to multiple antibiotics. Y. pestis in the lungs has a polysaccharide capsule while that in fleas does not. These are all true.

The organism acquired this way is already fully virulent, so is especially dangerous. p.670 Correct

Why is it not possible to culture Treponema pallidum in vitro? The organism is highly motile and requires actin from host cells to make tails for movement AND the organism is Gram-negative. The organism obtains most of its essential macromolecules from the host AND the organism is an obligate intracellular parasite. The organism is an obligate halophile AND the organism is highly motile and requires actin from host cells to make tails for movement. The organism lacks mitochondria and obtains all of its essential macromolecules from the host AND the organism is Gram-negative. The organism is an obligate intracellular parasite AND the organism is a psychrophilic anaerobe.

The organism obtains most of its essential macromolecules from the host AND the organism is an obligate intracellular parasite. p.747 - T. pallidum does not replicate in vitro. The organisms lacks certain metabolic abilities and does not have enzymes needed for the TCA cycle or electron transport chain for can not generate much ATP. It gets most of its essential macromolecules from the host.

Which of the following is NOT involved in the pathogenesis of RMSF? A) The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. B) Endotoxin released into the bloodstream from the rickettsial cell walls results in systemic inflammation. C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation that leads to organ damage may occur following release of endotoxin into the bloodstream. D) Host cells rupture following damage caused by bacterial cells propelling themselves from one cell to another. E) Vasculitis leads to clotting and small areas of necrosis, causing a hemorrhagic skin rash and damaging tissue in the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs.

The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. Pathogenesis • Bacteria taken up by capillary endothelial cells, possibly by forced endocytosis • Bacteria leave phagosome, multiply in cytoplasm, nucleus - Bacteria coat themselves with actin, use to move into adjacent host cells, cause extensive membrane damage - Cells rupture, release rickettsias into bloodstream - Infection of walls of blood vessels causes inflammatory reaction, leads to clotting in blood vessels - Produces small areas of necrosis, yields skin rash • Clotting throughout body damages kidneys, heart • Release of lipopolysaccharide from cell wall into bloodstream causes shock, generalized bleeding due to disseminated intravascular coagulation

You add an unknown phage to a mixture of F+ and F− cells of E. coli and plate out the bacteria. The bacterial colonies that grow are all F−. How can you explain this phenomenon?

The phage bound to a receptor on the sex pilus, and therefore only infected the F+ cells (leaving the F− cells alone).

Why is it so important to protect against influenza?

The vaccine is fairly effective in protecting against the flu. However, a problem comes from the changing nature of the flu virus. The antibody generated from the last exposure may be useless against the next iteration of the virus. The virus has several segments of RNA and is also found in animals. Both of these characteristics allow for changing and mixing of the nucleic acid, which may be reflected in changes in the antigenic nature of the virus. Therefore, every year there is a possibility that the antigens have changed enough from the last infection to be unrecognizable. In particular, the changes appear in the neuraminidase and hemagglutinin molecules coating the virus.

Who would have larger numbers of bacteria living on the surface of their skin—a person living in the tropics or in the desert, and why? A) The tropics would provide more shade, so the surface of the skin wouldn't be exposed to high levels of ultraviolet radiation. This would protect the bacteria on the skin, and they would have higher numbers due to this shading effect. B) The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual's skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics. C) The constant secretion of high amounts of sweat would produce a highly salty environment on the skin of a person in the tropics. This would provide a local environment that would be too hostile for microbes to survive, so the number of microbes on the skin of the person in the tropics would be lower than that of the person in the desert. D) The constant secretion of large amounts of sweat would wash bacteria off of the skin of the person in the tropics. As such, the person in the desert should have much more bacteria on their skin than the person in the tropics would. E) The very high humidity of the desert would lead to slow evaporation of sweat and sebum from a person's skin. Bacteria thrive on these secretions, using them for a nutrient source. Thus bacteria would be found in much higher numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics.

The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual's skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics. I choose the tropics. A is goofy - wrong C - skin is left salty when sweat evaporates - which it would in the DESERT - wrong D - those bacteria are stuck on - not getting washed off with sweat. wrong E - desert doesn't have high humidity - wrong

Why does it take more than a week before a mosquito that has just become infected with yellow fever virus can transmit the disease? Mosquitoes only feed once a week, which limits their ability to transmit the disease rapidly. The mosquito actually transmits the virus almost immediately. It takes a week for the virus to multiply in the gut of the host before it causes any ill effects in that host. The virus multiplies in the gut of the mosquito, but then needs to migrate to the mouth of the insect in order to infect a new human being after a new bite. This migration takes time. Mosquitoes that acquire yellow fever virus become ill for a week thereafter. They have to recover before they can feed again and transmit the virus to the next host. The virus must replicate in the gut of the mosquito before it can reach high enough numbers for transmission to a new human.

The virus must replicate in the gut of the mosquito before it can reach high enough numbers for transmission to a new human. Correct

Their their numbers significantly decrease during most bacterial infections. - they significantly increase actually.

Please identify the INCORRECT statement regarding bacterial diseases of the lower gastrointestinal system. Cholera toxin—A-B toxin that causes intestinal cells to secrete HCl. Pseudomembranous colitis may develop in a person with Clostridium difficile infection. There are more than 2,400 serotypes of Shigella, based on differences in their O, H, and K antigens. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli may cause hemolytic uremic syndrome in an infected person. Of the four pathogenic strains of Shigella, S. dysenteriae is the most virulent.

There are more than 2,400 serotypes of Shigella, based on differences in their O, H, and K antigens. p.643 - It's salmonella that has this, not shigella Correct

Why are such a high percentage of infant botulism cases associated with ingestion of honey? A. Bees cultivate C. botulinum bacteria within their hives as a food source, so it gets mixed in with the honey. B. The infant digestive tract is far more susceptible to the effects of botulism toxin (found in the honey in relatively high levels) than the adult digestive tract. C. The spores of C. botulinum produce a strong endotoxin. This endotoxin has little effect on adults due to their overall size. Infants, however, are significantly smaller (and therefore far more susceptible) than adults. D. There can be endospores from C. botulinum in honey. They may germinate in the intestines of infants following consumption of honey, leading to colonization and pathogenesis as the bacteria begin forming botulism toxin. Adults' normal intestinal microbiota will out-compete the new microbes, but very young infants may not yet have this normal flora established.

There can be endospores from C. botulinum in honey. They may germinate in the intestines of infants following consumption of honey, leading to colonization and pathogenesis as the bacteria begin forming botulism toxin. Adults' normal intestinal microbiota will out-compete the new microbes, but very young infants may not yet have this normal flora established.

Your patient had abdominal surgery three days ago. She seemed to be doing well after the surgery, but today the skin around the surgical incision is red and swollen. In addition, your patient has a high fever and is complaining of muscle aches. She also has a rash and has diarrhea. You realize that her wound has become infected, despite your best efforts as a nurse, and you are concerned that she has developed toxic shock syndrome. You explain the details of this type of infection to the patient's family.You are extremely concerned, because the laboratory reports that the organism cultured from your patient's wound is capable of digesting collagen and fibronectin. Why are you worried about this? This would indicate that the bacterium is a lysogen, containing viral DNA conferring new characteristics on the organism. Bacteriophages pose an additional health risk to your patient. These are structural components of tissue. Their digestion means that not only could the organisms spread easily, but also important structures such as tendons could be destroyed. This would indicate that the organism is capable of forming biofilms and it is very difficult to eliminate biofilms once they have developed, because of resistance. These are structural components specifically of the heart. Their digestion means that the patient is at risk of heart failure, which will prove fatal. This would indicate that the pathogen has the ability to break down activated complement proteins, thereby avoiding the innate immune defenses and allowing it to persist.

These are structural components of tissue. Their digestion means that not only could the organisms spread easily, but also important structures such as tendons could be destroyed. Correct

Mycoplasma genitalium is an emerging cause of genital tract infections in men and women worldwide. The organism was discovered and identified only in the early 1980s. Rising incidence and increasing resistance to antimicrobial medications are problematic. You are asked by your nursing professor to prepare a short presentation on this emerging disease. The questions that follow are those that you anticipate that being asked by your classmates. Select the statement that applies to Mycoplasmas. These bacteria are intrinsically resistant to β-lactam antibiotics. Mycoplasmas resist the effects of β-lactam drugs by synthesizing a β-lactamase. These bacteria have mycolic acids in their cell wall. These organisms have a rapid generation time. These organisms all contain a terminal organelle.

These bacteria are intrinsically resistant to β-lactam antibiotics. p.744/745 - mycoplasmas do not have a cell wall. WHICH MEANS THEY HAVE INTRINSIC RESISTANCE TO PENICILLIN/BETA-LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS. - they have a long generation time - the organism produces a complex cytoplasmic projection called a TERMINAL ORGANELLE at one end of the cell - Mycoplasma genitalium does, yes, but not Mycoplasmas in general. Emerging Disease

How do bacteriocins benefit bacteria in their natural habitat? They provide a source of nutrients during adverse environmental conditions. They allow bacteria to compete against other bacteria that may attempt to use the same or similar resources. They induce resistance in the bacteria, helping them survive when medications are introduced into their habitat. They are protective structures that allow bacteria to survive adverse environmental conditions. They protect the bacteria from the effects of antibiotics in the environment.

They allow bacteria to compete against other bacteria that may attempt to use the same or similar resources.

You are a nurse on a post-surgical ward. One of your patients is an elderly woman who has just had her gallbaldder removed. When you go into her room to check on her, you find that she has significant diarrhea, as well as fever and abdominal pain. You suspect that she has Clostridium difficile infection (CDI), and send a sample of her feces down to the hospital lab for analysis. The test result indicates that your patient does indeed have CDI. You make your patient comfortable and answer her questions about her illness.You tell your patient that her CDI is caused by a bacterium belonging to the genus Clostridium. Which of the following is true of all Clostridia? They are Gram-negative, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate aerobes. They are Gram-positive, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate anaerobes. Clostridial infections only occur if a state of dysbiosis exists in the host. They are flagellated and always cause significant inflammation. They are encapsulated, flagellated, toxin-producing aerobes.

They are Gram-positive, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate anaerobes. p.647

If an immunodeficient person is exposed to VZV and belongs to a non-immune population, how can that person be protected from developing chickenpox? A) They can be passively immunized with zoster hyperimmune globulin. B) They can be actively immunized with the MMRV vaccine. C) They can be passively immunized with the MMRV vaccine. D) They can not be protected at all—they will get the disease. E) They can be given prophylactic antibiotics.

They can be passively immunized with zoster hyperimmune globulin. • Immunocompromised individuals at risk of severe VZV infections; partial protection achieved by passive immunization with ZVIG (hyper-immune globulin with high concentrations of antibody to VZV)

Which is true about prions? A. They cause a degenerative brain condition. B. They are naked pieces of RNA. C. They are made of DNA and protein. D. They are a normal brain protein that has folded differently. E. They cause a degenerative brain condition AND they are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.

They cause a degenerative brain condition AND they are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.

Which statement about most phages that contain single-stranded DNA is NOT true? - Their DNA is transformed to dsDNA before replication and transcription occur. - They are extruded from the host cell. - They contain a negative-sense DNA strand. - All of the choices are correct. - None of the choices is correct.

They contain a negative-sense DNA strand - filamentous phases are ssDNA - fig 13.8 shows it being ss(+)DNA

Which is true of MRSA? A. It stands for moxicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus. B. They have R plasmids. C. They may be sensitive to Synercid. D. All MRSA strains remain sensitive to vancomycin. E. They have R plasmids AND they may be sensitive to Synercid

They have R plasmids AND they may be sensitive to Synercid - saw this one, a little different. MRSA - methacillin resistant staphylococcus aureus.

Which characteristic(s) is/are NOT common to C. tetani and C. perfringens? They are obligate anaerobes. They are rod-shaped. They produce A-B toxins. They are Gram-positive bacteria. They are spore-formers.

They produce A-B toxins They are both the rest - they are G+ rod shaped, obligate anaerobes. Clostridium is a spore-former. Correct

Which of the following is specific to H. pylori strains associated with stomach cancer? They produce VacA. They have sheathed flagella. The are acidophilic. They are microaerophilic. They produce CagA.

They produce CagA. p.632 Correct

The stage of Lyme disease that is characterized by arthritis is the: A. primary. B. third. C. second. D. fourth.

Third Three stages; individual patients may be asymptomatic in one or more - early localized, early disseminated and late disseminated. Early localized disease: At this point, the infection has not yet spread throughout the body. Lyme is the easiest to cure at this stage. Early disseminated: Bacteria are beginning to spread throughout the body Late disseminated: The Lyme bacteria have spread throughout the body and many patients develop chronic ARTHRITIS as well as an increase in neurological and cardiac symptoms.

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? A) This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. B) This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. C) This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. D) This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. E) Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection.

This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. Exotoxin (Staphylococcus is gram positive) S. aureus strains that produce toxin called exfoliatin • Only about 5% of strains produce this toxin • One type coded by a plasmid, one chromosomal

Why would you expect acyclovir to be ineffective against latent HSV infections? A. This is an antibacterial drug, and HSV is a virus. B. This is an antifungal drug, and HSV is a virus. C. This drug directly inhibits DNA polymerase activity-cells that are latently infected with HSV have no DNA polymerase activity. D. This drug is a nucleoside analogue-it becomes activated by a viral enzyme that is produced only when the virus is replicating. As such, if the virus is latent, the enzyme to activate the drug is not present (and the drug is ineffective).

This drug is a nucleoside analogue-it becomes activated by a viral enzyme that is produced only when the virus is replicating. As such, if the virus is latent, the enzyme to activate the drug is not present (and the drug is ineffective). Drugs ending in -vir are antiviral.

Why is it not surprising that Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections? Staphylococci acquire antibiotic resistance very readily, making them hard to eliminate by pre-surgical antibacterial soaps. As such, they commonly infect surgical wound sites. This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds. Staphylococci form endospores, so even with appropriate control measures, there is a high risk that spores will enter a wound and cause infection. Members of this genus are all particularly virulent and highly capable of causing numerous infections. Staphylococci cannot be eradicated from the skin due to multidrug resistance in most members of the genus. Drugs simply don't kill them.

This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds.

Why is it not surprising that Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections? A) Staphylococci are capable of a higher degree of spontaneous mutation than most microbes. This makes them able to acquire antibiotic resistance very readily, making them hard to eliminate by pre-surgical antibacterial scrubs. As such, they commonly infect surgical wound sites. B) Members of this genus are all particularly virulent and highly capable of causing numerous infections. C) Staphylococci cannot be eradicated from the skin due to multidrug resistance in most members of the genus. Drugs simply don't kill them. D) This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds.

