Microbiology Final Exam

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A) Define shape B) Ability to infect host cells C) Ultramicroscopic size D) Metabolism E) Genes

D) Metabolism

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the A) East and Midwest B) Rocky Mountains C) Northeast D) Southwest E) Southeast

A) East and Midwest

In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced? A) Electron transport system B) Glycolysis C) Krebs cycle

A) Electron transport system

What is the best description of the blood agar media that you will be using? A) Enriched & differential (based on hemolysis pattern) B) Selective C) Both selective & differential (based on hemolysis pattern) D) Neither selective or differential E) Enriched F) Enriched, selective, & differential (based on hemolysis pattern)

A) Enriched & differential (based on hemolysis pattern)

Enzymes that are secreted by a cell to catalyze hydrolysis reactions are A) Exoenzymes B) Endoenzymes C) Constitutive enzymes D) Regulated enzymes E) Apoenzymes

A) Exoenzymes

During which phase of growth would a primary metabolite be produced? A) Exponential phase B) All of these choices are correct C) Lag phase D) Death phase E) Stationary phase

A) Exponential phase

Match the microscopy vocabulary word with it's definition. Parfocal A) Focus is maintained when the magnification is changed B) Ability to distinguish two objects as separate C) Area observed through the ocular lens D) Distance between the specimen and the objective lens

A) Focus is maintained when the magnification is changed

Match the microscope part with it's function. Condenser A) Focus light onto the specimen B) Control the amount of light reaching the specimen C) Brings the specimen into general focus D) Increases the detail of the image

A) Focus light onto the specimen

The flea is the vector that carries the Yersinia bacterium from animal to animal, causing _______ plague. A) Septicemic B) Bubonic C) Pneumonic D) Drug-resistant

B) Bubonic

Which of the following can be classified as a basic stain? Select all that apply. > Safranin > Eosin > Acid fuchsin > Basic fuchsin > Malachite green

Safranin Basic fuchsin Malachite green

Which are considered true enteric pathogens? > Salmonella > Klebsiella > Proteus > Enterobacter > Shigella

Salmonella Shigella

What level of taxonomy is Caudatum Cells cylindrical long, and pointed at one end?

Species

The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.

Spores

Which of the following dilution schemes results in a 1:100,000 dilution? (Choose all that apply) > Step 1: transfer 1ml from the original sample to flask A with 99ml diluent; step 2: transfer 1ml from flask A to flask B with 99ml diluent; step 3: plate a 0.1ml sample from flask B > Step 1: transfer 1ml from the original sample to flask A with 9ml diluent; step 2: transfer 1ml from flask A to flask B with 9ml diluent; step 3: plate a 1ml sample from flask B > Step 1: transfer 0.1ml from the original sample to flask A with 9.9ml diluent; step 2: transfer 0.1ml from flask A to flask B with 9.9ml diluent; step 3: plate a 0.1ml sample from flask B > Step 1: transfer 10ml from the original sample to flask A with 90ml diluent; step 2: transfer 10ml from flask A to flask B with 90ml diluent; step 3: plate a 1ml sample from flask B

Step 1: transfer 1ml from the original sample to flask A with 99ml diluent; step 2: transfer 1ml from flask A to flask B with 99ml diluent; step 3: plate a 0.1ml sample from flask B Step 1: transfer 0.1ml from the original sample to flask A with 9.9ml diluent; step 2: transfer 0.1ml from flask A to flask B with 9.9ml diluent; step 3: plate a 0.1ml sample from flask B

_____ is the term for a starting a new culture from an existing one.

Subculture

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. Localized infections with this yeast include vaginal infections, forms of diaper rash, and an oral cavity infection known as ___________. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

Thrush

True or False: Each colony that grows on a petri dish (plate) originates from one cell/spore, which landed or was swabbed onto the plate.

True

True or false? Bacterial cells generally have a cell wall which protects them from osmotic changes in their environment, while animal cells do not and so are more sensitive to osmotic shifts.

True

True or false? Only use the coarse focus with the low power objective.

True

True or false? Protists are a large and diverse group, including organisms such as algae.

True

The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed _____.

Tubercles

Please select the methods used for treatment of Type I allergies. > Use of appropriate antibiotics > Use of oral antihistamines > Desensitization shots > Leukotriene inhibitors > Epinephrine used to treat systemic anaphylactic reactions

Use of oral antihistamines Desensitization shots Leukotriene inhibitors Epinephrine used to treat systemic anaphylactic reactions

The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A) Ribosome B) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosome D) Mitochondria E) Nucleus

D) Mitochondria

Which gram positive bacilli matches with number 5's image/description? A) Clostridium B) Corynebacterium C) Listeria D) Mycobacterium E) Bacillus F) Propionibacterium

D) Mycobacterium

Breast feeding is an example of A) Natural active immunity B) Artificial passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Natural passive immunity

D) Natural passive immunity

Which type of virus is most likely to cause the immediate damage and destruction of an infected animal cell when it is released? A) Enveloped virus B) RNA virus C) DNA virus D) Nonenveloped virus

D) Nonenveloped virus

All of the following pertain to transcription except A) Required RNA polymerase B) Requires a template DNA strand C) Requires a promoter D) Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm E) Occurs before translation

D) Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A) Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar. B) An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. C) A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. D) One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.

D) One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.

Each nucleotide is composed of A) Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. B) One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. C) Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. D) One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. E) One phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar.

D) One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar.

The term _____________ generally refers to conducting experiments in a test tube or petri dish instead of doing them in a live organism.

In Vitro

Which of the following characteristics are shared by members of Class Trematoda? Select all that apply > No digestive system > Intermediate and definitive hosts > Flukes > Mostly free-living > Flat

Intermediate and definitive hosts Flukes Flat

Rubella > Is particularly serious for pregnant women > Is often asymptomatic > Can be prevented through vaccination > Is highly contagious > Can cause miscarriage and birth defects > Can generally be treated with antibiotics

Is particularly serious for pregnant women Is often asymptomatic Can be prevented through vaccination Can cause miscarriage and birth defects

Which of the following are examples of some things you should not wear in lab? (Choose all that apply) > Closed-toed shoes > Short-sleeved shirts > Loose clothing > Flip-flops > Sandals > Dangling jewelry

Loose clothing Flip-flops Sandals Dangling jewelry

If a bacterial cells from the ocean are dropped into a test tube of fresh water, based on the osmotic shift of the external environment ______________ of the bacterial cell might occur.

Lysis

When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.

Macrophages

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the _____ rate.

Mortality

What number is the Inclusion body?

12

What number is the Flagellum?

13

Which number is the Nucleus?

2

Which number are the Condensing vesicles?

7

Which number describes a Differential Interference Microscope?

7

The colony count of a 10^-8 plate in a dilution series is 162. What would the colony count be on the 10-9 dilution?

16.2

The colony count of a 10^-8 plate in a dilution series is 162. What would the colony count be on the 10-7 dilution?

1620

Which of the following protists are capable of forming cysts? A) E. histolytica B) A. proteus C) T. gambiense D) T. vaginalis

A) E. histolytica

What number is the Fimbriae?

1

What number is/are naked helical virus(es)?

1

What number process does inoculation correspond with?

1

Which number describes a Bright-Field Microscope?

1

Which number is the Nucleolus?

1

Using the formula V1D1=V2D2, find the final dilution of the following (remember that D1=1): 10.0ml of a sample is transferred to 90.0ml of diluent

1x10^-1

What number are the Ribosomes?

2

What number is the Lipoteichoic acid?

2

What number is/are enveloped icosahedral virus(es)?

2

What number process does incubation correspond with?

2

Which number describes a Dark-Field Microscope?

2

1.0ml of sample added to 99.0ml of diluent is a 10^-2 dilution. What would the final dilution be if you added 0.1ml instead of 1.0ml?

1.00908x10^-3

Which of the following would be a good choice to accurately measure 1.0ml? (Choose all that apply) > 50ml serological pipette > 1.0ml transfer pipette > P-20 micropipette > 5ml graduated cylinder a small beaker > 1.0ml serological pipette > P-1000 micropipette > 1L graduated cylinder > P-200 micropipette

1.0ml transfer pipette 5ml graduated cylinder a small beaker 1.0ml serological pipette P-1000 micropipette

The colony count of a 10^-8 plate in a dilution series is 162. What is the bacterial count in the original sample?

1.62x10^10

Match the following prefixes with their relationship to the standard base unit (g, m, L): Micro A) 1/100 B) 1/1,000,000 C) 1000 D) 1/1000

1/1,000,000

Match the following prefixes with their relationship to the standard base unit (g, m, L): Milli A) 1/100 B) 1/1,000,000 C) 1000 D) 1/1000

1/1000

What number is the Chromosome (DNA)?

10

pH 4 is ______________x more acidic than pH 7.

1000

Select all of the following that are correct: (Choose all that apply) > 100mm is smaller than 10km > 150ml is larger than 0.200L > 5cm is larger than 40mm > 100L is smaller than 1000ml > 2mg is larger than 0.3cg > 1g is smaller than 1kg

100mm is smaller than 10km 5cm is larger than 40mm 1g is smaller than 1kg

What number are the Membrane proteins?

11

What number is the Pilus?

11

Using the formula determine the original cell density in the sample: OCD = Number of CFU/Amount plated x dilution factor You counted 235 colonies on a plate in your dilution series. The plate was inoculated with 0.1ml from a 10^-7 test tube, what is the OCD?

2.35x10^10

Using the formula V1D1=V2D2, find the final dilution of the following (remember that D1=1): 4.0ml of a sample is transferred to 12.0ml of diluent

2.5x10^-1

Using the information below calculate the total magnification Objective magnification: 10 Ocular magnification: 20 (Hint: Objective x Ocular = Total)

200x

Using the information below calculate the total magnification Objective magnification: 15 Ocular magnification: 15 (Hint: Objective x Ocular = Total)

225x

What number are the Lipopolysaccarides ?

3

What number is the Cell wall?

3

What number is/are naked icosahedral virus(es)?

3

What number process does isolation correspond with?

3

Which number describes a Scanning Electron Microscope?

3

Which number is the Rough endoplasmic reticulum (Rough ER)?

3

You are instructed to add 2.0ml of your original sample to 4.0ml of diluent. What is your dilution?

3.3x10^-1

What number are the Porin proteins?

4

What number is the Cell membrane?

4

What number is/are enveloped helical virus(es)?

4

What number process does inspection correspond with?

4

Which number are the Transitional vesicles?

4

Which number describes a Fluorescent Microscope?

4

Using the information below calculate the total magnification Objective magnification: 40 Ocular magnification: 10 (Hint: Objective x Ocular = Total)

400x

What volume of diluent do you need to add 5.0ml to in order to perform a 10^-1 dilution?

45ml

What volume of diluent do you need to add 5.0ml to in order to perform a 10^-2 dilution?

495mL

What number are the Phospholipids?

5

What number is the Capsule?

5

What number process does information gathering correspond with?

5

Which number describes a Phase Contrast Microscope?

5

Which number is the Golgi apparatus?

5

Using the information below calculate the total magnification Objective magnification: 100 Ocular magnification: 5 (Hint: Objective x Ocular = Total)

500x

What volume of diluent do you need to add 6.0ml to in order to perform a 10^-3 dilution?

5994ml

You are instructed to add 2.0ml of your original sample to 2.0ml of diluent. What is your dilution?

5x10^-1

What number is the Cytoplasmic matrix?

6

What number is the Outer membrane?

6

What number process does identification correspond with?

6

Which number describes a Confocal Microscope?

6

Which number is the Cell membrane?

6

What number is Peptidoglycan?

7

What number is the Slime layer?

7

Using the formula determine the original cell density in the sample: OCD = Number of CFU/Amount plated x dilution factor You counted 72 colonies on a plate in your dilution series. The plate was inoculated with 1.0ml from a 10^-4 test tube, what is the OCD?

7.2x10^5

What number is the Mesosome?

8

Which number describes a Transmission Electron Microscope?

8

Which number is the Secondary vesicle?

8

What number are the Actin filaments?

9

What number is the Cell membrane?

9

Please order the following people to reflect the probability of getting and dying from an opportunistic fungal infection, starting with highest probability and ending with lowest probability. > A man having been diagnosed with AIDS 5 years ago > A healthy 65-year-old > A healthy 18-year-old > A 35-year-old woman just diagnosed with cancer > A woman who just converted from HIV+ to diagnosis of AIDS

A man having been diagnosed with AIDS 5 years ago A woman who just converted from HIV+ to diagnosis of AIDS A 35-year-old woman just diagnosed with cancer A healthy 65-year-old A healthy 18-year-old

Using the table, determine the MPN (per gram (ml)) if you obtain the following results: Growth in all 3 10.0ml DSLB tubes Growth in 1 1.0ml SSLB tube No growth in the 0.1ml SSLB tubes A) 0.43 B) 0.64 C) 0.75 D) 4.3 E) 43 F) 1.2

A) 0.43

Based on the results of the presumptive test of the Bacterial Examination of Water exercise, match the following: Water bottle sample A) 0.43 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml B) 4.6 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml C) 0.061 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml

A) 0.43 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml

Psychrotrophs can survive refrigeration and are sometimes the cause of food spoilage and foodborne illness. The range in which they can live is: (Give your answer in this format which is not the correct answer: 15C-120C) A) 0C-35C B) 0C-20C C) 15C-35C D) 10C-55C

A) 0C-35C

When performing the quadrant streak plate technique for isolation, which quadrant has the highest density of bacteria? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 3

A) 1

Match the following prefixes with their relationship to the standard base unit (g, m, L): Centi A) 1/100 B) 1/1,000,000 C) 1000 D) 1/1000

A) 1/100

If media A is pH 9 and media B is pH 7, then the media at pH 9 is _________________ times more alkaline than the pH 7 media. A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10 D) 20 E) 2

A) 100

Match the following 0.1ml A) 100ul B) 1000ul C) 10ul

A) 100ul

If you put 20g of food in 180ml of sterile water and blend, what dilution factor does this represent? A) 1:10 B) 1:100 C) 1:1000 D) This is not a dilution.

A) 1:10

Given the following, Temp: Growth 0C: - 15C: - 25C: ++ 35C: +++ 42C: + 55C: + A) What are the cardinal temperatures of this bacterium? B) Is this organism a psychrophile?

A) 25-55C B) No, the organism is more characteristic of a mesophile. But instead of having growth between 15 and 45C is has growth from 25-55C.

Type _____ hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in tissues. A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1

A) 3

Which of the following is largest? A) 3.5g B) 3000mg C) 0.003kg D) 30dg

A) 3.5g

What would be the mostly likely temperature range for a strict human pathogen like Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A) 34C-40C B) 0C-25C C) 25C-30C D) 98C-101C

A) 34C-40C

Match the following 5cm A) 50mm B) 5mm C) 5000mm

A) 50mm

River blindness is A) A disease in which worms can invade the eyes B) All of these choices are correct C) Transmitted by mosquito vector D) Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti E) Caused by a blood fluke

A) A disease in which worms can invade the eyes

What is an antibiotic? A) A drug used to kill or inhibit bacteria B) A drug used to kill bacteria and viruses C) A drug used to kill viruses D) A disinfectant used on skin

A) A drug used to kill or inhibit bacteria

A Petri dish containing isolated colonies of Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa would be described as being A) A mixed culture B) An axenic culture C) A pure culture D) A contaminated culture

A) A mixed culture

What are you going to streak out on the EMB plate? A) A sample from the food in the blender B) A sample directly from the food C) A sample from the 1:100 dilution sample D) A sample from the 1:1000 dilution sample

A) A sample from the food in the blender

Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A) A solid medium B) A liquid medium C) A mixed culture D) A contaminated medium E) A pure culture

A) A solid medium

Obligate ______ live at low pH extremes and sometimes maintain the low pH by releasing strong acid. A) Acidophiles B) Halophiles C) Alkalinophiles D) Osmophiles

A) Acidophiles

Please match the description to the pattern of infection. More severe infection, rapid onset A) Acute infection B) Systemic infection C) Localized infection D) Chronic infection E) Secondary infection

A) Acute infection

Please match the description to the correct group of microorganisms. Single or multi-cellular eukaryotes that photosynthesize to obtain energy A) Algae B) Viruses C) Bacteria D) Protozoa E) Fungi F) Helminths

A) Algae

Please match the type of T cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors. Antigen specific receptor A) All T cells B) Helper T cells C) Cytotoxic T cells

A) All T cells

Adenoviruses are A) All of these choices are correct B) Causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. C) Transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions. D) Nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses. E) Causes of outbreaks among military recruits.

A) All of these choices are correct

Brucellosis is A) All of these choices are correct B) A zoonosis C) Associated with pathogen in the blood. D) Seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. E) An occupational illness of people that work with animals.

A) All of these choices are correct

Helicobacter pylori causes A) All of these choices are correct B) Gastritis C) Duodenal ulcers D) Increased risk for cancer E) Stomach ulcers

A) All of these choices are correct

Plasma A) All of these choices are correct B) Contains fibrinogen C) Is mostly water D) Contains albumin and globulins E) Is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended

A) All of these choices are correct

Salmonella typhi A) All of these choices are correct B) Is not a coliform C) Can be treated with antimicrobics D) Causes invasive infection of the small intestine E) Multiplies within phagocytes

A) All of these choices are correct

Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles? A) All of these choices are correct B) Developing malignancy C) Surgery D) X-ray treatments E) Immunosuppressive conditions

A) All of these choices are correct

Cytomegalovirus A) Can be sexually transmitted B) Is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C) All of these choices are correct D) Is among the most common of human infections E) Is commonly carried in the latent state

A) All these choices are correct

According to the results of the growth on the blood agar plate, which hemolysis pattern did the unknown organism exhibit? A) Alpha (α) Hemolysis B) Beta (β) Hemolysis C) Gamma (γ) Hemolysis

A) Alpha (α) Hemolysis

Match the protist with the supergroup it belongs in Entamoeba A) Amoebozoa B) Excavata C) Chromalveolata D) Archaeplastida

A) Amoebozoa

Enterobius vermicularis is A) An intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites. B) Often fatal in heavy infestations. C) Common only to the tropics and subtropics. D) A whipworm E) All of these choices are correct

A) An intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites

Please match the following nutritional types with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Autotroph A) An organism that uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source B) An organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form C) An organism that gains energy from chemical compounds D) An organism that acquires energy from light

A) An organism that uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source

Please match the specific immune response phase with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the overall phases in a specific immune response. Lymphocytes arise from the same stem cells but differentiate into two distinct cell types A) Antigen-Independent Development B) Antigen Contract C) Humoral Immunity D) Cell-Mediated Immunity E) Antigen Presentation

A) Antigen-Independent Development

Please match the test with its description to assess your understanding of the kinds of data collected during information gathering and your understanding of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. Using macroscopic and microscopic traits for identification A) Appearance B) Biochemical tests C) DNA profiles D) Immunologic testing

A) Appearance

_____ means the absence of contamination. A) Aseptic B) Septic C) Clean D) Sterile

A) Aseptic

Rubella is A) Associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects. B) A zoonosis C) Characterized by high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. D) Caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). E) All of these choices are correct

A) Associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.

