Microbiology final
Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except _______. a) overuse of antibiotics b) improper use of antibiotics c) multiple drug therapy d) ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed e) addition of antibiotics to common household products
c) multiple drug therapy
Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms except _____. a) transformation b) transduction c) mutation d) conjugation e) R-plasmids
c) mutation
Fungal infections are known as ________ and can be acquired from environmental or clinical sources. a) secondary infections b) vegetative infections c) mycoses d) saprobic infections e) parasitoses
c) mycoses
Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____. a) polysaccharides b) amino acids c) nucleic acids d) enzymes e) carbohydrates
c) nucleic acids
Which of the features listed below is not found in all cells? a) cytoplasmic membrane b) ribosomes c) nucleus d) DNA
c) nucleus
Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from _____. a) salts b) inorganic compounds c) organic compounds d) minerals e) water
c) organic compounds
A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of ________. a) negative staining b) using an acidic dye c) simple staining d) using the acid-fast stain e) capsule staining
c) simple staining
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell death is the _____. a) lag phase b) log phase c) stationary phase d) death phase e) telophase
c) stationary phase
The formation of citrate from oxaloacetate and an acetyl-CoA begins _____. a) fermentation b) glycolysis c) the Krebs cycle d) oxidative phosphorylation e) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
During DNA replication, synthesis of the leading strand of DNA differs from the synthesis of the lagging strand in that ________. a) only the lagging strand requires a primer for each of the Okazaki fragments; the leading strand does not require a primer to begin synthesis of the daughter strand b) the leading strand is made in the 5'-3' direction by DNA polymerase III, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction, 3'-5' c) the leading strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork, whereas the lagging strand extends away from the fork and is synthesized in short segments called Okazaki fragments d) the leading strand is synthesized away from the fork and is made in short segments called Okazaki fragments whereas the lagging strand extends continuously toward the replication fork
c) the leading strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork, whereas the lagging strand extends away from the fork and is synthesized in short segments called Okazaki fragments
Which of the following statements correctly determines the process when following the scientific method? a) Formulate question, conduct research, propose hypothesis, test hypothesis b) Conduct research, formulate question, propose hypothesis, test hypothesis c) Propose hypothesis, test hypothesis, formulate question, conduct research d) Formulate question, propose hypothesis, test hypothesis, conduct research
a) Formulate question, conduct research, propose hypothesis, test hypothesis
A rod-shaped bacterium is measured as 0.3 micrometers (μm) in length using an ocular micrometer. Your instructor wants you to report the length in millimeters (mm) to test your understanding of metric conversions. What is the length of the organism in millimeters? a) 0.03 mm b) 300 mm c) 3 mm d) 0.0003 mm
d) 0.0003 mm
The diameter of field for a 4x lens is measured at 4.6 mm. How many bacterial cells, each measuring 4 μm, could be lined up along the diameter? a) 18.4 cells b) 1.15 cells c) 115 cells d) 1,150 cells e) 1840 cells
d) 1,150 cells
If a parent cell divides through 8 generations, how many cells will result? a) 8 b) 64 c) 128 d) 256 e) 100,000,000
d) 256
If you start with three double-stranded DNA fragments, after four cycles of PCR you will have _______ fragments. a) 12 b) 24 c) 27 d) 48 e) 81
d) 48
An example of amphibolism is when ________. a) pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle, and is also used as a precursor for amino acid production b) acetyl CoA enters the Krebs cycle, and is also used for fatty acid production c) intermediates of glucose oxidation are further oxidized during glycolysis, and are also harnessed for the production of complex carbohydrates d) All of the above are examples of amphibolism
d) All of the above are examples of amphibolism
The typical definition of a species is one with distinct characteristics that produce viable offspring when mated with another organism in the same species. Bacterial species cannot be defined as readily, due to the fact that a) they do not reproduce sexually by way of gametes. b) they can receive genetic material from others in their generation, regardless of species. c) they have a short generation time and evolve rapidly. d) All of the statements are true regarding the indistinct defining of bacterial species
d) All of the statements are true regarding the indistinct defining of bacterial species
Which statement correctly compares the sizes of different microorganisms? a) Eukaryotic microorganisms are smaller than viruses b) Archaea are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms but smaller than bacteria c) Bacteria are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms d) Bacteria are larger than viruses
d) Bacteria are larger than viruses
Which of the following statements is true when comparing moist heat methods of microbial control to dry heat control? a) Boiling is a more successful method of sterilizing instruments than using a dry heat oven. b) Only moist heat (autoclaving) can sterilize objects, dry heat is limited to disinfection. c) Dry heat is more efficient than moist heat, requiring less time to sterilize objects. d) Both moist heat and dry heat methods can achieve complete sterilization
d) Both moist heat and dry heat methods can achieve complete sterilization
Reverse transcriptase synthesizes ________. a) the positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand b) a negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand c) RNA from DNA d) DNA from RNA e) None of the choices are correct
d) DNA from RNA
What compound is the most abundant in a cell? a) glucose b) CH4 c) CO2 d) H2O e) NH3
d) H2O
A client has a serious case of the flu. A random sample of sputum was taken from the patient coughing up blood. The lab tech said they had isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be _____. a) Borrelia burghdorferi b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Fungal spores differ from bacterial endospores in that ________. a) fungal spores are a result of sexual reproduction only, whereas bacterial endospores are a result of binary fission b) bacterial endospores are reproductive, whereas fungal spores are for survival c) fungal spores result from binary fission and bacterial endospores result from meiosis d) fungal spores are reproductive, whereas bacterial endospores are for survival
d) fungal spores are reproductive, whereas bacterial endospores are for survival
Which of the following is not true of the outer membrane? a) the uppermost layer is made of lipopolysaccharides b) the innermost layer is a phospholipid bilayer c) the prion proteins create channels through the outer membrane d) gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane e) the lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide layer is an endotoxin
d) gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane
A recombinant organism is one that ________. a) obtains genes by conjugation, but not transduction b) has sustained a mutation in the genetic material such that a new phenotype results, for example, the organism develops increased virulence or antibiotic resistance c) induces a gene that was previously turned off, thereby producing a new phenotype d) has obtained genetic material from another organism that has integrated into the genome, combining the two DNA molecules
d) has obtained genetic material from another organism that has integrated into the genome, combining the two DNA molecules
During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the ________. a) host cytoplasm b) host nucleus c) host nucleolus d) host DNA e) host cell membrane
d) host DNA
In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using _____. a) ethylene oxide b) moist heat c) filtration d) incineration e) chemicals
d) incineration
Beginning Fall 2017, the FDA banned the use of phenolic compounds, such as triclosan, in consumer soaps and lotions. This is due to ________. a) the inefficiency of phenolics as antimicrobials b) a worldwide shortage of triciosan c) they only work against bacterial cells, not fungi or viruses d) increased microbial resistance to these chemicals
d) increased microbial resistance to these chemicals
The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the _____. a) streak b) colony c) loop d) inoculum e) incubator
d) inoculum
The envelope of enveloped viruses is a) is identical to the host plasma membrane b) is only composed of host endomembrane c) does not contain spikes d) is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis e) none of the choices are correct
d) is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
Which of the following is not true of conjugation? a) it involves direct contact between cells b) it transfers genes for drug resistance c) it transfers genes for resistance to heavy metals d) it transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule e) the donor retains a copy of the transferred genes
d) it transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, the metabolic pathway is _____. a) bidirectional b) divergent c) cyclic d) linear e) convergent
d) linear
The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K for the body to use would best be termed a _______ relationship. a) parasitic b) saprobic c) commensal d) mutualistic e) none of the choices are correct
d) mutualistic
Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are _____. a) ligases b) DNA polymerases c) reverse transcriptase d) palindromes c) restriction endonucleases
d) palindromes
Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm. a) mesophiles b) thermophiles c) commensals d) parasites e) halophiles
d) parasites
The Nobel Prize was awarded to Kary Mullis in 1993 for inventing what technique to amplify and subsequently analyze DNA? a) Human microbiome project b) restriction enzyme analysis c) small RNA analysis d) polymerase chain reaction e) the central dogma of biology
d) polymerase chain reaction
Infectious protein particles are called _____. a) oncogenic viruses b) spikes c) phages d) prions e) viroids
d) prions
Histones are ________. a) found in polyribosomes b) enzymes found in lysosomes c) proteins of the cytoskeleton d) proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus e) on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus
Which list correctly ranks the microorganisms from largest to smallest? a) Helminth, Aspergillis sp., Bacillus anthracis, Zika virus b) Helminth, Aspergillis sp., Zika virus, Bacillus anthracis, c) Zika virus, Bacillus anthracis, Aspergillis sp., Helminth d) Aspergillis sp., Zika virus, Bacillus anthracis, Helminth e) Bacillus anthracis, Helminth, Aspergillis sp., Zika virus
a) Helminth, Aspergillis sp., Bacillus anthracis, Zika virus
Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis? a) Robert Koch b) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek c) Louis Pasteur d) Ignaz Semmelweis e) Joseph Lister
a) Robert Koch
Spirochetes are able to move due to ________. a) a periplasmic flagellum b) a membrane-bound flagellum c) cilia serving as walking feet d) pseudopods e) fimbriae
a) a periplasmic flagellum
HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from ________. a) air b) liquids c) human tissues d) medical instruments e) all of the choices are correct
a) air
The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed _____. a) antisepsis b) sterilization c) disinfection d) degerming e) decontamination
a) antisepsis
A _______ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. a) bacteremia b) septicemia c) viremia d) toxemia e) none of the choices are correct
a) bacteremia
When assigning a scientific name to an organism, a) both genus and species names are italicized or underlined. b) the species name is capitalized. c) the species name can be abbreviated. d) the species name is placed first. e) both genus and species names are capitalized.
a) both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting point are called _______ pathways. a) cyclic b) divergent c) convergent d) linear e) bidirectional
a) cyclic
Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient. a) decrease b) stabilization c) elevation
a) decrease
Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? a) differential b) selective c) enumeration d) enriched e) reducing
a) differential
In humans, helminths generally infect the _____. a) digestive tract b) urinary tract c) nervous system d) muscular system e) skin
a) digestive tract
Which of the following is not associated with every virus? a) envelope b) capsomeres c) capsid d) nucleic acid e) genome
a) envelope
The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is _____. a) epidemiology b) immunology c) clinical microbiology d) pathology e) medicine
a) epidemiology
An organism that respires using oxygen when it is present but can switch to an alternative anaerobic pathways when it is absent is a(n) _____. a) facultative anaerobe b) obligate anaerobe c) aerotolerant anaerobe d) microaerophile e) obligate aerobe
a) facultative anaerobe
Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy: a) family, genus, species b) genus, species, family c) family, order, class d) kingdom, domain, phylum e) class, phylum, order
a) family, genus, species
Sterility refers to a) having an absence of any life forms and viral particles b) having an absence of spores. c) being pathogen free. d) being pasteurized. e) being homogenized.
a) having an absence of any life forms and viral particles
Viruses attach to their hosts via ________. a) host glycoproteins b) host phospholipids c) viral phospholipids d) viral flagella e) all of the choices are correct
a) host glycoproteins
The chemical agent that produces highly toxic and reactive free radicals is _____. a) hydrogen peroxide b) iodophors c) cationic detergents d) chlorhexidine e) cidex
a) hydrogen peroxide
The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed _____. a) sterilization b) antisepsis c) disinfection d) degerming e) decontamination
a) sterilization
Catabolic reactions are coupled with ATP _____, whereas anabolic reactions are coupled with ATP _____. a) synthesis; hydrolysis b) amphibolism; repression c) deamination; beta oxidation d) hydrolysis; synthesis
a) synthesis; hydrolysis
The primers in PCR are ________. a) synthetic short strands of DNA (oligonucleotides) b) bacterial enzymes c) short RNA strands d) DNA polymerases e) reverse transcriptases
a) synthetic short strands of DNA (oligonucleotides)
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all _______. a) target the cell wall b) have resistance to the action of penicillinase c) are semisynthetic d) have an expanded spectrum of activity e) All of the choices are correct.