This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds. Correct

How can the biomass of fungi in soil be greater considering that bacteria are more numerous? a) It depends on where they grow. Fungi generally grow in the most moist areas near the top of soil. This gives them an advantage over bacteria. They may not be as numerous, but this advantage in location and nutrients is what makes them larger than the bacteria (and therefore having more biomass). If the bacteria evolved to take over the top portion of the soil, THEY would have the larger biomass than the fungi. b) This is a matter of size. Fungi, whether unicellular or multicellular, are eukaryotic. As such, they will generally be larger than bacteria (which are prokaryotic). This means that, even with a lower overall number, they will have more total biomass. c) Fungi are capable of incorporating the dead materials around them into themselves as nutrient sources (while bacteria are not). This capacity allows them to greatly increase their biomass per each organism, well beyond what a simple bacterial cell could hold. This capability is what allows them to achieve higher biomass than bacteria. d) Fungi are always multicellular organisms, while bacteria are unicellular. As such, biomass of fungi would always be larger than that of bacteria, since they possess more cells in each individual organism.

This is a matter of size. Fungi, whether unicellular or multicellular, are eukaryotic. As such, they will generally be larger than bacteria (which are prokaryotic). This means that, even with a lower overall number, they will have more total biomass.

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in a person receiving antibacterial medications? This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are killed by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources and it quickly overgrows, causing disease. This is a protozoan species and part of the normal microbiota. When the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources and can overgrow, causing disease. This fungal organism can actually use the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state. This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal microbiota. As such, when the bacterial normal microbiota is eliminated by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind. The person's immune system is severely suppressed when they are on antibiotics. This means that the Candida is able to colonize areas normally protected by phagocytes, and can thrive there, causing disease.

This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are killed by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources and it quickly overgrows, causing disease.

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in an individual receiving antibacterial medications? A) This fungal organism can actually utilize the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state. B) This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal microbiota. As such, when the bacterial normal microbiota is wiped out by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind. C) This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state. D) This is a protozoan species and part of the normal microbiota. When the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.

This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state. Not really a usual member but is found among them.

Explain how Vibrio cholerae causes cholera without apparent damage to the intestinal epithelium. a. This microbe causes destruction of the cellular structures underneath the intestinal epithelium-this is what induces the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. This leaves the overlying intestinal epithelium intact. b. This microbe directly invades the intestinal epithelial cells, but does not kill them. Instead, while multiplying inside them, it causes them to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. c. This microbe attaches to the surface of intestinal epithelial cells, secreting an exotoxin that causes the epithelium to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces large amounts of water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. d. The inflammatory reaction to the presence of this microbe causes the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. Therefore, it's technically the immune response that initiates the disease, although this response is induced by the presence of the microbe on the intestinal epithelium. c. This microbe attaches to the surface of intestinal epithelial cells, secreting an exotoxin that causes the epithelium to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces large amounts of water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness.

This microbe attaches to the surface of intestinal epithelial cells, secreting an exotoxin that causes the epithelium to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces large amounts of water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. I think: doesn't damage the cell per say, the A-B enterotoxin (cholera toxin) just opens channels to let out electrolytes, water follows by osmosis. Get abundant water diarrhea.

Rubella is a member of which virus family? A) Paramyxoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Togaviridae D) Papovaviridae E) Retroviridae

Togaviridae Virus families end in -viridae. Rubella virus of togavirus family: - enveloped, single-stranded RNA • Easily cultivated in cell cultures

You are reviewing for your nursing school entry exam with your study group. Each person in the group agrees to cover one disease. You select toxoplasmosis for your presentation. Toxoplasmosis can be a serious problem for those who are immunosuppressed, as well as for fetuses. Even in healthy people, the immune system may not clear the organism, resulting in a latent infection that can reactivate when immunity declines.Please select the FALSE statement regarding toxoplasmosis. Infection of the fetus, especially during the first trimester, results in miscarriage, stillbirth, or birth defects. Toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic among healthy people, although some people develop sore throat, fever, and enlarged lymph nodes and spleen. Toxoplasmosis may cause encephalitis, brain masses, and other nervous system problems in immunodeficient people. Toxoplasmosis occurs in two main forms—tuberculoid and lepromatous—depending on the immune status of the individual. People contract toxoplasmosis by ingesting oocytes discharged in the feces of acutely infected cats or inadequately cooked meat containing tissue cysts.

Toxoplasmosis occurs in two main forms—tuberculoid and lepromatous—depending on the immune status of the individual. That's leprosy.

Which one of the following is NOT transmitted by water? A) Salmonella B) Cyclospora C) Trichinella D) Cryptosporidium E) Hepatitis A virus

Trichinella

Which of the following can only be identified using PCR after valve surgery? Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus Tropheryma whippelii Staphylococcus epidermidis

Tropheryma whippelii The other 3 are able to be cultivated in vitro. Apparently it causes a systemic disease called Whipple's disease...

A variety of free-living amoebae and ciliated protozoa are thought to provide a natural reservoir for survival and growth of Legionella spp. in nature. T/F

True

A wide variety of fungi spoil food including species of Rhizopus, Alternaria, Penicillium, Aspergillus, Botrytis. T/F

True

Adenoviruses may cause eye infections as well as upper respiratory tract infections. T/F

True

An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent. T/F

True

As much as 95% of BOD can be removed during secondary treatment. T/F

True

Bacteria are the most numerous soil inhabitants, but the biomass of fungi is greater. T/F

True

Borrelia burgdorferi is a microaerophilic spirochete. T/F

True

Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochete with a number of axial filaments. T/F

True

Both malaria and yellow fever are transmitted by mosquitoes. T/F

True

Clumping factor, coagulase and protein A serve to coat Staphylococcus with host proteins. T/F

True

Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease. T/F

True

Cyclospora cayetanensis has, so far, not been identified with an animal source. T/F

True

T/F - A fly may serve as a mechanical vector.

True

T/F - A placebo is a mock drug.

True

T/F - Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.

True

T/F - Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules

True

T/F - Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules.

True

T/F - Human population growth and expansion contribute to emergence of diseases.

True

T/F - In 1928, Alexander Fleming observed that the growth of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus was inhibited by a mold thereby discovering the first antibiotic.

True

T/F - Lymphocytes are the cells primarily responsible for the adaptive immune responses.

True

T/F - Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective.

True

T/F - The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.

True

T/F - The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

True

T/F - Virulent as well as temperate phages can serve as generalized transducing phages.

True

T/F - White blood cells also called leukocytes are important in immunity.

True

T/F -pH determines production of toxins (i.e. they are not produced below a pH of 4.5)

True

The PPSV23 vaccine may protect against pneumococcal pneumonia, pneumococcal meningitis, and otitis media. True False

True

The initial symptoms of bacterial meningitis are the same regardless of the causative agent. T/F

True

Trickling filters may be used in place of activated sludge in secondary sewage treatment. T/F

True

True or False: The risk of acquiring a sexually transmitted infection (STI) depends on the number of sexual partners a person currently has AND the number of other sexual partners each of their partner(s) have had.

True

True or false: transduction often involves defective virus

True

true or false: the integration of phage DNA into host DNA occurs in much the same fashion as seen in transformation, transduction, or conjugation.

True

T/F - Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.

True - attenuated (weakened but can still replicate) need 1 or 2 shots but inactivated ones can't replicate and typically require booster shots.

T/F - During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

True - carriers

T/F - The risk of serious illness from measles is 500 times greater than from vaccination against the disease.

True - chances when not immunized is 1 in 2,000 but chances of serous illness from the vaccination itself is only 1 in 1,000,000. 2,000 times 500 is 1,000,000.

T/F - Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.

True - create a stronger immune system response - memory cells get made.

Lactobacillus acidophilus can potentially colonize the intestinal tract. T/F

True - in the discussion of Acidophilus milk on slide 30

T/F - Alum is an adjuvant.

True - the most common adjuvant actually

The activated sludge method can be stopped by the presence of toxic industrial wastes. T/F

True - the toxic wastes could kill the microbial population. p.787

T/F - The very young and the elderly are more susceptible to infectious disease.

True Age is a factor in susceptibility.

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on a plasmid. T/F

True Apparently on 3 of them.

Yeast alone cannot convert grain to alcohol. T/F

True Beer production - p.806 yeast lacks the enzymes needed to digest starch, the primary carb of grains. Have to have sprouted or germinated barley to get the enzymes to do so.

Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis. T/F

True Brucella sp, Fransicella tularemia and Mycobacterium of TB can.

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms. T/F

True Candida albicans is the causative agent of Vulvovaginal Candidiasis, an genital tract infection. p.736 - normally, vaginal colonization by Candida albicans causes no symptoms. It is when the normal microbiota balance is disturbed that C. albicans can multiply freely, causing an inflammatory response.

Non-toxin-producing strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae could infect the body but would not cause the typical symptoms of diphtheria. T/F

True Ch 21 - it's the ones that are virus infected lysogens that make the toxin that is causes diphtheria.

Both Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium parvum are resistant to chlorine. T/F

True Correct

Meningoencephalitis and African sleeping sickness are both caused by protozoans. T/F

True Naegleria fowleri - free-living protozoa that is pathogenic for humans. Ameboid trophozoite gives rise to flagellated forms and spherical cysts. Trypanosoma brucei -

Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis. T/F

True Often secondary infections lead to earaches, bacterial pneumonia. Very rarely, 2-10 years later, measles followed by subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

T/F - Diseases with long incubation periods are more likely to spread extensively.

True People walking about, not even knowing they are infected yet, spreading it around.

Klebsiella easily acquire and are a source of R factors. T/F

True Resistance transfer factor (shortened as R-factor or RTF) is an old name for a plasmid that codes for antibiotic resistance.

Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy. T/F

True Short urethra (4 cm) plus opening very close to anus means women get more UTIs.

Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens. T/F

True TSST-1 is an exotoxin, a superantigen that tricks T helper cells into releasing massive amounts of cytokines (cytokine storm) which causes a massive over reaction of the immune response and you get toxic shock with the huge drop in BP and crash that follows. Is bad.

Sulfur occurs in all living matter primarily as a component of proteins. T/F

True There is another T/F question - same but 'as a component of carbohydrates' - that one if F.

Bites by little children typically cause few problems. T/F

True They don't tend to break the skin. :)

In a malarial infection, only sporozoites can infect the human liver.

True This is why malaria/Plasmodium sp. spread by drug abuse is easier to treat - its just the infection of blood cells, you need the sporozoites from the mosquito bite to infect the liver cells. - bite (sporozoites carried to liver, infect hepatocytes), multiply and change into merozoites that get released into blood stream and infect RBCs, develop into larger motile trophozoite (feeding form), then schizont (reproducing stage) that gives rise to merozoites that get releaesed and infect more RBCs. Some merozoites from gametocytes instead of schizonts and need to be ingested by mosquitoes to become gametes, zygotes and mature into oocysts that release sporozoites into mosquito mouth bits and saliva.

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria. T/F

True Trichomonas vaginalis - motile protozoa with 4 anterior flagella and 1 posterior flagella attached to an undulating membrane. - has a slender, posteriorly protruding rigid rod called an axostyle that is used for attachment. - jerky motility - has no mitochondria - has an hydrogenosome for glucose metabolism and respiration. It produced hydrogen gas - frothy discharge.

Viral meningitis is much more common than bacterial meningitis. T/F

True p. 697 - Viral meningitis occurs more often than bacterial meningitis, but it is typically less severe and causes little permanent damage in those with normal immunity. - CSF in people with viral meningitis is clear, contains numerous lymphocytes. NO bacteria present so viral meningitis = aseptic meningitis.

Two people are brought to the Emergency Department where you work. The first patient reports fever, abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. The second patient appears extremely ill. Her family tells you that she also had gastrointestinal signs and symptoms a few days ago. She has now developed severe skin blistering, has a very high fever and is only semi-conscious. When you question the first patient and the family of the second patient, you discover that they know each other and that they have all recently returned from a beach vacation in a major city on the U.S. Gulf Coast. The group tells you that the enjoyed a raw oyster dinner on the last day of their summer vacation. They think that both patients are probably just allergic to seafood, but given the severity of the signs and symptoms of your patients, you suspect that they may have Vibrio vulnificus infection. Lab tests confirm your suspicion. You give the families information on this disease.People with chronic liver disease frequently have elevated levels of iron in their blood. Iron is needed by V. vulnificus for growth. How does it acquire iron from the host? V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin. V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses white blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces transferrins that allow it to scavenge iron. V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses white blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces lactoferrins that allow it to scavenge iron. V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces siderophores that allow it to scavenge iron. V. vulnificus produces siderophores that allow it to scavenge iron.

V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces siderophores that allow it to scavenge iron. p.674 Correct

Which statement about antiviral medications is INCORRECT? Nucleoside analogs and nucleotide analogs that interfere with the activity of reverse transcriptase are used in HIV treatment, along with at least one antiviral other medication. Viral replication generally uses host cell machinery; because of this, there are many targets for selectively toxic antiviral medications. Neuraminidase inhibitors inhibit neuraminidase, an enzyme encoded by influenza viruses that is important for the release of viral particles from infected host respiratory epithelial cells. Sofosbuvir is a nucleotide analog that interferes with HCV's replicase and is extremely effective when used in combination with at least one other anti-HCV medication. Available antivirals are virus-specific and target viral entry, viral uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis, integrase, and the assembly and release of viral particles.

Viral replication generally uses host cell machinery; because of this, there are many targets for selectively toxic antiviral medications.

Pneumococcal pneumonia - Pathogenesis: - encapsulated pneumococci inhaled into alveoli multiply rapidly, cause inflammatory response - Can affect nerve endings, cause pain: pleurisy

Virulence factors - capsule = resistant to phagocytosis - interferes with the opsonin C3b - pneumococcal surface protein (PsaA) interferes with C3b too - pneumolysin - membrane-damaging toxin that destroys ciliated epithelium - caused inflammatory response -> accumulation of fluid and phagocytic cells in alveoli -> difficult breathing. Can see the fluid as abnormal shadows on X-rays. Sputum has increasing amounts of pus, blood and bacteria If pneumococci enter blood from inflamed lungs = 3 outcomes - potentially fatal - sepsis = bloodstream infection - endocarditis = infection of heart valves - meningitis = infection of the meninges W/o complications in a wk you'll make enough anti-capsular antibodies to allow phagocytosis and destruction of the pneumococci = complete recovery

Epidemics of bacterial infections of the digestive system are transmitted by: A) Food. B) Water. C) Milk. D) The respiratory route. E) All of the above

Water

Why might it be more difficult to prepare a vaccine against noroviruses than against rotaviruses? A) We haven't been able to culture noroviruses in a lab setting yet. Without a starting culture, we can't create a vaccine. B) Noroviruses are RNA viruses, where rotaviruses are DNA viruses. RNA viruses mutate far more easily than DNA viruses, so we COULD make a vaccine, but it would be rendered useless fairly quickly as the virus mutates. C) We lack a proper culturing method for large-scale production of target cells for norovirus, whereas we have such a system for the target cells of rotaviruses. Without a system to get large numbers of target cells, we can't produce a vaccine. D) Norovirus is much more infectious than rotavirus. As such, it's much harder to work with safety. This makes production of a vaccine too dangerous and unpredictable.

