Microbio Labs 1-13

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Place the following events in the correct order as they occur on the lagging strand: 1. Helix unwinding 2. DNA polymerase III builds DNA 3. DNA polymerase I acts 4. Ligase glues Okazaki fragments together 5. RNA primase builds RNA primers

1, 5, 2, 3, 4

What is the total magnification of a specimen if you are using a compound light microscope with the 40x objective lens?

100x

What is the recommended schedule for the first chicken pox vaccine in infants?

12 months of age

In what year did Stanley Prusiner discover prions?

1982

Put the following steps of protein synthesis in the order that they occur in a eukaryotic cell: 1. Translation ends at a stop codon 2. RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA from DNA 3. Protein sequence is elongated 4. Translation initiates 5. mRNA is processed and travels to a ribosome

2, 5, 4, 3, 1

According to the CDC graph, __________ had one of the highest rates of initial doctor office visits for HPV.

2006

Put the following steps of bacterial replication in the correct order, starting from a parent cell. 1. Cell elongation 2. Septum formation 3. Chromosome replication 4. Separation of daughter cells

3, 1, 2, 4

According to the animation, ribosomes move along the mRNA in which direction?

5' to 3'

During elongation, how is the RNA synthesized?

5' to 3'

The leading strand of DNA is synthesized in which direction?

5' to 3' in the same direction as helix unwinding

Place the following events in the correct order as they occur in the lytic cycle: 1. Assembly 2. Penetration 3. Release 4. Replication 5. Attachment

5, 2, 4, 1, 3

What is a boil?

A boil is a red lump in the skin that may be warm and painful to the touch. It is a localized accumulation of pus and tissue debris.

Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to lead to graft-versus-host disease?

A bone marrow is transplanted from an older, unaffected sibling to a younger sibling affected with severe combined immunodeficiency.

What kind of bond is formed when two amino acids join together?

A peptide bond

What results from the process of translation?

A polypeptide

What would happen if the mRNA codon that coded for Cys was mutated in the third position from a U to an A?

A stop codon would be introduced prematurely.

Which first-line defense molecules are produced by the immune system to kill pathogens, but pathogens rarely become resistant to them?

AMPs

Which energy-rich molecule directly powers cell work?

ATP

Why is ATP required for glycolysis?

ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.

Which of the following is the correct mRNA sequence encoded by the DNA sequence: TAC GGT CAC TTC ACT?

AUG CCA GUG AAG UGA

What is the intermediate product formed by pyruvic acid during alcoholic fermentation?

Acetaldehyde

Which differential stain is used to detect bacteria that have the waxy lipid, mycolic acid in their cell wall?

Acid-fast stain

Which differential staining method uses the primary stain, carbolfuchsin, acid-alcohol decolorizer, and methylene blue as the counterstain?

Acid-fast stain

Which of the following is useful for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis?

Acid-fast stain

Propionibacterium

Acne

Which of the following is another term for a virus attaching to the host cell?

Adsorption

In what areas of the world is this infection most prevalent?

Africa and Asia

When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?

After proliferation into a clonal population

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is caused by a protein. What are the basic building blocks of a protein?

Amino acids

Which of the following scenarios is most concerning for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn?

An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh+ fetus

What are prophylactic antibiotics?

Antibiotics that are given to prevent infection rather than treat it.

A thick, detectable, discrete polysaccharide layer located outside of the cell wall that protects bacteria from the host's immune system and allow pathogens to invade the body is called

Capsule

Which special staining method is considered a negative stain?

Capsule stain

How can capsules enable bacteria to evade the immune system?

Capsules block the complement biding sites on the surface of the pathogen.

In order to kill the fungus in Tim's body without causing unnecessary damage to Tim's cells, a drug must be used that targets a structure common to fungi but not found in human cells. Which of the following would make an ideal drug target in this case?

Cell wall

Which of the following can release histamines?

Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway

What complement result involves the use of phagocytes?

Chemotaxis and opsonization

What microbial agent would be associated with the symptoms seen in this mother-to-be?

Chlamydia trachomatis

Why is a specimen smaller than 200 nm not visible with a light microscope?

Anything smaller than 200 nm cannot interact with visible light.

Many extremophiles such as halophiles, thermophiles, and acidophiles belong to domain _______________.

Archaea

Which of the following prion diseases is found in deer and elk?

Chronic wasting disease

Why did the man's sexual partners believe they were not infected with a STD?

Clinical signs and symptoms in females are often not detectable, especially early in the infection.

What does the "A" in S.M.A.R.T. stand for?

Avoid distractors.

Which organism(s) ferment(s) lactose?

B and C

What cell type is persistently infected by Epstein-Barr virus?

B cells

TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate

B cells.

Which domain of the A-B toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell?

B domain

A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following?

B+

A patient with the antigens A and Rh+ would NOT be able to receive blood from which of the following?

B+

What would have been the possible source for this patient's infection?

Contaminated water in Honduras was used for drinking or cooking.

Which microorganism requires the low pH inside a phagolysosome in order to reproduce?

Coxiella burnetii

What are rales?

Crackles heard in the lungs.

The structural framework in a cell is the

Cytoskeleton.

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

Cytotoxic T-cells

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.

Pus from a skin infection was tested and found to contain Staphylococcus aureus. This Gram-positive bacterium makes catalase and coagulase. It also ferments mannitol. Which of the following test results would indicate Staphylococcus aureus?

B; Gram stain: reveals purple, spherical cells growing in clusters. Blood plasma added to organism: clumping noted. Hydrogen peroxide added to organism: bubbles evident. Mannitol salt agar (MSA): growth evident and media is yellow.