Forbidden clones, sequestered antigens, molecular mimicry, viral infections, and immune deficiency are all potential explanations for the causes of ________ diseases. A) Autoimmune B) Immunodeficiency C) Immune complex D) Cytotoxic

A) Autoimmune

Please choose the statement that best describes the pathology of most autoimmune diseases. A) Autoimmune diseases result from autoantibodies that either bring about cytotoxic responses or form immune complexes that provoke inflammation. B) Autoimmune diseases are equally distributed among males and females and various age groups. C) Autoimmune diseases are the result of the destruction of T cells, which impairs cell-mediated responses. D) Autoimmune diseases are caused by overproduction of IgE and the degranulation of mast cells and basophils in response to autoantigens.

A) Autoimmune diseases result from autoantibodies that either bring about cytotoxic responses or form immune complexes that provoke inflammation.

Which of the following biosafety levels contains organisms "associated with human disease which pose a moderate hazard/threat"? A) BSL-2 B) BSL-1 C) BSL-3 D) BSL-4

A) BSL-2

A chemical labeled as ________ will inhibit bacterial growth but will not kill them. A) Bacteriostatic B) Sporicidal C) Ideal D) Bactericidal

A) Bacteriostatic

Which fungal phylum produces basidiospores? A) Basidiomycota B) Ascomycota C) Zygomycota

A) Basidiomycota

Basidiomycota produce sexual spores called ____. A) Basidiospores B) Zygospores C) Ascospores D) Conidia E) Sporangiospores

A) Basidiospores

All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except A) Basophils B) T-cells C) B-cells D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

A) Basophils

Identify the type of microscopy used for the specimens viewed in the virtual lab. A) Bright field microscopy B) Phase microscopy C) Fluorescent microscopy D) Electron microscopy

A) Bright field microscopy

Tiana is viewing a sample under the microscope, and she describes what she sees as: "Small purple blobs, oval in shape, some look like a large oval connected to a small oval" Which specimen is she most likely viewing? A) Budding yeast B) Spirogyra C) Amoeba D) Aspergillus

A) Budding yeast

Match the nutritional category of microbe to its source of carbon and its energy source. Chemoautotroph A) Carbon dioxide and simple inorganic chemicals B) Organic carbon and metabolic conversion of the nutrients from other organisms C) Organic carbon and sunlight D) Carbon dioxide and sunlight

A) Carbon dioxide and simple inorganic chemicals

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a A) Carrier B) Reservoir C) Source D) Vector E) Fomite

A) Carrier

Which description goes with number 3? A) Carrier is contaminated but not infected. B) Carrier has infection but it is not apparent. C) Carrier transmits infection before or after the period of symptoms.

A) Carrier is contaminated but not infected.

If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is A) Cell wall B) Slime layer C) Capsule D) Endospore E) Cell membrane

A) Cell wall

Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the A) Chloroplasts B) Golgi apparatus C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria E) Lysosomes

A) Chloroplasts

Which gram positive bacilli matches with number 1's image/description? A) Clostridium B) Corynebacterium C) Listeria D) Mycobacterium E) Bacillus F) Propionibacterium

A) Clostridium

Which asexual structure would you expect to see in a Penicillium sample? A) Conidia B) Ascospores C) Basidiospores D) Zygospores E) Sporangiospores

A) Conidia

What is Entamoeba's portal of entry? A) Contaminated food or drinking water B) Contaminated swimming areas-lakes, ponds

A) Contaminated food or drinking water

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A) Cutaneous B) All of these choices are correct C) Pulmonary D) Gastrointestinal

A) Cutaneous

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by A) DNA ligase B) DNA gyrase C) DNA helicase D) Primase E) DNA polymerase

A) DNA ligase

The process of clonal deletion is designed to A) Destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. B) Slow down the immune system in the elderly. C) Slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. D) Limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. E) Slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.

A) Destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.

Please choose the class of chemical agents to which quaternary ammonium compounds belong. A) Detergents B) Oxidizing agents C) Halogens D) Phenolics E) Aldehydes

A) Detergents

Match the plate with it's purpose in the experiment pGLO- on LB plate A) Determine whether the experimental procedure is damaging B) Determine whether the bacteria used in the experiment were already resistant to ampicillin C) Determine whether the bacteria successfully took up the pGLO plasmid D) Determine whether the bacteria is capable of expressing the GFP gene

A) Determine whether the experimental procedure is damaging

What causes different colored colonies to form on chromogenic media? A) Different enzymes produced by different species of microbes B) Different toxins produced by different species of microbes C) The level of pathogenicity D) Resistance to different antibiotics

A) Different enzymes produced by different species of microbes

What is the best description of the HardyCHROM chromogenic media that you will be using? A) Differential B) Selective C) Coth selective & differential D) Neither selective or differential

A) Differential

Most fungi can alternate between unicellular and multicellular forms, meaning they are _________. A) Dimorphic B) Morphology C) Saprophytic D) Hyphal

A) Dimorphic

Please match the categories of laboratory identification processes with their descriptions. The detection of specific DNA sequences A) Genotypic B) Phenotypic C) Immunologic

A) Genotypic

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A) Gentamicin B) Clavamox C) Penicillins D) Cephalosporins E) Vancomycin

A) Gentamicin

Please match the descriptions with the correct bacterial genus to test your understanding of curve-shaped bacteria. Tight spiral bacterium A) Helicobacter B) Campylobacter C) Vibrio

A) Helicobacter

Please choose the reason why gas gangrene infections can be treated with oxygen therapy successfully. A) High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium. B) Oxygen poisons the clostridial cells. C) The oxygen delivery produces a radioisotope of oxygen within the tissue, destroying the necrotic tissue. D) The oxygen, delivered in low concentration, creates an anaerobic environment in which the Clostridium does poorly. E) The oxygen reacts with water within the cell producing hydrogen peroxide, which kills the bacterial cells.

A) High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium.

Halophilic bacteria prefer environments with A) High salt concentrations B) Acidic environments C) Humans cells D) Low oxygen

A) High salt concentrations

Molly, a 3-year-old active preschool girl, spent the morning playing with the other children at the day-care center. Shortly after lunch, she began to appear very flushed with bright red cheeks, and a check of her temperature revealed a low-grade fever of 99.5. She seemed to feel normal and showed no other signs of illness. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her fever and bright red cheeks? A) Human Parvovirus B19 B) Roseola virus (Human herpesvirus 6) C) Varicella-zoster virus D) Herpes simplex virus E) Cytomegalovirus

A) Human Parvovirus B19

Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds. A) Hydrogen B) Sulfhydryl C) Peptide D) Polar covalent E) Nonpolar covalent

A) Hydrogen

Please match the statement to the term that it best describes. Immune function is incompletely suppressed, destroyed, or incompletely developed. A) Immunodeficiency B) Allergy C) Autoimmunity D) Grafts and transfusions

A) Immunodeficiency

Hepatitis B infection A) Increases risk for hepatocellular cancer B) Can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route C) Has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks D) All of these choices are correct E) Is due to a flavivirus

A) Increases risk for hepatocellular cancer

Which type of ELISA will you be utilizing in this lab? A) Indirect ELISA B) Direct ELISA C) Both

A) Indirect ELISA

The Six "I's" of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A) Infection B) Identification C) Isolation D) Incubation E) Inoculation

A) Infection

A sequence of bases within a gene that will be transcribed, but removed from the transcript prior to translation is a/an A) Intron B) Operator C) Operon D) Promoter E) Exon

A) Intron

The tertiary stage of syphilis A) Is when gummas develop in tissues. B) Occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. C) Is when a chancre develops. D) Is when the patient is highly infectious to others. E) Has no symptoms

A) Is when gummas develop in tissues.

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A) It is prevented by the DTaP immunization. B) It results in meningitis. C) Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. D) All of these choices are correct. E) It can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate.

A) It is prevented by the DTaP immunization.

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A) It is transmitted by human feces B) It can progress to a septicemia. C) The patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D) It is caused by Yersinia pestis. E) The patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness.

A) It is transmitted by human feces

How is the ampicillin a "selectable marker"? A) It only allows for cells with the ampicillin resistance gene to grow B) It selects which bacteria can transform C) It allows bacteria to transform D) It only allows for cells with the ampicillin resistance gene to glow

A) It only allows for cells with the ampicillin resistance gene to grow

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A) Kaposi's sarcoma B) Melanoma C) Leukemia D) Colon cancer E) Hodgkin's lymphoma

A) Kaposi's sarcoma

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A) Kingdom B) Genus C) Family D) Phylum E) Species

A) Kingdom

How should petri plates be labelled and incubated? A) Labelled on the bottom, incubated upside-down B) Labelled on the bottom, incubated right-side up C) Labelled on the lid, incubated right-side up D) Labelled on the lid, incubated upside-down

A) Labelled on the bottom, incubated upside-down

According to the results of the growth on the blood agar plate, match the organism with its hemolysis pattern. Alpha Hemolysis A) Lactococcus lactis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

A) Lactococcus lactis

What sugar is used in the presumptive test? A) Lactose B) Glucose C) Sucrose D) Dextrose

A) Lactose

EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue) agar tests for A) Lactose fermentation B) pH change C) Lactose production D) Glucose fermentation

A) Lactose fermentation

Please match the primary categories of metabolism with the statements that most accurately describe them. Catabolism A) Larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules B) Larger molecules are built from smaller molecules C) All of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell

A) Larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules

The purpose of the oil when using the 100x objective is to increase the amount of ________ collected by the objective lens. A) Light B) Resolution C) Diffraction D) Air

A) Light

Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A) Lophotrichous B) Monotrichous C) Amphitrichous D) Peritrichous E) Spirilla

A) Lophotrichous

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A) Lyme disease B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) Leptospirosis D) Syphilis E) Relapsing fever

A) Lyme disease

Which is incorrect about malaria? A) Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells B) Trophozoites develop in RBCs C) The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites D) Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human

A) Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells

Boiling water is a common method used to sterilize water that may be contaminated. Subjecting microbes to such high temperatures is an example of a(n) _________________ technique. A) Microbicidal B) Pasteurization C) Tyndallization D) Microbiostatic E) Intermittent sterilization

A) Microbicidal

Match the stain with it's role in the staining procedure Idoine A) Mordant for Gram Stains B) Mordant for Endospore Stain C) Primary stain for Endospore Stain D) Secondary stain for Acid-Fast stain

A) Mordant for Gram Stains

Please match the technologies with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the methods and characteristics used in classifying bacteria. These tests use cell shape and Gram reaction to classify organisms A) Morphology B) Bacterial physiology/biochemistry C) Serological analysis D) Genetic techniques

A) Morphology

Salmonella are A) Motile B) Gram-positive rods C) Coliforms D) All of these choices are correct E) Lactose fermenters

A) Motile

All of the following must be completed in order to properly store a microscope EXCEPT A) Move the stage up towards the objectives B) Remove all oil from the objectives C) Turn off light D) Set the low power objective into place

A) Move the stage up towards the objectives

During the Gram stain procedure, a Gram _________ cell will be purple after the addition of Crystal Violet, and clear after the decolorization step. A) Negative B) Positive

A) Negative

If you perform an indirect ELISA specific for Lyme Disease on a patient that was bitten by a tick carrying Borrelia bergdorferi only 2 days ago, what would you expect the results to be? A) Negative, because it is unlikely that the patient is producing antibodies to Borrelia bergdorferi after only 2 days. B) Positive, since the patient was infected with Borrelia bergdorferi by the tick bite. C) Negative, because Borrelia bergdorferi does not cause Lyme Disease. D) Positive, since the ELISA will detect Borrelia bergdorferi in the patient's serum.

A) Negative, because it is unlikely that the patient is producing

Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A) Nervous system B) Circulatory system C) Respiratory system D) Genitourinary system E) Digestive system

A) Nervous system

Match the organism to the supergroup it belongs. Cestoda A) Opisthokonta B) Amoebozoa C) Excavata D) Chromalveolata

A) Opisthokonta

Please match the statement to the term that it most accurately describes, to test your understanding of types of symbiotic associations. Mutualism A) Organisms living in obligatory but mutually beneficial relationships. B) One organism benefits while the other organism is neither harmed nor benefited C) One organism is harmed when it provides the other organism with nutrients and a habitat

A) Organisms living in obligatory but mutually beneficial relationships.

If a bacterial cell is in a hypertonic solution, water will move in what direction? A) Out of the cell B) Into the cell C) Water will be at equilibrium

A) Out of the cell

Please match the viral diagnostic method to its description. Used to specifically amplify viral nucleic acid sequences that can then be detected using probes A) PCR B) Immunological testing C) Electron microscopy D) Cell and tissue culture techniques E) Observation of the patient

A) PCR

White blood cells have surface receptors called _________ receptors that serve as their "feelers" for foreign substances. A) Pattern recognition B) Pathogen molecular C) Antibody recognition D) Immunogenic

A) Pattern recognition

Please match the clinical stage of infection with its description. Appearance of first early, nonspecific symptoms A) Prodromal stage B) Period of invasion C) Convalescent period D) Incubation period

A) Prodromal stage

Please match the cell types with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Does not contain organelles but can replicate independently via binary fission A) Prokaryotic cells B) Eukaryotic cells C) Viruses D) Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells E) Prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells and viruses

A) Prokaryotic cells

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes A) Protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. B) Is also called streptokinase. C) Is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield Group A. D) Protects against lysozyme damage. E) Gives rise to a zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar.

A) Protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence.

Catalase is an important enzyme because it A) Protects organisms that utilize oxygen from a toxic by product of respiration B) Can break down oxygen C) Produces carbon dioxide D) Produces hydrogen peroxide

A) Protects organisms that utilize oxygen from a toxic by product of respiration

Enzymes are A) Proteins that function as catalysts B) Used up in chemical reactions C) All of these choices are correct D) Not needed for catabolic reactions E) Broken down in reactions that require energy input

A) Proteins that function as catalysts

Cilia are found in certain A) Protozoa B) Fungi C) Algae D) Bacteria E) All of the above

A) Protozoa

Please match the types of mutations with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of their causes. Spontaneous mutation A) Random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication that occur without a known cause B) Result from exposure to known mutagens, which are primarily physical or chemical agents that damage DNA C) Changing of single base in the DNA code that may result in the placement of a different amino acid D) Addition or deletion of bases that changes the reading of mRNA codons

A) Random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication that occur without a known cause

Please match the white blood cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the behavior of white blood cells. Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide A) Red blood cells B) B cells C) Monocytes D) Platelets E) Neutrophils

A) Red blood cells

Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A) Redness B) Loss of function C) Swelling D) Warmth E) Pain

A) Redness

Please match the diseases with their most common portal of exit. Tuberculosis, Influenza A) Respiratory tract (aerosols) B) GI tract (saliva droplets) C) Exudates from skin lesions D) GI tract (diarrhea) E) Reproductive tract (semen) F) Blood through a contaminated needle

A) Respiratory tract (aerosols)

The network of connective tissue fibers which pass through the tissues of the body and allow for the efficient movement of immune system cells is the A) Reticuloendothelial system. B) Circulatory system. C) Lymphatic system. D) Extracellular fluid system.

A) Reticuloendothelial system.

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? A) Secondary B) All of these choices are correct C) Latent D) Tertiary E) Primary

A) Secondary

What is the purpose of the ampicillin resistance gene? A) Selective marker B) Gene of interest C) Turn on GFP expression D) Origin of replication

A) Selective marker

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct description. Oxidative phosphorylation A) Series of reactions involving electron transport and ATP Synthase B) ATP is formed by means of a light-driven electron transport mechanism C) A process where ATP is formed by transfer of a phosphate group from a high-energy compound directly to ADP

A) Series of reactions involving electron transport and ATP Synthase

The hepadnaviruses A) Show tropism for the liver B) All of these choices are correct C) Includes the adenoviruses D) Are transmitted by respiratory secretions E) Are non enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses

A) Show tropism for the liver

Please choose the statement that best describes the immunologic basis of organ or tissue rejection after transplantation. A) Specific T cell populations recognize non-self MHC molecules on transplanted tissue and mount a cell-mediated immune response damaging the transplant. B) Transplanted tissue is normally rejected only if it becomes infected. C) Organ/tissue transplant rejection is mostly due to Type 2 cytotoxic reactions mediated by IgG and IgM. D) IgE antibodies as well as basophils and mast cells attack the transplanted tissue if they recognize it as "non-self."

A) Specific T cell populations recognize non-self MHC molecules on transplanted tissue and mount a cell-mediated immune response damaging the transplant.

The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is A) Specificity B) Sensitivity C) Precipitation D) Cross-reactions E) Agglutination

A) Specificity

Alexander Fleming discovered the compound penicillin in 1928 after his observations on the antibacterial effects of the mold Penicillium chrysogenum on which of the following microbes? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Escherichia coli C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Salmonella enterica

A) Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following organisms is BSL-2? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Lactococcus lactis C) Staphylococcus epidermidis D) Escherichia coli E) Klebsiella aerogenes F) Pseudomonas fluorescens G) None of these

A) Staphylococcus aureus

The StaphTEX agglutination assay that you will be using in this lab will test for A) Staphylococcus aureus antigens. B) Antibodies to Staphylococcus aureus. C) Escherichia coli antigens. D) Antibodies to Escherichia coli.