We haven't been able to culture noroviruses in a lab setting yet. Without a starting culture, we can't create a vaccine.

Why is the immunization for rubella important for both boys and girls? A) As this is a sexually-transmitted disease, vaccinating girls AND boys early in their lives prevents the spread of the disease in adulthood. B) We want to achieve herd immunity, and there's no reason why only girls would be infected by this virus. By vaccinating the entire population, we achieve a higher degree of herd immunity than is possible by vaccinating only girls. C) Only boys get this disease, and one of the common complications of it is sterility, so they should be vaccinated against this virus. D) While this disease is quite very symptomatic in girls, it is completely asymptomatic in boys. Boys can be carriers and transmit it easily to girls without realizing it. This can lead to large-scale and dangerous outbreaks in the female population. E) Although boys get this disease, it doesn't cause any health problems for them, so they do not need vaccination. If girls get the disease, it almost always leads to encephalitis, so they should be protected by vaccination.

We want to achieve herd immunity, and there's no reason why only girls would be infected by this virus. By vaccinating the entire population, we achieve a higher degree of herd immunity than is possible by vaccinating only girls. Weird question.

In rare cases, people with leptospirosis develop ______________ disease, which affects the liver and kidneys.

Weil's - jaundice, liver and kidney failure, hemorrhage in many organs and meningitis.

Your sister recently had her first child, a boy who she names Owen. Unfortunately, Owen seems to get sick really often, and after some investigation, he is diagnosed with an extremely rare genetic disorder called leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD). People with LAD suffer from repeated bacterial infections because their leukocytes have adhesion defects—they cannot adhere to the endothelium and as a result are unable to leave the blood vessels to move into tissues containing microbial invaders. Without this inflammatory response, the person experiences severe tissue infections and frequently has neutrophilia (high levels of neutrophils in the blood). You help your sister understand this disease, using your knowledge of the immune system. Given what you understand about inflammation, why do you think a person with LAD experiences neutrophilia (high numbers of neutrophils in the blood)? - When a person has an infection, their number of neutrophils increases. In a person with LAD, the neutrophils do not attach to endothelial cells, and thus cannot not leave the blood vessel to enter infected tissue. As a result, they accumulate in the blood. - When a person has an infection, their number of neutrophils always decreases significantly. In a person with LAD, there are so few neutrophils that these cells do not leave the blood vessel to enter infected tissue. As a result, they accumulate in the blood. - The inflammation response in a person with LAD is overactive. They produce an excess of phagocytic cells such as neutrophils and although some of these cells migrate into infected tissue, there are so many of these cells that the rest accumulate in the blood. - In a person with LAD, the neutrophils become "sticky" and adhere strongly to blood vessel walls. At the same time, endothelial cell junctions always tighten during inflammation, so the neutrophils cannot not leave the blood vessel and they accumulate in the blood. - None of these explains why a person with LAD suffers from neutrophilia.

When a person has an infection, their number of neutrophils increases. In a person with LAD, the neutrophils do not attach to endothelial cells, and thus cannot not leave the blood vessel to enter infected tissue. As a result, they accumulate in the blood.

Which of the following is NOT true of phagocytosis? - Within a phagolysosome, O2 consumption decreases dramatically, allowing an enzyme to produce reactive oxygen species (ROS), which are toxic. - The phagocytic cell binds microbial invaders and engulfs them by means of pseudopodia, internalizing them in a phagosome. - The phagolysosome releases undigested debris to the outside of the cell by fusing with the phagocyte's cytoplasmic membrane. - If a phagocyte encounters something too large to engulf, it releases its toxic contents as a means of destroying that invader. - Phagocytic cells are recruited to the site of an injury by chemoattractants such as complement C3b.

Within a phagolysosome, O2 consumption decreases dramatically, allowing an enzyme to produce reactive oxygen species (ROS), which are toxic.

Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is FALSE? It is the most common vaginal disease in women of childbearing age. Women with BV always experience inflammation of the vagina. Treatment of the male sex partners of patients with BV does not prevent recurrences. The vaginal microbiota shows a decrease in lactobacilli and an increase in anaerobic bacteria. In pregnant women, it is associated with premature delivery.

Women with BV always experience inflammation of the vagina. Not true because p.735 - about half of BV cases are asymptomatic.

The plague bacillus is known as Plasmodium vivax. Pneumocystis carinii. Streptococcus pyogenes. Yersinia pestis.

Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis - member of Enterobacteriaceae - facultative anaerobe, Gram negative rod. - non-motile, grows best at 28 C. - with certain dyes, resembles a safety pin as ends stain darker. - forms biofilms in digestive tract of flea and is transmitted by flea bite.

Would babies need to be immunizedagainst lockjaw (tetanus) if their mother had been immunized against the disease? Why or why not? No-because the mother's IgG antibodies would be passed along through the placenta before birth, protecting the baby from the infection. Yes-because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus. No-because maternal IgG antibodies would be passed along in the breast milk, protecting the baby from infection. Yes-because the maternal response to the tetanus vaccine is to produce IgE antibodies, and IgD antibodies are the predominant type in breast milk. And what if the baby isn't breast-fed? Therefore, even if the baby is breast-fed, it won't receive the mother's protective antibodies.

Yes-because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus. Correct

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. Your patient comments that she has noticed the same signs and symptoms on her grandmother who has Alzheimer's diasese and who uses adult diapers. She asks you whether it is possible that her grandmother also has a Candida infection. You tell her A) No. Candida is part of the skin normal microbiota of infants only. This organism is never present on the skin of older adults. B) Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. C) No. Older adults have an exceptionally strong immune system and so are unlikely to develop a fungal skin infection. D) Yes. The older an individual gets, the more Candida cells accumulate on their skin, so it is only a matter of time before the person develops a skin infection. E) No. Older adults have extremely oily skin. Sebum (skin oil) has natural antifungal properties, so the chances of an adult developing a fungal infection are very small.

Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. i know it's yes but in an earlier question we were asked which of the following is NOT a part of normal skin microbiota and Candida was the NOT. Oh! It's not part of the normal microbiota but IS present. "Yeast Candida albicans found in normal microbiota" - Can invade deep layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues

A lysogen is: - a temperate phage that can insert its DNA into the host's DNA. - a bacterium that carries phage DNA (a prophage) integrated into its genome. - an insect that carries virus DNA in its genome. - a bacteriophage that lyses its host as a result of its replication cycle. - a bacteriophage that carries bacterial DNA integrated into its genome.

a bacterium that carries phage DNA (a prophage) integrated into its genome.

During maturation or formation of phage particles:

a few phage heads may surround fragments of host bacterial DNA.

A high BOD value means a small number of viruses are present AND a large amount of oxygen has been used. a small amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present. a large amount of degradable organic matter is present AND a small number of viruses are present. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a small amount of degradable organic matter is present.

a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present. p.787 - high BOD values indicate that large amounts of degradable materials are present, resulting in the consumption of correspondingly large amounts of oxygen during biological degradation of the environment.

The site at which a virus has infected and subsequently lysed the infected cell, releasing its progeny to infect and lyse surrounding cells, thereby forming a "clear zone," is: - a plaque. - a burst area. - a lyse area. - a dead zone. - a zone of inhibition.

a plague - they count these in plaque assays

Human papillomavirus is A. a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. B. a small, enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. C. a large, enveloped double-stranded RNA virus. D. a small, non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus

a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. p752 - Human papillomaviruses are naked, dsDNA viruses of the Papillomamiridae family. More than 100 types of HPVs and the different types are tissue and species specific. Had to look online: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a small, non-enveloped deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) virus that infects skin or mucosal cells. The circular, double-stranded viral genome is approximately 8-kb in length.

The bacteria cultured from a soil sample typically represents a very small number of bacteria present in that soil. all the metabolically inactive bacteria. all the metabolically active bacteria. all the bacteria present in that sample. most of the types of bacteria in that soil.

a very small number of bacteria present in that soil.

Is antigenic shift alone likely to lead to influenza pandemics? a) Perhaps-but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. b) No-antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain. c) Yes-ONLY antigenic shift can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. d) No-ONLY antigenic DRIFT can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain.

a) Perhaps-but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain.

All of the following interfere with the function of the ribosomes except: a) fluoroquinolones b) lincosamides c) macrolides d) streptogramins e) tetracyclines

a) fluoroquinolones

Acyclovir is a: a) nucleoside analog b) non-nuceoside polymerase inhibitor c) protease inhibitor d) none of the above

a) nucleoside analog

Which of the following is the target for beta-lactam antibiotics? a) peptidoglycan synthesis b) DNA synthesis c) RNA synthesis d) Protein synthesis e) Folic acid synthesis

a) peptidoglycan synthesis

Which of the following statements is false concerning antiviral drugs? a. macrolide drugs block attachment sites on the host cell wall and prevent viruses from entering b. drugs that neutraize the acidity of phagolysosomes prevent viral uncoating c. nucleotide analogs in antiviral drugs can be used to stop viral replication d. drugs containing protease inhibitors retard viral growth by blocking the production of essential viral proteins

a. macrolide drugs block attachment sites on the host cell wall and prevent viruses from entering

Which of the following is most closely associated with a beta-lactam ring? a. penicillin b. vancomycin c. bacitracin d. isoniazid

a. penicillin

In a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing anitmicrobial agents indicates: a. that the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents b. that the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents c. the smallest amount of the agent that will inhabit the growth of the microbe d. the minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question

a. that the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents

Clostridium botulinum typically does not produce its toxin under conditions that are anaerobic. alkaline. neutral. acid.

acid It's why high acid things like pickles don't have to worry about Clostridium endospores - too acidic. - Clostridium botulinum is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming, motile bacterium with the ability to produce the neurotoxin botulinum.

Shigella moves from cell to cell using actin tails. pili. cilia. flagella AND pili. flagella.

actin tails p.640 Correct

A patient presents with bad halitosis, red and swollen gingiva, and several loose teeth. You take a sample from the gum line and after performing a stain, note spirochete bacteria as well as some bacilli. This patient likely has dental caries. periodontal disease. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. gingivitis. dental caries AND acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. It's NOT the last choice. Above is correct.

Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection? AZT protease inhibitors acyclovir cephalosporin

acyclovir Acyclovir, penciclovir target HSV DNA polymerase - Do not affect latent virus and so cannot cure.

The practice of cells turning on the production of some enzymes and turning off others in response to a changing environment is called adaptation. metabolism. nutritional metabolism. compromise. quorum sensing.

adaptation

Bioaugmentation: a) adds specific microorganisms to the polluted site. b) is typically done offsite. c) only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes. d) usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

adds specific microorganisms to the polluted site. - 1 of 2 bioremediation strategies. - relies on the activities of microorganisms added to the contaminated material, complementing the resident population. - an example is the activated sludge process used during secondary treatment of wastewater - sludge from previous batch is added to the effluent (liquid) of the new cycle

Which of the following does not usually result from a wound infection? Bacterial spread. Aerobic conditions. Delayed healing. Abscess formation. These all result from delayed wound healing.

aerobic conditions

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is: affected by estrogen levels .dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus. unchanging. typically composed of E. coli. affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus. p.730 - The normal microbiota of the genital tract of women is affected by the action of estrgen hormones on the epithelial cells of the vaginal mucosa. - estrogen present -> glycogen deposited in cells - glycogen converted to lactic acid by lactobacilli, resulting in an acidic pH that inhibits the growth of many potential pathogens.. - lactobacilli also release hydrogen peroxide, an inhibitor of some anaerobic bacteria.

The complement pathway that is activated by binding of C3b to cell surfaces is the: A) classical pathway. B) alternate pathway. C) C3 pathway. D) mucociliary pathway. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

alternate pathway The alternative pathway of the complement system is an innate component of the immune system's natural defense against infections. The alternative pathway is one of three complement pathways that opsonize and kill pathogens. The pathway is triggered when the C3b protein directly binds a microbe.

The nitrogen in our atmosphere is only usable to us after it is converted to ammonia. amino acids. fertilizer. nitrous oxide.

amino acids

The rumen is found in horses and rabbits. found in carnivores. an offshoot of the colon. an anaerobic fermentation vessel found in herbivores. found in horses and rabbits AND an offshoot of the colon

an anaerobic fermentation vessel found in herbivores.

Leprosy is: A. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium. B. a disease of the blood. C. also known as Hansen's disease. D. described in the Bible. E. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible.

an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible. Mycobacterium leprae - acid-fast, aerobic, rod-shaped, grows very slowly with a generation time of 12-13 days and likes the slightly cooler temps of extremities. - has not been grown in the absence of living cells, DNA library in E. coli. Grows in armadillos, mice and monkeys.

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called: insecticides. biocides. antiseptics. antibiotics.

antibiotics. Molds and bacteria can produce antibiotics. - antibiotics - antimicrobial medications naturally produced by microorganisms.

The humoral immune response is delivered by: A) antibodies. B) T cells. C) lymphokines. D) antigens. E) antibodies AND lymphokines.

antibodies

Specific regions on an antigen molecule to which the immune response is directed are: - allergens. - monomers. - an autoimmune response. - antigenic determinants. - antibody determinants.

antigenic determinants - also called epitopes.

During which stage of pregnancy can T. pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus? first trimester. second trimester. third trimester. any stage.

any stage p.746 - In pregnant women, Treponema pallidum (syphilis) easily corsses the placenta and infects the fetus, causing congenital syphilis. Fetal infections can occur in the absence of any signs or symptoms of syphilis in the mother and at any stage of pregnancy, but damage to the fetus does not generally happen until the 4th month.

Food contaminated with Clostridium botulinum often: A. looks odd. B. smells bad. C. tastes bad. D. appears normal.

appears normal Foodborne botulism - eat toxin Intestinal botulism - ingest endospore - happens more in kids = infant botulism Wound botulism - endospore in wound

Epitopes or antigenic determinants: are parts of the antibody molecule. are T cell receptors. are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody. may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length. are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody AND may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length.

are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody AND may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length.