How is bacterial translation different from eukaryotic translation?

Bacteria can begin translation before transcription has terminated.

Why is visualization not sufficient to properly identify bacteria?

Bacteria have a limited set of shapes and many unrelated bacteria share the same shape.

The image shows the results of a type of structural staining method called a negative stain that uses the dye, crystal violet. What are the purple colored structures depicted by the arrows?

Bacterial cells

What is the function of the CD8 receptor?

Bind to MHC molecules

What is the function of single-strand binding proteins?

Bind to the DNA strands near the replication fork to keep them separated

The host DNA is usually degraded during which stage?

Biosynthesis

Considering Donald's signs and symptoms, which organ or body system was most likely affected? Recall that the major signs and symptoms included changes in personality, decreased vision, difficulty walking, and impaired memory.

Brain

Which test confirmed the presence of this prion disease?

Brain scan

In the absence of a mutagen, how do mutations occur?

DNA polymerase makes a mistake during replication.

What step of binary fission is occurring in step 1?

DNA replication

What is the arrangement of the circled bacterial cells.

Diplococci

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.

Which of the following causes Mononucleosis?

Epstein-Barr virus

Using your knowledge of organism's gram staining properties, which of the following organisms would grow on EMB?

Escherichia coli

Next, Richard observes the HE plate. The results are as follows: Only a few yellow/orange colored colonies are observed The HE results indicate the presences of Salmonella.

False

True or False: Unless Brandon gets the stem cell transplant, he has only about a 50% chance of long-term survival.

False

Which of the following would be the first sign of an infection that resulted in the release of endotoxin?

Fever

Identify the prokaryotic cell structure labeled "D"

Fimbriae

Which of the following features of Salmonella prevent it from being phagocytosed?

Flagella

How does the azole drug fluconazole damage yeast? Why does this drug not target human cells?

Fluconazole targets ergosterol within the fungal cell membrane, but does not target human cells because human cells do not have ergosterol.

How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway?

Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them

What is the purpose of an anticodon?

It's a region on a tRNA that binds to a complementary codon on mRNA to ensure the proper amino acid is added to a growing protein.

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?

Jellyfish sting

Which of the following molecules is broken down in cellular respiration, providing fuel for the cell?

Glucose

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true?

Glycolysis is also called the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.

The _______ resembles a series of flat sacs called cisternae. This organelle modifies, builds, sorts, and distributes products to the cell membrane to be secreted.

Golgi apparatus

Which of the following is part of the endomembrane system?

Golgi apparatus

Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

Goodpasture syndrome

The first question in this dichotomous key addresses

Gram stain differences.

What category of bacteria have cell walls that possess peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide?

Gram-negative

Which of the following best describes the Enterobacteriaceae group (enteric bacteria)?

Gram-negative bacillus found in many locations including animal intestines

What category of bacteria have cell walls that possess peptidoglycan and teichoic acid?

Gram-positive

What category of bacteria is resistant to physical disruption and drying, but are highly susceptible to penicillin and anionic detergents?

Gram-positive

Which molecule triggers apoptosis?

Gramzyme

Which of the following best describes neutrophils?

Granulocytes that fight many invaders including bacteria and viruses

If the canned vegetables had been contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, what bacterial arrangement would you expect to see on a Gram stain?

Grape-like clusters

A rare but troubling complication associated with Campylobacter infections is the development of an autoimmune response against the nervous system. What autoimmune disease is associated with Campylobacter infections?

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Identify the organelle that contains hydrolytic enzymes?

H

What is the causative agent for this sexually transmitted disease?

Haemophilus ducreyi

What is the leading reason that Herb is immunocompromised?

He has diabetes.

Which of the following is the strongest supporting evidence that Tim has an infection?

He has nodular inflammation in his lungs.

How did this man most likely become exposed to this disease agent?

He is likely to have been exposed while hunting elk in Colorado during his childhood.

What are the four signs of inflammation?

Heat, pain, redness, and swelling.

Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are:

Helper T-cells

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.

Which of the following acts as a proinflammatory factor?

Histamine

Which of the following enzymes breaks down the "glue" that holds cells together?

Hyaluronidase

Which of the following prion diseases was also known as laughing disease?

Kuru

Which of the following is an acid produced by fermentation?

Lactic acid and propionic acid

What is the role of lenses in microscopy?

Lenses focus either light or electrons to create a magnified image of a specimen.

It has been observed that people living in developed nations have a greater risk for autoimmune diseases than individuals who live in underdeveloped nations. To address the question of why this may occur, a hypothesis called the ____________ hypothesis proposes that the modern quest for a microbe-free environment in developed countries may actually encourage our immune system to malfunction.

Hygiene

What was the best treatment for this patient once he had gone to the ER?

IV fluids, sedation, and respiratory support

Health care providers determine the specific allergen that is generating symptoms by using a blood test to look at ________ levels.

IgE

Choose the false statement.

IgG binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils.

Which class of antibody is the first produced during the primary response?

IgM

What is the recommended course of treatment when a rabid animal bites a person?

Immediately wash the wound with soap and water, inject the bite area with rabies immunoglobulin, and begin a series of four rabies vaccine injections.

____________________ oil prevents the scattering of light when viewing a sample using the 100x objective lens

Immersion

What is graft-versus-host disease?

Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.

How are superantigens different from other types of exotoxins?

Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system.

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as

T-independent antigens.

Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?

TCR

Natural killer cells are activated by

TH1 cells.

The T helper cell subclass that stimulates B cells to proliferate and differentiate is called ________.