A) Staphylococcus aureus antigens.

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A) Staphylokinase B) Coagulase C) Penicillinase D) Hyaluronidase E) Toxic shock syndrome toxin

A) Staphylokinase

Please match the term with its description. Complete removal or destruction of all microbial forms A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis E) Sanitization

A) Sterilization

Which organism(s) ferment milk lactose, producing acids that curdle the milk? A) Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus B) Spirulina C) Propionibacterium D) Leuconostoc mesenteroides E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A) Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus

Which bacteria causes infections seen in chart 2? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. C carbohydrate A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme

Which media are you going to use to test your milk samples? A) TGEA B) EMB C) TSA D) MAC E) MSA

A) TGEA

Match the definition with the term it is describing. Transformation A) Taking up plasmid DNA from the environment B) Plasmid containing genes from different organisms C) Cell capable of transformation

A) Taking up plasmid DNA from the environment

Why is antibiotic use a common cause of Clostridium difficile infections? A) The antibiotic wipes out the normal bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow. B) Antibiotics are perishable drugs that are easily contaminated with C. difficile spores. C) C. difficile requires antibiotics for its own metabolism, and therefore grows best in its presence. D) Antibiotics are usually given to immunocompromised patients ,and their low T cell count is favorable for C. difficile infection.

A) The antibiotic wipes out the normal bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow.

The chromogenic media that you will be using is used specifically for A) The isolation and differentiation of urinary tract pathogens. B) The isolation and differentiation of respiratory tract pathogens. C) The isolation and differentiation of pathogens that cause skin and eye infections. D) The isolation and differentiation of pathogens that cause digestive system infections.

A) The isolation and differentiation of urinary tract pathogens.

Cryptosporidium is often associated with diarrheal outbreaks in the United States. Please choose the statement that explains why. A) The oocysts formed by Cryptosporidium are extremely resistant to wastewater treatment. B) Personal hygiene and hand-washing have become extremely lax in the American population. C) More Americans are traveling outside of the country. D) More people have cats and dogs as pets.

A) The oocysts formed by Cryptosporidium are extremely resistant to wastewater treatment.

John has been diagnosed with gonorrhea and he is worried about his ex-girlfriend, with whom he had been having sex. But she hasn't said anything about it to him, so he just decides to not say anything. Please choose the statement that best explains why his girlfriend does not have symptoms. A) The rate of symptoms, particularly in women, can be very low. B) N. gonorrhoeae becomes dormant in the body, without symptoms for years, so she won't know that she has it for a long time. C) She had been taking an antibiotic ointment for her acne, and this must have protected her also from gonorrhea. D) It is very difficult to transmit gonorrhea, so he is correct in figuring that she never got it.

A) The rate of symptoms, particularly in women, can be very low.

Which of the following best describes what the term 'ubiquitous' means in reference to microorganisms? A) They are everywhere in the environment. B) They are commonly found in the soil. C) They are in the air only. D) They are on all surfaces, but not in the air.

A) They are everywhere in the environment.

Please select the explanation for why the members of the bacterial family Enterobacteriaceae are commonly pathogenic to humans. A) This family of bacteria commonly inhabits the human body as normal flora. B) Animals have these bacteria as normal flora, and since humans and animals are in close contact, the bacteria are easily transmitted to humans. C) Humans contact these bacteria easily from soil. D) Humans have no inherited resistance to these bacteria. E) As air contaminants, these bacteria easily are transmitted by respiratory route.

A) This family of bacteria commonly inhabits the human body as normal flora.

Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope? A) To increase the resolution B) To slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better C) To stain the cells blue D) To reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source E) To prevent the smear from drying out

A) To increase the resolution

Please match the types of RNA with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Messenger RNA A) Transcribed version of a structural gene or genes in DNA B) Contains the anticodon and an amino acid binding site C) Forms a complex cellular structure that contributes to the process of translation

A) Transcribed version of a structural gene or genes in DNA

Synercid binds to sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit. Synercid interferes with A) Translation B) Cell wall synthesis C) Replication D) Transcription

A) Translation

Which of the following terms best describe cloudy growth in a broth culture? A) Turbidity B) Colony C) Pellicle D) Precipitate E) Spore

A) Turbidity

Examine Type 4 hypersensitivities by completing the sentence. Compared to Type 3 hypersensitivities, ____________ reactions primarily involve _________ cell activity. A) Xenografts B) Delayed C) Autografts D) Contact dermatitis E) MHC 1 F) T G) Tuberculin H) Allografts I) GVHD J) Type 4

A) Type 4 F) T

David's family is upgrading their water system from their well into their house. They decide to add a UV light system. Which type of UV radiation is probably emitted by the system? A) UVC B) UVA C) UVB D) UVD

A) UVC

According to the results of the StaphTEX agglutination assay, which unknown culture was Staphylococcus aureus? A) Unknown B B) Unknown A C) Neither D) Both

A) Unknown B

All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except A) Variola virus B) Varicella-zoster virus C) Cytomegalovirus D) Herpes simplex virus E) Epstein-Barr virus

A) Variola virus

All of the following are correct about treating viral diseases except A) Viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria. B) Many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects. C) Many antiviral drugs block viral replication. D) Interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. E) All of these choices are correct

A) Viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. Two other opportunistic fungal infections are seen at high rates in __________ patients. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

AIDS

Which description(s) correspond to class Virus in order to test your understanding of the characteristics of prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses. > Must be viewed with an electron microscope > Acellular particle > Size range: 10-200nm > Cell type that lacks a nucleus > Contains a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles > Size range: 1-10μm

Acellular particle Size range: 10-200nm Must be viewed with an electron microscope

Please select the key criteria used for categorizing the gram-positive bacilli into groups. > Capsules > Acid-fastness > Endospores > Motility > Oxygen requirements

Acid-fastness Endospores Oxygen requirements

_____ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.

Acidic

Please order the following choices to show the proper sequence for bacteriophage multiplication from the first step to the last step. > Adsorption > Penetration > Release > Synthesis > Assembly

Adsorption Penetration Synthesis Assembly Release

Please select the methods that can be used to visualize or detect antigen-antibody reactions. > Disk diffusion tests > Agglutination/precipitation tests > Kirby-Bauer susceptibility tests > Culture tests > ELISA > Western Blot analysis

Agglutination/precipitation tests ELISA Western Blot analysis

Which organism(s) would be classified as protists? > An endospore-forming bacterial cell > A fungus growing on the peel of an orange > Algae in a pond > Seaweed growing in the ocean > A parasitic amoeba that can cause meningitis

Algae in a pond Seaweed growing in the ocean A parasitic amoeba that can cause meningitis

Comparing the Anaerobe jar and FTM (Fluid thioglycollate medium) click all of the following that are correct: A) Aerobic bacteria will grow in both B) Anaerobic bacteria will grow in both C) Facultative anaerobes will grow in both D) Aerobic bacteria will only grow in FTM E) Anaerobic bacteria will grow only in FTM F) Only anaerobes will grow in the anaerobe jar

Anaerobic bacteria will grow in both Facultative anaerobes will grow in both Aerobic bacteria will only grow in FTM

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. In healthy hosts, this yeast is kept in check, but the risk of invasion increases with pregnancy, young age, immunodeficiency, and use of _____________. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

Antibiotics

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. The second most common opportunistic mycosis is a lung infection caused by molds in the genus _____________. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

Aspergillus

__________ or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects.

Autoclaving

Match the following 200g A) 2.0 x 10^-8 ug B) 2.0 x 10^8 ug

B) 2.0 x 10^8 ug

Match the following 27g/L A) 27g/100ml B) 27g/1000ml C) 27g/1,000,000ml

B) 27g/1000ml

What is the TE of an experiment in which 10 uL of plasmid with a concentration of 0.1 ug/uL was used and 38 colonies were observed glowing on the LB/Amp/Ara plate? A) 190 B) 38 C) 19 D) 380

B) 38

Based on the results of the presumptive test of the Bacterial Examination of Water exercise, match the following: Dog bowl sample A) 0.43 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml B) 4.6 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml C) 0.061 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml

B) 4.6 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except A) A mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant. B) A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic. C) The inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment. D) Not completing the full course of treatment. E) Diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.

B) A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A) A specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom B) A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease C) Microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills D) Microbes are found on dust particles E) Life-forms can only arise from preexisting life-forms

B) A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct description. Photophosphorylation A) Series of reactions involving electron transport and ATP Synthase B) ATP is formed by means of a light-driven electron transport mechanism C) A process where ATP is formed by transfer of a phosphate group from a high-energy compound directly to ADP

B) ATP is formed by means of a light-driven electron transport mechanism

Match the microscopy vocabulary word with it's definition. Resolution A) Focus is maintained when the magnification is changed B) Ability to distinguish two objects as separate C) Area observed through the ocular lens D) Distance between the specimen and the objective lens

B) Ability to distinguish two objects as separate

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A) Penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B) Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. C) Assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. D) Adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration. E) Replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.

B) Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.

Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections? A) Cancer B) All of these choices are correct C) Malnutrition D) Tuberculosis E) AIDS

B) All of these choices are correct

Lymphocyte maturation involves A) B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites. B) All of these choices are correct. C) T-cells maturing in the thymus. D) Release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E) Hormonal signals that initiate development.

B) All of these choices are correct.

Please select the answer that best describes microbial food fermentations. A) Saccharomyces, a fungus, ferments grains for alcohol production. B) All of these choices are correct. C) A variety of nutrients can be used as starting material for fermentation, and this varies the taste of the food or drink. D) The products produced by microbes during fermentation can add to the flavor and uniqueness of the food. E) Bacteria and fungi are the major fermenting microorganisms used for food production.

B) All of these choices are correct.

Please match the statement to the term that it best describes. Overreaction of the immune system to relatively harmless antigens that results in damage to the host A) Immunodeficiency B) Allergy C) Autoimmunity D) Grafts and transfusions

B) Allergy

Human asymptomatic carriers are common in A) Balantidiasis B) Amebiasis and trichomoniasis C) Elephantiasis D) Cryptosporidiosis and malaria E) Trypanosomias

B) Amebiasis and trichomoniasis

Match the organism to the supergroup it belongs. Amoeba proteus A) Opisthokonta B) Amoebozoa C) Excavata D) Chromalveolata

B) Amoebozoa

Please match the following nutritional types with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Heterotroph A) An organism that uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source B) An organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form C) An organism that gains energy from chemical compounds D) An organism that acquires energy from light

B) An organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form

The indirect ELISA test detects ______ in a patient's blood. A) IgE only B) Antibody C) Microorganisms D) Antigen E) Complement

B) Antibody

Please match the specific immune response phase with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the overall phases in a specific immune response. Foreign cells bear molecules that are recognized by B cells or engulfed by dendritic cells or macrophages A) Antigen-Independent Development B) Antigen Contract C) Humoral Immunity D) Cell-Mediated Immunity E) Antigen Presentation

B) Antigen Contract

All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A) Cause human disease B) Are too small to be seen with the unaided eye C) Lack a cell nucleus D) Are infectious particles E) Can only be found growing in laboratories

B) Are too small to be seen with the unaided eye

Please match the white blood cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the behavior of white blood cells. Differentiate into plasma cells A) Red blood cells B) B cells C) Monocytes D) Platelets E) Neutrophils

B) B cells

Select the biosafety level described by the conditions of the following example: > A microbiology student is working on a project under the following conditions: o Work is conducted on a standard laboratory table or bench.o A nonpathogenic laboratory strain of E. coli is being used.o Minimal PPE, such as a lab coat, gloves, and eye protection might be worn but are not necessary. A) BSL-2 B) BSL-1 C) BSL-3 D) BSL-4

B) BSL-1

Please match the technologies with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the methods and characteristics used in classifying bacteria. These tests use the presence or absence of biochemical processes and enzymes to group organisms A) Morphology B) Bacterial physiology/biochemistry C) Serological analysis D) Genetic techniques

B) Bacterial

Which hemolysis pattern would you expect from a more virulent pathogen? A) Alpha (α) Hemolysis B) Beta (β) Hemolysis C) Gamma (γ) Hemolysis

B) Beta (β) Hemolysis

Please match the test with its description to assess your understanding of the kinds of data collected during information gathering and your understanding of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. Tests that determine chemical characteristics including enzyme production and nutritional requirements of the microbe A) Appearance B) Biochemical tests C) DNA profiles D) Immunologic testing

B) Biochemical tests

______ is a study of the mechanisms of cellular energy release, including catabolic and anabolic pathways. A) Amphibolism B) Bioenergetics C) Chemiosmosis D) Biosynthesis

B) Bioenergetics

Please match the descriptions with the correct bacterial genus to test your understanding of curve-shaped bacteria. S-shaped spiral bacterium A) Helicobacter B) Campylobacter C) Vibrio

B) Campylobacter

Which description goes with number 1? A) Carrier is contaminated but not infected. B) Carrier has infection but it is not apparent. C) Carrier transmits infection before or after the period of symptoms.

B) Carrier has infection but it is not apparent.

The energy released by _________ reactions is used to regenerate _______ which can then provide energy for __________ reactions. A) Anabolic, NADH, catabolic B) Catabolic, ATP, anabolic C) Anabolic, ATP, catabolic D) Catabolic, glucose, anabolic

B) Catabolic, ATP, anabolic

Grouping organisms based on their evolutionary relationships is the process of ____, which is part of taxonomy. A) Binomial structuring B) Classification C) Identification D) Nomenclature

B) Classification

When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called A) Symbiosis B) Commensalism C) Synergism D) Mutualism E) Satellitism

B) Commensalism

Please match the types of RNA with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Transfer RNA A) Transcribed version of a structural gene or genes in DNA B) Contains the anticodon and an amino acid binding site C) Forms a complex cellular structure that contributes to the process of translation

B) Contains the anticodon and an amino acid binding site

What are Naegleria and Acanthamoeba's portal of entry? A) Contaminated food or drinking water B) Contaminated swimming areas-lakes, ponds

B) Contaminated swimming areas-lakes, ponds

Match the microscope part with it's function. Iris diaphragm A) Focus light onto the specimen B) Control the amount of light reaching the specimen C) Brings the specimen into general focus D) Increases the detail of the image

B) Control the amount of light reaching the specimen

Which gram positive bacilli matches with number 4's image/description? A) Clostridium B) Corynebacterium C) Listeria D) Mycobacterium E) Bacillus F) Propionibacterium

B) Corynebacterium

Which of the following cells attacks virally infected cells and cancer cells? A) Helper T cell B) Cytotoxic T cell C) Dendritic cell D) B cell E) Macrophage

B) Cytotoxic T cell

A superinfection results from A) An immune system reaction to the drug. B) Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species. C) All of these choices are correct D) The wrong drug administered to the patient. E) Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient.

B) Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.

Examine Type 4 hypersensitivities by completing the sentence. Type 4 dysfunction is known as ______________ hypersensitivity for symptoms arise one to several days following secondary antigen exposure. A) Xenografts B) Delayed C) Autografts D) Contact dermatitis E) MHC 1 F) T G) Tuberculin H) Allografts I) GVHD J) Type 4

B) Delayed

Match the plate with it's purpose in the experiment pGLO- on LB/Amp plate A) Determine whether the experimental procedure is damaging B) Determine whether the bacteria used in the experiment were already resistant to ampicillin C) Determine whether the bacteria successfully took up the pGLO plasmid D) Determine whether the bacteria is capable of expressing the GFP gene

B) Determine whether the bacteria used in the experiment were already resistant to ampicillin

Please match the term with its description. Destruction or removal of vegetative pathogens (but not endospores) from inanimate surfaces A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis E) Sanitization

B) Disinfection

Review the basic events in the life cycle of Chlamydia by completing each sentence. The infectious stage of Chlamydia, or ____________ body, is taken up by phagocytic vesicles in the host cell. A) Budding B) Elementary C) Binary fission D) Reticulate E) Phagolysosome F) Meiosis G) Secondary

B) Elementary

Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A) Diffusion B) Endocytosis C) Facilitated diffusion D) Osmosis

B) Endocytosis

Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A) Salmonella B) Enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli C) Shigella dysenteriae D) E. coli O157:H7 E) Enteroinvasive E. coli

B) Enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli

Please match the cell types with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Contains a nucleus and undergoes mitosis A) Prokaryotic cells B) Eukaryotic cells C) Viruses D) Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells E) Prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells and viruses

B) Eukaryotic cells

Match the protist with the supergroup it belongs in Trichomonas A) Amoebozoa B) Excavata C) Chromalveolata D) Archaeplastida

B) Excavata

During which step of water purification does water moves through sand beds and activated charcoal? A) Storage B) Filtration C) Chlorination D) Sedimentation E) Aeration and settling

B) Filtration

Herpes whitlow is a deep-set herpes simplex virus infection of the A) Eye B) Finger C) Newborn D) Oral mucosa and tongue E) Nasal mocosa

B) Finger

Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A) Fungal cells have cell walls B) Fungi are photosynthetic C) Fungi include single-celled and filamentous forms D) Fungi can use a wide variety of nutrients E) Fungi are heterotrophs

B) Fungi are photosynthetic

Please match the diseases with their most common portal of exit. Infectious mononucleosis A) Respiratory tract (aerosols) B) GI tract (saliva droplets) C) Exudates from skin lesions D) GI tract (diarrhea) E) Reproductive tract (semen) F) Blood through a contaminated needle

B) GI tract (saliva droplets)

While on a backpacking trip in Maine, Julie and her friends obtained their drinking water from several different pristine streams, adding one or two drops of bleach to ensure its safety. Several days later Julie began experiencing abdominal distress, specifically cramping, fatty diarrhea, and flatulence. When it didn't clear up within several days, Julie visited her doctor. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of Julie's symptoms? A) E. coli O157:H7 B) Giardia intestinalis C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Schistosoma mansoni E) Toxoplasma gondii

B) Giardia intestinalis

Please select the pathogen from the genus Streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group. A) Group A beta-hemolytic S. pneumoniae B) Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes C) Group A beta-hemolytic S. agalactiae D) Group B alpha-hemolytic S. pyogenes

B) Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes

Please choose the hepatitis virus that is primarily spread through sexual contact. A) HAV B) HBV C) HCV D) All of these choices are correct

B) HBV

Which two hepatitis viruses are generally acquired in a similar manner? A) HBA and HBC B) HBV and HBC C) HBA and HBV

B) HBV and HBC

Please match the type of T cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors. CD4 A) All T cells B) Helper T cells C) Cytotoxic T cells

B) Helper T cells

Please match the viral diagnostic method to its description. Used to detect specific antibodies being produced against viruses A) PCR B) Immunological testing C) Electron microscopy D) Cell and tissue culture techniques E) Observation of the patient

B) Immunological testing

Microorgansisms called psychrophiles will grow only at low temperatures (at or near 0°C). This restriction on a microbes growth would most directly impact A) Information gathering B) Incubation C) Isolation D) Identification E) Inspection F) Inoculation

B) Incubation

Dry heat A) Cannot sterilize B) Is less efficient than moist heat C) Is used in devices called autoclaves D) Includes tyndallization E) Will sterilize at 121C for 15 min

B) Is less efficient than moist heat

The bacterial chromosome A) Forms a single linear strand of DNA B) Is part of the nucleoid C) All of these choices are correct D) Contains all the cell's plasmids E) Is located in the cell membrane

B) Is part of the nucleoid

Which of the following would be easiest to observe contamination after incubation? A) A liquid broth culture in a test tube B) Isolated colonies on an agar plate C) Confluent growth (total coverage without isolated colonies, aka a "lawn") on an agar plate D) Growth on an agar slant

B) Isolated colonies on an agar plate

Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except A) It infects kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. B) It can be transmitted by animal bites. C) Humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes. D) It most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs. E) The pathogen is a spirochete.