a) target the cell wall
Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape? a) tetrahedral b) complex c) helical d) icosahedron e) all of the choices are capsid shapes
a) tetrahedral
A ratio of the dose of a drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the _______. a) therapeutic index (TI) b) Kirby-bauer c) MIC d) E-test e) antibiogram
a) therapeutic index (TI)
The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the ________. a) thermal death point (TDP) b) thermal death time (TDT) c) sporicidal time d) death phase point e) none of the choices are correct
a) thermal death point (TDP)
All of the following are helminths except _____. a) trypanosomes b) flukes c) roundworms d) tapeworms e) pinworms
a) trypanosomes
Important components of coenzymes are _____. a) vitamins b) ribozymes c) metallic ions d) active sites e) substrates
a) vitamins
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except _____. a) anaerobes b) capnophiles c) mesophiles d) psychrophiles e) facultative anaerobes
d) psychrophiles
Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to a maximum of _____ ATP(s). a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
b) 2
Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to a maximum of _______ ATP. a) 2 b) 3 c) 24 d) 36 e) 38
b) 3
The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called ________. a) gene probes b) gel electrophoresis c) biotechnology d) recombinant DNA technology e) polymerase chain reaction
d) recombinant DNA technology
Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate, are _____. a) endoenzymes b) constitutive enzymes c) axoenzymes d) regulated enzymes e) apoenzymes
b) constitutive enzymes
Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure? a) tyrosine b) cysteine c) serine d) valine e) alanine
b) cysteine
The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is _____. a) bright field b) dark field c) phase contrast d) fluorescence e) electron
b) dark field
Micafungin and caspofungin are antifungal drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis. They belong to the group of drugs known as _______. a) allylamines b) echinocandins c) azoles d) macrolide polyenes
b) echinocandins
The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called _____. a) facilitated diffusion b) endocytosis c) diffusion d) active transport e) osmosis
b) endocytosis
The term obligate refers to ________. a) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions b) existing in a very narrow niche c) using chemicals for energy production d) using light for energy production e) using oxygen for metabolism
b) existing in a very narrow niche
The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the _____. a) lag phase b) exponential (log) phase c) stationary phase d) death phase e) prophase
b) exponential (log) phase
Two major structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are _______ and _______. a) pili; ribosomes b) fimbrae; capsules c) lipopolysaccharides; techoic acids d) actin filaments; phospholipid membrane(s) e) actin filaments; ribosomes
b) fimbrae; capsules
When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size, and differentiate between dead and live cells, a _______ is used. a) Coulter counter b) flow cytometer c) SEM d) methylene dye indicator
b) flow cytometer
The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell. a) plasmid b) genome c) prophage d) chromosome e) proteome
b) genome
A bacterial cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is _____. a) gram-negative b) gram-positive c) found in archaea d) a spheroplast e) acid fast
b) gram-positive
Heavy metals work by ________. a) rupturing the cell membrane b) inactivation proteins c) binding to DNA d) dissolving the cell wall e) mutating DNA
b) inactivation proteins
The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is _____. a) isolation b) inoculation c) immunization d) infection e) contamination
b) inoculation
Genomic _______ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host. a) DNA b) libraries c) clones d) digests e) books
b) libraries
Each of the following are denaturing agents except ________. a) high temperature b) low temperature c) high pH d) low pH e) all of the choices are correct
b) low temperature
The enzyme _______, found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls. a) penicillinase b) lysozyme c) peptidase d) all of the choices are correct e) none of the choices are correct
b) lysozyme
Oncoviruses include all the following except ________. a) hepatitis B virus b) measles virus c) papillomavirus d) HTLV I e) Epstein-Barr virus
b) measles virus
Protozoan endoplasm contains _____. a) ectoplasm b) mitochondria c) flagella d) oral groves c) none of the choices are correct
b) mitochondria
The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _______ rate. a) pandemic b) morbidity c) incidence d) mortality e) endemic
b) morbidity
The woven, intertwining mass of hyphae that makes up the body of a mold is a _____. a) septum b) mycelium c) spore d) rhizoid e) bud
b) mycelium
Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce its virtual image? a) objective lens b) ocular lens c) condenser d) body e) iris diaphragm
b) ocular lens
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is _____. a) FAD b) oxygen c) cytochrome c d) pyruvic acid e) nitrate
b) oxygen
Which terminology is not used to describe members of the resident biota? a) indigenous biota b) pathogenic biota c) commensals d) normal microbiota e) normal biota
b) pathogenic biota
The use of a drug to prevent a person at risk of an imminent infection is called _____. a) synergism b) prophylaxis c) competitive inhibition d) prebiotics e) iantibiotics
b) prophylaxis
The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be ________. a) material would not be able to cross the cell membrane b) protein synthesis would stop c) destruction of the cell's DNA d) formation of glycogen inclusions e) loss of the capsule
b) protein synthesis would stop
Enzymes are ________. a) broken down in reactions that require energy input b) proteins that function as catalysts c) used up in chemical reactions d) not needed for catabolic reactions e) all of the choices are correct
b) proteins that function as catalysts
Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? a) differential interference contrast b) scanning electron c) transmission electron d) phase contrast e) fluorescence
b) scanning electron
Which of the following is not a division of bacteria and archaea according to Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology? a) gracilicutes b) scotobacteria c) firmicutes d) tenericutes e) mendosicutes
b) scotobacteria
The alpha helix is a type of _____ protein structure. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary e) none of these choices is correct
b) secondary
The three physical forms of laboratory media are ________. a) solid, liquid, and gas b) solid, semisolid, and liquid c) streak plate, pour plate, and broth d) aerobic, anaerobic, and micro aerobic e) None of the choices are correct.
b) solid, semisolid, and liquid
The smallest and most significant taxon is _____. a) family b) species c) genus d) phylum e) kingdom
b) species
What type of isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications? a) pour plate b) streak plate c) spread plate d) loop dilution e) culture plate
b) streak plate
A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a(an) _____. a) staphylococcus b) streptobacillus c) sarcina d) staphylobacillus e) streptococcus
b) streptobacillus
The hydrolysis of two ATP molecules at the start of glycolysis is analogous to ________. a) combining butter, sugar, flour and eggs to make a cake b) striking a match to ignite a pile of burning firewood c) kicking a soccer ball and scoring a goal d) building a house
b) striking a match to ignite a pile of burning firewood
Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires ________. a) repressor alone bound to operator b) substrate bound to repressor c) substrate bound to promoter d) corepressor and repressor binding to operator e) none of the choices are correct
b) substrate bound to repressor
Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes? a) coccus b) tetrad c) vibrio d) rod e) spirochete
b) tetrad
An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the ________. a) mitochondria b) lysosome c) Golgi apparatus d) chloroplast e) endoplasmic reticulum
c) Golgi apparatus
The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for use in glycolysis. a) pyruvic acid b) ATP c) NAD+ d) NADH e) glucose
c) NAD+
Which of the following is mismatched? a) Ribosomes - protein synthesis b) Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials c) Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism d) Nucleoid - hereditary material e) Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution
c) Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism
After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom begins to feel very tired and weak. He has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tom he has malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of his disease? a) HIV b) Nagleria fowleri c) Plasmodium falciparum d) Trichophyton e) Histoplasma capsulatum
c) Plasmodium falciparum
Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription. a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase III c) RNA polymerase d) mRNA e) rRNA
c) RNA polymerase
Which two antibiotics affect the DNA and RNA of bacteria? a) Tetracycline and amphotericin B b) Trimethoprim and sulfonamides c) Rifampin and quinolones d) Tetracycline and bacitracin
c) Rifampin and quinolones
A new field of research called nutrigenomics is based on the premise that individuals gain or lose weight according to differences in their individual genomes, making "going on a diet" no longer a one-size-fits-all solution. This is based on what genomic principle? a) Each human genome differs because of frameshift mutations. b) Human genes and consumption of nutrients are completely unrelated. c) The human genome contains 10 million SNPs d) All human genes code for the same proteins.