TH2

Which vaccine booster might have protected Maren's sister from the disease?

Tdap

What part of the nervous system is most affected by fatal familial insomnia?

Thalamus

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?

The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch.

Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies?

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.

How does the ribosome know if the entering charged tRNA is correct?

The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA.

Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections?

Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.

Endotoxins are also known as

Lipid A.

Which of the following organelles breaks down worn-out organelles?

Lysosomes

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down a host bacterium's cell wall so that the virus can leave the cell?

Lysozyme

Where is the site of Shigella attachment in the host?

M cells

This image shows the results of three different bacterial species that were streaked onto MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37ºC. What do the observed results of Micrococcus luteus indicate?

M. luteus is not a halophile or facultative halophile

The majority of secondary lymphoid tissue is called ________, and includes Peyer's patches, tonsils, and the appendix.

MALT

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?

MHC proteins

Which cells are involved in a secondary response?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

What does the term mesophile mean?

Mesophiles grow well at body temperature.

As shown in the animation, the start codon also codes for which amino acid?

Methionine

The image shows the result of a certain differential staining method that detects the presence of mycolic acid in a bacterial cell wall. What is the name of the counterstain used in this method?

Methylene blue

Where in a cell is ATP made?

Mitochondria

Why do symptoms persist after antibiotics have been used to treat and remove the bacterial infection?

The blebs containing lipid A are still present in the blood and in the tissues.

Where are the complement proteins found in the body?

The blood serum

What is the name for the dark-staining bodies observed in the brain cells from this patient?

Negri bodies

Analysis of the spinal tap shows the presence of Gram-negative bacteria cocci; for this age group which bacteria would be the probable cause of these symptoms?

Neisseria meningitidis

Meningitis and gonorrhea are caused by

Neisseria species.

How does a capsule help certain bacteria evade detection by the immune system?

The capsule is composed of polysaccharides that are similar to those found in the host; thus, the immune system does not recognize it as foreign.

How long does it take for the daughter cells to initiate or start the next round of replication?

No time is required -- they are ready to divide immediately after DNA replication and separation of the daughter cells is complete if conditions are right.

Is this disease contagious?

No, the disease is not contagious.

Is it critical to determine the fungal agent or agents contributing to this case? Why or why not?

No. The treatment would be the same.

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?

Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus.

How do normal prion proteins (PrP) differ from the infectious prion proteins?

Normal PrP have alpha-helices; infectious PrP have beta-pleated sheets.

Which of the following acids are polymers that combine to form KPC's genome?

Nucleic acids

Where is the genetic information of the cell stored?

Nucleus

Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?

On the surface of the cell

This disease is spread from person to person only. How contagious a disease is it considered to be?

The disease is rarely transmitted from person to person.

How is fermentation of lactose detected?

The drop in pH turns the indicator dye yellow.

Where would one find an uncharged tRNA molecule in a ribosome?

In the P and E sites

Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?

The endoplasmic reticulum

How would one increase the concentration of a particular polypeptide in a cell?

Increase the level of transcription

Which portion of the mitochondria is folded to create a large surface area?

Inner membrane

Where do Salmonella pathogens grow and replicate in the infected host?

Inside phagocytes

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?

It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.

How did the intravenous immunoglobulin therapy help Ted?

It blocked the binding sites of autoantibodies.

How does the protozoan Trypanosoma evade detection by the immune system?

It can change the surface antigens frequently, preventing the immune system from tracking it.

Why is a release of endotoxin into the bloodstream potentially deadly?

It can lower blood pressure and cause the patient to go into shock.

Which of the following is NOT true of COPD?

It causes a short-term coughing spells that arise after exercise.

What is the main reason that antibiotics were not used to treat Julia?

It could have increased toxin release from the bacteria.

How does bleach work to kill microorganisms?

It destroys cell membranes and denatures proteins.

Fully cooking the turkey could have prevented Ted from getting sick. How does heat kill a pathogen?

It destroys membranes and denatures proteins.

How does the Gram staining procedure differentiate between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria?

It differentiates between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on cell wall composition.

Why is the unknown in this example not Pseudomonas?

It ferments lactose.

In the hospital lab, the technician performing the Gram stain procedure on David's sample knew that correct interpretation of the slide required use of immersion oil and a 100x objective lens. Why is immersion oil necessary?

It improves resolution.

Suzanne collapsed before being rushed to the hospital. What is the most appropriate classification of fainting?

It is a sign.

Which of the following statements about fermentation is true?

It is an alternative way to return electron carriers to their oxidized state.

Why did the presence of a fever worry Elissa so much?

It is an indication of infection.

What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage?

It is copied every time the host DNA replicates.

Which statement about the epidemiology of Campylobacterosis is FALSE?

It is most prevalent during the spring and fall than other times of the year

What is meant by light rays being divergent?

It is spreading out

What does halophilic mean?

It means the organism is "salt-loving."

What is the fate of the NAD+ newly regenerated by fermentation?

It returns to glycolysis to pick up more electrons.

What is the role of pyruvic acid in fermentation?

It takes the electrons from NADH, oxidizing it back into NAD+.

How would the results be different if this organism was Salmonella?

It would produce hydrogen sulfide.

How can Organism "A" grow if it cannot ferment the carbohydrate contained in EMB media?

Organism "A" is metabolizing other nutrients contained in EMB, which do not cause acidic by-products

What do the results of organism A depicted in the image indicate?

Organism A is gram-negative, but doesn't ferment lactose

What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration?

Oxygen

During the initiation step of translation, the fMet charged tRNA assembles in which site of the ribosome?