Synthetic compounds are most likely to be biodegradable if they are chemically similar to naturally occurring substances. are present in very large amounts. have three chlorine atoms per molecule. are chemically different form naturally occurring substances. None of these is true.

are chemically similar to naturally occurring substances. This question is from the multiple choice questions at the end of the chapter.

Nitrifiers are chemolithotrophs. are reducers. are obligate anaerobes. are thermophiles. convert nitrate to nitrite.

are chemolithotrophs

Lysogenized cells : are immune to any further infection by any virus. are immune to infection by the same virus. may have new properties. respond to infection with the SOS response. are immune to infection by the same virus AND may have new properties.

are immune to infection by the same virus AND may have new properties.

Eutrophic waters are nutrient rich AND may become hypoxic. contain 3.5% salt AND are alkaline. lack phosphate, nitrate, and iron AND contain 3.5% salt. are nutrient rich AND contain 3.5% salt. may become hypoxic AND lack phosphate, nitrate, and iron.

are nutrient rich AND may become hypoxic.

Azotobacter are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands. form symbiotic associations with algae. have a very low respiratory rate. are methanogens. are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands AND form symbiotic associations with algae.

are the chief suppliers of fixed nitrogen in grasslands.

Urinary tract infections: are relatively rare. are the most common nosocomial infections. include puerperal fever .are not considered STDs. are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever. p.730. UTI's - Bacterial Cystitis (Bladder Infection) and Leptospirosis are under the heading of urinary tract infections. - Bacterial Cystitis is the most common type of UTI and is a frequent HAI.

artificial active immunity - artificial because of the injection, active because the agent causes a primary immune response

children 5-15 who have chickenpox and take _____ are at greater risk for developing Reye's syndrome.

aspirin Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious disease that causes swelling in the liver and brain. It can affect people of any age, but it is most often seen in children and teenagers recovering from a virus such as the flu or chickenpox. - teenagers recovering from viral infections should avoid taking aspirin

Which of the following statements is false? a) a bacteriostatic chemical stops the growth of a microorganism b) The lower the therapeutic index, the less toxic the medication c) Broad-spectrum antibiotics are associated with the development of severe Clostridium difficile infections d) Azithromycin has a longer half-life than does penicillin V e) Chloramphenicol can cause a life-threatening type of anemia

b) The lower the therapeutic index, the less toxic the medication High therapeutic index is less to toxic to patient, low therapeutic index means the therapy dose is close to the toxic dose and the pt must be monitored carefully.

The target of the sulfonamides is: a) cytoplasmic membrane proteins b) folate synthesis c) gyrase d) peptidoglycan biosynthesis e) RNA polymerase

b) folate synthesis

Lysozyme does which of the following? a. Disrupts cell membranes b. Hydrolyzes peptidoglycan c. Waterproofs skin d. Propels gastrointestinal contents e. Propels the cilia of the respiratory tract

b. Hydrolyzes peptidoglycan

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its: a. metabolic destructive rate. b. half-life. c. effective time. d. dosage rate.

b. half-life. The time it takes for the concentration in the blood to decrease by half (50%).

A high therapeutic index is: a. more toxic to the patient. b. less toxic to the patient. c. has no effect on the patient. d. has no effect on the pathoge

b. less toxic to the patient. Selective toxicity = means harmful to one, not to the other.

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is: trichomoniasis. bacterial vaginosis. candidiasis. amoebiasis.

bacterial vaginosis. p.735 - BV = - most common vaginal disease of women in their childbearing years. - not -itis because there are no inflammatory changes. - Half of cases are asymptomatic. - Symptomatic BC: thin, grayish-white slightly bubbly vaginal discharge that has a characteristic strong fish-like smell. - causative agent unknown. Clue cells are epithelial cells that have sloughed off the vaginal walls and are covered in bacteria.

The leukocyte that contains histamine is the lymphocyte. monocyte. macrophage. basophil.

basophil - granules that stain purplish-blue with methylene blue. - involved in allergic rxns, like mast cells. - granulocyte - 2nd most numberous WBC

All members of the penicillin family have: beta-lactam rings. alpha-lactam rings. phenolic rings. sulfanilic rings.

beta-lactam rings. beta-lactamases break the beta-lactam rings and inactivate these antimicrobial drugs.

Attachment of the virus to the host cell (the first step in the viral life cycle) requires:

binding of complementary molecules on the virus and host cell

HBV is mainly spread by: a. blood. b. blood products. c. semen. d. saliva. e. blood, blood products AND semen.

blood, blood products AND semen. p.653 says "Hepatitis B can be transmitted in body fluids such as saliva, blood, blood products and semen."

HIV may be present in: blood. semen. tears. vaginal secretions. blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

blood, semen AND vaginal secretions. p.757 - HIV is present in blood, semen and vaginal sections in symptomatic and asymptomatic infections. - common mechanisms of person to person spread are: sex, blood and blood products, vertical transmission (mom to baby - pregnancy, passage through birth canal, breast feeding.)

HIV may be present in tears, sweat, AND colostrum. vaginal secretions, colostrum, AND sweat. blood, semen, AND tears. blood, semen, AND vaginal secretions. semen, vaginal secretions, AND tears.

blood, semen, AND vaginal secretions.

The spleen, in part, functions to cleanse the lymph. interstitial fluid. cytoplasm. blood.

blood. p.666 - Spleen, left side, behind stomach. Red and white pulp. The red pulp cleans the BLOOD by filtration. Red pulp is also a reserve of monocytes and produces new blood cells in rare situations where the bone marrow is unable to make enough. White pulp - contains B/T lymphocytes - provides an active immune response to microbial invaders.

The chief source of central nervous system (CNS) infections is through the: A. bloodstream. B. genitourinary system. C. skin. D. nerves.

bloodstream p.697 - the bloodstream is the primary source of CNS infection - think about that. The bloodstream is the primary source of CNS infections is why we have the blood-brain barrier.

The central nervous system (CNS) may become infected through the: A. bloodstream. B. nerves. C. extensions from bone. D. ventricles. E. bloodstream, nerves AND extensions from bone

bloodstream, nerves AND extensions from bone p.697 - the bloodstream is the primary source of CNS infection. Hard for infectious agents to cross from the blood stream to the brain because of the blood-brain barrier - special cells lining the capillaries in the CNS. - prevents pathogens from entering nervous tissue except when a rare high [ ] circulates for a long time in the blood. - barrier prevents many meds, including penicillin, from crossing into the CNS unless present in very high concentrations.

As an added safety precaution, low-acid, home canned foods should be - eaten with spoons. - boiled at least 15 minutes before consumption. - frozen for 1 hour before consumption. - dried prior to eating.

boiled at least 15 minutes before consumption.

In humans, the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the: A) peripheral circulation. B) bone marrow. C) lymphatic vessels. D) lymph nodes. E) spleen.

bone marrow - hematopoietic stem cells

The central nervous system is made up of: A. brain and spinal cord. B. spinal cord and spinal nerves. C. sympathetic and parasympathetic system. D. brain and endocrine organs.

brain and spinal cord

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed: narrow-spectrum. broad-spectrum. targeted spectrum. semi-synthetic

broad-spectrum. Narrow spectrum affect a limited range and are less disruptive to normal microbiota.

Human disease(s) from milk may include amoebiasis AND tuberculosis. brucellosis AND tuberculosis. brucellosis AND anthrax. anthrax AND amoebiasis. tuberculosis AND anthrax.

brucellosis AND tuberculosis.

In addition to lysis, animal viruses may exit the host cell by: - budding. - fusion. - endocytosis. - extrusion. - fission.

budding

The anti fungal medication griseofulvin is used to treat: a) vaginal infections b) systemic infections c) nail infections d) eye infections

c) nail infections

Penicillin has been modified to make derivatives that differ in all of the following except: a) spectrum of activity b) resistance to beta-lactamases c) potential for allergic reactions d) a and c

c) potential for allergic reactions

Multiple-drug resistant microbes: a. are resistant to all antimicrobial agents b. respond to new antimicrobials by developing resistance c. frequently develop in hospitals d. all of the above

c. frequently develop in hospitals

Which of the following statements is relevant in explaining why sulfonamides are effective? a. sulfonamides attach to sterol lipids in the pathogen, disrupt the membranes, and lyse the cells b. sufonamides prevent the incorporation of amino acids into the polypeptide chains c. humans and microbes use folic acid and PABA differently in their metabolism d. sulfonamides inhibit DNA replication in both pathogens and human cells

c. humans and microbes use folic acid and PABA differently in their metabolism

HPV: can integrate into the host's chromosome. may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types. infections always lead to cancer. cannot infect newborns at birth. can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types. p.752 - HPV - genome of high-risk (cancer associated) HPV can integrate into the chromosome of the host cell. - Gardasil 9 vaccine - protects against HPV types 16/18 - cancers and HPV types 6/11 - genital warts.

Expression of viral oncogenes in infected animal cells

can mimic proto-oncogenes, causing imbalance in cell cycle control towards unchecked proliferation, leading to tumor formation.

The carbon cycle revolves around carbon monoxide carbon dioxide. water. phosphorus. nitrogen.

carbon dioxide

Turning inorganic carbon into organic carbon is called mineralization. carbon fixation. eutrophication. respiration.

carbon fixation

The most common cause of chronic lymph node enlargement at a localized body site in young children is: A. rat bite fever. B. dead bat fever. C. cat scratch fever. D. mouse itch fever.

cat scratch fever. Bartonellosis (Cat Scratch Disease) slide 46 -In the US, cat scratch disease is the most common cause of chronic, localized lymph node enlargement in young children

To determine the causative agent of a central nervous system (CNS) infection, a sample is taken from the: A. cerebrospinal fluid. B. arterial blood. C. venous blood. D. urine.

cerebrospinal fluid A needle is inserted at the lumbar vertebrae where the spinal cord narrows into a tail, into the subarachnoid space to get a sample of the CSF = Spinal Tap/lumbar puncture

Once integrated, phage DNA can remain in the prophage state as long as

certain phage genes are repressed

The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is: chancroid. syphilis. gonorrhea. trachoma.

chancroid Another bacterial STI that, like syphilis, causes genital sores (sores raise the risk of getting HIV if exposed). - disease of commercial sex workers - characterized by painful genital sores called soft chancres. See syphilis has hard, painless chancres but this question say PAINFUL so chancroid. p.748 Chancroid = Haemophilus ducreyi - tastidious, pleomorphic, Gram-negative coccobacillus (short rod) that can be cultivated only on a rich medium such as chocolate agar.

Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers? chancroid rubeola herpes leptospirosis chancroid AND herpes (chancroid AND leptospirosis)

chancroid AND herpes If given option chancroid AND Leptospirosis I would probably choose just chancroid Chancroid - STI - bacterial - genital ulcers = painful, soft chancres Leptospirosis - UTI - bacteria zoonosis - is all about damage to liver and kidneys. Gets in by mucus membranes or wounds and hitches a ride via bloodstream to urinary system. p.750 - herpes - virus - lesions - vesicles burst, producing painful ulcers.

The organisms isolated from hydrothermal vents are typically bacteroid. phototrophs. rhizobia. chemolithoautotrophs. phototrophs, rhizobia, AND bacteroid.

chemolithoautotrophs.

The organisms that obtain energy by oxidation of hydrogen sulfide and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source are called chemoliths. heterotrophs. autotrophs. chemolithoautotrophs. chemoheterotrophs.

chemolithoautotrophs. Inorganic sources of energy and carbon.

The attraction of leukocytes to the area of inflammation is referred to as: A) parasitism. B) infection. C) phototaxis. D) chemotaxis. E) exotaxis.

chemotaxis

chicken wings mosquitoes are a vector and you didn't eat Susan. Hopefully.

Which animal is used as an early warning system for viral encephalitis? chickens hawks armadillos mice foxes

chickens

Which animal is used as an early warning system for encephalitis? A. armadillos B. mice C. chickens D. foxes

chickens Viral encephalitis caused by arboviruses - group of enveloped ssRNA viruses transmitted by insects, mites or ticks. - include LaCrosse encephalitis virus, St. Louis and West Nile encephalitis and eastern/western equine encephalitis.

Bacterial STIs include

chlamydia, gonorrhea, Mycoplasma genitalium infections, syphilis

The most common reportable STD in the U.S. is: gonorrhea. chlamydial infections. syphilis. AIDS.

chlamydial infection. First is chlamydia, second is gonorrhea. Chlamydia trachomatis - shperical, obligate intracellular Gram-negative bacterium. Two forms: infectious elementary body and multiplying intracellular reticulate body.

The resistance of Klebsiella to antibiotics may be: A) chromosomal mediated AND lysosomal mediated. B) plasmid mediated AND lysosomal mediated. C) chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated. D) lysosomal mediated AND capsule mediated. E) capsule mediated AND plasmid mediated.

chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated. Most have plasmids: β-lactamase (resist β-lactams such as penicillin); many also extended-spectrum lactamase (ESBL) (resist many cephalosporins) Capsule is about resistance to being engulfed by phagocytes. No lysosomes. Phagocytes have lysosomes. Resistance can be due to spontaneous nucleic acid mutations or conferred by plasmids. So that one.

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are A) candidiasis and coccidioidomycosis. B) candidiasis and aspergillosis. C) aspergillosis and Reyes syndrome. D) coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis. E) None of the choices is correct.

coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of topoisomerases. proteins. DNA gyrases. sulfonamides. coenzymes.

coenzymes.

Which of the following is a bacterial product? A) Lactoferrin B) Transferrin C) Colicin D) Defensin E) Mucus

colicin - A colicin is a type of bacteriocin produced by and toxic to some strains of Escherichia coli. Colicins are released into the environment to reduce competition from other bacterial strains.

The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of A. Streptococci. B. coliforms. C. Staphylococci. D. Streptomyces.

coliforms

Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed: communicable. latent. symptomatic. clinical. acute.

communicable.

A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is: A) complement. B) interferon. C) glycoprotein. D) lysozyme. E) antibody.

complement

The most common mode of HAV transmission is: A) contamination of food during preparation. B) contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment. C) blood transfusion. D) contaminated hypodermic needles. E) airborne.

contamination of food during preparation.