B) It can be transmitted by animal bites.

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except A) It causes serious meningitis B) It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia C) It is more easily transmitted in day-care facilities, dorms, and military barracks D) Virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease E) The reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers

B) It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except A) It can kill insects on the food. B) It makes the food less nutritious. C) It can kill bacterial pathogens on the food. D) It can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes. E) It can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.

B) It makes the food less nutritious.

Please match the primary categories of metabolism with the statements that most accurately describe them. Anabolism A) Larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules B) Larger molecules are built from smaller molecules C) All of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell

B) Larger molecules are built from smaller molecules

Which term describes human pathogens? A) Thermophiles B) Mesophiles C) Halophiles D) Acidophiles E) Psychrophiles

B) Mesophiles

Match the stain with it's role in the staining procedure Heating process A) Mordant for Gram Stains B) Mordant for Endospore Stain C) Primary stain for Endospore Stain D) Secondary stain for Acid-Fast stain

B) Mordant for Endospore Stain

A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the lab isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be __________. A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Borrelia burgdorferi E) Haemophilus influenzae

B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A) Macrophages and monocytes B) Neutrophils and macrophages C) Natural killer cells D) Basophils and neutrophils E) Eosinophils and macrophages

B) Neutrophils and macrophages

Please choose the answer that best fills in the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. A ________ infectious disease, such as a urinary tract infection, is not transmitted from person to person, whereas an infectious disease which is transmitted from one person to another, such as influenza, is referred to as a ________ infectious disease. A) Communicable; noncommunicable B) Noncommunicable; communicable C) Communicable; contagious

B) Noncommunicable; communicable

Activities that would reduce the risk of contracting Cyclosporiasis include A) Avoiding the bite of ticks B) Not eating raw food C) Avoiding mosquito bites D) Wearing a mask when interacting with someone who be infected with the disease

B) Not eating raw food

Please match the statement to the term that it most accurately describes, to test your understanding of types of symbiotic associations. Commensalism A) Organisms living in obligatory but mutually beneficial relationships. B) One organism benefits while the other organism is neither harmed nor benefited C) One organism is harmed when it provides the other organism with nutrients and a habitat

B) One organism benefits while the other organism is neither harmed nor benefited

Match the nutritional category of microbe to its source of carbon and its energy source. Chemoheterotroph A) Carbon dioxide and simple inorganic chemicals B) Organic carbon and metabolic conversion of the nutrients from other organisms C) Organic carbon and sunlight D) Carbon dioxide and sunlight

B) Organic carbon and metabolic conversion of the nutrients from other organisms

Please match the clinical stage of infection with its description. Microorganism is multiplying rapidly and causing fever and specific disease symptoms A) Prodromal stage B) Period of invasion C) Convalescent period D) Incubation period

B) Period of invasion

Please match the categories of laboratory identification processes with their descriptions. Observation of bacterial characteristics, both macroscopic and microscopic, as well as biochemical study of the physiology of the bacteria A) Genotypic B) Phenotypic C) Immunologic

B) Phenotypic

Match the definition with the term it is describing. Recombinant plasmid A) Taking up plasmid DNA from the environment B) Plasmid containing genes from different organisms C) Cell capable of transformation

B) Plasmid containing genes from different organisms

______ are the only active biological agents lacking any nucleic acid (DNA or RNA). A) Viriods B) Prions C) Satellite viruses D) Virions

B) Prions

Hemopoiesis is the A) Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. B) Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. C) Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging D) Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E) Production of only red blood cells.

B) Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

Eukaryotic ribosomes are the site of A) Protein folding B) Protein synthesis C) Protein glycosylation D) Protein degradation

B) Protein synthesis

Exotoxins are A) Secretions that always target nervous tissue B) Proteins C) Antiphagocytic factors D) Only released after a cell is damaged or lysed E) Lipopolysaccharides

B) Proteins

Which of the following best describes translation? A) DNA -> protein B) RNA -> protein C) DNA -> RNA D) RNA -> DNA E) DNA -> DNA

B) RNA -> protein

Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription. A) DNA polymerase III B) RNA polymerase C) DNA polymerase I D) rRNA E) mRNA

B) RNA polymerase

The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the A) Operator B) Regulator C) Promoter D) Structural locus

B) Regulator

The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are A) Digestive and respiratory B) Respiratory and cutaneous C) Blood and wounds D) Urinary and reproductive

B) Respiratory and cutaneous

Please match the types of mutations with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of their causes. Induced mutation A) Random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication that occur without a known cause B) Result from exposure to known mutagens, which are primarily physical or chemical agents that damage DNA C) Changing of single base in the DNA code that may result in the placement of a different amino acid D) Addition or deletion of bases that changes the reading of mRNA codons

B) Result from exposure to known mutagens, which are primarily physical or chemical agents that damage DNA

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is A) Degermination B) Sanitization C) Sterilization D) Disinfection E) Antisepsis

B) Sanitization

A Staphylococcus aureus infection that develops when the bacterium invades chickenpox lesions is an example of a(n) __________ infection. A) Acute B) Secondary C) Primary D) Focal E) Systemic

B) Secondary

What is the name of this instrument? Be specific! A) Transfer pipette B) Serological pipette C) Micropipette D) Basic pipette

B) Serological pipette

All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except A) Korean hemorrhagic fever B) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) C) California encephalitis D) Rift Valley fever E) Hantavirus

B) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A) Fimbriae B) Sex pili C) Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) D) Cilia E) Flagella

B) Sex pili

According to the results of the growth on the blood agar plate, match the organism with its hemolysis pattern. Beta Hemolysis A) Lactococcus lactis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

B) Staphylococcus aureus

Which bacteria causes infections seen in chart 1? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Staphylococcus aureus

Please match the description to the pattern of infection. An infection that has spread to multiple body sites and tissue fluids; no longer restricted to one body site A) Acute infection B) Systemic infection C) Localized infection D) Chronic infection E) Secondary infection

B) Systemic infection

During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands. A) Scaffold B) Template C) Comparison molecule D) Reservoir E) Copy point

B) Template

Which of the following are characteristics of the Calvin cycle? A) Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form during the Calvin cycle. B) The Calvin cycle produces glucose as an end product. C) The Calvin cycle produces carbon dioxide and water. D) All these choices are correct E) The Calvin cycle requires light.

B) The Calvin cycle produces glucose as an end product.

Following binomial nomenclature, which of the following makes up the scientific name of an organism? A) The species name and then the genus name B) The genus name and then the species name C) The family name and then the genus name D) The species name and then the family name E) The genus name and then the order name

B) The genus name and then the species name

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except A) That have CD4 T-cell counts below 200 cells/mm3 of blood. B) The highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States. C) They get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections. D) They can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. E) They have a profound immunodeficiency.

B) The highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States.

The nucleocapsid consists of A) The envelope and capsid B) The nucleic acid along with the capsid C) The capsomers assembled into the capsid D) The envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid E) The nucleic acid of the virus only

B) The nucleic acid along with the capsid

All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except A) There are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them B) They are all RNA viruses C) They are all endemic in the United States D) They all cause hepatitis E) They all can have an incubation period of one month

B) They are all RNA viruses

Each of the following are true of enzymes except A) They can be used over and over B) They increase the activation energy of a reaction C) All of the choices are true of enzymes D) Their active site is specific to the substrate E) They may or may not require cofactors

B) They increase the activation energy of a reaction

Why did the pGLO+ cells glow on the LB/Amp/Ara plates but not on the LB/Amp plate? A) Arabinose is a positive control B) They need the arabinose in order to turn on GFP expression C) The colonies could have glowed on either plate if they were successfully transformed D) Arabinose is a selective marker

B) They need the arabinose in order to turn on GFP expression

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except A) They are effective prophylactics for influenza. B) They prevent assembly and release of the virus. C) They inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus. D) They should be given early in an infection. E) They are used to treat infections by influenza A and B.

B) They prevent assembly and release of the virus.

Why must you perform a serial dilution after the food is re-suspended in water? A) Because most foods contain extremely high numbers of bacteria B) To ensure that you get colony counts between 30 and 300 C) Because there would not be any growth if the re-suspended food sample were not diluted D) As the dilution factor increases, the amount of bacteria increases

B) To ensure that you get colony counts between 30 and 300

What is the central purpose of aseptic technique? A) To identify pathogenic bacteria B) To prevent the spread of contamination C) To cure disease D) To find new antibiotics

B) To prevent the spread of contamination

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. Streptolysin A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host

Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration? A) Involves glycolysis B) Uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration C) Generates some ATP D) Utilizes an electron transport system

B) Uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration

Please match the description to the correct group of microorganisms. Minute acellular particles that parasitize cells A) Algae B) Viruses C) Bacteria D) Protozoa E) Fungi F) Helminths

B) Viruses

Most antimicrobial drugs are derived from which two bacterial and which two fungal genera? > Bacillus > Streptomyces > Penicillium > Cephalosporium > Clostridium > Saccharomyces

Bacillus Streptomyces Penicillium Cephalosporium

Which term corresponds to 2? > Monera > Domains > Bacteria > Categories > Protista > Eukarya

Bacteria

Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _____.

Bacteriophages

Isela has been tasked with viewing a stained bacterial sample and she is trying to decide the type of microscopy to use. She will want to see the dark color of the stained dead cells clearly. Which type of microscopy will most likely give her the results she is looking for? > Bright field microscopy > Dark field microscopy > Phase microscopy > Photon microscopy

Bright field microscopy

Based on the results of the presumptive test of the Bacterial Examination of Water exercise, match the following: Drinking fountain sample A) 0.43 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml B) 4.6 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml C) 0.061 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml

C) 0.061 most probable number of bacteria per gram/ml

How many micro-liters (μl) are in 2.5 pints? (1 pint = 0.5 qrts and 1 qrt = 0.962 L) A) 4.81 x 105µl B) 4.81 x 10-5µl C) 1.203 x 106µl D) 1.203 x 10-6µl

C) 1.203 x 106µl

Match the following prefixes with their relationship to the standard base unit (g, m, L): Kilo A) 1/100 B) 1/1,000,000 C) 1000 D) 1/1000

C) 1000

Convert 24.3 milliliters (ml) to liters (L). Be sure to use proper scientific notation. A) 2.43 x 10-3L B) 2.43 x 105L C) 2.43 x 10-2L D) 2.43 x 103L

C) 2.43 x 10-2L

Match the following 0.03mm A) 300um B) 3000um C) 30um

C) 30um

You count 64 colonies on the 1:1000 plate from the Bacterial Examination of Food exercise. Calculate the number of bacteria per gram of food (CFU/g). A) 6.4 x 10-4 CFU/g B) 6.4 x 10-3 CFU/g C) 6.4 x 104 CFU/g D) 6.4 x 10-5 CFU/g

C) 6.4 x 104 CFU/g

The following data was obtained when testing the length of time to kill a particular non-spore-forming bacterial species at various temperatures. Identify the thermal death point of this bacterial species. Temperature Time required to kill 50C 25 55C 20 60C 10 65C 8 A) 65C B) 20 minutes C) 60C D) 50C E) 55C F) 10 minutes

C) 60C

Match the following 600cm A) 0.6m B) 60m C) 6m

C) 6m

What is this P200 micropipette set at? A) 950µl B) 95ml C) 95µl D) 9.5µl

C) 95µl

All bacterial cells have A) Fimbriae B) Capsules C) A chromosome D) Flagella E) Endospores

C) A chromosome

Please choose the statement describing why the geographical location of the fungus is so important to the likelihood of infection. A) Some fungi favor warmer climates, and others favor colder climates. therefore, where the human population lives, determines the risk of infection. B) Some fungi favor higher humidity, and others favor lower humidity: therefore, where the human population lives determines the risk of infection. C) A particular genus of fungus may be found in a specific location or habitat, such as the ground around an extensive bird nesting site with the bird droppings, serving as nutrients for the fungus. D) The air quality—clean or polluted—determines the likelihood of fungal infections in the human population.

C) A particular genus of fungus may be found in a specific location or habitat, such as the ground around an extensive bird nesting site with the bird droppings, serving as nutrients for the fungus.

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct description. Substrate-level phosphorylation A) Series of reactions involving electron transport and ATP Synthase B) ATP is formed by means of a light-driven electron transport mechanism C) A process where ATP is formed by transfer of a phosphate group from a high-energy compound directly to ADP

C) A process where ATP is formed by transfer of a phosphate group from a high-energy compound directly to ADP

Please match the primary categories of metabolism with the statements that most accurately describe them. Metabolism A) Larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules B) Larger molecules are built from smaller molecules C) All of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell

C) All of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell

Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes A) High temperature B) Refrigeration and freezing C) All of these choices are correct D) Irradiation E) Pasteurization

C) All of these choices are correct

Why is aseptic technique important? A) To protect others B) To protect yourself C) All of these choices are correct D) To protect your cultures

C) All of these choices are correct

Tuberculin skin testing A) Will be positive in active TB. B) Will be positive if person has had previous exposure. C) All of these choices are correct. D) Injects PPD intradermally. E) Uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

C) All of these choices are correct.

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes A) Intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals B) Genital lesions C) All of these choices are correct D) Infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal E) Symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching

C) All these choices are correct

Which would be the best choice for creating a pure culture from a mixed culture? A) A nutrient broth B) All of these choices would work equally well C) An agar plate D) None of these choices E) An agar slant

C) An agar plate

Which of the following would be the best choice when doing a streak plate for isolation? A) An inoculating needle B) A sterile cotton swab C) An inoculating loop D) A cell spreader

C) An inoculating loop

Please match the following nutritional types with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Chemotroph A) An organism that uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source B) An organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form C) An organism that gains energy from chemical compounds D) An organism that acquires energy from light

C) An organism that gains energy from chemical compounds

Please match the term with its description. Destruction of vegetative pathogens on skin and tissue A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis E) Sanitization

C) Antisepsis

Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except A) Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. B) Sunburn-like rash. C) Appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. D) Fever and muscle pain E) Kidney and liver failure

C) Appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.

The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that A) Are extremely cold B) Have abundant oxygen and CO2 C) Are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2 D) Have sunlight E) Are very acidic

C) Are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2

Match the microscopy vocabulary word with it's definition. Field of view A) Focus is maintained when the magnification is changed B) Ability to distinguish two objects as separate C) Area observed through the ocular lens D) Distance between the specimen and the objective lens

C) Area observed through the ocular lens

Examine Type 4 hypersensitivities by completing the sentence. ____________, or tissue used from one's own body, offer the lowest risk of graft rejection; these are followed by isografts (identical twin donor); ____________, which are the most common source of grafts today; and _____________, which are experimental as genetic engineering works to reduce their antigenicity in humans. A) Xenografts B) Delayed C) Autografts D) Contact dermatitis E) MHC 1 F) T G) Tuberculin H) Allografts I) GVHD J) Type 4

C) Autografts H) Allografts A) Xenografts

Please match the statement to the term that it best describes. Immune responses directed against "self" cells and tissues that damages the host A) Immunodeficiency B) Allergy C) Autoimmunity D) Grafts and transfusions

C) Autoimmunity

Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick? A) Cryptosporidiosis B) Toxoplasmosis C) Babesiosis

C) Babesiosis

Please match the description to the correct group of microorganisms. Single-celled prokaryotes A) Algae B) Viruses C) Bacteria D) Protozoa E) Fungi F) Helminths

C) Bacteria

Review the basic events in the life cycle of Chlamydia by completing each sentence. These bodies multiply by ________________. A) Budding B) Elementary C) Binary fission D) Reticulate E) Phagolysosome F) Meiosis G) Secondary

C) Binary fission

Lyme disease is caused by ______ transmitted by ticks. A) Leptospira interrogans B) Rickettsia typhi C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Proteus vulgaris E) Rickettsia rickettsii

C) Borrelia burgdorferi

The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is A) All of these choices are correct B) Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis C) Botulism D) Bacillus cereus intoxication E) Gastrointestinal anthrax

C) Botulism

Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background? A) Fluorescence B) Phase-contrast C) Bright-field D) Electron E) Dark-field

C) Bright-field

Match the microscope part with it's function. Coarse focus A) Focus light onto the specimen B) Control the amount of light reaching the specimen C) Brings the specimen into general focus D) Increases the detail of the image

C) Brings the specimen into general focus

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed A) Narrow-spectrum drugs B) Semisynthetic drugs C) Broad-spectrum drugs D) Synthetic drugs E) Antibiotics

C) Broad-spectrum drugs

If a codon for alanine is GCA. What is the anticodon? A) ACG B) GCA C) CGU D) CGT E) UGC

C) CGU

All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except A) Histoplasma B) Biastomyces C) Candida D) Paracoccidioides E) Coccidioides

C) Candida

Oral thrush is caused by A) Malassezia furfur B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Candida albicans D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

C) Candida albicans

Which description goes with number 2? A) Carrier is contaminated but not infected. B) Carrier has infection but it is not apparent. C) Carrier transmits infection before or after the period of symptoms.