P site

Genital warts are caused by __________.

Papillomaviridae

Which primary skin lesion is incorrectly matched with its description?

Papule: Sore of irregular size and shape that results as epidermal and dermal skin layers are destroyed

In which stage is the viral DNA introduced into the cell?

Penetration

What is sputum?

Phlegm

One of the tests performed on David's lesion sample was an acid-fast stain. Which of the following color pairs represent potential staining outcomes from this procedure?

Pink cells and/or blue cells may be present.

When mixed with their host bacterium and plated on solid agar, lytic phage will form clear areas in the bacterial growth. What are these clear areas called?

Plaques

What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?

Plasma cells and memory B cells

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?

Plasma cells produce antibodies

What structure acts as a selective barrier, regulating the traffic of materials into and out of the cell?

Plasma membrane

What term describes the buildup of fluid in the lungs due to infection?

Pneumonia

What is the most likely etiology (cause) of this disease?

Prion

How does the number of infectious prions increase?

Prions transform normal proteins into the misfolded beta-pleated sheet configuration; therefore, prions multiply by conversion.

From which phrase is the term "prions" derived?

Proteinaceous infectious particles

What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway?

Proteins

What color will a Gram-positive organism stain?

Purple

Which of the following primary skin lesions is a raised lesion that contains pus and is found below the skin surface?

Pustule

What carbon molecules remain at the end of glycolysis?

Pyruvic acid

According to the animation, which of the following makes mRNA from the information stored in a DNA template?

RNA polymerase

Which of the following is not an enzyme involved in DNA replication?

RNA polymerase

What type of pre-transcriptional regulation is the most likely to turn off the production of a substance that is already plentiful?

Repressible operons

_________ is the ability to distinguish two distinct points as separate.

Resolution

The health department microbiologists are looking for Clostridium contamination in the canned vegetables. Since this organism is a bacillus, they should see what shaped bacteria?

Rod

Which structure pictured is the site of synthesis of proteins destined for secretion?

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Select the best explanation for why Steptococcus pyogenes is classified in the domain Bacteria as opposed to the domain Archaea?

S. pyogenes has a peptidoglycan enriched cell wall

The image shows the results of a staining method that differentiates between bacteria that have thick or thin layers of peptidoglycan in their cell walls. Name the counterstain used in this method.

Safranin

What is the etiologic agent of typhoid?

Salmonella

Which disease did Stanley Prusiner first identify as being caused by prions?

Scrapie

How did proper sewage management help reduce cholera cases, if not by reducing the stench?

Sewage management led to decreased incidence of human feces in drinking water.

The bonds in the Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) prion proteins are covalent. What do the bonds involve?

Sharing of electrons

Which of the following best describes the function of siderophores?

Siderophores are bacterial organic molecules that pull iron from human iron-binding proteins.

The mutations that were discovered in the patients' bacteria did not affect the proteins that the bacteria produces. What type of mutations were these?

Silent mutations

Which organism is most likely to be responsible for the boils?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following virulence factors would be found in Staphylococcus aureus?

Staphylokinase

Which syndrome can be triggered by certain medications and results in a painful, purplish rash that blisters and leaves scarring?

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Which of the following arrangements is sometimes referred to as having a beads-on-a-string appearance?

Streptococci

Which of the following bacteria has an affinity for the heart valves?

Streptococcus mutans

Infections with these symptoms are generally caused by which of the following pathogens?

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following microorganisms use M protein to avoid destruction of a phagocyte?

Streptococcus pyogenes

What test result indicates that the unknown can utilize citrate as its sole carbon source?

The medium turns blue.

Why are the beta-pleated multimers of PrP potentially pathogenic?

The multimers are more stable and resistant to protease.

In a typical brightfield microscope (seen in the animation), at which point does magnification begin?

The objective lens

What would happen if the septum did not form during binary fission?

The parent cell would now have two copies of the chromosome.

Where does the name "scrapie" come from?

The prion disorder causes infected sheep to scrape against objects until their skin is raw.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) prion proteins contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. Which of the following statements is true?

The prion's hydrophobic region would interact with other hydrophobic regions in the protein, while the hydrophilic regions would interact with water.

What is sporulation?

The process by which a bacterium forms an endospore.

What is apoptosis?

The process of programmed cell death.

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?

The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody

Since the health department laboratory found Gram-positive endospore forming bacilli in the canned food, which of the following statements would be false?

The prokaryote in the cans is releasing poisonous endotoxin.

What is the initial target of RNA polymerase?

The promoter

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

Why did the doctor think that Donald might have suffered a stroke?

The signs and symptoms appeared very quickly, and matched those seen with strokes.

If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus on finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine?

The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.

Why should the actor worry about the spread of the injected Botox from the forehead to other parts of the body or face?

The toxin spreading to other areas of the body would inhibit muscle contractions required for normal daily activities.

What would be the fate of a lytic bacteriophage if the host cell died prior to the assembly stage?

The virus would not be able to infect new hosts

How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell?

The host cell dies during the lytic stage.

How does the yeast form of a fungus differ from the hyphal form?

The yeast form is unicellular.

How is Streptococcus pneumoniae able to avoid destruction by a phagocyte?

Their capsules make them "slippery" to phagocytes.

Which of the following statements describes eukaryotic cells?

They contain membrane-bound organelles such as a nucleus.

Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false?

They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets.

How are prions different from other infectious agents?

They lack nucleic acid.

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

How are viruses different from eukaryotic cells?

They require a host in order to reproduce

How is this disease transmitted?

This disease is most commonly transmitted by unprotected sex.