A mutation in E. coli results in the loss of both restriction endonucleases and modification enzymes. Would you expect any difference in the frequency of gene transfer via transduction FROM Salmonella INTO this E. coli strain? a) Yes-the loss of the restriction endonucleases would leave the recipient E. coli unable to break down "invading"' viral DNA from the transducing phage. This would lead to higher rates of successful transduction. b) No-transduction efficiency isn't affected by either restriction endonucleases or modification enzymes, so there'd be no effect on the overall rate. c) No-since the Salmonella strain is normal, the rate of production of transducing virus particles would still be the same, resulting in the same frequency of gene transfer. d) Yes-the loss of the restriction endonucleases would leave the recipient E. coli unable to break down "invading" viral DNA from the transducing phage, AND the loss of the modification enzymes would leave the recipient E. coli unable to tag its own DNA as "self," leaving the viral DNA untagged and recognizable as "foreign," and targeted for destruction. Together, thesewould lead to higher rates of successful transduction. e) Yes-the loss of the modification enzymes would leave the recipient E. coli unable to tag its own DNA as "self," leaving the viral DNA untagged and recognizable as "foreign," and targeted for destruction. This would lead to higher rates of successful transduction.

d) Yes-the loss of the restriction endonucleases would leave the recipient E. coli unable to break down "invading" viral DNA from the transducing phage, AND the loss of the modification enzymes would leave the recipient E. coli unable to tag its own DNA as "self," leaving the viral DNA untagged and recognizable as "foreign," and targeted for destruction. Together, thesewould lead to higher rates of successful transduction.

Routine antimicrobial therapy to treat tuberculosis involves taking: a) one medication for 10 days b) two or more medications for 10 days c) one medication for at least 6 months d) two or more medications for at least 6 months e) five medications for 2 years

d) two or more medications for at least 6 months

Staphylococcus aureus strains referred to as HA-MRSA are sensitive to: a) methicillin b) penicillin c) most cephalosporins d) vancomycin e) none of the above

d) vancomycin

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's: a. size. b. stability. c. concentration. d. All of the choices are correct.

d. All of the choices are correct.

Fluoroquinolones typically target: a. ribosomes. b. penicillin-binding proteins. c. peptidoglycan. d. DNA gyrase.

d. DNA gyrase. Fluoroquinolones mess with nucleic acid synthesis.

The diarrhea of cholera has been described as a viscous fluid. small in volume. somewhat watery. a rice water stool.

d. a rice water stool.

Drugs that act against protein synthesis include: a. beta-lactams b. trimethoprim c. polymyxin d. aminoglycosides

d. aminoglycosides

Diffusion and dilution tests that expose pathogens to antimicrobials are designed to: a. determine the spectrum of action of a drug b. determine which drug is most effective against a particular pathogen c. determine the amount of a drug to use against a particular pathogen d. both b and c

d. both b and c

Drugs that are bacteriostatic: a. kill bacteria. b. promote bacterial growth. c. inactivate bacterial spores. d. inhibit the growth of bacteria.

d. inhibit the growth of bacteria. Bacteriocidal = kills bacteria

Cross resistance is: a. the deactivation of an antimicrobial agent by a bacterial enzyme b. alteration of the resistant cells so that an antimicrobial agent cannot attach c. the mutation of genes that affect the cell membrane channels so that antimicrobial agents cannot cross into the cell's interior d. resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent

d. resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent

PABA is: a. a substrate used in the production of penicillin b. a type of B-lactamase c. molecularly similar to cephalosporins d. used to synthesize folic acid

d. used to synthesize folic acid

A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is: A) a bacterial secondary infection. B) secondary viral infections. C) dehydration. D) dehydration and a secondary bacterial infection. E) toxemia.

dehydration and a secondary bacterial infection.

Pediatric Giardia infections have greater consequences than infections in adults primarily as a result of _________________________. infection of associated digestive organs, such as the liver and pancreas dehydration from the frequent diarrhea interruption of dietary fat breakdown invasion of the intestinal mucosa

dehydration from the frequent diarrhea

The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n): A) endotoxin pyrogenic response. B) delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. C) immune complex reaction. D) inflammatory response. E) inflammatory pyogenic response.

delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivies are mediated by T cells - I suspect this is a poorly worded question. p.554 " this reaction is due to the accumulation of macrophages and T lymphocytes at the injection site, caused by a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction to the injected antigens." It is talking about the tuberculin skin test (TST)/Mantoux test

Most initial cases of dengue fever are very mild or even asymptomatic. When a second infection with a different serotype of the five known dengue viruses occurs, - the person always develops dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) or dengue shock syndrome (DSS), which is quickly fatal. - the usual protection from a previous infection is reactivated and quickly eliminates the new virus type from the infected individual. - dengue hemorrhagic fever may develop, due to antibody-dependent enhancement that facilitates viral entry into macrophages. - the two viruses work together to achieve a much more serious infection that is always rapidly fatal.

dengue hemorrhagic fever may develop, due to antibody-dependent enhancement that facilitates viral entry into macrophages.

The most common infectious disease of humans is the common cold. hepatitis A. halitosis. influenza. dental caries.

dental caries

Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called: dental caries. dental plaque. halitosis. periodontal disease.

dental plaque. Proteinaceous material from saliva adheres, creates thin film (PELLICLE) - Bacteria attach, create biofilm called dental PLAGUE - Mineral salts deposit over time, create dental calculus or TARTAR

Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae: secretes transferrin. destroys IgA. destroys IgM. is very immunogenic.

destroys IgA. The bacteria produces IgA protease, which destroys secretory IgA and seems to interfere with phagosome maturation. p.743

hemagglutination assay:

determines highest dilution of virus that causes red blood cells to clump together

The transmission of M. leprae is by contact with contaminated blood products. direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions. contact with infected nasal secretions AND the fecal-oral route. direct human-to-human contact AND the fecal-oral route. the fecal-oral route AND contact with contaminated blood products.

direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions. p.720

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to: a. drug-inactivating enzymes. b. alteration in the target molecule. c. decreased uptake of the drug. d. increased elimination of the drug. e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan? a. penicillin b. cephalosporin c. vancomycin d. bacitracin e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics? a. Penicillium b. Streptomyces c. Bacillus d. Penicillium AND Streptomyces e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct. p.501 - Most antibiotics come from microorganisms that normally live in the soil, including species of Streptomyces and Bacillus (bacteria), and Penicillium and Cephalosporium (fungi).

Beta-lactamases: a. bind to penicillin-binding proteins. b. bind to peptides. c. prevent the linking of glycan d. chains in peptidoglycan. e. break the beta-lactam ring.

e. break the beta-lactam ring.

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both: a. examples of metabolic inhibitors. b. folate inhibitors. c. protein synthesis inhibitors. d. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis. e. examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

e. examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors. animal cells can't make folate, we have to supplement it.

The diffusion bioassay: a. determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria. b. determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria. c. is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test. d. determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid. e. is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

e. is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

Antiviral drugs may target: a. uncoating. b. nucleic acid synthesis. c. viral assembly. d. viral ribosomes. e. uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly

e. uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly

The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are: milk and cheese. fruit and vegetables. meat and seafood. eggs and poultry. eggs and fruit.

eggs and poultry. p.644 Correct

Bacteria survive adverse conditions by forming zygotes. capsules. endospores. glycocalyx.

endospores

Which of the following E. coli serovars produces a toxin somewhat similar to that produced by Shigella dysenteriae? A. enterotoxigenic B. enteroinvasive C. enteropathogenic D. enterohemorrhagic E. All of the choices are correct.

enterohemorrhagic p.642 - STEC - Shiga toxin-producing E. coli - these strains, also referred to as EHEC or enterohemorrhagic E. coli, produce shiga toxins, a family of functionally identical toxins that includes the toxin of Shigella dysenteriae. In STEC is encoded for by lycogenic conversion.

The poliomyelitis virus is in the picornavirus family in the subgroup: A. adenoviruses. B. enteroviruses. C. arboviruses. D. dermotropic.

enteroviruses

The poliomyelitis virus is in the picornavirus family in the subgroup arboviruses. enteroviruses. dermotrophs. adenoviruses. retroviruses.

enteroviruses.

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n): A. non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. B. enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. C. enveloped single-stranded RNA virus. D. non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.

enveloped single-stranded RNA virus p.755 - HIV is a retrovirus, common term for members of the Retroviridae family. HIV is an enveloped ssRNA virus. Most AIDS cases are caused by HIV-1.

The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is erythema migrans. induration. rash on palms. carbuncle. furuncle.

erythema migrans Bull's eye rash caused by the spreading of LPS and causing an inflammatory response. Borrelia burgdorferi - bacteria- Gram negative, microaerophilic spirochete with many plamsids and a chromosome that is linear and present in multiple copies

Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by: A) ingestion. B) exocytosis. C) extrusion. D) budding. E) lysis.

exocytosis

Which of the following virulence factors has been associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa? endotoxin A exoenzyme S pyogenic exotoxin endoenzyme T

exoenzyme S slide 23 Exoenzyme S is a phospholipase, works synergistically with protease lecithinase to hydrolyze lecithin, results in membrane disruption and cell death

Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE), that explains the pathogenesis of dengue hemorrhagic fever and dengue shock syndrome, can best be described as: - failure of pre-existing anti-dengue antibodies to neutralize a second dengue virus serotype, instead facilitating viral entry into host cells. - the bleeding and shock that occur when the heterophile antibodies made in a nonproductive infection cause blood vessel leakiness. - the lysis of productively infected B cells by antibodies made in response to different dengue viruses during a dengue infection. - the production of large amounts of heterophile antibodies by B cells with a nonproductive dengue infection.

failure of pre-existing anti-dengue antibodies to neutralize a second dengue virus serotype, instead facilitating viral entry into host cells. See you have antibodies from first infection, DHF and DSS occur in person who gets a second infection by a different serotype of the virus - Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE) means the antibodies from the first infection can't stop the seconds so they create immune complexes that actually facilitate viral entry into cells that have Fc receptors (monocytes/macrophages) where the virus replicates freely so ADE leads to increased numbers of infected cells and a high viral load.

Which species of Plasmodium causes the most serious form of malaria? ovale malariae vivax falciparum

falciparum p.688 - P. falciparum infections are more sever than other types. Can infect ALL RBCs, not just young or old ones, and it encodes a virulence factor called pfEMP1 that causes RBCs to stick to capillary walls, blocking blood flow (if it happens in the brain -> cerebral malaria. Happens in placenta....).

Foods that have been altered due to the carefully controlled growth of microorganisms are called controlled. fermented. cooked. spoiled. preserved.

fermented

What is the difference between fermented food and spoiled food?

fermented: foods intentionally altered during production by carefully controlling bacteria, yeasts, or molds spoiled: unintentional growth of bacteria on foods leading to quality deterioration

One of the strongest indications of infectious disease is: A) a rash. B) fever. C) pustules. D) vesicles. E) vomiting.

fever

Considering that Cryptosporidium oocysts are resistant to chlorine, which step in water treatment protects us from this pathogen? Sedimentation Filtration Settling Coagulation Disinfection and storage

filtration

Truffles are a mushroom. form a sheath around a root of an appropriate tree. are endomycorrhizas. are a lichen. are endomycorrhizas AND form a sheath around a root of an appropriate tree.

form a sheath around a root of an appropriate tree Truffles are ECTOMYCORRHIZAL fungi. This type of fungi grow around the plant cells, forming a sheath around the root. - S I'd pick the second one if given another try

Leptospirosis is often contracted: by eating infected animals. by eating contaminated vegetables. from contaminated animal urine. by the respiratory route.

from contaminated animal urine p.732 - Leptospira interrogans - slender, aerobic G- spirochete with hooked ends and more than 250 antigenic types Bacteria are excreted in an animal's urine and urine spots on the ground remain infectious while moist - contaminated urine is the main mode of transmission to other hosts. - Humans contract leptospirosis from water, soil or food contaminated with infected animal urine. Person-to-person transmission does not seem to occur. - gets into mucus membrane or wounds - not by respiratory route.

Foods such as acidic fruits are often spoiled by fungi. protozoans. viruses. bacteria

fungi Bacteria can't hack it at pH less than 4.5. Acidic fruit? Fungi is your spoiler.

Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 2.2? Clostridium Streptococcus fungi lactic acid bacteria fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

fungi Even lemons can go moldy. White and green fungi = yum...not

Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 3.5? Streptococcus AND lactic acid bacteria Clostridium AND fungi fungi AND lactic acid bacteria lactic acid bacteria AND Clostridium fungi AND Streptococcus

fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

In which of these organs does a carrier of typhoid bacilli maintain the bacteria? Gallbladder Liver Colon Peyer's patches Liver AND Peyer's patches

gallbladder Correct

The inflammatory effects of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called renal phritis. rendema. glomerulonephritis. urethritis.

glomerulonephritis. Correct

Which of the following are most susceptible to complement lysis? A) Gram-positive bacteria B) Gram-negative bacteria C) Bacteriophages D) Prions E) Acid-fast bacteria

gram negative bacteria

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections: - could cause rheumatic fever. - had the same cell wall carbohydrate "A." - had variable cell wall carbohydrates. - responded to penicillin. - had the same cell wall carbohydrate "beta."

had the same cell wall carbohydrate (surface antigen), carbohydrate "A" - B also available, C = carbohydrate antigen on cells of horses, cattle and guinea pigs, D on cell wall of human normal microbiota

Water treatment processes for drinking water A. are similar to wastewater treatment. B. are only necessary when using recycled water. C. includes disinfection but not litration. D. has no biological treatment phase

has no biological treatment phase - for wastewater, secondary treatment is a biological process that converts most of the suspended solids to inorganic compounds and cell mass that can be removed. Microbial growth is actively encouraged, allowing aerobic organisms to oxidize the biologically degradable organic material to carbon dioxide and water. p.787 - This doesn't happen for drinking water.

Shigella and cholera toxin both: have an A-B arrangement. work through ADP ribosylation. increase cAMP levels. prevent protein synthesis.

have an A-B arrangement.

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of: placental insufficiency. being unable to nurse. being unable to deliver vaginally. having a premature baby.

having a premature baby p.735 - BV is common in pregnant women and puts them at risk for premature deliveries.

Staphylococcus aureus toxin is an endotoxin AND heat-sensitive. an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive. heat-stable AND an exotoxin. heat-stable AND an endotoxin. None of the answer choices is correct.

heat-stable AND an exotoxin.

Vaccines can be used to protect at-risk individuals from all of the following liver diseases EXCEPT __________. hepatitis A hepatitis C hepatitis B hepatitis D

hepatitis C there is no vaccine available for preventing HepC.

The best-known examples of viruses that cause latent infections are: - measles AND chickenpox. - polio AND herpes. - herpes AND measles. - herpes AND chickenpox. - chickenpox AND polio.

herpes AND chickenpox.