C) Carrier transmits infection before or after the period of symptoms.

Match the definition with the term it is describing. Competent cell A) Taking up plasmid DNA from the environment B) Plasmid containing genes from different organisms C) Cell capable of transformation

C) Cell capable of transformation

Please match the types of mutations with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of their causes. Substitution mutation A) Random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication that occur without a known cause B) Result from exposure to known mutagens, which are primarily physical or chemical agents that damage DNA C) Changing of single base in the DNA code that may result in the placement of a different amino acid D) Addition or deletion of bases that changes the reading of mRNA codons

C) Changing of single base in the DNA code that may result in the placement of a different amino acid

Match the protist with the supergroup it belongs in Cryptosporidium A) Amoebozoa B) Excavata C) Chromalveolata D) Archaeplastida

C) Chromalveolata

Which Helminth group contains members without a digestive system? A) Phylum Nematoda B) Phylum Cestoda C) Class Cestoda D) Phylum Trematoda

C) Class Cestoda

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis? A) Respiratory infections range from mild to severe B) The pathogen grows inside macrophages C) Histoplasmosis never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract D) Chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis E) Is transmitted by inhalation of spores

C) Histoplasmosis never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract

If you were traveling to Germany and the posted temperature was 32oC, what clothing might you need? A) Clothing appropriate for extreme heat, like summer in the desert B) Clothing appropriate for a cold (but not extreme cold) winter day C) Clothing appropriate for a hot (but not extreme heat) summer day D) Clothing appropriate for extreme cold, like an arctic winter

C) Clothing appropriate for a hot (but not extreme heat) summer day

Please match the clinical stage of infection with its description. Decline of symptoms and return to a state of health A) Prodromal stage B) Period of invasion C) Convalescent period D) Incubation period

C) Convalescent period

Please match the type of T cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors. CD8 A) All T cells B) Helper T cells C) Cytotoxic T cells

C) Cytotoxic T cells

Please match the test with its description to assess your understanding of the kinds of data collected during information gathering and your understanding of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. Analyzing the genotype of an organism A) Appearance B) Biochemical tests C) DNA profiles D) Immunologic testing

C) DNA profiles

Match the plate with it's purpose in the experiment pGLO+ on LB/Amp plate A) Determine whether the experimental procedure is damaging B) Determine whether the bacteria used in the experiment were already resistant to ampicillin C) Determine whether the bacteria successfully took up the pGLO plasmid D) Determine whether the bacteria is capable of expressing the GFP gene

C) Determine whether the bacteria successfully took up the pGLO plasmid

Please match the viral diagnostic method to its description. Used to directly observe viruses in clinical specimens A) PCR B) Immunological testing C) Electron microscopy D) Cell and tissue culture techniques E) Observation of the patient

C) Electron microscopy

Investigate green fluorescent protein online, what does it mean to "fluoresce"? A) Transmission of light by something that has absorbed light B) Absorption of light by something that cannot emit light C) Emission of light by something that has absorbed light D) Reflection of light by something that cannot absorb light

C) Emission of light by something that has absorbed light

Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A) Capsid B) Capsomers C) Envelope D) Genome E) Nucleic acid

C) Envelope

Which of the following viral types enter animal cells via fusion with the animal cell membrane? A) All of these choices are correct B) Non enveloped viruses C) Enveloped viruses D) Naked viruses

C) Enveloped viruses

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. Streptokinase A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots

Please choose the answer that best fills in the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. A molecular fragment of an antigen that serves as the primary signal that the molecule is foreign is called a(n) ______, whereas a small foreign molecule that can only elicit an immune response when linked to another larger molecule is called a(n) ________. A) Allergen; hapten B) Epitope; immunoglobulin C) Epitope; hapten D) Hapten; epitope

C) Epitope; hapten

Match the organism to the supergroup it belongs. Trypanosoma gambiense A) Opisthokonta B) Amoebozoa C) Excavata D) Chromalveolata

C) Excavata

Please match the diseases with their most common portal of exit. Common warts, fungal infections A) Respiratory tract (aerosols) B) GI tract (saliva droplets) C) Exudates from skin lesions D) GI tract (diarrhea) E) Reproductive tract (semen) F) Blood through a contaminated needle

C) Exudates from skin lesions

Which part of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that fold into a groove that will interact directly with and bind to a specific antigen? A) Light chains B) Fc end C) Fab ends D) Heavy chains E) Disulfide bonds

C) Fab ends

Please choose the microbial control method that neither inhibits nor kills microbes, but instead physically removes them from liquids or air. A) Cold sterilization B) Lyophilization C) Filtration D) Desiccation E) Irradiation

C) Filtration

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A) Metachromatic granules B) Fimbriae C) Flagella D) Mesosomes E) Capsules

C) Flagella

Please match the types of RNA with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Ribosomal RNA A) Transcribed version of a structural gene or genes in DNA B) Contains the anticodon and an amino acid binding site C) Forms a complex cellular structure that contributes to the process of translation

C) Forms a complex cellular structure that contributes to the process of translation

If we were to plate successfully transformed cells on the agar plates below, which one would have glowing colonies? A) Glucose and sucrose B) Glucose C) Glucose and arabinose

C) Glucose and arabinose

You are studying a new variant of a eukaryotic cell. The variant cell has mutated so that it no longer attaches well to surfaces or initiates the formation of a biofilm. The mutation in this cell has most likely affected the _____. A) Cell membrane B) Mitochondria C) Glycocalyx D) Flagellum

C) Glycocalyx

An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an A) Trace element B) Macronutrient C) Growth factor D) Element E) Water

C) Growth factor

Which of the following is not considered a lymphoid organ or tissue? A) Thymus B) Bone marrow C) Heart D) Spleen E) Lymph node

C) Heart

Please match the specific immune response phase with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the overall phases in a specific immune response. Involves production of antibodies by plasma cells A) Antigen-Independent Development B) Antigen Contract C) Humoral Immunity D) Cell-Mediated Immunity E) Antigen Presentation

C) Humoral Immunity

Please match the categories of laboratory identification processes with their descriptions. Serological analysis of the blood to detect antibodies A) Genotypic B) Phenotypic C) Immunologic

C) Immunologic

Passive immunization, in which a person is given antibodies, is a type of ___________ A) Autoimmunity B) Innate immunity C) Immunotherapy D) Cell-mediated immunity

C) Immunotherapy

Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea? A) A human's large intestine B) A sewage treatment plant C) In a hot spring D) A beer production facility E) A pond

C) In a hot spring

All of the following may be targeted by TC cells, except A) Viral-infected host cells B) Cancer cells C) Invading bacterial cells D) All of these cells could be targeted by TC cells E) Cells in transplanted tissue from an imperfectly matched donor

C) Invading bacterial cells

The secondary stage of syphilis A) Is when gummas develop in tissues B) Is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. C) Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. D) Occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. E) Has no symptoms

C) Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

Please choose the answer that describes the function of the Golgi complex. A) It synthesizes, stores and transports lipids B) It produces the energy needed to fuel the cell C) It adds lipids and sugars to proteins and then packages these proteins for transport to their final destination D) It stores DNA of the cell and produces RNA from the DNA E) It synthesizes, stores, and transports proteins

C) It adds lipids and sugars to proteins and then packages these proteins for transport to their final destination

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the A) Log phase B) Death phase C) Lag phase D) Stationary phase E) Prophase

C) Lag phase

Which gram positive bacilli matches with number 2's image/description? A) Clostridium B) Corynebacterium C) Listeria D) Mycobacterium E) Bacillus F) Propionibacterium

C) Listeria

Please match the description to the pattern of infection. Microbe enters the body and remains confined to a specific tissue A) Acute infection B) Systemic infection C) Localized infection D) Chronic infection E) Secondary infection

C) Localized infection

Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A) Galt B) Spleen C) Lymph nodes D) Tonsils E) Thymus

C) Lymph nodes

Which of the following terms is associated with the release of nonenveloped or complex viruses from the host cell? A) Budding B) Exocytosis C) Lysis D) Phagocytosis E) Endocytosis

C) Lysis

A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A) Chocolate agar B) Nutrient agar C) Mannitol salt agar D) Blood agar E) macConkey agar

C) Mannitol salt agar

Proteins produced by Escherichia coli can prevent the growth of pathogenic bacteria such as Salmonella and Shigella. This is an example of _________________________. A) Microbial association B) Microbial inhibition C) Microbial antagonism D) Microbial immunity E) Microbial resistance

C) Microbial antagonism

Choose the answer that fills in the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. Of the microscopic fungi, ____ are filamentous fungi made of long thread-like cells called hyphae while _____ are round or oval-shaped. A) Yeast; molds B) Molds; mushrooms C) Molds; yeast D) Mushrooms; molds

C) Molds; yeast

Please match the white blood cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the behavior of white blood cells. Mature into macrophages and dendritic cells A) Red blood cells B) B cells C) Monocytes D) Platelets E) Neutrophils

C) Monocytes

The term heterotroph refers to an organism that A) Gets energy by oxidizing inorganic compounds B) Uses CO2 for its carbon source C) Most obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs D) Gets energy from sunlight E) Does not need a carbon source

C) Most obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs

Which of the following is correct about viruses? A) Viruses contain 70S ribosomes B) Viruses are prokaryotic C) Most viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope D) Viruses undergo binary fission E) Viruses can be grown on nutrient agar

C) Most viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is A) Mycoplasma B) Corynebacterium C) Mycobacterium D) Streptococcus E) Salmonella

C) Mycobacterium

Together, the capsid and the nucleic acid are referred to as the _____. A) Spike B) Envelope C) Nucleocapsid D) Genome

C) Nucleocapsid

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A) Amino acids B) Histones C) Nucleotides D) Polymerases E) mRNA

C) Nucleotides

________________halophiles require at least a 9% salt concentration in order to grow, whereas ______________ halophiles can adapt to a wide range of solute concentrations. A) Facultative; obligate B) Osmotolerant; obligate C) Obligate; facultative D) Osmotolerant; facultative E) Facultative; osmotolerant

C) Obligate; facultative

Please match the statement to the term that it most accurately describes, to test your understanding of types of symbiotic associations. Parasitism A) Organisms living in obligatory but mutually beneficial relationships. B) One organism benefits while the other organism is neither harmed nor benefited C) One organism is harmed when it provides the other organism with nutrients and a habitat

C) One organism is harmed when it provides the other organism with nutrients and a habitat

Match the nutritional category of microbe to its source of carbon and its energy source. Photoheterotroph A) Carbon dioxide and simple inorganic chemicals B) Organic carbon and metabolic conversion of the nutrients from other organisms C) Organic carbon and sunlight D) Carbon dioxide and sunlight

C) Organic carbon and sunlight

Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the A) Herpesviruses B) Poxviruses C) Parvoviruses D) Papovaviruses E) Adenoviruses

C) Parvoviruses

Disease-causing microorganisms are called A) Eukaryotes B) Decomposers C) Pathogens D) Prokaryotes E) Fermenters

C) Pathogens

While the vast majority of microorganisms are not harmful to humans those that are are referred to as A) Bacteria B) Symbionts C) Pathogens D) Fungi

C) Pathogens

Match the stain with it's role in the staining procedure Malachite Green A) Mordant for Gram Stains B) Mordant for Endospore Stain C) Primary stain for Endospore Stain D) Secondary stain for Acid-Fast stain

C) Primary stain for Endospore Stain

Please choose the answer that best fills in the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. Immunodeficiency diseases that are congenital (present at birth) and genetic in origin are referred to as _______ immunodeficiency diseases, whereas those that are acquired during an individual's lifetime and are not genetic in origin are referred to as _______ immunodeficiency diseases. A) Innate; adaptive B) Secondary; primary C) Primary; secondary D) True; opportunistic

C) Primary; secondary

Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to ___infection. A) E. coli O157:H7 B) Bordetella pertussis C) Pseudomonas D) Shigella E) Yersinia pestis

C) Pseudomonas

Which of the following would be a significant risk factor for the development of listeriosis? A) Being a vegan B) Consumption of meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products C) Receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmune disease D) Consuming home-canned foods

C) Receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmune disease

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A) Mitosis B) Translation C) Replication D) Mutation E) Transcription

C) Replication

Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A) Magnification B) Refraction C) Resolving power D) All of these answers are correct

C) Resolving power

The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is A) Digestive system B) Nervous system C) Respiratory tract D) Through skin E) Urinary tract

C) Respiratory tract

A private in the U.S. Army is stationed at Ft. Bragg, North Carolina. He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever. Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several days earlier. Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. Which of the following should be considered first in the diagnosis? A) Epidemic typhus B) Lyme disease C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) Tularemia E) Anthrax

C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is A) Influenza viruses B) Rhinoviruses C) Rotavirus D) Coxsackie viruses E) Caliciviruses

C) Rotavirus

Look up the typical uses of SDA and TSA media. Which one would be best for culturing fungi? A) TSA B) Neither; they both inhibit fungal growth C) SDA D) Either; they would both work equally well

C) SDA

The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides B) Spirulina C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Propionibacterium E) Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus

C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

During a fermentation experiment in lab, two different samples of grape juice have been inoculated with yeast. Air has been evacuated from sample I, but not from sample II. In which sample would you predict to the greater alcohol production? A) Similar alcohol production is expected in both samples B) Sample II C) Sample I D) This cannot be predicted based on the information provided

C) Sample I

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A) Agglutination B) Precipitation C) Sensitivity D) Cross-relations E) Specificity

C) Sensitivity

Please match the technologies with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the methods and characteristics used in classifying bacteria. These tests use antibody reactions to identify an organism or to determine relatedness A) Morphology B) Bacterial physiology/biochemistry C) Serological analysis D) Genetic techniques

C) Serological analysis

The capacity of photosynthesis to convert ________ energy into ________ energy provides both a nutritional and an energy basis for all heterotrophic living things. A) Atomic; chemical B) Solar; thermal C) Solar; chemical D) Chemical; atomic E) Chemical; solar

C) Solar; chemical

Occasionally, an episode of food poisoning occurs which centers around processed ham, sausage, or salted pork. These episodes are almost always assumed to be due to ingestion of Staphylococcus aureus unless other evidence proves differently. This is because A) People whose diet include high-fat foods such as these are more susceptible to infection with Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus aureus is one of the few bacteria able to multiply in foods as salty as sausage, ham, or salted pork. C) Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for most episodes of food poisoning. D) Staphylococcus aureus is able to take advantage of the high-fat content found in these foods better than other bacterial species.

C) Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for most episodes of food poisoning.

According to the results of the growth on the blood agar plate, match the organism with its hemolysis pattern. Gamma Hemolysis A) Lactococcus lactis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague? A) Less than 10 cases per year occur in the U.S. B) Mice, voles, and other rodents are primary long-term reservoirs. C) Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today compared to strains prevalent in the Middle Ages. D) The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis. E) It is transmitted by flea vectors.

C) Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today compared to strains prevalent in the Middle Ages.

Which bacteria causes infections seen in chart 3? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Please choose the best explanation as to why the systemic mycoses resemble the symptomology of tuberculosis. A) The systemic mycoses are caused by the same organism that causes tuberculosis. B) A very close relative of the agent of tuberculosis also causes the systemic mycoses. C) The infections progress slowly, causing lung damage and affecting respiration and oxygenation of the body. D) All lung infections are similar in their symptomology and pathogenicity, no matter what the causative agent.

C) The infections progress slowly, causing lung damage and affecting respiration and oxygenation of the body.

Please choose the correct statement regarding syphilitic symptoms. A) A rash is usually the first symptom that occurs in syphilis. B) The organism may be transmitted from woman to newborn baby as it travels through the vagina or birth canal. C) The most severe and life-threatening symptoms occur when gummas form in the brain. D) One can directly isolate and identify the bacterium in all 3 stages of syphilis. E) If the syphilitic symptoms disappear, it is likely that the disease has spontaneously resolved itself and, if symptoms do not return within a year, the person is cured.

C) The most severe and life-threatening symptoms occur when gummas form in the brain.

All of the following are problems in the management of antibiotic usage, except A) The sale of many antibiotics over-the-counter in foreign countries. B) There are no exceptions here. All of these are challenges in the management of antibiotic usage. C) The selection of antibiotics based on results of appropriate antibiotic susceptibility testing. D) Extensive use of broad-spectrum drugs for minor infections. E) The use of antibiotics for upper respiratory viral infections.

C) The selection of antibiotics based on results of appropriate antibiotic susceptibility testing.

The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the A) Sporicidal time B) Death phase point C) Thermal death time (TDT) D) Thermal death point (TDP)

C) Thermal death time (TDT)

Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. A) Water B) Element C) Trace element D) Growth factors E) Macronutrient

C) Trace element

Folding of the 5' end of a mRNA, such that binding to the ribosome is altered, is most likely to affect A) Transformation B) Replication C) Translation D) Transcription

C) Translation

Choose the answer that fills in the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. Most protozoa have a motile, feeding stage known as a(n) _____ which, in some protozoa, alternates with a resting state known as a(n) _____. A) Cyst; trophozoite B) Trophozoite; spore C) Trophozoite; cyst D) Spore; trophozoite

C) Trophozoite; cyst

All of the following are helminths except A) Tapeworms B) Roundworms C) Trypanosomes D) Flukes E) Pinworms

C) Trypanosomes

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A) Pertussis B) Legionellosis C) Tularemia D) Shigellosis E) Brucellosis

C) Tularemia

What is the purpose of the arabinose in the LB/Amp/Ara agar? A) Origin of replication B) Selective marker C) Turn on GFP expression D) Gene of interest

C) Turn on GFP expression

Please choose the statement that describes the basic difference between Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions and the other types of hypersensitivities. A) Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are also referred to as anaphylaxis. B) Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are largely caused by IgE antibodies. C) Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions occur in response to soluble, not cell-associated antigens. D) Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions usually involve the response of cytotoxic T cells. E) Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions often result in extensive hemolysis.

C) Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions occur in response to soluble, not cell-associated antigens.