Why did the cultures at Student Health and at the Hospital not grow originally?

This organism is suited for growth at lower temperatures.

How many questions are needed in this dichotomous key to determine if the unknown is Bacteroides?

Three

Why did the healthcare provider swab the wound?

To get samples of any pathogens in the wound.

What is the function of the structural elements of a virus?

To package and protect the viral genome

What is the role of the ocular lens?

To recreate the image in the viewer's eye

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?

To repair the damaged tissue

Why did the director implement so many new protocols all at once?

To stop the spread of infection as quickly as possible

The normal function of the PrP protein in mammals is believed to be:

assisting in normal synaptic development and function.

What type of vaccine would be used to vaccinate the twins?

attenuated virus vaccine

What type of microbe causes lymphogranuloma venereum?

bacteria

Which of the following is an example of a biofilm?

bacteria growing in plaque

Staphylococcus aureus is streaked on MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37ºC. What results would you expect to observe on MSA?

bacterial growth with yellow colored media

Where do the stem cells for a stem cell transplant typically come from?

bone marrow

The paralytic toxin from C. botulinum differs from the toxin from C. tetani in that __________.

botulism results in flaccid paralysis and tetanus results in a spastic paralysis

Most prokaryotic cells reproduce

by binary fission.

How is this disease transmitted?

by direct contact with an open sore during sexual activity

What type of cancer is more likely to develop in people who have had papillomavirus infections?

cancer of the tonsils

Which does not apply to ringworm infections?

caused by a worm

Based on the recommendations in this textbook, which antibiotic would be the treatment of choice for this disease?

ceftriaxone and azithromycin

What disease has this patient contracted?

chancroids

Autoimmune disorders are

chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone.

Which topical medication would likely be recommended for use in this case?

clotrimazole cream

What is supportive therapy?

common, nonspecific treatments given in addition to the primary treatment with the goal of relieving signs and symptoms

The common infection known as "pink eye" is an infection of the

conjunctiva.

How can this disease best be categorized?

contagious and chronic

An exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a(n)

cytotoxin.

Which of the following is NOT an accepted treatment for warts?

daily application of tincture of iodine to the wart surface

Pus is comprised of

dead phagocytes.

Identify the agranulocyte labeled "F".

dendritic cell

Which nucleic acid is part of the varicella-zoster virion?

dsDNA

Which of the following is not directly involved in protein synthesis?

dsRNA

What is it called when there is only inflammation of the brain?

encephalitis

Lethal _____________-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus anthracis, can be used for bioterrorism.

endospore

Based on the observations given, what is the probable diagnosis made by the health care provider?

erysipelas

What is one of the virulence factors associated with the causative agent for this infection?

erythrogenic toxin

What would be the best treatment options?

erythromycin

If there is not enough time between determination of an STD in the pregnant mother and time of delivery, after birth the doctor may choose to prophylactically treat the infant for infections. What would the treatment be?

erythromycin cream initially placed in the newborn's eyes

True or False: Autism is linked to vaccines

false

True or False: Guillain-Barré is a common condition.

false

True or False: The Tdap vaccine stimulates passive immunity.

false

True or False: When a person with a healthy immune system gets an MMR vaccine, there is always a slight chance that the patient will develop that disease.

false

A distinctive red rash on the cheeks with an otherwise mild illness is most likely

fifth disease.

Short, bristle-like structures that extrude from the surface of a prokaryotic cell are called

fimbriae.

Botulism is generally associated with ingestion of the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. The activity of the toxin will result in __________.

flaccid paralysis

Virulence factors associated with this organism include all of the following, EXCEPT __________.

flagella

What type of microbe causes thrush?

fungus

The photograph shows

genital warts

What disease does this patient have? What is the common name for this disease?

gonorrhea; "the clap"

____________ are small molecules that are in-and-of themselves incapable of eliciting an immune response.

haptens

When preparing a slide for bacterial staining, the _________________ step attaches the bacteria to the slide and kills the microorganisms

heat fixed

What caused Miley's Post-Transplantation Lymphoproliferative Disorder?

her earlier infection by EBV

The immediate result of electron movement through the electron transport chain is the pumping of protons across the bacterial cell membrane, creating a _____ outside the cell than inside the cell.

higher concentration of protons

It is unclear why hypersensitivities develop, but genetics and environmental factors may play a role. Another proposed factor suggests that individuals living in developed countries may have weaker immune systems due to accessibility of clean food, and water, antibiotics, and minimized exposure to diseases. This is known as the __________ hypothesis.

hygiene

In the United States, most common exposure to Clostridium botulinum and its toxins occurs through __________.

ingestion of the spores or toxins in improperly canned foods

How did this couple become infected with C. jejuni?

ingestion of undercooked poultry

Transmission of the causative bacterial agent is via this route.

inhalation of respiratory droplets blood transfusions

What would be the best course of action to treat someone who has been exposed to Clostridium boltulinum toxin or has had a Botox injection that is spreading?

intravenous immunoglobulins

Antigen processing and presentation

is a way for a cell to give information about its activities

Boys should receive the HPV vaccine because __________.

it can prevent oropharyngeal cancer caused by having oral sex with a woman infected with HPV

What is the function of eosin and methylene blue in EMB media?

it functions in both the selection of gram-negative organisms and the differentiation between lactose fermentors and non-lactose fermentors

Mitochondria share all the following features with bacteria except

linear DNA and 80S ribosomes.

If not handled promptly with the correct treatment regime, which of the following infections may develop and be considered as life threatening?

liver and lung abscesses

Transcription produces which of the following?