The usual cause of genital herpes is: herpes simplex virus type 1. herpes simplex virus type 2. herpes simplex virus type 3. herpes simplex virus type 4.

herpes simplex virus type 2 p.750 - genital herpes is usually caused by herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), an enveloped, dsDNA virus from family Herpesviridae. HSV-1 causes cold sores/fever blisters but can also cause genital herpes. They look the same, are 50% same genome but HSV-2 causes more sever genital lesions with a greater frequency of recurrence.

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells? herpes virus. hepatitis A virus. Norwalk virus. rotavirus.

herpes virus p.750 - most of the time, the viral DNA exists within nerve cells in a circular, non-infectious form, causing no symptoms.

A painful finger infection attributable to herpes virus is known as a(n): finger sore .abrasion lesion. herpetic whitlow. furuncle.

herpetic whitlow. Recurrent cold sores (LIPS) called herpes simplex labialis. Correct

The organic matter in soil is referred to as inorganic substance. humus. mineral soil. bedrock. mulch.

humus

Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva? infectious mononucleosis rabies plague yellow fever infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

infectious mononucleosis AND rabies Rabies was covered in a different chapter but it is carried by animal in their saliva and we worry about rabies with animal bites. Mono - Kissing disease, saliva

The production of heterophile antibody is associated with tularemia. brucellosis. plague. infectious mononucleosis.

infectious mononucleosis. Most B cells get non-productive (latent) infection. EBV activates the B cells, they multiply and make useless antibodies - HETEROPHILE ANTIBODY that can be used to test = Monospot test - causes agglutination when mixed with animal RBCs.

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called acute bacterial endocarditis. myocarditis. an aneurysm. infective endocarditis. effective endocarditis.

infective endocarditis Correct

The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as: A) inflammation. B) reaction. C) antibodies. D) trauma. E) fever.

inflammation

C3a and C5a are involved in inflammation. interferon production. properdin activation. enhancement of phagocytosis. inflammation AND enhancement of phagocytosis.

inflammation AND enhancement of phagocytosis.

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is: pelvic inflammatory disease. syphilis. dysuria. vaginal discharge.

inflammatory pelvic disease p.741 - In women, the infection can progress upward through the reproductive tract, casing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) - N. gonorrhoeae is not motile so perhaps carried to fallopian tubes on swimmers.

The spread of mycoplasma is through: A) inhalation of infected droplets. B) the fecal-oral route. C) an insect vector. D) a fomite such as a towel. E) opportunistic normal microbiota.

inhalation of infected droplets.

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are: sexual promiscuity. intense antibacterial treatment. disruption of normal flora.the use of oral contraceptives. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives. Caused by Candida albicans yeast. - Like BV, it seems to occur aftera disruption of the normal microbiota - factors that predisposition = use of oral contraceptives or antibiotics. p736

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's: intense inflammatory response. antibody response. rejection of the invaded tissue. septicemia due to infiltration of the organism.

intense inflammatory response Chancres usually develop on the genitalia but they may occur anywhere in the body. Painless so they can go unnoticed. Lymph nodes near the chancre may swell. p.747 - the hard chancre is caused by an intense inflammatory response to the bacteria, which are present in high numbers in the lesion.

Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis, interfere with phagocytosis. activates plasminogen activator. destroys C3b and C5a. promotes apoptosis.

interfere with phagocytosis. p.670 - Yops (proteins) - interfere with phagocytosis and the immune response. - A variety of Y. pestis outer proteins (Yops) are made and delivered by type III secretion systems to the host cell, they disrupt the host cell cytoskeleton, inhibit phagocytosis, block the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

The conditions normally present in food such as moisture, acidity, and nutrients are referred to as: extrinsic factors. intrinsic factors. endogenous factors. exogenous factors

intrinsic factors Things about the food itself not about it's environment.

Irradiation of foods - involves the use of gamma radiation. - is used on all foodstuffs. - changes the taste of foods. - is not regulated by the government. - involves the use of gamma radiation, changes the taste of foods AND is not regulated by the government.

involves the use of gamma radiation. Gamma radiation is used to kill microbes without changing the taste of the food.

Toxoplasma

invovles cats, fetus can be infected if a woman gets this disease during pregancy -protozoan diseases

A microbial mat is a form of biofilm. is poorly organized. is constructed to prevent interactions between the various layers of microorganisms. is a form of biofilm AND is poorly organized. contains only obligate anaerobes.

is a form of biofilms

Advanced treatment of sewage involves the removal of phosphates and sulfur compounds. is done to promote nutrient enrichment. is done to promote growth of photosynthetic organisms. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms. All of the choices are correct.

is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms.

Toxic shock syndrome: is due to exotoxins produced by S. pyogenes. is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus. may spread from person to person. has a very low rate of recurrence, approximately 1%.

is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus. Toxic Shock Syndrome -> strains of Staphylococcus aureus that produce toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) or other related exotoxins (G+ bacteria) p.737

Once inside the host cell, phage DNA

is replicated, may get degraded by bacterial nucleases, and may integrate into the host chromosome.

The nervous system typically is sterile. contains a small number of viruses. has transient microbiota. contains Gram-positive bacteria. has a small number of normal microbiota.

is sterile

In a cow's udder, milk: contains Lactococcus. contains Lactobacillus. is sterile. is acidic.

is sterile Microbes are introduced as and after the milk leaves the udder.

6. The nervous system typically: A. is sterile. B. has a small number of normal flora. C. contains Gram-positive bacteria. D. contains a small number of viruses

is sterile The nervous system lies entirely within body tissues and has no normal microbiota. CSF is generally sterile so the presence of microbes indicates an infection.

The activated sludge process is used during secondary treatment of sewage. is meant to increase the BOD. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter AND is meant to increase the BOD. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter. removes large objects from the sewage.

is used during secondary treatment of sewage.

Rickettsia rickettsii is an obligate intracellular pathogen. This means that: A) it is a virus. B) it needs oxygen for growth. C) it cannot grow in the presence of oxygen. D) it can only grow within host cells. E) it is non-motile.

it can only grow within host cells. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

All of the statements about specialized transduction are correct EXCEPT: - it involves temperate phages. - it involves the random transmission of any gene. - it involves the transfer of a few specific genes. - it involves a defective virus. - it only involves genes near the viral DNA integration site.

it involves the random transmission of any gene. - that is with generalized transduction

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.

kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically A. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis. B. modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. C. modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes. D. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis. E. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. 2 types - enterotoxins and cytotoxins enterotoxins make cells lose water and electrolytes cytotoxins cause cell death

Vibrio cholerae and most salmonellae are: a. killed by acid conditions. b. stimulated by acid conditions. c. killed by low concentrations of salt. d. killed by neutral conditions.

killed by acid conditions. - neither is very resistant to stomach acid and so need more to be infective. I know Salmonella needs 10^11 cells.

Vibrio cholerae and most salmonellae are stimulated by acid conditions. acidophiles. killed by neutral conditions. killed by acid conditions. killed by low concentrations of salt.

killed by acid conditions. Correct

The tart taste of yogurt, pickles, and sharp cheeses is due to the presence of acetic acid. benzoic acid. lactic acid. sorbic acid. hydrochloric acid.

lactic acid. p.803

Coliforms are Gram-positive. spore-forming. lactose-fermenting. coccus-shaped. All of the choices are correct.

lactose-fermenting Enterobacteriaeae - Gram-negative rods, non-spore formers, anaerobic, lactose fermentors.

The complement pathway that is activated by mannan-binding protein is the: A) classical pathway. B) alternative pathway. C) C3 pathway. D) lectin pathway. E) properdin pathway.

lectin pathway The lectin pathway is responsible for an antibody-independent pathway of complement activation that is initiated by binding of the mannose-binding lectin (MBL) to carbohydrates on the surface of pathogens.

The incubation period of rabies is partially determined by: A. age of the patient. B. season of the year that the disease is acquired. C. length of journey from the bite site to the brain. D. the amount of virus introduced into the wound. E. length of journey from the bite site to the brain AND the amount of virus introduced into the wound.

length of journey from the bite site to the brain AND the amount of virus introduced into the wound. p.710 - the length of time before symptoms occur depends on: - location of bite - amount of virus introduced - condition of the host

In Gram-negative bacteria many of the genes required for pathogenicity are:

located close together on chromosomes in regions called pathogenicity islands.

Which of the following is not typical of an antigen? A) Protein B) Foreign C) Low molecular weight D) Polysaccharide E) Low molecular weight AND protein

low molecular weight - it's the larger things that tend to be antigenic

Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n) increase in sulfur. lower BOD. higher BOD. unchanging BOD. decrease in biomass.

lower BOD

The major effect of excess water in the soil is to lower the amount of oxygen. increase the level of oxygen. increase the amount of nitrogen. reduce the amount of carbon. reduce the pH.

lower the amount of oxygen

Although endotoxemia affects many organs, the organ most seriously and irreversibly affected is the heart. lung. kidney. spleen.

lung. Also seen as, "Although sepsis affects many organs..." endotoxemia = endotoxin in the blood p.668 - still talking about sepsis - Lungs are seriously and irreversibly damaged by tissue-damaging lysosomal enzymes. Lung damage often results in death even if the infection has been cured.

The small bean-shaped bodies into which the lymphatic vessels drain are the lymph nodes. adrenals. subclavian veins. valves.

lymph nodes.

The cells responsible for adaptive immunity are the: A) lymphocytes. B) monocytes. C) eosinophils. D) neutrophils. E) leukocytes.

lymphocytes - B and T cells

Antigens may be processed for presentation by: - T cytotoxic cells, B cells, AND dendritic cells. - dendritic cells AND erythrocytes. - macrophages, B cells, AND dendritic cells. - macrophages AND erythrocytes. - erythrocytes, macrophages, AND dendritic cells.

macrophages, B cells, AND dendritic cells.

When Gram-negative bacteria are multiplying in the bloodstream, sepsis/septic shock can result. This is due to binding of endotoxin to toll-like receptors (TLRs) on _________ and neutrophils, provoking an uncontrolled release of pro-inflammatory _________ and activating the complement cascade. These events result in a widespread, self-stimulating inflammatory response. macrophages; cells macrophages; cytokines basophils; cells lymphocytes; cytokines

macrophages; cytokines

Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it: A) Hides in macrophages. B) Makes a capsule. C) Makes NH3. D) Makes HCl. E) Invades epithelial cells.

makes NH3 - ammonia

Which of the following is caused by a protozoan infection? malaria yellow fever tularemia infectious mononucleosis

malaria - protozoa of the genus Plasmodium, transmitted by female mosquitoes of genus Anopheles. - 5 species of Plasmodium involved: P. vivax, P. faciparum, P. malariae, P. ovale and P. knowlesi.

M. leprae may infect: A. mangabey monkeys. B. skunks. C. iguanas. D. armadillos. E. mangabey monkeys AND armadillos.

mangabey monkeys AND armadillos The strain of bacteria found in wild 9-banded armadillos and in human is the same.

Allergic reactions mainly involve: A) macrophages. B) monocytes. C) mast cells. D) neutrophils. E) eosinophils.

mast cells - basophils too, had that been a choice.

Carriers: - have been cured of the infection. - may have a persistent infection. - may be a source of infection. - may have a persistent infection AND may be a source of infection. - usually show symptoms of the disease AND may be a source of infection.

may have a persistent infection AND may be a source of infection.

The MMR vaccine is used to protect against: A) mononucleosis, mange, rubeola. B) measles, mumps, rubella. C) measles, mange, rubeola. D) mononucleosis, mumps, rubella. E) mumps, rubella, varicella.

measles, mumps, rubella.

The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the: A) prostaglandin complex. B) leukotriene activating complex. C) membrane attack complex. D) histamine complex. E) macrophage antibody complex.

membrane attack complex MAC is composed of a complex of four complement proteins (C5b, C6, C7, and C8) that bind to the outer surface of the plasma membrane, and many copies of a fifth protein (C9) that hook up to one another, forming a ring in the membrane.

The membranes that cover the surface of the brain and spinal cord are known as the: A. neurolemma. B. dura mater. C. meninges.

meninges - from out to in - bone, DURA MATER, venus sinus (in some areas of brain), ARACHNOID MATER, subarachnoid space, PIA MATER. Subarachnoid space is where cerebrospinal fluid is. Venus sinus under dura mater is where CSF goes back in to bloodstream. - outer dura is tough, barrier to the spread of infection from bones surounding the CNS. Adheres closelty to the skull and vertebrae, in part of the brain it encloses a blood-filled venous sinus.

An infection of the membranes covering the brain is called: A. encephalitis. B. meningitis. C. arachnitis. D. ventriculitis.

meningitis - inflammation of brain itself = encephalitis - if both meninges and brain are infected = meningoencephalitis.

Geosmins are metabolites that give soil its odor AND produced by Rhizobium. produced by Rhizobium. a strain of Bacillus. metabolites that give soil its odor AND produced by Bacillus. metabolites that give soil its odor. nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

metabolites that give soil its odor. Made by Streptomyces

The anaerobic organisms used in sewage treatment may produce the useful product(s) nitrogen AND carbon monoxide. methane. nitrogen. carbon monoxide. oxygen.

methane

During anaerobic decomposition of organic matter with carbon dioxide as the terminal electron acceptor, the primary gas(es) produced is/are methane AND hydrogen. oxygen. methane. hydrogen. hydrogen sulfide.

methane p.776 - in anaerobic environments, CO2 is used by methanogens. These archaea obtain energy by oxidizing hydrogen gas, using CO2 as a terminal electron accepter, and generating methane (CH4)

The environment immediately surrounding an individual cell is called its macroenvironment. microenvironment. microniche. colony.

microevironment Because microorganisms are so small, the microenvironment is difficult to identify and measure. The more easily measured gross environment - the macroenvironment - can be very different from the microenvironment. But there can be zones in the macro where the right micro conditions exist so that you might find microbes you didn't think you'd find. :)

The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy: A. sensory nerve cells. B. mixed nerve cells. C. autonomic nerve cells. D. motor nerve cells.

motor nerve cells Characteristic feature of polio is the destruction of motor neurons, resulting in paralysis of a group of muscles, like those of an arm or a leg.

mouth

The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is: measles. herpes. chickenpox. mumps.

mumps Onset marked by fever, loss of appetite, headache • Followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid glands • Spasm of underlying muscle makes talking, chewing hard • Symptoms can arise elsewhere in body

. In rabies, the virus multiplies in one kind of cell then binds to receptors in the: A. neuromuscular region. B. spinal cord. C. respiratory area. D. brain.

neuromuscular region (does take out motor nerve endings so...) Rabies virus is introduced into the body, multiplies at the site of entry, enters a sensory neuron, travels by retrograde transport up the axon to the spinal cord and eventually to the brain. Once in brain tissue the virus multiples and causes the symptoms of encephalitis. - look for inclusion bodies called Negri bodies made up of viral nucleocapsids - can diagnose rabies from stained smears from surface of eye

The toxin of botulism is classified as a(n) - enterotoxin - endotoxiin - neurotoxin - toxoid

neurotoxin

The first kind of leukocyte lured to the site of inflammation is the: A) neutrophil. B) monocyte. C) macrophage. D) basophil. E) B cell.

neutrophil

The role that an organism plays in its environment is called its ecosystem. habit. role. position. niche.

niche

Next to carbon and oxygen, the element organisms most require is sulfur. iron. potassium. nitrogen. phosphorus.

nitrogen

The sulfur cycle is similar to the cycle of water. carbon. oxygen. nitrogen. phosphorus.

nitrogen

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows: E. coli. S. aureus. P. vulgaris. no bacteria. E. coli AND S. aureus.

no bacteria p.729 - the urine and the urinary tract above the urethra are generally free of microorganisms in both men and women.