Documented transmission of HIV involves A) Mosquitoes B) All of these choices are correct C) Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products D) Contaminated food E) Respiratory droplets

C) Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is A) Direct B) Droplet nuclei C) Vehicle D) Aerosol E) Fomite

C) Vehicle

Please match the descriptions with the correct bacterial genus to test your understanding of curve-shaped bacteria. A comma-shaped bacterium A) Helicobacter B) Campylobacter C) Vibrio

C) Vibrio

Please match the cell types with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Does not contain organelles and cannot replicate independently A) Prokaryotic cells B) Eukaryotic cells C) Viruses D) Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells E) Prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells and viruses

C) Viruses

The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a/an A) Autograft B) Allograft C) Xenograft D) Homograft E) Heterograft

C) Xenograft

After sterilizing your inoculating loop with the microincinerator, A) It is ok to touch the loop. B) You should lay it down on the bench to free up your hands. C) You should let it cool for several seconds before you dip it in the broth culture. D) You should immediately dip it in the broth culture before it becomes contaminated.

C) You should let it cool for several seconds before you dip it in the broth culture.

Choose all of the correct statements below? > COC's microbiology laboratory is a BSL-2 lab > Gloves are not necessary when working with BSL-2 organisms > Gloves should always be worn during staining > COC's microbiology laboratory is a BSL-3 lab > Gloves should be worn at all times in COC's microbiology laboratory > Lab coats should be worn at all times in COC's microbiology laboratory > No open flames are permitted in COC's microbiology laboratory > It is okay to have mobile phones and laptops on the bench in COC's microbiology laboratory

COC's microbiology laboratory is a BSL-2 lab Gloves should always be worn during staining Lab coats should be worn at all times in COC's microbiology laboratory No open flames are permitted in COC's microbiology laboratory

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. _____________ is a member of the normal microbiota in about 20% of humans. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

Candida albicans

Please select all of the correct descriptions of candidiasis. > Candida albicans is always a pathogen for humans. > Candidiasis is a problem only for the immunosuppressed > Candida albicans can be normal flora for women > Candida albicans is a yeast > Anyone, of any age, can have candidiasis

Candida albicans can be normal flora for women Candida albicans is a yeast Anyone, of any age, can have candidiasis

Please select each of the common reservoirs of rabies listed below. > Canines > Skunks, raccoons, and badgers > Birds > Bats > Reptiles

Canines Skunks, raccoons, and badgers Bats

Which description(s) correspond to class Prokaryote in order to test your understanding of the characteristics of prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses. > Must be viewed with an electron microscope > Acellular particle > Size range: 10-200nm > Cell type that lacks a nucleus > Contains a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles > Size range: 1-10μm

Cell type that lacks a nucleus Size range: 1-10μm

Please order the following choices to reflect the stages of the inflammatory response, from the first to the last. > Neutrophils clean up the area by phagocytosis of microbes and dead cells; accumulation can contribute to pus. > Chemical mediators are released by tissue cells in response to injury or infection. > Vasodilation of the blood vessels to increase blood flow > Permeability of the capillaries increases, allowing plasma and WBCs to exit the blood vessels into the inflamed tissue. > Regeneration of the tissue or formation of scar tissue completes the repair process. > WBCs migrate through the tissue spaces toward the actual site of injury or infection.

Chemical mediators are released by tissue cells in response to injury or infection. Vasodilation of the blood vessels to increase blood flow Permeability of the capillaries increases, allowing plasma and WBCs to exit the blood vessels into the inflamed tissue. WBCs migrate through the tissue spaces toward the actual site of injury or infection. Neutrophils clean up the area by phagocytosis of microbes and dead cells; accumulation can contribute to pus. Regeneration of the tissue or formation of scar tissue completes the repair process.

Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.

Chemotaxis

What level of taxonomy is Hymenostomea single cells with regular rows of cilia; rapid swimmers?

Class

Using a negative stain, the cells would be colored while the background would be clear.

Clear, colored

Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a _____.

Clone

Please choose the answers that correctly describe the virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus. > Coagulase enzyme causes blood plasma to clot. > Staphylokinase enzyme destroys red blood cells. > Penicillinase enzyme allows S. aureus to grow in the presence of penicillin. > Hyaluronidase enzyme promotes invasion of host tissues. > Lipase enzyme causes a fever in the host.

Coagulase enzyme causes blood plasma to clot. Penicillinase enzyme allows S. aureus to grow in the presence of penicillin. Hyaluronidase enzyme promotes invasion of host tissues.

Please select the three major mechanisms by which antimicrobial resistance genes are shared and spread among microbial populations. > Conjugation > Spread from human hosts to bacteria > Transduction > Transformation > Transcription > Taking antibiotics

Conjugation Transduction Transformation

Which description(s) correspond to class Eukaryote in order to test your understanding of the characteristics of prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses. > Must be viewed with an electron microscope > Acellular particle > Size range: 10-200nm > Cell type that lacks a nucleus > Contains a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles > Size range: 1-10μm

Contains a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles

Please select all of the following which are characteristics of the nucleus to test your understanding of the structure of the nucleus > Contains nuclear pores for transporting materials out of the nucleus > Contains a ribosome > Contains a granular mass known as a nucleolus > Contains DNA in the form of chromosomes > Is surrounded by one membrane

Contains nuclear pores for transporting materials out of the nucleus Contains a granular mass known as a nucleolus Contains DNA in the form of chromosomes

Which of the following should be disposed of in the biohazard trashcan when finished? (Choose all that apply) > Glass slides > Contaminated paper towels > Used gloves that are not contaminated > Used gloves that are contaminated > Plastic petri dishes with bacterial cultures > Serological pipettes > Bacterial cultures in glass test tubes > Uncontaminated paper towels > Flasks > Broken glass

Contaminated paper towels Used gloves that are not contaminated Used gloves that are contaminated Plastic petri dishes with bacterial cultures

Please select the genera that are considered to be irregular gram-positive bacilli. > Corynebacterium > Propionibacterium > Clostridium > Mycobacterium > Actinomyces

Corynebacterium Propionibacterium Mycobacterium Actinomyces

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. ___________ is a yeast that can cause respiratory, central nervous, and mucocutaneous infections in these patients with an immunocompromised status. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

Cryptococcus

Please select all of the organisms on this list that belong to the protozoan class of apicomplexans. > Cyclospora > Cryptosporidium > Giardia > Toxoplasma > Plasmodium

Cryptosporidium Toxoplasma Plasmodium

During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a _____.

Cyst

Many protozoan species can form a _____ that can survive for periods outside a host.

Cyst

Please order the following choices to reflect the generalized anatomy of bacterial cells with "1" being the innermost cell component and "4" being the outermost cell component. > Glycocalyx > Cell membrane > Cell wall > Cytoplasmic matrix

Cytoplasmic matrix Cell membrane Cell wall Glycocalyx

All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except A) 2.0 µm B) 0.2 µm C) 0.3 µm D) 0.1 µm E) 0.2 µm

D) 0.1 µm

When performing the quadrant streak plate technique for isolation, how many times do you transfer inoculum from the stock culture? A) 2 B) 4 C) 3 D) 1

D) 1

Please match the types of mutations with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of their causes. Frameshift mutation A) Random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication that occur without a known cause B) Result from exposure to known mutagens, which are primarily physical or chemical agents that damage DNA C) Changing of single base in the DNA code that may result in the placement of a different amino acid D) Addition or deletion of bases that changes the reading of mRNA codons

D) Addition or deletion of bases that changes the reading of mRNA codons

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A) Endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space B) Always motile C) Helical shape D) All are pathogenic E) Gram-negative

D) All are pathogenic

Endospores are A) Resistant to destruction by radiation B) Metabolically inactive C) Resistant to heat and chemical destruction D) All of these choices are correct E) Living structures

D) All of these choices are correct

Anthrax is A) Only seen sporadically in the United States. B) A zoonosis C) Transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion. D) All of these choices are correct. E) A disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Please choose the correct statement comparing Bacillus cereus to Clostridium perfringens. A) Both bacterial infections are mediated by ingested endospores B) Similar foods can be the carrier material for the endospores of both organisms. C) The symptoms of the two diseases are similar. D) All of these choices are correct. E) Both bacteria are gram-positive rods.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Please select the answer that describes the state of diagnostics for tuberculosis infections. A) The skin test is not a definitive test because it does not identify if the person has a present infection. B) Genetic tests such as PCR and gene probes give accurate, fast molecular identification of the organism. C) The X-ray may not show small tubercles. D) All of these choices are correct. E) Culturing and identifying the bacterium is very tedious and time-consuming.

D) All of these choices are correct.

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is A) Griseofulvin B) Nystatin C) Sulfa drugs D) Amphotericin B E) Metronidazole

D) Amphotericin B

Please match the following nutritional types with the statements that most accurately describe them, to test your understanding of the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Phototroph A) An organism that uses inorganic carbon dioxide as its carbon source B) An organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form C) An organism that gains energy from chemical compounds D) An organism that acquires energy from light

D) An organism that acquires energy from light

A severe, life-threatening systemic Type 1 allergic response, occurring most often due to an injected antigen, is known as ________. A) Autoimmunity B) Atopy C) Hemolytic disease D) Anaphylaxis

D) Anaphylaxis

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called A) Broad-spectrum drugs B) Semisynthetic drugs C) Narrow-spectrum drugs D) Antibiotics E) Synthetic drugs

D) Antibiotics

Match the protist with the supergroup it belongs in Green algae A) Amoebozoa B) Excavata C) Chromalveolata D) Archaeplastida

D) Archaeplastida

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms A) Are not affected by antimicrobics. B) Do not cause many human infections. C) Have fewer target sites compared to bacteria. D) Are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve. E) Are parasites found inside human cells.

D) Are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve.

Please choose the term that describes a type of adaptive immunity occurring when a child gets the chickenpox vaccine. A) Artificial passive immunity B) Natural active immunity C) Natural passive immunity D) Artificial active immunity

D) Artificial active immunity

Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides ________________ whereas the vaccine promotes the development of _______________. A) Artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity B) Artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity; natural active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity

D) Artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity

Please match the term with its description. Techniques that prevent the entry of microorganisms into sterile tissue A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis E) Sanitization

D) Asepsis

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A) Golden B) Pale orange C) Lemon yellow D) Blue-green E) Red-orange

D) Blue-green

Please match the cell types with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Contains ribosomes and enzymes A) Prokaryotic cells B) Eukaryotic cells C) Viruses D) Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells E) Prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells and viruses

D) Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

All of the following are communicable diseases, except A) Measles B) Pertussis (whooping cough) C) Influenza D) Botulism

D) Botulism

How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? A) Bursting the host cell B) Endocytosis C) Rupturing virus D) Budding or exocytosis

D) Budding or exocytosis

The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the A) Prophase B) Death phase C) Stationary phase D) Log phase E) Lag phase

D) Log phase

Match the nutritional category of microbe to its source of carbon and its energy source. Photoautotroph A) Carbon dioxide and simple inorganic chemicals B) Organic carbon and metabolic conversion of the nutrients from other organisms C) Organic carbon and sunlight D) Carbon dioxide and sunlight

D) Carbon dioxide and sunlight

Please match the viral diagnostic method to its description. Used to cultivate viruses and observe cytopathic effects on host cells A) PCR B) Immunological testing C) Electron microscopy D) Cell and tissue culture techniques E) Observation of the patient

D) Cell and tissue culture techniques

Please match the specific immune response phase with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the overall phases in a specific immune response. Involves helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells A) Antigen-Independent Development B) Antigen Contract C) Humoral Immunity D) Cell-Mediated Immunity E) Antigen Presentation

D) Cell-Mediated Immunity

The concept of _______ describes the active transport of protons across a membrane to set up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force to set the stage for ATP synthesis. A) Glycolysis B) Phosphorylation C) Photosynthesis D) Chemiosmosis

D) Chemiosmosis

Match the organism to the supergroup it belongs. Plasmodium sp. A) Opisthokonta B) Amoebozoa C) Excavata D) Chromalveolata

D) Chromalveolata

Please match the description to the pattern of infection. An infection that progresses and persists over a longer period of time; symptoms often less severe A) Acute infection B) Systemic infection C) Localized infection D) Chronic infection E) Secondary infection

D) Chronic infection

According to the _________________ theory, early undifferentiated lymphocytes in the embryo and fetus undergo a continuous series of divisions and genetic changes that generate hundreds of millions of different cell types, each carrying a particular receptor. A) Genetic recombination B) Clonal deletion C) Molecular mimicry D) Clonal selection

D) Clonal selection

Examine Type 4 hypersensitivities by completing the sentence. The most common delayed allergic reaction, however, is __________________, which occurs after exposure to antigens in plant resins, drugs or personal articles, and involves the production of inflammatory cytokines that cause blistering. A) Xenografts B) Delayed C) Autografts D) Contact dermatitis E) MHC 1 F) T G) Tuberculin H) Allografts I) GVHD J) Type 4

D) Contact dermatitis

Infection with Entamoeaba histolytica ordinarily begins when A) Mosquitoes transmit trophozoites while obtaining a blood meal. B) Mosquitoes transmit cysts while obtaining a blood meal. C) Trophozoites enter through nose while swimming and travel to the brain. D) Cysts are eaten E) Trophozoites are inhaled

D) Cysts are eaten

All of the following pertain to glycolysis EXCEPT A) Occurs during formation B) Involves reduction of NAD C) Occurs without oxygen D) Degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O E) Ends with formation of pyruvic acid

D) Degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O

Match the plate with it's purpose in the experiment pGLO+ on LB/Amp/Ara plate A) Determine whether the experimental procedure is damaging B) Determine whether the bacteria used in the experiment were already resistant to ampicillin C) Determine whether the bacteria successfully took up the pGLO plasmid D) Determine whether the bacteria is capable of expressing the GFP gene

D) Determine whether the bacteria is capable of expressing the GFP gene

Match the microscopy vocabulary word with it's definition. Working distance A) Focus is maintained when the magnification is changed B) Ability to distinguish two objects as separate C) Area observed through the ocular lens D) Distance between the specimen and the objective lens

D) Distance between the specimen and the objective lens

The core of every virus particle always contains A) DNA and RNA B) Enzymes C) DNA D) Either DNA or RNA E) Capsomers

D) Either DNA or RNA

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is A) Kidney failure B) Paralysis C) Myocarditis D) Encephalitis E) Shingles

D) Encephalitis

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is A) Toxic shock syndrome toxin B) Hemolysin C) Enterotoxin D) Exfoliative toxin E) Erythrogenic toxin

D) Exfoliative toxin

The most damaging type of mutation is a A) Silent mutation B) Point mutation C) All the choices are equally damaging D) Frameshift mutation E) Back mutation

D) Frameshift mutation

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. A) Protozoan B) Helminthic C) Virus D) Fungal E) Bacterial

D) Fungal

Please match the diseases with their most common portal of exit. Cholera A) Respiratory tract (aerosols) B) GI tract (saliva droplets) C) Exudates from skin lesions D) GI tract (diarrhea) E) Reproductive tract (semen) F) Blood through a contaminated needle

D) GI tract (diarrhea)

Please match the technologies with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the methods and characteristics used in classifying bacteria. These tests use DNA to determine the identity of an organism A) Morphology B) Bacterial physiology/biochemistry C) Serological analysis D) Genetic techniques

D) Genetic techniques

Please match the statement to the term that it best describes. Stimulate immune responses directed against cells and tissues from a different individual or a different place on the individual that may destroy these cells and tissues A) Immunodeficiency B) Allergy C) Autoimmunity D) Grafts and transfusions

D) Grafts and transfusions

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of A) Gram-positive bacteria B) Protoplasts C) Acid-fast bacteria D) Gram-negative bacteria E) Mycoplasmas

D) Gram-negative bacteria

A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is A) A spheroplast B) Archaea C) Gram-negative D) Gram-positive E) Acid fast

D) Gram-positive

Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A) Often encode enzymes for catabolic pathways B) Include the lac operon C) Are normally turned off D) Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product E) Are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme

D) Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

Which is mismatched? A) Poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity B) Food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity C) Serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity D) Hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity E) Transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity

D) Hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity

How were the cells made competent during the procedure? A) Heat shock only B) Calcium chloride only C) Electroporation D) Heat shock along with the calcium chloride

D) Heat shock along with the calcium chloride

The disease that has been named "acquired immune deficiency syndrome" by the medical community is caused by _________________ virus. A) Human T-cell lymphotropic B) Human immunocompetency C) Herpes simplex D) Human immunodeficiency

D) Human immunodeficiency

As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. A) Phosphate B) NADH C) ATP D) Hydrogen ions E) Oxygen

D) Hydrogen ions

Please match the test with its description to assess your understanding of the kinds of data collected during information gathering and your understanding of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. Tests the organism against known antibodies to determine if there is a reaction between the organism and the antibody A) Appearance B) Biochemical tests C) DNA profiles D) Immunologic testing

D) Immunologic testing

Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri-dish, outside of a living host, are referred to as _______________ whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as ______________. A) In loco; In vivo B) In loco; In vitro C) In vitro; In loco D) In vitro; In vivo

D) In vitro; In vivo

Match the microscope part with it's function. Fine focus A) Focus light onto the specimen B) Control the amount of light reaching the specimen C) Brings the specimen into general focus D) Increases the detail of the image

D) Increases the detail of the image

Encouraging the growth of a microbe by altering the temperature, along with the concentration of gases like oxygen, or carbon dioxide is best referred to as A) Inspection B) Inoculation C) Identification D) Incubation E) Isolation

D) Incubation

Please match the clinical stage of infection with its description. Period of time from initial contact with pathogen to appearance of very first symptoms A) Prodromal stage B) Period of invasion C) Convalescent period D) Incubation period

D) Incubation period

The presence of microbes in the bladder is indicative of __________. A) Indigenous microflora B) Microbial infiltration C) Transient microbiota D) Infection E) Resident microbiota

D) Infection

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A) A syndrome B) Latency C) Toxemia D) Inflammation E) Sequelae

D) Inflammation

Please choose the answer that explains how the chemical leukocidin, produced by S. aureus, affects the host. A) The skin begins to peel away from underlying tissues. B) The immune system is not able to make antibodies. C) It causes the production of boils all over the body. D) Inflammation and phagocytosis are severely compromised.