c) The human genome contains 10 million SNPs
In 2003 over 500 people throughout the United States became ill with hepatitis A that was traced to green onions grown in Mexico. This is an example of ________. a) a propagated epidemic b) an endemic disease c) a common-source epidemic d) a pandemic
c) a common-source epidemic
Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled, and cooled? a) a pure culture b) a mixed culture c) a solid medium d) a liquid medium e) a contaminated medium
c) a solid medium
Agar is an important component of media because ________. a) bacteria require agar to grow b) agar inhibits mold growth c) agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth d) agar prevents contamination e) all of the choices are correct
c) agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth
The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called _____. a) symbiosis b) satellitism c) antibiosis d) mutualism e) synergism
c) antibiosis
Which of the following is an example of sequelae? a) headache from meningitis b) difficulty swallowing from a streptococcus infection c) arthritis from Lyme disease d) diarrhea from salmonella enteritidis infection e) all of the choices are correct
c) arthritis from Lyme disease
Aminoglycosides _______. a) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan b) block folic acid synthesis c) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis d) damage cell membranes e) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
c) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
Intermediates in the glycolysis pathway feed into additional pathways that make amino acids and complex carbohydrates. These latter pathways are ________. a) hydrolytic and exergonic b) biosynthetic and exergonic c) biosynthetic and endergonic d) hydrolytic and endergonic
c) biosynthetic and endergonic
When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible network of dark fibers called the _____. a) nucleosome b) nucleolus c) chromatin d) nuclear envelope e) nucleoplasm
c) chromatin
Most electron carriers are _____. a) polysaccharides b) inorganic phosphates c) coenzymes d) hydrogens e) enzymes
c) coenzymes
In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered in the ________ and on the surface of the _________. a) cytoplasm; Golgi apparatus b) nucleus; Golgi apparatus c) cytoplasm; endoplasmic reticulum d) nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum
c) cytoplasm; endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? a) facilitated diffusion b) diffusion c) endocytosis d) osmosis e) none of the choices are correct
c) endocytosis
Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of _____. a) antiphagocytic factors b) exotoxins c) exoenzymes d) adhesive factors e) hemolysis
c) exoenzymes
A microaerophile ________. a) grows best in an anaerobic jar b) grows with or without oxygen c) needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen d) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels e) None of the choices are correct
d) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
A cleansing method that mechanically removes microbes and other debris to reduce contamination is _____. a) disinfection b) sterilization c) antisepsis d) sanitization e) degermation
d) sanitization
Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called _____. a) lithoautotrophs b) parasites c) phototrophs d) saprobes e) autotrophs
d) saprobes
Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? a) broth medium b) differential medium c) selective medium d) solid medium e) assay medium
d) solid medium
The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in ________. a) bacterial conjugation b) transformation c) generalized transduction d) specialized transduction e) all of the choices are correct
d) specialized transduction
Ethylene oxide is ________. a) a halogen b) only effective with high heat c) the active agent in household bleach d) sporicidal e) used as an antiseptic against anaerobes
d) sporicidal
For which bacterial genus does mannitol salt agar differentiate between species? a) salmonella b) streptococcus c) neisseria d) staphylococcus e) escherichia
d) staphylococcus
Sterilization is achieved by ________. a) flash pasteurization b) hot water c) boiling water d) steam autoclave e) all of the choices are correct
d) steam autoclave
A reducing medium contains ________. a) sugars that can be fermented b) extra oxygen c) hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors d) substances that remove oxygen e) inhibiting agents
d) substances that remove oxygen
Which of the following is not true of polymyxins? a) disrupt the cell membrane b) have a narrow spectrum c) toxic to kidneys d) target peptidoglycan e) can treat severe urinary tract infections
d) target peptidoglycan
The _______ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration. a) streptomycins b) cephalosporins c) macrolides d) tetracyclines e) penicillins
d) tetracyclines
The first primitive eukaryotic cells likely evolved from _____. a) archaea b) bacteria c) prokaryotes d) the last common ancestor e) none of the choices are correct
d) the last common ancestor
The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is _____. a) steroids b) waxes c) prostaglandins d) triglycerides e) phospholipids
d) triglycerides
Split genes ________. a) are common in bacteria and eukaryotes b) only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA c) have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region d) use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exonsCorrect e) All of the choices are correct.