Which is true of the poliomyelitis virus? A. non-enveloped B. single-stranded DNA C. double-stranded RNA D. single-stranded RNA E. non-enveloped AND single-stranded RNA

non-enveloped AND single-stranded RNA Poliomyelitis virus - naked, ssRNA virus is a member of the enterovirus subgroup of the family Picornaviridae. - poliomyelitis is caused by 3 serotypes of poliovirus (1,2,3) but type 1 is the only one still circulating today.

Phosphorus is a component of nucleic acids. phospholipids. nucleotides. carbohydrates. nucleic acids, phospholipids AND nucleotides.

nucleic acids, phospholipids AND nucleotides.

The growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the mouse. egg. adult. moulter. nymph stage.

nymph stage Correct

Using phages to treat a bacterial infection is an interesting idea because: - of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance in pathogens. - lysed bacteria pose no threat to a person's health. - of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance in people. - a single phage can be genetically engineered to infect many different species of bacteria. - a single type of phage can destroy a wide range of strains of the same pathogen.

of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance in pathogens.

Amebiasis: A. is caused by C. parvum. B. often causes a bloody diarrhea. C. is an infection of the stomach. D. is restricted to temperate climates. E. is caused by C. parvum AND often causes a bloody diarrhea.

often cause a bloody diarrhea p.659 - Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica feed on mucus and tissue of the large intestine. They may also invade the intestinal lining, causing ulcerations and BLOODY DIARRHEA = amebic dysentery.

Symptoms of plague appear in two to three months. one to two years. three to six hours. one to six days.

one to six days. p.669 - signs/symptoms depend on how the disease is acquired - through tick bite = bubonic plague - through inhaling respiratory droplets = pneumonic plague - when the causative organisms spreads via bloodstream = septicemic plague

In specialized transduction

only bacterial genes near the site of integration of the phage DNA can be transduced.

Filamentous phages: - only infect E. coli lacking pili. - infect E. coli regardless of the presence of pili. - only infect E. coli that have pili. - do not infect E. coli. - only infect Gram-negative E. coli.

only infect E. coli that have pili.

The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent: viral conjunctivitis. cataracts. herpes. ophthalmia neonatorum.

ophthalmia neonatorum Also called neonatal conjunctivitis - it is by law in the US that newborn babies have erythromycin put in their eyes within an hour of birth. The disease if often asymptomatic and could cause blindness in the babe so prophylaxic treatment. p.743

Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis caused by Cryptococcus gattii differs from the general pattern of fungal central nervous system (CNS) disease by occurring in: A. otherwise healthy people. B. children. C. AIDS patients. D. immunosuppressed people.

otherwise healthy people Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis - Cryptococcus neoformans (opportunistic) - Cryptococcus gattii (causes disease even in healthy individuals) These are spherical yeasts generally 3 to 20 micrometers in diameter surrounded by a thick capsule (capsule stain with Inida Ink) that resists the immune response.

Why is tertiary syphilis difficult to treat?

p.746 - tertiary syphilis occurs after a latent period that last for years! It affects the body systemically - gummas anywhere, cardiovascular or neurosyphilis...p.747 - the organisms may be present in almost any part of the body.

What is the advantage of removing phosphates and nitrates from wastewater?

p.789 - advanced treatment is often designed to REMOVE AMMONIA, NITRATES AND PHOSPHATES - compounds that foster growth of algae and cyanobacteria in receiving waters (so remove so to PREVENT POSSIBLE OVERPRODUCTION OF ALGAE AND OTHER ORGANISMS). The concentration of these nutrients is normally low in receiving waters which limits the growth of photosynthetic organisms but add the nutrients and see them multiply, BOD increase and other forms of aquatic life threatened (so advanced treatment IS DONE TO PREVENT NUTRIENT ENRICHMENT of the receiving waters so that doesn't happen).

All of the following are methods used to detect total coliforms in a water sample EXCEPT ones that are: - ONPG/MUG test - Presence/Absence test - MPN method - Membrane Filtration

p.793 - methods used to detect total colifroms in a water sample: - ONPG/MUG test - lactose-fermenting bacteria hydrolyze ONPG - turns yellow (all coliforms do this) - E. coli produces an enzyme that hydrolyzes MUG, making a (blue) fluorescent compound - Presence/Absence test - add 100 ml water to lactose-containing broth that is selective for G- rods - inverted tube to trap gas. Yes gas, test tube to confirm coliforms are present. - Most probably number (MPN) method - successive dilutions, inverted tubes to trap gas, further testing to confirm coliforms. - Membrane Filtration - filter that retains bacteria. Place filter on a lactose containing selective and differential agar medium.

Why do bacteria generally predominate on fresh meats?

p.801 - as a general rule, bacteria will predominate in fresh meats and other moist, pH neutral, nutrient-rich foods. Yeasts and molds can also grow in these foods but the more rapid increase in bacteria overwhelms the competitors. When conditions such as lack of moisture or high acidity restrict the growth of bacteria, fungi predominates despite their relatively slow growth.

The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as: A) productive. B) contagious. C) infective. D) paroxysmal. E) catastrophic.

paroxysmal. Occurs during paroxysmal stage - 3 stages for pertussis Catarrhal stage - inflammation of mucus membranes Paroxysmal stage - repeated sudden attacks - the cough and the whoop Convalescent stage - not contagious, recovery

Although unusually resistant to many control factors, the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by: A) strong acids. B) disinfectants. C) pasteurization. D) strong alkalis. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

pasteurization. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium, aerobe with a generation time of over 16 hours. - cell wall contains mycolic acids, cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkalis, responsible for acid-fast staining. - easily killed by PASTURIZATION

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is: conjunctivitis. neonatorum ophthalmia. pelvic inflammatory disease. trachoma.

pelvic inflammatory disease Trachoma is an infectious disease caused by bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. The infection causes a roughening of the inner surface of the eyelids. This roughening can lead to pain in the eyes, breakdown of the outer surface or cornea of the eyes, and eventual blindness.

The most effective form of penicillin is: penicillium. penicillin G. penicillin E. penicillin A. penicillin B.

penicillin G.

chapter quiz - first time

perfect score - all correct

The sac which surrounds the heart is called the endocardium. pericardium. atrium. myocardium.

pericardium. peri- = around endocardium is lining inside heart atrium is heart chamber myocardium is heart muscle

The chronic inflammatory process involving the gums and tissues around the teeth is called: dental caries. periodontal disease. dental plaque. root caries.

periodontal disease.

The menigococcus attach to the mucus membrane via: A. flagella. B. pili. C. cilia. D. a capsule. E. axial filaments.

pili flagella = movement pili = attachment cilia = on eukaryotic cells capsule = anti-phagocytic

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by: pili. flagella. cilia. actin bridges. flagella AND cilia.

pili pili are for attachment. Flagella are movement. Cilia for movement of eukaryotic cells. N. gonorrhoeae use pili to attach to non-ciliated cells. Can't attach to squamous or ciliated cells.

The "Black Death" may also be known as tularemia. brucellosis. endocarditis. plague.

plague.

The disease responsible for the death of approximately ¼ the population of Europe from 1346 to 1350 was typhus. pneumonia. influenza. plague.

plague. Crowded conditions and a large rat population had major roles in the spread of plague. Plague is a potential bioterrorism disease, Category A.

Mycorrhizae are a symbiotic association of bacteria and algae. bacteria and virus. fungi and virus. plant roots and fungi.

plant roots and fungi

Spongiform encephalopathy occurs in all of the following EXCEPT - humans. - plants. - sheep. - cattle. - cattle AND sheep.

plants

The cells that actually secrete antibodies are: - naive B cells. - natural killer cells. - plasma cells. - phagocytes. - T cells.

plasma cells

A difference between plasmids and fragments of DNA that have been transferred between cells is:

plasmids can replicate independently.

The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the A. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants. B. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses. C. inhibitory effect it has on plant growth. D. stimulatory effect it has on methane production. E. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

Naegleria fowleri may cause: A. meningitis. B. primary amebic meningoencephalitis. C. African sleeping sickness. D. AIDS.

primary amebic meningoencephalitis. Amoeba found in warm fresh water and soil. Infected after swimming or diving in natural waters in US. Rare event but usually fatal. Naegleria fowleri - free-living protozoa that is pathogenic for humans. Ameboid trophozoite gives rise to flagellated forms and spherical cysts. Penetrates the skull along the olfactory nerves of the nasal mucosa. Multiples, migrates to brain and eats brain tissue (frontal lobe = yum!). Not transmitted person to person.

Which group is composed of autotrophs? Secondary consumers Primary consumers Rotters Primary producers Decomposers

primary producers

Viruses:

probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another.

Lactic acid bacteria consume lactic acid, allowing them to grow on foods such as yogurt. produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt. are important spoilage organisms. can grow on lemons. produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt AND are important spoilage organisms

produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt AND are important spoilage organisms

Phage-encoded enzymes are

produced in a sequential manner AND used to customize the cell for viral production

The organisms that convert carbon dioxide into organic matter are the secondary consumers. primary consumers. producers. decomposers.

producers

Staphylococcus epidermidis can be characterized by all of the following except that it: A. does not produce coagulase. B. is not pigmented. C. produces a yellow pigment. D. can be associated with nosocomial infections.

produces a yellow pigment.

Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,: promotes the spread of AIDS. inhibits the spread of AIDS. inhibits the growth of other viral disease. is easily cured with antibiotics.

promotes the spread of AIDS

Trichomoniasis is caused by a: A. fungus. B. virus C. bacteria. D. protozoan.

protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis - a motile protozoa with 4 anterior flagella - 1 posterior flagellum attached to an undulating membrane - 1 rigid rod called an axostyle used in attachment to cells - jerky motion - lacks a cyst form to aid in its survival in the environment away from the host - eukaryote with no mitochondria - human parasite spread by sexual contact... and on moist towels.

Sugar is used in the making of fermented sausages to help preserve the sausage. provide raw material for the fermentation process. sweeten the taste. counteract the action of the salt in the sausage.

provide raw material for the fermentation process.

Which of the following is most likely to grow at refrigerator temperatures? mesophiles psychrophiles thermophiles acidophiles

psychrophiles They like -5-15 degrees Celsius. - The ideal refrigerator temperature is 35° F (1.6° C) Mesophiles like 20-45 degrees Celsius (people are 37C) Thermophiles like 45 to 70 degrees Celsius - hot tubs and compost piles. Acidophiles - organisms are those that thrive under highly acidic conditions (usually at pH 2.0 or below).

The common name for tularemia is Bang's disease. rabbit fever. Hansen's disease. Chagas' disease.

rabbit fever. Tularemia is a zoonotic disease that occurs among wild animals. Winter months people get it from skinning rabbits. Also called deer fly fever - from bites of infected ticks and deer flies in summer. Can also contract tularemia from eating contaminated meat or from dust arising from mowing or from rodent-infested buildings.

Which of the following agents travel up the nerves to penetrate the CNS? A) rabies B) herpes simplex C) tetanus toxin D) polio E) rabies, herpes simplex, AND tetanus toxin

rabies, herpes simplex, AND tetanus toxin

During attachment of phage to E. coli, the phage: - randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface. - actively seeks out the bacteria AND attaches to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface. - actively seeks out the bacteria AND attaches to the bacterial DNA. - randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to the bacterial DNA. - randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to the bacterial RNA.

randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface.

Meningococcal meningitis is typically acquired through the: A. genitourinary tract. B. respiratory tract. C. gastrointestinal tract. D. skin.

respiratory tract p.699 - transmission of Neisseria meningitiis (meningococci) is through airborne droplets that attach by pili to mucus membranes and multiply.

The term "potable water" refers to water that is only good for irrigation of crops. safe to drink. in carrying containers. safe to swim in but not to drink. contaminated with chemicals.

safe to drink

The principal mode of transmission of rabies is through: A. blood. B. fomites. C. saliva. D. pus.

saliva The primary mode of transmission of rabies to humans is via the saliva of a rabid animal introduced into bite wounds of the skin.

On which of the following foods can Staphylococcus aureus multiply with little competition? Bread and jam Milk Bread Jam Salty ham

salty ham Staphylococcus aureus is salt-tolerant p.801 - S.aureus can grow at a LOWER WATER ACTIVITY THEN MORE SPOILAGE BACTERIA. - S. aureus can grow at a water activity of 0.86. Ham is a common vehicle for S. aureus food poisoning.

In which phase of sewage treatment are trickling filters sometimes used? A. primary treatment. B. secondary treatment. C. tertiary treatment. D. quaternary treatment.

secondary treatment

Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious, non-replicating form of the herpes simplex virus persist? motor neurons red blood cells cranial nerves sensory nerves

sensory nerves Correct

The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by: sexual or oral contact. contact with contaminated objects. clothing. the fecal-oral route.

sexual or oral contact. Syphilis is usually transmitted by sexual intercourse. However, infections can occur from kissing a person with secondary syphilis, or by contact with a primary ulcer infected with Treponema pallidum.

The filamentous phages all contain: - single-stranded RNA. - single-stranded DNA. - single-stranded RNA, OR single-stranded DNA - double-stranded RNA. - double-stranded DNA.

single-stranded DNA.

The rubeola virus contains: A) single-stranded DNA. B) double-stranded DNA. C) single-stranded RNA. D) double-stranded RNA. E) single-stranded RNA OR double-stranded RNA.

single-stranded RNA. Rubella virus of togavirus family: - enveloped, single-stranded RNA • Easily cultivated in cell cultures

If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 1 month. 1 day. six months. six weeks. three years.

six weeks

skin and mucous membranes.