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are all produced by transcription.

The main function of the Krebs cycle during cellular respiration is to ______.

make NADH and FADH2 through redox reactions

What is the host range for rabies?

mammals

Based on the symptoms stated, what is the most probable disease that this student has developed?

meningitis

Which of the following terms is likely to describe optimal growing conditions for Streptococcus mutans?

mesophile

Immersion oil is required to _________.

minimize scattered light when the high-powered lens is used

What cells are damaged in Guillain-Barré syndrome?

nerves

A patient who has been hospitalized with uncontrolled muscle spasms has probably been infected with bacteria that secrete a(n)

neurotoxin.

Which cells are defective in patients with chronic granulomatous disease?

neutrophils

This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on MacConkey. All three organisms have grown on the media. Which organism(s) is/are gram-positive?

none of the organisms are gram-positive

What should the course of treatments for this infection entail?

oral antibiotics

What is the recommended course of therapy?

oral fluids

This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on EMB. All three organisms have grown on the media. What does the appearance of the growth of organism "C" indicate?

organims "C" exhibited an abundance of lactose fermentation resulting in a metallic sheen

Which of the following amino acids is coded by only one codon?

Trp

The EMB results seen above would accurately be reported as two fecal coliforms / 100 ml water sample.

True

True or False: Fungi have mitochondria.

True

Which of the following microorganisms actually grows inside the macrophage?

Tuberculosis bacterium

Which of the following conditions in humans is linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy?

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Which of the following cell shapes look like a comma?

Vibrio

Which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease?

West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affected areas since 1937.

Which of the following best describes a prophage?

When a phage genome is integrated into the host cell's chromosome

How is translation terminated?

When a protein called a release factor enters and binds to the A site

When would endotoxins be released from a bacterial cell?

When the cell dies

What observations could you make in the case of a positive catalase test?

You may see bubbles develop upon adding hydrogen peroxide to the sample.

What causes measles?

a virus

What causes the flu?

a virus

Ted was likely in the _____________BLANKstage of disease when he experienced the _____________BLANK of diarrhea and fever.

acute / signs

At the end of this part - part 1 - of the case, what stage of infection is Suzanne experiencing?

acute phase

Biochemical tests _________________.

are the main methods used to identify unknown bacteria

GAU codes for

aspartic acid.

The amino acids in the pathogenic prion protein are linked by ____bonds. This is ____for cellular prion protein.

peptide; the same

What cells or tissues will harbor the bacteria in a patient with Hansen disease?

peripheral nerve endings, mucous membranes, and skin cells in the fingers, toes, lips, and earlobes

The two organelles that are theorized to have evolved from prokaryotic cells are ______________ and _________________.

photosynthetic bacterium; chloroplast

At first, Bernadette had a slight cough, a slight fever, and a runny nose. In which stage of infection do you expect her to be?

prodromal

Organisms in the domain archaea have cell walls that possess _______________.

pseudopeptidoglycan

Staphylococcus aureus, the cause of Brandon's skin infection, is a Gram-positive coccus. How would it appear after a Gram stain?

purple circles

To confirm diagnosis of a Campylobacter infection a patient was instructed to have an oxidase test performed by a lab. Which of the following results would indicate a positive oxidase test?

purple color reaction

Ribosomes contain which of the following?

rRNA

What disease is transmitted from bats to humans and produces the signs/symptoms displayed by this patient?

rabies

What is erythema?

redness

MacConkey media is a selective and differntial diagnostic media. What does MacConkey select for? What does it differentiate?

selects for gram-negative organisms and differentiates between organisms that can or cannot ferment lactose

Name the condition caused by generation of an immune response against administered medications such as antitoxins and penicillin?

serum sickness

What is dyspnea?

shortness of breath

Strep throat is caused by Streptococcus. What shape are these microbes?

spheres

Which food is the most likely source of the infection?

sprouts

RNA that has hydrogen bonded to itself forms a

stem loop.

During which step does carbon leave the Krebs cycle in the form of CO2?

step 3 and step 4

Which step is a redox reaction?

step 6

Which step shows an energy investment in the form of ATP?

steps 1 and 3

Glycolysis makes ATP using ______.

substrate-level phosphorylation

Which nutrient is responsible for the development of cavities in teeth?

sucrose

Glycolysis literally means

sugar splitting.

A person who attended a picnic early in the day develops a very high fever and is unresponsive by the evening. This person most likely has been exposed to a(n)

superantigen.

Measles viruses are capable of inactivating host defenses by

suppressing the immune system.

Which of the following is involved in bringing amino acids to the ribosomes?

tRNA

RNA polymerase is guided by the

template strand of DNA.

What would be the most effective oral agent to use for treating the condition depicted in this case?

terbinafine tablets

A chief concern of the health care provider with an infection such as this one would be which of the following?

the bacteria spreading to the blood (bacteremia) and damaging the heart or the kidneys

Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in

the classical pathway.

How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted?

the fecal-oral route

Describe the function of the indicator, neutral red, when the bacteria growing on MacConkey media ferment lactose.

the indicator will change from colorless to pinkish

Emigration is

the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage.