d) use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exonsCorrect
Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration? a) involves glycolysis b) utilizes an electron transport system c) generates some ATP d) uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration
d) uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a _____. a) source b) carrier c) fomite d) vector e) reservoir
d) vector
Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except _____. a) acids b) metallic ions c) alcohol d) x rays e) moist heat
d) x rays
The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is _____. a) 30s b) 40s c) 50s d) 70s e) 80s
e) 80s
Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include _______. a) low toxicity for human tissues b) high toxicity against microbial cells c) do not cause serious side effects in humans d) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids e) All of the choices are correct
e) All of the choices are correct
Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because _______. a) bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly b) bacterial genomes undergo mutation often c) short generation times accumulate mutations in populations d) mutations are passed between organisms e) All of the choices are correct
e) All of the choices are correct
The primary purpose of viral cultivation is ________. a) to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens b) to prepare viruses for vaccines c) to do detailed research on viral d) structure, lifestyle, genetics, and effects on host cells e) All of the choices are correct
e) All of the choices are correct
Viral nucleic acids include which of the following? a) Double-stranded DNA b) Single-stranded DNA c) Double-stranded RNA d) Single-stranded RNA e) All of the choices are correct
e) All of the choices are correct
Organisms in a biofilm differ from planktonic bacteria in that ________. a) biofilms typically contain multiple species of bacteria living in a complex, whereas planktonic bacteria are single, free-floating organisms b) organisms in a biofilm secrete quorum-sensing chemicals to monitor the population; planktonic bacteria do not produce these chemicals c) an organism in a biofilm will activate different genes compared to a planktonic organism of the same genus and species d) organisms in a biofilm secrete extracellular materials to keep them anchored to a surface; these substances are not produced by free-floating bacteria e) All of the choices reflect differences between biofilms and planktonic bacteria
e) All of the choices reflect differences between biofilms and planktonic bacteria
Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat _______. a) herpes zoster virus b) respiratory syncytial virus c) hepatitis C virus d) influenza A virus e) HIV
e) HIV
Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include _____. a) chromosomes b) plasmids c) mitochondrial DNA d) chloroplast DNA e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are ________. a) plasmids b) viruses c) bacteriophages d) artificial chromosomes e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
Each of the following bring about inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except ________. a) the birth process through the birth canal b) bottle feeding c) breast feeding d) contact with hospital staff e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
Resident biota are found in/on the ________. a) skin b) mouth c) nasal passages d) large intestine e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
The eukaryote cell membrane is composed of _____. a) sterols b) proteins c) phospholipids d) cholesterol e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? a) inclusions in the nucleus b) multinucleated giant cells c) inclusions in the cytoplasms d) cells change shape e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? a) meats like ground beef and pork b) human tissues such as heart valves and skin c) operating room air d) surgical gloves e) all of the choices are correct
e) all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity? a) the material being treated b) the length of exposure c) the strength of the germicide d) the microorganism being treated e) all of these choices are factors
e) all of these choices are factors
All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except ________. a) gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane b) are compromised primarily of lipids c) contain special virus proteins d) help the virus particle attach to host cells e) are located between the capsid and nucleic acid
e) are located between the capsid and nucleic acid
Penicillins and cephalosporins ______. a) block folic acid synthesis b) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and c) disrupt protein synthesis d) damage cell membranes e) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
e) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
Nutrient absorption is mediated by the ________. a) nuclear membrane b) proteins in the periplasmic space c) peptidoglycan layer d) cell wall e) cell membrane
e) cell membrane
The site(s) for most ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is(are) the _____. a) ribosomes b) mitochondria c) cell wall d) inclusions e) cell membrane
e) cell membrane
The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called _______. a) synergism b) nephrotoxicity c) selective toxicity d) prophylaxis e) chemotherapy
e) chemotherapy
Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission? a) water b) fomites c) aerosols d) vectors e) droplets
e) droplets
The principal sites of amphibolic interaction occur during ________. a) glycolysis and photosynthesis b) fermentation and the Krebs cycle c) the Krebs cycle and electron transport system d) fermentation and glycolysis e) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
e) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen? a) objective lens b) ocular lens c) condenser d) body e) iris diaphragm
e) iris diaphragm
Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____. a) prokaryotes b) parasites c) viruses d) bacteria e) microorganisms
e) microorganisms
The term that refers to the presence of flagella over the cell surface is _____. a) amphitrichous b) atrocious c) lophotrikhous d) monotrichous e) peritrichous
e) peritrichous
When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed _____. a) pinocytosis b) facilitated diffusion c) facilitated transport d) exocytosis e) phagocytosis
e) phagocytosis
Parasitic worms have a highly developed ______ system. a) digestive b) nervous c) respiratory d) muscular e) reproductive
e) reproductive
A halophile would grow best in ________. a) acid pools b) freshwater ponds c) hot geyser springs d) arid, desert soil e) salt lakes
e) salt lakes
The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the _____. a) reservoir b) fomite c) carrier d) vector e) source
e) source
The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a(n) _____. a) inflammation b) pathology c) syndrome d) sign e) symptom
e) symptom
The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are ________. a) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes b) 63°C for 30 minutes c) 160°C for 2 hours d) 71.6°C for 15 seconds e) 100°C for 30 minutes
a) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
A 23 year-old female presents at a walk-in clinic with a fever, swollen lymph nodes and yellow spots on the throat. A rapid strep test comes back positive, confirming an infection with Streptococcus pyogenes, which has a thick layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall. In which of the following taxonomic divisions does S. pyogenes belong? a) gracilicutes b) medosicutes c) firmicutes d) tenericutes
c) firmicutes
The time interval going from a single bacterial parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the _____. a) binary fission b) growth curve c) generation time d) death phase e) culture time
c) generation time
The term photoautotroph refers to an organism that ________. a) is a decomposer b) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs c) gets energy from sunlight d) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds e) does not need a carbon source
c) gets energy from sunlight
Polymyxin B is a large molecule with a hydrophobic tail that can disrupt phospholipids, making it particularly effective against _______. a) both gram-positive and gram-negative cells since they both have a membrane b) gram-positive cells since the peptidoglycan is easily dissolved by detergent-like molecules c) gram-negative cells since they have both an outer and inner membrane d) fungi since the drug can traverse the complex chitin cell wall to dissolve the cell membrane
c) gram-negative cells since they have both an outer and inner membrane
Acyclovir is used to treat _______. a) influenza A virus b) HIV c) herpes simplex virus d) respiratory syncytial virus e) hepatitis C virus
c) herpes simplex virus
As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. a) oxygen b) phosphate c) hydrogen ions d) NADH e) ATP
c) hydrogen ions
One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _______ capsid. a) spiked b) complex c) icosahedral d) helical e) buckeyball
c) icosahedral
The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the _____. a) morbidity rate b) mortality rae c) incidence rate d) prevalence rate e) epidemic rate
c) incidence rate
DNA polymerases used in PCR ________. a) use an RNA template to make complementary DNA b) must remain active at very cold temperatures c) include Taq polymerase d) are labeled with fluorescent dyes e) all of the choices are correct
c) include Taq polymerase
Antimicrobials that are macrolides _______. a) disrupt the cell membrane function b) include tetracyclines c) include azithromycin, clarithromycin and erythromycin d) are narrow-spectrum drugs e) are hepatotoxic
c) include azithromycin, clarithromycin and erythromycin