Which of the following has been involved in causing small epidemics in the U.S.? tineasis candidiasis trichomoniasis sporotrichosis

sporotrichosis Fungal wound infection - more serious than skin mycoses. slide 49 Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener's Disease)

In which organism were phagocytes first reported? - humans - Starfish larvae - Amoeba - Bacteria - Red blood cells

starfish larvae - Russian scientist Metchnikoff

Which of the following foods has the greatest amount of available water? Steak Cake Jam Syrup Bread

steak p.801 - fresh meats and milk have plenty of water to support the growth of many microbes. Bread, nuts and dried foods are relatively dry. Jams, jellies and some other sugar-rich foods are seemingly moist but most of that water is chemically interacting with the sugar, making it unavailable for use by microbes. Similar for salty foods.

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was: penicillin. ampicillin. Salvarsan. streptomycin.

streptomycin. Waksman isolated a bacterium from soil, Streptomyces griseus, that produced an antibiotic he called streptomycin - antibiotic (naturally produced antimicrobial) Molds and bacteria can produce antibiotics. - (Fleming) penicillin from a mold, ampicillin - a penicillin derivative, Salvarsan (arsphenamine) is an arsenic compound (Ehrlich)

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called an aneurysm. acute bacterial endocarditis. myocarditis. subacute bacterial endocarditis.

subacute bacterial endocarditis. Slide 8/p.666 - endocarditis - inflammation inside the heart. Condition develops gradually than it is called SUBACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS. Rapid progression = acute bacterial endocarditis

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the suddenness and severity of onset. population affected. resultant damage. development of exotoxin shock.

suddenness and severity of onset. Subacute is gradual and not as bad. Acute is rapid and bad. - so how sudden and how severe.

The advantageous genes that can be transferred by transduction are genes for:

sugar fermentation. toxin production. drug resistance.

The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its: A) toxin. B) lysogenic conversion. C) resistance to antibiotics. D) survival within macrophages. E) lysogenic conversion AND resistance to antibiotics.

survival within macrophages. Look at your PP notes - I laid it all out nice and neat in the notes. - airborne cells inhaled into lungs - Alveolar macrophages engulf; unable to destroy - Mycolic acids prevent fusion of phagosome with lysosomes - Bacteria exit, multiply within macrophage's cytoplasm

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n): antagonistic effect. synergistic effect. energetic effect. subtractive.

synergistic effect.

Bite wounds are often serious as they may lead to an infection in which two or more species of pathogen act together to produce an effect that is greater than the sum of effects if each pathogen were acting alone...

synergistic infection Alone, usually harmless; together, produce large numbers of toxins and enzymes including leukocidin, collagenase, hyaluronidase, ribonuclease, various proteinases, neuraminidase, and enzymes that destroy complement system proteins and antibodies; yield synergistic infection

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called: energetic. antagonistic. subtractive. synergistic.

synergistic. Antagonistic ones interfere with each other.

Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today: tend to be more virulent. tend to be less virulent. are about equally virulent. cannot be compared.

tend to be less virulent

In which disease is a gumma formed? primary syphilis secondary gonorrhea tertiary syphilis diphtheria

tertiary syphilis In gummatous syphilis, localized areas of tissue damage develop as a result of prolonged inflammatory responses. These lesions, called gummas, are granulomas similar to the tubercles of TB. Chronic and may occur anywhere on the body. p.746

Two people are brought to the Emergency Department where you work. The first patient reports fever, abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. The second patient appears extremely ill. Her family tells you that she also had gastrointestinal signs and symptoms a few days ago. She has now developed severe skin blistering, has a very high fever and is only semi-conscious. When you question the first patient and the family of the second patient, you discover that they know each other and that they have all recently returned from a beach vacation in a major city on the U.S. Gulf Coast. The group tells you that the enjoyed a raw oyster dinner on the last day of their summer vacation. They think that both patients are probably just allergic to seafood, but given the severity of the signs and symptoms of your patients, you suspect that they may have Vibrio vulnificus infection. Lab tests confirm your suspicion. You give the families information on this disease. Patients with V. vulnificus infection are given a combination of synergistic antibiotics. This means that: the action of one antibiotic diminishes the effect of the other(s) in the combination. each antibiotic works independently, but does not inhibit the action of the other antibiotic(s) in the combination. the antibiotics given in combination are always broad spectrum medications. the antibiotics work together to produce a stronger effect than each antibiotic on its own. one antibiotic in the combination is always broad spectrum while the other(s) is/are always narrow spectrum.

the antibiotics work together to produce a stronger effect than each antibiotic on its own. Correct

Humans acquire the arbovirus that causes epidemic encephalitis by: A. the fecal-oral route. B. human to human contact. C. the bite of an infected mosquito. D. contaminated food.

the bite of an infected mosquito. But humans are an accidental dead end host. Birds, squirrels, etc - the virus can build up to concentration in blood that can use a mosquito as biological vector. In people it can't ever replicate to a high enough concentration.

The polio viruses usually enter the body through: A. the oral route. B. contaminated blood. C. cuts in the skin. D. the respiratory route.

the oral route Poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It enters the body orally, infects cells that line the throat and intestinal tract, and then invades the bloodstream. Rarely does the virus enter the CNS (motor neurons).

The integration of phage DNA into the bacterial chromosome occurs because of: - the similarity in enzyme metabolism in the phage and the bacterial cell. - the phage's ability to synthesize enzymes to enter the bacterium AND similar RNA nucleotides in both. - the phage's ability to synthesize an enzyme that integrates its DNA into the host's chromosome. - similarity in RNA nucleotides in both the phage and the bacterial host. - the phage's ability to synthesize enzymes that allow it to enter the bacterium.

the phage's ability to synthesize an enzyme that integrates its DNA into the host's chromosome. - the enzyme integrase

During penetration of E. coli by the T4 phage,: - the tail acts as a "hypodermic needle," injecting the phage DNA into the cell. - the protein fibers digest a hole in the cell wall. - the intact phage enters the host by endocytosis. - lysozyme is used to allow entry of the phage capsid. - the bacterial receptor molecules open a hole through the cell wall.

the tail acts as a "hypodermic needle," injecting the phage DNA into the cell.

Development of a dengue vaccine has proved challenging because: - there are five different viral serotypes, so a multivalent vaccine is needed. - dengue viruses, being RNA viruses, have a high mutation rate. - dengue is transmitted by different species of the Aedes mosquito. - dengue viruses are DNA viruses and can integrate into the host genome.

there are five different viral serotypes, so a multivalent vaccine is needed. 4 serotypes, my book says but I still like the answer. Dengue virus is ssRNA of family Flaviviridae.

they are all leukocytes

High levels of antibodies in patients with SBE tend to be of little use because they make the bacteria clump together and adhere to the clot. the surface antigens change rapidly and become unrecognizable. the antibodies are defective. the antibodies degrade quickly.

they make the bacteria clump together and adhere to the clot. Microbes adhere to heart tissue, multiply, create a biofilm, the clot grows larger around the multiplying organisms, building up a fragile mass. Bacteria get washed off the mass into the bloodstream and pieces of infected clot (septic emboli) can break off. p.667 actually says antibodies will complex with antigens and immune complexes may lodge in body structures and trigger an inflammatory response. Says microbes adhere to heart tissue, multiply, create a biofilm, the clot grows larger around the multiplying organisms, building up a fragile mass. Bacteria get washed off the mass into the bloodstream and pieces of infected clot (septic emboli) can break off.

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious? first second third fifth

third Tertiary - non-infectious syphilis causes so many signs and symptoms that it is easily confused with other diseases and is often called "the great imitator", its symptoms occur in defined clinical stages.

The stage of Lyme disease that is characterized by arthritis is the fourth. third. second. primary. intermediate.

third p.672 - the third stage of Lyme disease (Late persistent infection) is characterized by ARTHRITIS and the affected joints have high concentrations of reactive immune cells and immune complexes. Correct

The symptom at the site of an animal bite that suggests rabies as a possible diagnosis is: A. inability to heal. B. blue-green pus. C. tingling or twitching. D. festering without fever.

tingling or twitching p.709 - the characteristic symptom is a tingling or twitching sensation at the sight of viral entry, usually an animal bite.

The best possible analogy available for the way in which variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) antibody gene segments get put together to create the diversity possible in hypervariable regions is: to think of the various segments as a deck of cards—when you get dealt a hand of five cards, you have a very high likelihood of getting a different hand every time. The quality of the hand you have dealt will dictate whether you have a "winning" hand (capable of binding to antigenic epitopes). to think of the various segments as the pieces of a house—you need a strong foundation first (the joining segments), followed by a frame (the diversity segments), then the interior walls (the variable segments) before the structure is complete. to think of the various segments as the characters in a game of Clue. Each character is assigned a specific weapon with which to commit a murder (the joining segments), but once that is assigned, the room in which the murder occurs is random (the diversity segments); to get a complete picture, you need to know the name of the victim (variable segments). to think of the various segments as building a highway—you need to prepare the area first by clearing a path (the joining segments do this), then grade/slope the area (the diversity segments) before you can finally lay down the asphalt (the variable segments). to think of the various segments as a bingo game—each segment is randomly selected, but you're going to need one of each (V, D, and J) to form a functional molecule. The "right" combination varies depending on which antigen is eventually going to be binding to the molecule (i.e., your bingo card would be the eventual antigen, and the random calling out of the number/letter combinations would be the forming of the VDJ hypervariable region).

to think of the various segments as a bingo game-each segment is randomly selected, but you're going to need one of each V, D, and J to form a functional molecule. The "right" combination varaies depending on which antigen is eventually going to be binding to the molecule (i.e., your bingo card would be the eventual antigen, and the random calling out of the number/letter combinations would be the forming of the VDJ hypervariable region).

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of: bacterial vaginosis. puerperal fever. toxic shock syndrome. gas gangrene. bacterial vaginosis AND puerperal fever

toxic shock syndrome bacterial vaginosis -> E. coli and others puerperal fever -> group A streptococcus gas gangrene -> Clostridum perfringens Toxic Shock Syndrome -> strains of Staphylococcus aureus that produce toxic shock syndrome toxiToxic Shock Syndrome -> strains of Staphylococcus aureus that produce toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) or other related exotoxins (G+ bacteria)n-1 (TSST-1) or other related exotoxins (G+ bacteria)

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is usually caused by bacteria: - trapped in thin blood clots on a deformed heart valve and multiplying very rapidly. - trapped in thin blood clots on a deformed heart valve and multiplying slowly. - attaching to and colonizing the walls of the atria of the heart, multiplying very rapidly. - attaching to and colonizing the ventricles of the heart, multiplying slowly.

trapped in thin blood clots on a deformed heart valve and multiplying slowly. Slowly - subacute happens more gradually. Acute - happens rapidly.

Bacteria which cause subacute bacterial endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream by trauma. dental procedures. brushing teeth. ingestion. trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth. p.667 - The bacteria the cause infective endocarditis may enter the bloodstream from another infected body site or during DENTAL PROCEDURES, TOOTH BRUSHING, OR TRAUMA.

The limited type of leprosy in which cell-mediated immunity suppresses proliferation of the bacilli is called: A. lepromatous. B. limited. C. immune. D. tuberculoid.

tuberculoid Cell-mediated immunity successfully stops the proliferating bacteria, is called tuberculoid leprosy (pauchibacillary) - this isn't transmitted. When cell-mediated immunity to M. leprae fails to develop or is suppresses, unrestricted growth of M. leprae occurs, leads to a form called lepromatous leprosy (multibacilliary). Mucus of throat/nose contain high number of pathogen and is easily transmitted to others.

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with tularemia. brucellosis. plague. gastritis. tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

tularemia, brucellosis AND plague. p.669 - plague - characteristically develop significantly enlarged and tender lymph nodes called BUBOES. p.675 - tularemia - regional lymph nodes enlarge p.676 - brucellosis - patients complain of mild fever, sweating, weakness, aches and pains, enlarged lymph nodes...

The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a tick or insect bite or handling of a wild animal suggests brucellosis. endocarditis. septicemia. tularemia.

tularemia. p.676 - Tularemia is a zoonotic disease that occurs among WILD ANIMALS...in the western US infections mostly result from the bites of infected TICKS AND DEER FLIES (insects) Brucellosis is a chronic infection of domestic animals. Zoonosis.

Cytokine(s) released from macrophages in response to exposure to endotoxin is/are tumor necrosis factor. interleukin-1. protein A. alpha-toxin. tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

Nitrogen is ultimately used in making amino acids and nucleotides AND an important constituent of carbohydrates. turned into ammonia by microorganisms AND ultimately used in making amino acids and nucleotides. primarily fixed by fungi AND ultimately used in making amino acids and nucleotides. turned into ammonia by microorganisms AND ultimately used in making bacterial capsules. an important constituent of carbohydrates AND primarily fixed by fungi.

turned into ammonia by microorganisms AND ultimately used in making amino acids and nucleotides.

Atmospheric nitrogen is used directly by plants. used directly by animals. converted into urea by bacteria. directly used to make carbohydrates. turned into ammonia by microorganisms.

turned into ammonia by microorganisms.

go back to bogrady microbiology ch 24 set for help jkins1389 Mirobiology h 25 chelsea_walter Chapter 25 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive AND Chapter 26 Urinary & Reproductive Systems julioambriz Ch. 24- Study Bank Questions JKMoe Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System ** https://www.studystack.com/flashcard-485339 sobrok at https://quizlet.com/252095176/microbiology-ch-24-flash-cards/

windham_mcguire - micro final practice test 25 - q/a

Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes? plague yellow fever malaria tularemia yellow fever AND malaria

yellow fever AND malaria plague is fleas, Y. pestis bacteria tularemia is zoonosis - wild animals, ticks Yellow fever is Aenes mosquitos and a virus malaria is Anopheles mosquitoes and a Plasmodium protozoa

The disease caused by an enveloped single-stranded RNA arbovirus of the flavivirus family is chikungunya. herpes. malaria. yellow fever. brucellosis

yellow fever. AIDS - not arbovirus malaria - protozoa herpes - not arbovirus brucellosis - bacteria - chik is due to the chikungunya virus, enveloped, ssRNA virus of family Togaviridae. Aedes mosquitoes. Yellow fever is caused by an enveloped, ssRNA arbovirus of the family Flaviviridae. - transmitted by bite of infeccted Aedes or Haemagogus mosquitoes, it biological vector. Correct

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