An organism is streaked onto MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37º C. The plate has bacterial growth, but the media remained a pinkish color. What do the results indicate about the organism?

the organism can grow in high salt conditions, but cannot ferment mannitol

Evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory includes

the presence of 70S ribosomes in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

What determines which form of Hansen disease a person will develop after infection with the causative bacterium?

the state of a person's immune response during early development of the disease

How is infectious mononucleosis spread?

through saliva

What type of infection is shown? The figure shows two photos. The first photo shows a portion of skin with a round dot and two circles around it. The second photo shows toes with an exfoliated upper surface of the skin.

tinea

Why did the doctor ask the lab to perform antibiotic sensitivity tests?

to determine if the bacteria were resistant to the drug being used

What risk is there, if any, to the unborn child during passage through the birth canal?

trachoma

While on a medical volunteer trip to an impoverished country, you encounter a patient whose eyelids are turned inward as shown. What is the cause and the best treatment?

trachoma; single dose of oral azithromycin

The symptoms point toward a form of Hansen disease. Which form of the disease best fits the symptoms that are being seen by the nurse?

tuberculoid leprosy

Which of the following factors would NOT contribute to the development of severe dermatomycoses?

wearing sandals

What is the word used to refer to diseases transmissible from animals to humans?

zoonoses

Which species of amoeba would be considered the causes this patient's disease?

Entamoeba histolytica

Which of the following is (are) mismatched?

-Acid-fast stain: turns acid-fast cells blue -Gram stain: turns Gram-negative cells purple

During his research on West Nile virus, Bill learned that this virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovirus?

-An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus. -An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission.

Which of the following are fecal coliforms?

-Enterobacter -Serratia -Klebsiella

-What special stain method uses the primary stain, malachite green, and the counterstain safranin? -What color do endospores stain when performing the endospore special staining method? -What color do vegetative cells stain when performing the endospore special staining method?

-Primary stain -Green -Pinkish/red

Choose the false statement(s) about the simple staining technique.

-The simple staining method uses a single acidic dye that stains the slide background.

What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern?

-West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes. -West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America. -West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods.

The measles vaccine is part of the combined MMR immunization. When do children first get this vaccine if they are on a typical vaccination schedule, as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?

1 year old

What is meant by the term "paroxysmal"?

a sudden recurrence or intensification of a sign or symptom

The image shows the results of a structural staining method that uses malachite green as the primary stain and safranin as the counterstain. What are the green colored structures depicted by the arrows

Endospores

What is the best way to prevent the spread of this infection?

All food handlers are required to wash their hands thoroughly after using the restroom.

If it is suspected that the cans are contaminated with bacteria, which of the following stains might be able to detect them?

All of the above

Herb's wife often used the hot tub as well. Why didn't she also develop a Legionella infection?

All of the above.

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?

All of the answers are correct

Which of the following are functions of lectins?

All of the answers are correct

A variety of bacteria normally inhabits the vagina. How could a practitioner differentiate between these normally present bacteria and Candida albicans just by looking at a wet mount sample under the microscope without differential staining procedures?

All of the statements are correct

When Angel got sick she initially had a fever, red eyes, a runny nose and a cough. Which of these were signs and which were symptoms?

All of these are signs.

When Brandon was diagnosed with pneumonia, he had a fever, cough, and abnormal breathing sounds. Which of these were signs, and which were symptoms?

All of these are signs.

Which of the complement pathways employs properdin?

Alternative pathway

In which stage does formation of mature viruses occur?

Assembly

At what site on the chromosome does DNA replication begin?

At the origin of replication

What is the leading cause of bacterial gastrointestinal disease in the US?

Campylobacter

What is the most likely cause of this couple's disease?

Campylobacter jejuni

C3 convertase cleaves C3 into __________ and ___________.

C3a and C3b

Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell?

C3b

Which complement protein is used as an opsonin?

C3b

Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells

Which of the following molecules interacts directly with MHC I molecules?

CD8 molecule on cytotoxic T cells

Why is Daniel underweight?

Daniel is not eating much, because it hurts to chew and swallow.

What is the typical incubation period for prion diseases?

Decades

What bacterial cell wall characteristic does Gram Staining differentiate?

Determine if they have a thin or thick layer of peptidoglycan

What term describes shortness of breath?

Dyspnea

What is COPD?

Enlargement and damage of the air sacs in the lungs.

The brain tissue of the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals?

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.

The doctor wants to test David's lesion for Bacillus anthracis. If this organism is grown in stressful conditions, what differential stain would most add to the presumptive diagnosis of cutaneous anthrax?

Endospore stain

Metabolically inactive (dormant) forms of bacteria that can survive harsh environmental conditions such as heat and UV radiation are called...

Endospores

Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage?

Exposure to UV light

What does the term facultative anaerobe mean?

Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen. More growth is evident when oxygen is present.

All bacteria with antibiotic resistance can transfer that resistance via conjugation, but through no other mechanisms.

False

Based on the data graphic, the source of infections in the other patients seems to come only from Elizabeth's skin.

False

Most patients fully recover from this type of cancer after their immuno-suppressive drugs are reduced.

False

Which of the following best explains the difference between DNA, genes, and proteins?

Genes are made up of DNA and code for proteins.

How do electrons get from glycolysis, the intermediate step, and the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain?

NADH and FADH2 transport electrons to the electron transport chain.

What selective and differential media would be the best choice to use to determine an S. aureus infection?

MSA

Whcih of the following statements about the media composition is FALSE?

MSA is a chemically defined media

Which of the following media is used to isolate Gram-negative organisms?

MacConkey agar plate

Urinary tract infections are commonly caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Escherichia coli, less commonly caused by Proteus mirabilis. You have a mixed culture of these pathogens, which you inoculate onto both MacConkey agar and nutrient agar, and then you incubate the plates at optimal growth conditions. On the MacConkey agar, E. coli appears pink, P. mirabilis appears colorless, and S. saprophyticus does not grow. All three microorganisms appear cream on the nutrient agar plate. What is the best explanation for this data?