The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except _____. a) inoculation b) incubation c) infection d) isolation e) identification
c) infection
The bacterial chromosome ________ a) is located in the cell membrane b) contains all the cell's plasmids c) is part of the nucleoid d) forms a single linear strand of DNA e) all of the choices are correct
c) is part of the nucleoid
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a common respiratory virus that causes mild cold-like symptoms in most individuals, but can be more serious in infants and the elderly. RSV is so-named because ________. a) it causes the proliferation of inclusion bodies within the host cell b) it causes a persistent infection in the host c) it causes the fusion of damaged host cells, forming a large, multinucleated cell d) it transforms the host cell, causing cancer
c) it causes the fusion of damaged host cells, forming a large, multinucleated cell
All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called _____. a) phosphorylation b) redox reactions c) metabolism d) cellular respiration e) catabolism
c) metabolism
What is one goal of the Human Microbiota Project? a) to study the prevalence of disease b) to sequence the DNA of all microorganisms c) to study microorganisms in their natural habitat d) to discover new organisms in extreme habitats e) to provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
e) to provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
The discovery of single nucleotide polymorphisms in the human genome means that ________. a) individual risk for specific diseases can be analyzed, and personalized medicine designed as a result of the analysis b) mutations are far more dangerous than we thought, prior to the Human Genome Project c) the human species is in grave danger of dying out due to the threat of mutation across the species d) genes are not important in determining the individual phenotypes of individuals, since we are all similar in our growth, metabolism and reproduction
a) individual risk for specific diseases can be analyzed, and personalized medicine designed as a result of the analysis
Dry heat ________. a) is less efficient than moist heat b) cannot sterilize c) includes tyndallization d) is used in devices called autoclaves e) will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes
a) is less efficient than moist heat
All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except ________. a) it uses electrons to produce a specimen image b) it is a type of compound microscope c) it requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein d) it is commonly used to diagnose certain infections e) it requires an ultraviolet radiation source
a) it uses electrons to produce a specimen image
New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by _____. a) lysis b) budding c) exocytosis d) both lysis and budding e) both budding and exocytosis
a) lysis
When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called _____. a) lysogenic conversion b) transcription c) translation d) transformation e) viral persistence
a) lysogenic conversion
The effect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called _____ a) microbial antagonism b) endogenous infection c) infectious disease d) axenic e) gnotobiotism
a) microbial antagonism
Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? a) mitochondria b) lysosomes c) Golgi apparatus d) chloroplasts e) endoplasmic reticulum
a) mitochondria
Cells grown in culture form a(n) _____. a) monolayer b) bilayer c) aggregate d) plaque e) none of the choices are correct
a) monolayer
The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is ________. a) mostly polysaccharide b) the site where many metabolic reactions occur c) also called the cell wall d) composed of lipids e) protection against osmotic lysis
a) mostly polysaccharide
A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called _____. a) mutation b) alteration c) translation d) transcription e) regeneration
a) mutation
A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is _____. a) mycobacterium b) mycoplasma c) streptococcus d) corynebacterium e) salmonella
a) mycobacterium
In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _______, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _______. a) nucleus; cytoplasm b) cytoplasm; cell membrane c) cell membrane; cytoplasm d) cytoplasm; nucleus e) nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum
a) nucleus; cytoplasm
All of the following pertain to transcription except ________. a) occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm b) occurs before translation c) requires RNA polymerase d) requires a template DNA strand e) proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction of the growing mRNA molecule
a) occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
Each nucleotide is composed of ________. a) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar b) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars c) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar d) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars e)one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar
a) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar
The complete combustion of methane is written CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O In this reaction, the methane is ________ and the oxygen is _____. a) oxidized; reduced b) reduced; oxidized c) endergonic; exergonic d) phosphorylated; oxidized
a) oxidized; reduced
Which of the following is not an inoculating tool? a) petri dish b) loop c) needle d) pipette e) swab
a) petri dish
The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes is the _____. a) phospholipids b) triglycerides c) steroids d) prostaglandins e) waxes
a) phospholipids
The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the _____. a) prodromal stage b) convalescent stage c) incubation period d) period of invasion e) none of the choices are correct
a) prodromal stage
Cells, like bacteria and archaea, that do not have a nucleus in their cells have traditionally been called _____. a) prokaryotes b) decomposers c) pathogens d) fermenters e) eukaryotes
a) prokaryotes
The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the _____. a) promoter b) intron c) operator d) operon e) exon
a) promoter
Cilia are structures for motility found primarily in _____. a) protozoa b) algae c) fungi d) bacteria e) all of the choices are correct
a) protozoa
Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections? a) quinolones b) macrolide polyenes c) echinocandins d) allylamines e) synthetic azoles
a) quinolones
The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the _____. a) reservoir b) carrier c) vector d) fomite e) source
a) reservoir
Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? a) resolving power b) magnification c) refraction d) all of the choices are correct e) none of the choices are correct
a) resolving power
The group of protozoa that use pseudopodia to move are the _____. a) sarcodina b) ciliophora c) mastigophora d) apicomplexa e) none of the choices is correct
a) sarcodina
Calcium is required for bacteria because it ________. a) stabilizes the cell wall b) stabilizes the ribosomes c) stabilizes the nucleoid d) maintains cellular pH e) makes strong bones
a) stabilizes the cell wall
The best definition of endosymbiosis is ________. a) A DNA virus, a bacteria and a photosynthetic prokaryote fused to form a nucleus, a chloroplast and a mitochondria b) A pre-eukaryotic cell was infected by a prokaryote, and symbiosis between the two cell types gave rise to the modern-day eukaryotic cell c) A photosynthetic bacterial cell and an aerobic bacterial cell fused to become a larger, eukaryotic cell d) A eukaryotic cell ingested a bacterial cell and the organelles fused producing a larger cellIncorrect
b) A pre-eukaryotic cell was infected by a prokaryote, and symbiosis between the two cell types gave rise to the modern-day eukaryotic cell
Which statement best describes the flow of genetic information in a cell? a) RNA directs the synthesis of DNA, which codes for proteins. b) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for proteins and some information from RNA flows back to DNA in a regulatory role c) DNA synthesizes proteins. d) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for proteins
b) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for proteins and some information from RNA flows back to DNA in a regulatory role
Which of the following are mismatched? a) Saprobe - obtain nutrients from the remains of dead plants and animals b) Heterotroph - synthesize organic nutrients using light energy and CO2 c) Parasite - obtain nutrients from a living organism to the detriment of that organism
b) Heterotroph - synthesize organic nutrients using light energy and CO2
Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? a) Where the bond between the final tRNA and the finished polypeptide chain is broken b) Include AUG c) Include UAA, UAG, and UGA d) Do not have corresponding tRNA e) Can also be called nonsense codons
b) Include AUG
______ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _______ heat. a) Dry; moist b) Moist; dry c) High; moist d) High; dry e) Moist; high
b) Moist; dry
Carl Woese and George Fox developed the three-domain system of taxonomy based on what molecular discovery? a) Mutations in enzyme proteins b) Variations in the ribonucleic acid of the small ribosomal subunit of organisms c) Molecular analysis of genes showing that eukaryotes evolved from bacteria, and bacteria evolved from archaea d) Genetic analysis showing that bacteria and archaea are identical
b) Variations in the ribonucleic acid of the small ribosomal subunit of organisms
Bacterial conjugation involves ________. a) bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell b) a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus c) naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell d) new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells e) None of the choices are correct.