MacConkey is both a differential and a selective medium.

Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?

Macrophages

What is the hallmark of dichotomous keys?

They consist of a series of paired statements, in which only one statement of each pair applies to a given organism.

What are leukocidins?

Molecules that are capable of destroying phagocytes

Studies have demonstrated that people living in areas where helminth infections are common have less allergies and autoimmune disorders in comparison with people living is areas where these infections are rare. Research has indicated that helminth infections may moderate the activities of certain immune cells. This observation has led to clinical trials where helminths were introduced into patients, to ascertain if certain autoimmune disease symptoms were relieved. What two autoimmune diseases discussed in the article "A Possible Link between Lost Normal Microbiota and Immune System Disorders" are showing promising results using helminth therapy?

Multiple Sclerosis, Crohn's disease

The causative agent for leprosy is the bacterium __________.

Mycobacterium leprae

The primary immune response involves

a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.

How many codons code for the amino acid arginine?

Six

Where are lipids made in the cell?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

What enables the copied chromosomes to separate during binary fission?

The chromosomes are attached to different parts of cell membrane, which elongates and thus separates the chromosomes.

Which of the complement pathways was discovered first?

The classical pathway

You are viewing a specimen using the 100x objective, but the image is fuzzy. Assuming that the microscope is clean and functioning properly, what is the likely reason why the image isn't clear?

There is no oil

What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?

They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky.

Why are flowcharts useful for dichotomous keys?

They allow the researcher to visualize relationships between different bacteria.

How are immune cells able to detect foreign pathogens?

They are able to detect structures on the surfaces of foreign cells that are not found in the host.

What happens to the light rays when they hit the specimen?

They are reflected, refracted, or absorbed by the specimen.

What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?

They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.

How do fibrinolysins enhance a pathogen's virulence?

They break down fibrin proteins that are involved in clot formation, allowing the cells to penetrate deep into damaged skin.

How do Shigella cells move between host cells?

They can polymerize actin molecules from the epithelial cells into tail-like structures that propel them from one cell to another.

How do superantigens enable pathogens to hide from the immune system if they actually stimulate the immune system?

They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.

Starting with three cells, how many cells would result from three rounds of replication?

Twenty-four

How many answers are there to a question in a dichotomous key flowchart?

Two

How many net ATPs can be made from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis?

Two

A patient experienced a reaction to bananas and guacamole. What class of reaction was he/she most likely experiencing?

Type I

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies bound to mast cells or basophils?

Type I

Allergies are classified as:

Type I hypersensitivities

In Guillain-Barré syndrome, antibodies are generated to gangliosides, components of nerve cell membranes. What type of hypersensitivity is this syndrome?

Type II

A doctor took a patient's health history. The patient remembered that as a child he had a reaction to penicillin. About three weeks after he started taking the medication he developed a rash, achiness, and a fever. His symptoms fully resolved within about seven days. What sort of reaction was this sensitivity?

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the only one that isn't antibody-mediated?

Type IV

Which of the following statements regarding type IV hypersensitivities is true?

Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.

Is it possible for Rudy's warts to spread to other areas of his body?

Yes. Papillomaviruses are spread by direct contact.

Is Grandfather Davis contagious?

Yes. The twins would probably develop chicken pox two weeks after their visit with Grandfather Davis.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?

Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production.

What causes whooping cough?

a bacterium called Bordetella pertussis

Autoimmune disorders are diagnosed using

a collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms.

What is an immuno-suppressive drug?

a pharmaceutical agent that decreases the function of the immune system

Lysogenic viral DNA which has integrated into the host genome is referred to as

a prophage.

Genital warts are transmitted by __________.

all answers are correct

Which complement pathway has complement proteins that are directly activated by interacting with a pathogen?

alternative pathway

Which protozoan disease would be responsible for the symptoms seen in this patient?

amebiasis

What is the best definition of a broad spectrum antibiotic?

an antibiotic that kills a large variety of microorganisms

An anamnestic response is

another name for secondary response

What would happen the FIRST time an Rh- woman is pregnant with an Rh+ fetus?

antibodies to Rh factor would develop in the mother

Along with intravenous rehydration, many of the medication groups listed below may be used for secondary infections. But which group must be used if the infection is to be controlled?

antiprotozoan medications

What carries instructions for making proteins from the nucleus into the cytoplasm?

mRNA

Which of the following can be translated into protein?

mRNA

Bernadette was not breast-fed. Therefore, she did not have _____________BLANK to Bordetella.

natural passive immunity

What causes warts?

papillomavirus

The ability of certain bacterial cells to take on different cell shapes is known as

pleomorphism.

Which of the following diseases cause flu-like symptoms in most people infected, but can cause muscle weakness or paralysis?

polio

One of the ways smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) differs from rough endoplasmic reticulum is that rough ER is covered by

ribosomes.

Which type of media has ingredients that foster the growth of certain bacteria while suppressing the growth of others?

selective

EMB media is a selective and differential diagnostic media. What does EMB select for? What does it differentiate?

selects for gram-negative organisms and differentiates between organisms that can or cannot ferment lactose

To reduce the chances of bacterial meningitis, the CDC recommends what actions be taken for military recruits and college freshman?

vaccinations for meningococcus

Which virus results in shingles when it is reactivated with peripheral nerves?

varicella-zoster

Which virus is responsible for Grandfather Davis's shingles?

varicella-zoster virus

Certain traits that allow pathogens to create infection and cause disease are termed

virulence factors.

Localized anaphylaxis tends to feature isolated symptoms such as

watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.


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