b) a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus
A saprobe differs from a parasite in that ________. a) a saprobe synthesizes its nutrients using light energy and CO2 whereas a parasite acquires its nutrients from living tissue b) a saprobe acquires its nutrients from the remains of dead animals or plants whereas a parasite acquires its nutrients from living tissue c) a parasite acquires its nutrients from the remains of dead animals or plants whereas a saprobe acquires its nutrients from living tissue d) a parasite synthesizes its nutrients using light energy and CO2 whereas a saprobe acquires its nutrients from living tissue
b) a saprobe acquires its nutrients from the remains of dead animals or plants whereas a parasite acquires its nutrients from living tissue
Protists include ________. a) yeasts and molds b) algae and protozoa c) helminths d) all of the choices are correct e) none of the choices are correct
b) algae and protozoa
Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called _______. a) narrow-spectrum drugs b) antibiotics c) broad-spectrum drugs d) synthetic drugs e) semisynthetic drugs
b) antibiotics
The two functions of bacterial appendages are ________. a) attachment and protection b) attachment and motility c) motility and slime production d) energy reactions and synthesis e) protection and motility
b) attachment and motility
Comparing defined vs. complex media is analogous to comparing ________. a) Coca-cola® to Pepsi® b) baby formula to breast milk c) a strawberry-banana smoothie to a mixed berry smoothie d) the generic version of the drug Lipitor® to the brand name produced by Pfizer Pharmaceuticals
b) baby formula to breast milk
Placing organisms at 4oC is _____. a) bactericidal b) bacteriostatic c) decontamination d) sterilization e) none of the choices are correct
b) bacteriostatic
Sulfonamides _______. a) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan b) block folic acid synthesis c) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis d) damage cell membranes e) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
b) block folic acid synthesis
Virus capsids are made from subunits called _____. a) peplomers b) capsomeres c) envelopes d) prophages e) spikes
b) capsomeres
Facilitated diffusion is limited by ________. a) substrate concentration b) carrier proteins in the membrane c) size of the pores in the membrane d) osmotic pressure e) the size of the cell
b) carrier proteins in the membrane
Opportunistic pathogens a) cause disease in every individual. b) cause disease in compromised individuals. c) are always pathogens. d) have well-developed virulence factors. e) None of the choices is correct.
b) cause disease in compromised individuals.
A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures. a) plaque b) cell c) embryo d) bacteriophage e) egg
b) cell
If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ________. a) endospore b) cell wall c) cell membrane d) capsule e) slime layer
b) cell wall
Aerobic respiration is an example of _____. a) photoheterotrophy b) chemoheterotrophy c) photoautotrophy d) photosynthesis e) methanoheterotrophy
b) chemoheterotrophy
Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except _____. a) flagella b) cilia c) fimbriae d) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) e) sex pili
b) cilia
Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin, are synthetic drugs that interfere with the action of DNA helicases. This means that _______. a) the bacterial cell will die since it cannot take in nutrients across the cell membrane b) the bacterial cell will die since it cannot replicate or transcribe its DNA c) the cell will die because it cannot make folic acid, which is a precursor to DNA and RNA, as well as amino acids d) binary fission cannot take place because the cell cannot make proteins
b) the bacterial cell will die since it cannot replicate or transcribe its DNA
A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? a) the microbiologist used too much inoculum b) the culture is contaminated c) the incubation temperature was incorrect d) the culture medium must be selective e) the culture medium must be differential
b) the culture is contaminated
In a bacterial cell, the genes that code for enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of an unusual carbohydrate source would be turned off unless that carbohydrate was the only fuel source available in the media, in which case ________. a) the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be constitutive b) the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be induced c) the enzymes would be denatured d) the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be repressed
b) the genes coding for the hydrolytic enzymes would be induced
All of the following statements are true regarding discoveries made by the Human Microbiome Project except a) the genes coded by our microbiome number in the millions, whereas human cells contain approximately 21,000 genes. b) the microbiota does not contain pathogens; all of the microbes in our microbiome are non-pathogenic. c) the composition of the microbiome has implications for the development of other, non-infectious diseases such as diabetes, obesity and asthma. d) areas of the body once believed to be sterile, are now known to harbor microbes. e) bacteria, as well as viruses and fungi, make up the microbiome.
b) the microbiota does not contain pathogens; all of the microbes in our microbiome are non-pathogenic.
Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of viral spikes? a) they are found on both enveloped and naked viruses b) they are coded for by the host genome c) they are coded for by the viral genome d) they mediate the docking process of virus to host cell e) they consist of proteins and carbohydrates
b) they are coded for by the host genome
Temperature and time must be considered when determining susceptibility of microbes to lethal conditions. At a specific temperature, the thermal death _____ can be determined, alternatively, the thermal death _____ can be assessed as the lowest temperature that will kill a test organism in 10 minutes. a) exposure; time b) time; point c) point; exposure d) point; time
b) time; point
The virus that causes rabies, and the rhinovirus that causes the common cold are both considered true pathogens; the degree of pathogenicity is determined by their _____. a) infectivity b) virulence c) protein coat d) envelope
b) virulence
which of the following is not a pyrimidine? a) uracil b) adenine c)thymine d)cytosine e)all of these are pyrimidines
b)adenine
The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was _____. a) Robert Koch b) Louis Pasteur c) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek d) Joseph Lister e) Francesco Redi
c) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
_____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications. a) Pasteur's b) Lister's c) Bergey's d) Leeuwenhoek's e) Koch's
c) Bergey's
You are running an experiment in calf serum, which cannot be autoclaved because proteins essential to your protocol will be denatured. You decide to filter sterilize the serum since the 0.22μm filter is small enough to block any bacteria that may contaminate your tissue culture. The success of this procedure hinges on the fact that ________. a) viruses, as well as bacteria, will also be blocked by the 0.22μm pore size b) some of the bacteria will still be allowed to filter through c) the presence of viruses in your serum is inconsequential to your experiment d) the proteins in the serum are also blocked by the pore size
c) the presence of viruses in your serum is inconsequential to your experiment
The use of aldehydes as antimicrobial agents is limited due to ________. a) their explosive nature b) they are ineffective in the presence of organic matter c) their instability when pH or temperature is increased d) they will disinfect, but not sterilize
c) their instability when pH or temperature is increased
Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella in that ________. a) they are thinner, they have a basal body and a hook, and they contain a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubulesIncorrect b) they are thicker, they are made of the protein flagellin and they move in a 360o rotation c) they are thicker, they are covered by membrane and they contain microtubules d) they are thinner, they contain microfilaments and they are not involved in motility
c) they are thicker, they are covered by membrane and they contain microtubules
Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus? a) horizontal b) fomites c) vertical d) vector e) direct
c) vertical
Lysogeny refers to ________. a) altering the host range of a virus b) latent state of herpes infections virion exiting host cell c) viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome d) None of the choices are correct
c) viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
Organisms were classified into kingdoms as they were defined. Which list reflects the order of discovery of the kingdoms as we know them today? a) Monera, plants and animals, protista, fungi b)Protista, fungi, monera, plants and animals, c)Plants and animals, protista, monera, fungi d) Monera, protista, fungi, plants and animals e) Fungi, monera, plants and animals, protista
c)Plants and animals, protista, monera, fungi
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between humans and microbes? a) Humans are colonized by bacteria and fungi, but not viruses b) Microorganisms are benefited from their colonization of humans, whereas humans are unaffected by the relationship c) The majority of microorganisms that colonize humans are pathogenic d) Not only do the majority of colonizing bacteria cause no harm to humans, the relationship is beneficial for both microbe and human host
d) Not only do the majority of colonizing bacteria cause no harm to humans, the relationship is beneficial for both microbe and human host
What is the rationale for providing intravenous fluids and oxygen support for this patient? a) These measures increase the patient's immune response. b) These measures augment antiviral treatment for RSV disease. c) These measures prevent secondary respiratory infection while the patient is compromised. d) These measures are supportive therapies while the disease runs its course
d) These measures are supportive therapies while the disease runs its course
A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified, and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed ________. a) a complex media b) a reducing media c) an enriched media d) a chemically defined media e) none of the choices are correct
d) a chemically defined media
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that a) microbes are found on dust particles. b) a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. c) life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. d) a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. e) microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
d) a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is ______________. a) caused by a chronic latent virus b) initiated by an oncogenic virus c) caused by a viroid d) a spongiform encephalopathy of humans e) also called "mad cow disease"
d) a spongiform encephalopathy of humans
Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a(n) _____. a) green plant b) fungus c) mold d) algae e) euglena
d) algae
Characteristics shared bu all cells include a) a membrane serving as a cell boundary b) the possession of genetic information c) the presence of cellular fluid d) all of the choices are correct
d) all of these choices are correct
Gram-negative rods are often treated with _____. a) vancomycin b) isoniazid c) penicillin G d) aminoglycosides e) synercid
d) aminoglycosides
Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? a) naked viruses b) protozoan cysts c) fungal spores d) bacterial endospores e) yeast
d) bacterial endospores
Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of _____. a) epidemiology b) immunology c) biotechnology d) bioremediation e) decomposition
d) bioremediation
Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized by white blood cells? a) slime layer b) fimbriae c) cell membrane d) capsule e) all of the choices are correct
d) capsule
The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine, and peptides is an example of _____. a) fermentation b) synthesis c) phosphorylation d) catabolism e) anabolism
d) catabolism
The drug that can cause injury to red blood cells and white blood cells is _______. a) clindamycin b) gentamicin c) ciprofloxacin d) chloramphenicol e) bactitracin
d) chloramphenicol
_______ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease. a) passive b) chronic c) asymptomatic d) convalescent e) incubation
d) convalescent
In bacterial cells, the electron carriers NAD+ and FAD are found in the _____, whereas the cytochromes are located in the _____. a) cell membrane; cytoplasm b) mitochondria; cytoplasm c) cell membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane d) cytoplasm; cell membrane
d) cytoplasm; cell membrane
Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions, such as nitrate, by some bacteria is called _____. a) fermentation b) deamination c) nitrification d) dentrification e) aerobic respiration
d) dentrification
Removal of moisture by dehydration is called _____. a) sterilization b) pasteurization c) lyophilization d) desiccation e) flash freeze
d) desiccation
The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms from inanimate objects is termed _____. a) degerming b) decontamination c) antisepsis d) disinfection e) sterilization
d) disinfection
The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is _____. a) sterilization b) sanitation c) antisepsis d) disinfection e) degermation
d) disinfection
Mitochondria possess all of the following except ________. a) enzymes for metabolism b) cristae c) electron transport chain proteins d) enzymes for photosynthesis e) 70S ribosomes (prokaryote)
d) enzymes for photosynthesis
Which of the following species of bacteria is not closely related to the others? a) staphylococcus aureus b) staphylococcus epidermidis c) staphylococcus saprophyticus d) escherichia coli e) staphylococcus capitis
d) escherichia coli
The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called _____. a) sex pili b) cilia c) flagella d) fimbriae e) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
d) fimbriae
A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has _____. a) fimbriae b) a capsule c) thylakoids d) flagella e) metachromatic granules
d) flagella
Sulfa drugs work on _______. a) nucleic acid biosynthesis b) ribosome biosynthesis c) peptidoglycan biosynthesis d) folic acid biosynthesis e) none of the choices are correct
d) folic acid biosynthesis
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a _____. a) carrier b) reservoir c) vector d) fomite e) source
d) fomite