D) Inflammation and phagocytosis are severely compromised.

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Ingestant - food additive B) Ingestant - nut C) Contactant - rubber D) Inhalant - bee sting E) Injection - vaccine

D) Inhalant - bee sting

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by A) Treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy. B) Treating the fetus with immune globulin. C) Birth by cesarean section. D) Injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.

D) Injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.

All of the following pertain to HIV, except A) It can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities B) It has reverse transcriptase C) It attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors D) It causes Kaposi' sarcoma E) The viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus

D) It causes Kaposi' sarcoma

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except A) It has a 30-50 day incubation period B) It multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland C) It is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva D) It infects the respiratory epithelium E) It can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants

D) It infects the respiratory epithelium

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except A) Signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli. B) It occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. C) Bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. D) It is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. E) Oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.

D) It is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except A) Sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber and raises their temperatures. B) It is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself. C) It is important not to overload the chamber. D) It is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances. E) The duration of the process depends on how full the chamber is.

D) It is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.

Please choose the answer that indicates the significance of E. coli O157:H7 to test your understanding of this organism. A) It is the only strain of E. coli that produces the toxin that causes endotoxic shock. B) It is the most common opportunistic pathogen in the hospital setting. C) It has been linked to various forms of cancer and autoimmune diseases. D) Its role in food-borne illness outbreaks has prompted random testing and required labeling of meat products.

D) Its role in food-borne illness outbreaks has prompted random testing and required labeling of meat products.

All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except A) Persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors. B) Persons with this type of blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. C) This is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S. D) Persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC.

D) Persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC.

Please match the white blood cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the behavior of white blood cells. Involved in blood clotting A) Red blood cells B) B cells C) Monocytes D) Platelets E) Neutrophils

D) Platelets

Please choose the correct statement about pneumococcal pneumonia. A) Pneumonia is not bacterial; it occurs when an object or fluids are aspirated into the lungs. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a rare bacteria, not commonly found in healthy individuals. C) Streptococcus pneumonia is commonly found within the vagina, but when it gets into the lungs, it causes pneumonia. Incorrect D) Pneumonia is a common secondary infection, occurring after a person's defenses are depleted.

D) Pneumonia is a common secondary infection, occurring after a person's defenses are depleted.

Infectious protein particles are called A) Oncogenic viruses B) Viroids C) Spikes D) Prions E) Phages

D) Prions

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. M protein A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis

For persons with a certain types of heart defects, including artificial valves or a history of infective endocarditis, antibiotics are often prescribed prior to dental procedures to prevent possible infection. This strategy would be best described as A) Combined antimicrobic therapy B) Synthetic therapy C) Synergy D) Prophylaxis

D) Prophylaxis

Please match the description to the correct group of microorganisms. Unicellular eukaryotes often described as animal-like A) Algae B) Viruses C) Bacteria D) Protozoa E) Fungi F) Helminths

D) Protozoa

A _____ is a single species/type of bacterium being cultured (grown) in media (a plate, slant, or broth). A) Subculture B) Streak plate C) Spore D) Pure culture E) Mixed culture

D) Pure culture

Review the basic events in the life cycle of Chlamydia by completing each sentence. Inside the phagosome, this infectious body develops into a ______________ body. A) Budding B) Elementary C) Binary fission D) Reticulate E) Phagolysosome F) Meiosis G) Secondary

D) Reticulate

Review the basic events in the life cycle of Chlamydia by completing each sentence. The mature _______________ bodies are reorganized into elementary bodies, which are released from the host cell.A) Budding B) Elementary C) Binary fission D) Reticulate E) Phagolysosome F) Meiosis G) Secondary

D) Reticulate

A protein being synthesized by a cell for export would follow which pathway in the cell? A) Ribosome to lysosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane B) Ribosome to cell membrane C) Ribosome to Golgi apparatus to endoplasmic reticulum to cell membrane D) Ribosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane

D) Ribosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane

Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis? A) Joseph Lister B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek C) Ignaz Semmelweis D) Robert Koch E) Louis Pasteur

D) Robert Koch

Match the stain with it's role in the staining procedure Methylene blue A) Mordant for Gram Stains B) Mordant for Endospore Stain C) Primary stain for Endospore Stain D) Secondary stain for Acid-Fast stain

D) Secondary stain for Acid-Fast stain

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A) Hypersensitivity dose B) Desensitizing dose C) Allergic dose D) Sensitizing dose E) Provocative dose

D) Sensitizing dose

Which animals serve as intermediate hosts for human schistosomes? A) Humans B) Mosquitoes C) Fish D) Snails E) Reduviid bugs

D) Snails

T cells don't function properly in patients with DiGeorge syndrome because A) Autoantibodies attack newly synthesized T cells B) T cells can't develop properly because of a lack of thymic activity C) B cells that release growth factor are in short supply D) Stem cells in the bone marrow don't develop into T cells

D) Stem cells in the bone marrow don't develop into T cells

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Staphylococcus epidermidis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

D) Streptococcus pyogenes

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except A) If virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed. B) It can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea. C) There are effective vaccines to prevent polio. D) Summer outbreaks in the United States have been recently increasing. E) It is transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water.

D) Summer outbreaks in the United States have been recently increasing.

The general term used to denote a situation in which two organisms live together in a close partnership required by one or both members is ______. A) Antibiosis B) Synergy C) Mutualism D) Symbiosis

D) Symbiosis

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A) All of these choices are correct B) Latent C) Secondary D) Tertiary E) Primary

D) Tertiary

Which is incorrect about rabies? A) Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs. B) It is a zoonotic disease. C) Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation. D) The average incubation in humans is one week. E) Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis.

D) The average incubation in humans is one week.

Please select the statement which explains why it is important to be able to differentiate between the coliform and noncoliform members of the Enterobacteriaceae family. A) The coliforms and noncoliforms are treated with completely different antibiotics. B) Coliforms are found in humans, while the noncoliforms are associated with animals. C) The coliforms are transmitted human-to-human, while the noncoliforms are not. D) The noncoliform bacteria are the true pathogens of this family, while the coliforms are opportunistic pathogens. E) Coliforms are gram-negative while noncoliforms are gram-positive.

D) The noncoliform bacteria are the true pathogens of this family, while the coliforms are opportunistic pathogens.

The thermal death time for E. coli at 63°C was determined to be 20 minutes. Predict the affect on thermal death time if the temperature is increased to 67°C. A) There will be no change in thermal death time. B) The thermal death time will be longer. C) There is not enough information to make this prediction. D) The thermal death time will be shorter.

D) The thermal death time will be shorter.

All of the following pertain to genital warts, except A) They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix B) They are sexually transmitted C) Certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis D) They are not common in the United States E) They include large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata

D) They are not common in the United States

Which is incorrect about warts? A) They are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) B) They include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet C) They can be transmitted by direct contact or fomites D) They are usually cancerous E) Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal

D) They are usually cancerous

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food-borne botulism? A) It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. B) It can be treated with antibiotics. C) Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. D) Treatment involves antitoxin therapy. E) Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release.

D) Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.

The motile feeding stage of protozoa is called the A) Sporozoite B) Food vacuole C) Cyst D) Trophozoite E) Oocyst

D) Trophozoite

Antigen receptors on B lymphocytes (antibodies) consist of A) Two identical light chain and two dissimilar heavy chains. B) One heavy chain and a pair of dissimilar light chains. C) One heavy chain and a pair of identical light chains. D) Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains.

D) Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains.

Microbes can be challenging to study because they often grow in complex communities and it may be difficult to separate the various species from one another to study individually. Which of the following laboratory "tools" or techniques may be of the the most help with separating out different species from complex mixtures? A) Use of enriched agar for culture B) Use of light microscopy C) Use of transmission electron microscopy D) Use of selective agars for culture

D) Use of selective agars for culture

Please choose the high-risk population for contracting brucellosis. A) Day-care teacher B) Plumber C) Farmer D) Veterinarian E) Nurse

D) Veterinarian

Which of the following spores are sexually produced? A) Blastospores B) Sporangiospores C) Arthrospores D) Zygospores E) Chlamydospores

D) Zygospores

Please select characteristics exhibited by prokaryotes to test your understanding of the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms. > DNA > Nucleus > Golgi body > Ribosomes > Cell wall

DNA Ribosomes Cell wall

Leah is looking at her culture of Micrococcus luteus under the microscope and is dismayed to see the cells have stained pink when she expected them to be purple. What could have gone wrong? Select all that apply. > Decolorizer left on too long > Decolorizer not left on long enough > Crystal violet left on too long > Crystal violet not left on long enough > Iodine left on too long > Iodine not left on long enough

Decolorizer left on too long Crystal violet not left on long enough Iodine not left on long enough

Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, three-dimensional configuration of the proteins.

Denature

What level of taxonomy is Eukarya?

Domain

Order the following choices to reflect the organization of taxa, from the most general to the most specific, to test your understanding of levels of classification. > Order > Phylum > Species > Domain

Domain Phylum Order Species

Which term corresponds to 1? > Monera > Domains > Bacteria > Categories > Protista > Eukarya

Domains

You count 153 colonies on the 1:100,000 poor milk sample plate from the Bacterial Examination of Milk exercise. Calculate the number of bacteria per ml of milk (CFU/ml). A) 1.53 x 10-8 CFU/ml B) 1.53 x 106 CFU/ml C) 1.53 x 108 CFU/ml D) 1.53 x 10-7 CFU/ml E) 1.53 x 107 CFU/ml

E) 1.53 x 107 CFU/ml

Which of the following is a common incubation temperature for bacteria in a microbiology laboratory? A) 0C B) 100F C) 98.7C D) 37F E) 37C

E) 37C

Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in which type of test? A) Precipitation B) Sensitivity C) Specificity D) Cross-relations E) Agglutination

E) Agglutination

Chancroid is characterized by A) Bubo-like swelling of the lymph nodes. B) Sexually transmission C) Geographical distribution in the tropics and subtropics D) Lesions which develop at the portal of entry E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Contact dermatitis involves A) Itchy papules and blisters. B) A sensitizing and provocative dose. C) T-lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines. D) Allergen entering the skin. E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Cryptococcosis can include A) Bone infection B) Pulmonary infection C) Meningitis D) Septicemia E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Lymphocytes A) Gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. B) Possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. C) Develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity. D) Have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Relapsing fever involves A) Initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue. B) Campers and forestry personnel. C) Soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii. D) Human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Scarlet fever involves A) Bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue. B) Eventual desquamation of epidermis. C) Septicemia as a complication. D) High fever E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Treatment and control of anthrax includes A) Proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. B) Use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. C) Vaccination of livestock. D) Toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure. E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Which of the following are true about plague? A) There is a bubonic form, during which buboes develop. B) There is a pneumonic form, in which the sputum is highly contagious. C) There is a septicemic form called the Black Death. D) The disease can be controlled by controlling the rodent population. E) All of these choices are correct

E) All of these choices are correct

Hepatitis B virus A) Is principally transmitted by blood B) Transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C) Is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D) Has many chronic carriers E) All these choices are correct

E) All these choices are correct

Please match the specific immune response phase with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the overall phases in a specific immune response. Required for activation of T cells A) Antigen-Independent Development B) Antigen Contract C) Humoral Immunity D) Cell-Mediated Immunity E) Antigen Presentation

E) Antigen Presentation

Aminoglycosides A) Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. B) Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. C) Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. D) Damage cell membranes. E) Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

E) Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water, except A) Cyclosporiasis B) Giardiasis C) Cryptosporidiosis D) Balantidiasis E) Babesiosis

E) Babesiosis

Which gram positive bacilli matches with number 3's image/description? A) Clostridium B) Corynebacterium C) Listeria D) Mycobacterium E) Bacillus F) Propionibacterium

E) Bacillus

The causative agent of Lyme disease is A) Borrelia hermsii B) Ixodes scapularis C) Leptospira interrogans D) Ixodes pacificus E) Borrelia burgdorferi

E) Borrelia burgdorferi

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. Capsule A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host

Methanogens are a type of archaea found in various habitats on the planet, including deep-sea vents in the deepest parts of the ocean. They produce methane gas by reducing carbon dioxide, using hydrogen gas under anaerobic conditions. Given these characteristics, methanogens are a type of _____________________. A) Chemoheterotroph B) Symbiotic microbe C) Saprobe D) Photoautotroph E) Chemoautotroph

E) Chemoautotroph

Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification? A) Lyme disease B) Leptospirosis C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis D) Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis E) Cholera

E) Cholera

All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except A) It is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A. B) It is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter. C) It can detect antibodies in a serum sample. D) A known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well. E) Color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.

E) Color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.

The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A) Fluorescence B) Phase-contrast C) Electron D) Bright-field E) Dark-field

E) Dark-field

A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes, and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS? A) Isolation of herpes simplex from skin and mucous membrane ulcers B) High level of CD4 T-cells C) Presence of Candida albicans D) Isolation of Mycobacterium turberculosis E) Detection of HIV antigen

E) Detection of HIV antigen

Drug susceptibility testing A) Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics. B) Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics. C) Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. D) Determines the pathogen's identity. E) Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

E) Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

The chancre of syphilis A) Occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. B) All of the following choices are correct C) Occurs during the tertiary stage. D) Is very painful E) Develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.

E) Develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.

Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that A) Microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions B) Microbial fermentation could be used to make wine C) Microorganisms could cause disease D) Air had 'vital forces' capable of spontaneous generation E) Dust in air was a source of living microorganisms

E) Dust in air was a source of living microorganisms

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A) All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules B) Glycolysis C) Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle D) Krebs cycle E) Electron transport

E) Electron transport

Please choose the correct way to type the scientific name of an organism to demonstrate your understanding of how to correctly write a scientific name. A) Escherichia coli B) Escherichia coli C) escherichia coli D) Escherichia Coli E) Escherichia coli

E) Escherichia coli

The term obligate refers to A) The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions B) Using light for energy production C) Using oxygen for metabolism D) Using chemicals for energy production E) Existing in a very narrow niche

E) Existing in a very narrow niche

Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted A) By contact between siblings B) From parent to offspring via respiratory route C) Between higher and lower animals D) Between people living or working in the same building E) From parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta.

E) From parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta.

Please match the description to the correct group of microorganisms. Molds and yeasts A) Algae B) Viruses C) Bacteria D) Protozoa E) Fungi F) Helminths

E) Fungi

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A) Spleen B) Tonsils C) Lymph nodes D) Thymus E) GALT

E) GALT

Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions? A) EBV B) HCV C) VZV D) HPA E) HSV-2

E) HSV-2

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A) It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs. B) It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. C) It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. D) It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. E) It forms the antigen binding sites.

E) It forms the antigen binding sites.

Each of the following are denaturing agents except A) All of the choices are correct B) Low pH C) High pH D) High temperature E) Low temperature

E) Low temperature

Examine Type 4 hypersensitivities by completing the sentence. Finally, host rejection of grafted tissue can occur due to __________-mediated reactions, while _________ occurs when passenger cells in the grafted tissue attack host cells. A) Xenografts B) Delayed C) Autografts D) Contact dermatitis E) MHC 1 F) T G) Tuberculin H) Allografts I) GVHD J) Type 4

E) MHC 1 I) GVHD

All the following are events of early inflammation, except A) Brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. B) Exudate and pus can accumulate. C) Chemical mediators and cytokines are released. D) Capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema. E) Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

E) Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

The drug used for several protozoan infections is A) Sulfa drugs B) Nystatin C) Griseofulvin D) Amphotericin B E) Metronidazole

E) Metronidazole

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A) Silent B) Deletion C) Nonsense D) Insertion E) Missense

E) Missense

Please match the white blood cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the behavior of white blood cells. Phagocytic cell recognized by their multilobed nuclei A) Red blood cells B) B cells C) Monocytes D) Platelets E) Neutrophils

E) Neutrophils

Which of the following characteristics is not a property of cells or living things? A) All of the choices are not fundamental characteristics of living things B) Responds to stimulus C) Ability to replicate D) Cell boundary E) Nucleus

E) Nucleus

Please match the viral diagnostic method to its description. Used to detect signs and symptoms associated with a specific viral infection A) PCR B) Immunological testing C) Electron microscopy D) Cell and tissue culture techniques E) Observation of the patient

E) Observation of the patient

Please choose the correct feature of Balantidium coli A) The infection is not treated and the death rate is high B) A preventative vaccine is given during early childhood C) The protozoan is passed from infected cats to humans D) Causes neurological symptoms E) One of the only pathogenic ciliates to cause human disease

E) One of the only pathogenic ciliates to cause human disease

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A) Agglutination B) Complement fixation C) Neutralization D) Anamnestic response E) Opsonization

E) Opsonization

Please match the cell types with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Contains nucleic acid A) Prokaryotic cells B) Eukaryotic cells C) Viruses D) Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells E) Prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells and viruses

E) Prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells and viruses

A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified? A) Animalia B) Monera C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protista

E) Protista

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A) Complements B) Interferons C) Leukotrienes D) Lysozymes E) Pyrogens

E) Pyrogens

Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) B) Norwalk virus C) Dengue fever D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease E) Rabies

E) Rabies

Please match the diseases with their most common portal of exit. Gonorrhea A) Respiratory tract (aerosols) B) GI tract (saliva droplets) C) Exudates from skin lesions D) GI tract (diarrhea) E) Reproductive tract (semen) F) Blood through a contaminated needle

E) Reproductive tract (semen)

Please match the term with its description. Cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from inanimate surfaces A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis E) Sanitization

E) Sanitization

Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A) Fluorescence B) Transmission electron C) Phase-contrast D) Differential interference contrast E) Scanning electron

E) Scanning electron

Please match the description to the pattern of infection. A subsequent infection with a different microbe that may occur following an initial infection A) Acute infection B) Systemic infection C) Localized infection D) Chronic infection E) Secondary infection

E) Secondary infection

The smallest and most significant taxon is A) Kingdom B) Family C) Phylum D) Genus E) Species

E) Species

The phase of the bacterial growth curve during which microbial growth slows and the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the A) Lag phase B) Log phase C) Telophase D) Death phase E) Stationary phase

E) Stationary phase

Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces? A) Haemophilus B) Lactobacillus C) Escherichia D) Mycobacterium E) Streptococcus

E) Streptococcus

Which two enzymes catalyze the steps converting the toxic superoxide ion to less harmful oxygen gas? A) Catalase and oxidase B) Superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase C) Catalase and hydrogen peroxidases D) Superoxide dismutase and oxidase E) Superoxide dismutase and catalase

E) Superoxide dismutase and catalase

All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis, except A) Fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected. B) It is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores C) It is also called valley fever D) It often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise E) The pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano

E) The pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano

Which is incorrect about parvoviruses? A) They cause a disease known as fifth disease B) They cause several diseases in dogs, cats and other mammals C) They are single-stranded DNA viruses D) Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum E) They cannot be transmissible to the fetus

E) They cannot be transmissible to the fetus

Which is incorrect about measles? A) Koplik's spots appear before the characteristic rash. B) It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases. C) It is also known as rubeola. D) Humans are the sole reservoir. E) Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.

E) Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a A) Reservoir B) Carrier C) Fomite D) Source E) Vector

E) Vector

Please place the steps in the correct order to assess your knowledge of the steps of translation. The steps may be used more than once. > First translocation; tRNA 2 shifts into P site; entrance of tRNA 3 > Formation of peptide bond > Discharge of tRNA 1 at E site > Entrance of tRNAs 1 and 2 > Discharge of tRNA 2; second translocation enter tRNA 4 > Process repeated until stop codon is reached

Entrance of tRNAs 1 and 2 Formation of peptide bond Discharge of tRNA 1 at E site First translocation; tRNA 2 shifts into P site; entrance of tRNA 3 Formation of peptide bond Discharge of tRNA 2; second translocation enter tRNA 4 Formation of peptide bond Process repeated until stop codon is reached

A naked virus does not have a(n) _____.

Envelope

Which of the following organisms did you isolate and identify using HardyCHROM chromogenic media? (Choose all that apply) > Staphylococcus aureus > Lactococcus lactis > Staphylococcus epidermidis > Escherichia coli > Klebsiella aerogenes > Pseudomonas fluorescens > None of these

Escherichia coli Klebsiella aerogenes

Which term corresponds to 3? > Monera > Domains > Bacteria > Categories > Protista > Eukarya

Eukarya

Please place the steps in the correct order to assess your understanding of the clinical stages of tuberculosis infection and disease progression. > Inhaled into lungs > Exposure to TB droplets > Lung macrophages engulf bacilli, infection occurs in 80-90% of cases > Recurrent disease; tubercles break down; bacilli are released into lung cavities and circulation > Primary TB disease with tubercles, symptoms occur in 5-10% of cases within 2 years > Latency; bacilli go dormant in lungs; carrier state without symptoms may last for many years > Disease spreads to extrapulmonary sites such as kidney, bones, brain with severe morbidity

Exposure to TB droplets Inhaled into lungs Lung macrophages engulf bacilli, infection occurs in 80-90% of cases Primary TB disease with tubercles, symptoms occur in 5-10% of cases within 2 years Latency; bacilli go dormant in lungs; carrier state without symptoms may last for many years Recurrent disease; tubercles break down; bacilli are released into lung cavities and circulation Disease spreads to extrapulmonary sites such as kidney, bones, brain with severe morbidity

Based on the following descriptions which fall under the domain Archaea? > Includes prokaryotes such as S. aureus > Includes fungi, protozoa, and animals > Domain with the closest relationship to the eukaryotic cell domain > Methane-producing bacteria > Extreme prokaryotes > Gram-positive bacteria > Humans

Extreme prokaryotes Methane-producing bacteria Domain with the closest relationship to the eukaryotic cell domain

Please match the diseases with their most common portal of exit. Hepatitis B A) Respiratory tract (aerosols) B) GI tract (saliva droplets) C) Exudates from skin lesions D) GI tract (diarrhea) E) Reproductive tract (semen) F) Blood through a contaminated needle

F) Blood through a contaminated needle

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. Hyaluronidase A) Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme B) Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host C) Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots D) Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis E) Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

F) Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

Please match the description to the correct group of microorganisms. Multicellular eukaryotic organisms like parasitic worms A) Algae B) Viruses C) Bacteria D) Protozoa E) Fungi F) Helminths

F) Helminths

Which gram positive bacilli matches with number 6's image/description? A) Clostridium B) Corynebacterium C) Listeria D) Mycobacterium E) Bacillus F) Propionibacterium

F) Propionibacterium

True or False: An indirect ELISA will only be positive if the patient has an active infection.

False

True or False: In an ELISA, the enzyme is conjugated to antibodies from the patient's serum.

False

True or False: Most of the organisms we use in our labs are BSL-1; therefore, we follow the BSL-1 guidelines. Assume normal face-to-face labs as described in the lab manual.

False

True or False: When performing the quadrant streak plate technique for isolation, the different quadrants should not overlap.

False

True or false? A negative stain begins with a heat fixed smear.

False

True or false? Facultative anaerobes do not have the correct enzymes, and will not survive in the presence of oxygen.

False

True or false? Kimwipes can be used to clean dirty ocular or objective lenses.

False

True or false? Mycobacterium smegmatis is expected to be colored blue at the end of a successfully complete Acid-Fast stain.

False

True or false? Pasteurization sterilizes milk.

False

True or false? The gelatin test requires refrigeration before incubation in order to correctly evaluate the result.

False

True or false? You will need to do a serial dilution for the standard plate count water test.

False

What level of taxonomy is Parameciidae Cells rotate while swimming and have oral grooves?

Family

Examine Type 4 hypersensitivities by completing the sentence. One example, infectious allergy, occurs during the ______________ reaction in persons sensitized by tuberculosis infection. A) Xenografts B) Delayed C) Autografts D) Contact dermatitis E) MHC 1 F) T G) Tuberculin H) Allografts I) GVHD J) Type 4

G) Tuberculin

What level of taxonomy is Paramecium Pointed, cigar-shaped cells with macronuclei and micronuclei?

Genus

What are concerns regarding glove use? (Choose all that apply) > Gloves can rip > Some people are allergic to nitrile > Gloves are flammable and can melt > Contamination that gets on gloves can be transferred to other surfaces, people, pens, pencils, microscopes, etc. > Some people are allergic to latex > Tight fitting gloves can restrict circulation

Gloves can rip Gloves are flammable and can melt Contamination that gets on gloves can be transferred to other surfaces, people, pens, pencils, microscopes, etc. Some people are allergic to latex

Which of the following are the three main catabolic pathways of aerobic respiration? > Nitrate reduction > Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > Beta oxidation > Electron transport chain > Fermentation

Glycolysis Krebs cycle Electron transport chain

Which of the following correctly describe the color of different cells after using the Gram staining technique? > Gram-negative - Purple > Gram-negative - Pink/red > Gram-positive - Purple > Gram-positive - Pink/red

Gram-negative - Pink/red Gram-positive - Purple

Coliform bacteria are (Choose all that apply) > Gram-negative rods > Facultative anaerobes > Non-endospore forming > Lactose fermentors > Produce acid and gas in 48h at 35C > Gram-negative cocci > Obligate anaerobes > Endospore forming

Gram-negative rods Facultative anaerobes Non-endospore forming Lactose fermentors Produce acid and gas in 48h at 35C

The mordant for the endospore stain is the _________ process.

Heating

Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.

Helminths

KIA, Kligler's Iron Agar bacteria can be differentiated based on fermentation (acid/gas production) and possible production of __________.

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid.

Icosahedral

Food infections have incubation periods of days to weeks, whereas the incubation period for food intoxications is hours to days. Please select the true statements that explain this situation. > In food infections, the microorganism has to grow in the infected human host, producing more toxins as it reproduces. > The elements that cause food intoxications, like arsenic and mercury, are extremely potent in tiny amounts causing a faster disease symptomology. > The gram-positive bacteria, the organisms causing food intoxications, grow much faster than gram-negative bacteria, the organisms causing food infections. > Food intoxications involve the ingestion of exotoxins produced by microorganisms in the food whereas food infections involve the ingestion of the microbial cells themselves.

In food infections, the microorganism has to grow in the infected human host, producing more toxins as it reproduces. Food intoxications involve the ingestion of exotoxins produced by microorganisms in the food whereas food infections involve the ingestion of the microbial cells themselves.

Where might you find microbes like bacteria and fungi? (Choose all that apply) > In soil > In many places within your body > On your skin > On the inside of a sterile agar plate that has not been inoculated > On a disinfected lab bench > In the air > In sterilized growth medium prior to inoculation > On the inside of a nutrient agar plate that has been left open for several minutes > On your phone

In soil In many places within your body On your skin In the air On the inside of a nutrient agar plate that has been left open for several minutes On your phone

Based on the following descriptions which fall under the domain Eukarya? > Includes prokaryotes such as S. aureus > Includes fungi, protozoa, and animals > Domain with the closest relationship to the eukaryotic cell domain > Methane-producing bacteria > Extreme prokaryotes > Gram-positive bacteria > Humans

Includes fungi, protozoa, and animals Humans

Based on the following descriptions which fall under the domain Bacteria? > Includes prokaryotes such as S. aureus > Includes fungi, protozoa, and animals > Domain with the closest relationship to the eukaryotic cell domain > Methane-producing bacteria > Extreme prokaryotes > Gram-positive bacteria > Humans

Includes prokaryotes such as S. aureus Gram-positive bacteria

Please order the following choices to reflect the mechanism and development of an immediate (Type 1) allergic reaction. > A provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate, releasing histamine and other allergic mediators. > Individual experiences allergy symptoms. > B cells produce IgE directed against the allergen. > IgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophils. > Individual is exposed to a sensitizing dose of an allergen.

Individual is exposed to a sensitizing dose of an allergen. B cells produce IgE directed against the allergen. IgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophils. A provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate, releasing histamine and other allergic mediators. Individual experiences allergy symptoms.

Please select the possible transmission methods for botulism. > Ingestion of contaminated food > Aerosols > Contaminated soil or dust gets into a wound > Bite of insect vector > Sexual intercourse

Ingestion of contaminated food Contaminated soil or dust gets into a wound

Which of these statements are false? (Choose all that apply) > Always use a test tube rack when transporting test tubes. > It is ok to pick up or handle a test tube by the cap. > Sterilize loops and needles in the incinerator before and after touching bacterial cultures. > It is not necessary to wash your hands before you begin working with bacteria in the laboratory, as long as you wash them before you leave the lab when you are finished. > It is ok to use personal pens and pencils in the laboratory. > Always set test tubes or petri plate lids down on the lab bench when removed. > Do not put hot loops into a culture-broth or agar.

It is ok to pick up or handle a test tube by the cap. It is not necessary to wash your hands before you begin working with bacteria in the laboratory, as long as you wash them before you leave the lab when you are finished. It is ok to use personal pens and pencils in the laboratory. Always set test tubes or petri plate lids down on the lab bench when removed.

Which of the following statements regarding blood agar are correct? (Choose all that apply) > It is typically TSA plus 5% sheep's blood > It supports the growth of fastidious bacteria > It is an important clinical medium > Non-pathogenic bacteria will likely exhibit beta (β) hemolysis on BA > It inhibits the growth of Gram-negative bacteria > It inhibits the growth of Gram-positive bacteria

It is typically TSA plus 5% sheep's blood It supports the growth of fastidious bacteria It is an important clinical medium

Choose all the characteristics that are true about "active immunity." > It protects the body against a new infection thanks to antibodies developed by the host during the first exposure to the antigen. > It requires several days to develop. > It can last for a relatively long time, sometimes for life. > Active immunity can be stimulated only by artificial means.

It protects the body against a new infection thanks to antibodies developed by the host during the first exposure to the antigen. It requires several days to develop. It can last for a relatively long time, sometimes for life.

Which of the following statements best describes the StaphTEX agglutination assay that you will be using in this lab? (Choose all that apply) > It uses latex beads that are covered in antibodies that are specific to a particular pathogen. > It uses latex beads that are covered in antigens from a particular pathogen. > Agglutination will occur only if a specific pathogen is mixed with the StaphTEX reagent. > Agglutination will NOT occur if a specific pathogen is mixed with the StaphTEX reagent. > Agglutination will occur if any bacterial pathogen is mixed with the StaphTEX reagent.

It uses latex beads that are covered in antibodies that are specific to a particular pathogen Agglutination will occur only if a specific pathogen is mixed with the StaphTEX reagent.

Factors that contribute to the spread of poliovirus include > Its ability to survive the harsh conditions of the gastrointestinal tract > An ability to produce endospores > The lack of an effective vaccine > An ability to spread via fomites contaminated with feces

Its ability to survive the harsh conditions of the gastrointestinal tract An ability to spread via fomites contaminated with feces

What level of taxonomy is Protista protozoa and algae?

Kingdom

Elsa cut her finger on a piece of ice and then fell into some mud. Her friend Olaf chuckled and then helped her out of the mud. She decides to do a disk diffusion test to determine which antiseptic to use on her cut. In general the _______________ (smallest, largest) zone of inhibition will indicate the most effective antiseptic to use.

Largest

Viruses called _____ viruses become permanent residents in host cells and alternate between inactive periods and recurrent infections.

Latent

What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) should you wear when staining bacteria? (Choose all that apply) > Biosafety cabinet > Latex or nitrile gloves > Lab coat > Safety glasses or goggles > Respiratory protection

Latex or nitrile gloves Lab coat Safety glasses or goggles

Regarding temperature, most pathogens are:

Mesophiles

Diseases caused by fungi are termed _____.

Mycoses

Please select the pathogenic species of Neisseria. > N. sicca > N. macacae > N. pneumoniae > N. meningitidis > N. gonorrhoeae

N. meningitidis N. gonorrhoeae

What level of taxonomy is Hymenostomatida Elongate oval cells with cilia in the oral cavity?

Order

Based on the results of the ELISA simulation, which of the following patients were positive? (Choose all that apply) > Patient A > Patient B > Patient C > Patient D > Patient E > Patient F > None of them > All of them

Patient A Patient D Patient F

What level of taxonomy is Ciliophora Only protozoa with cilia?

Phylum

Review the organisms that cause opportunistic mycoses and their predisposing factors by completing the sentence. Even more common in AIDS patients, ________________ is a fungal opportunist that will most likely cause respiratory system infections several times in the lifetime of one of these patients. > Pneumocystis jiroveci > AIDS > Aspergillus > Thrush > Candida albicans > Antibiotics > Cryptococcus

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Please select the answers below that correspond to characteristics of polioviruses increasing their likelihood of transmission. > Poliovirus can be transmitted through an infected blood meal by the bite of mosquitoes. > Poliovirus can be transmitted in a fecal-oral fashion, passed from person to person through contaminated food, water, and other substances contaminated with feces. > Polioviruses have a naked capsid making them resistant to harsh conditions such as those present in the host's gastrointestinal tract. > All of these choices are correct

Poliovirus can be transmitted in a fecal-oral fashion, passed from person to person through contaminated food, water, and other substances contaminated with feces. Polioviruses have a naked capsid making them resistant to harsh conditions such as those present in the host's gastrointestinal tract.

Please order the following microbes or microbial forms in terms of their resistance to control methods, beginning with those that are most resistant. > Prions > Enveloped viruses > Mycobacterium tuberculosis > Gram-negative bacteria > Bacterial endospores

Prions Bacterial endospores Mycobacterium tuberculosis Gram-negative bacteria Enveloped viruses

While examining a blood sample for the presence of Trypanosoma cruzi, you are able to distinguish an anterior flagellum but, because of the poor resolution of the microscope you are using, cannot tell if an undulating membrane is present or not. Which stages of the hemoflagellate may be present? > Amastigote > Promastigote > Epimastigote > Trypomastigote

Promastigote Epimastigote Trypomastigote

Which Staphylococcus aureus epitopes are targeted by the antibodies used in this StaphTEX agglutination assay? (Choose all that apply) > Protein A > Coagulase > Peptidoglycan > Teichoic acid > STSS toxin

Protein A Coagulase

Please select functions of the lymphatic system to test your understanding of its characteristics and functions. > Provides a route for the return of extracellular fluid to general circulation > Carries away excess fluid from inflamed tissue > Conducts surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials through a system of lymphocytes, phagocytes, and antibodies > Contains red blood cells for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide > Located in intestinal tissue to enhance the digestion of ingested food

Provides a route for the return of extracellular fluid to general circulation Carries away excess fluid from inflamed tissue Conducts surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials through a system of lymphocytes, phagocytes, and antibodies

Choose the four signs/symptoms of inflammation. > Redness > Swelling > Warmth > Pain > Lack of blood flow > Cold, clammy

Redness Swelling Warmth Pain

Please select the advantages of phenolic compounds as antimicrobial agents. > Remain effective in the presence of organic matter > Generally nontoxic > Strongly microbicidal > Effective against prions

Remain effective in the presence of organic matter Strongly microbicidal

_____________ is the ability to distinguish two points as separate points.

Resolution

Please select all of the following that are correct to test your understanding of resolution and resolving power. > Resolution is the ability to distinguish between two adjacent objects > The resolution of a microscope depends on the wavelength of light used > Increased resolution is obtained by increasing the wavelength of light used > The resolving power of a microscope depends on the numerical aperture of the lenses > Increasing magnification of an image will also increase the resolving power

Resolution is the ability to distinguish between two adjacent objects The resolution of a microscope depends on the wavelength of light used The resolving power of a microscope depends on the numerical aperture of the lenses

Please select all the primary functions of the immune system. > Surveillance of the body > Attack and destruction of self cells > Recognition of self and foreign material such as pathogens > Attack and destruction of foreign invaders > Move fluid from tissue spaces into systemic circulation

Surveillance of the body Recognition of self and foreign material such as pathogens Attack and destruction of foreign invaders

Please select the factors below that influence the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent. > The time of day > Temperature > Number of microorganisms > Geographic location > Presence of organic matter > Concentration of dosage of the agent

Temperature Number of microorganisms Presence of organic matter Concentration of dosage of the agent

Please select the answers below that correspond to structural features of HIV and their host cells necessary for HIV infection to occur. > The HIV envelope contains glycoproteins that mediate viral absorption and fusion to the host cell. > The helical HIV capsid opens to allow access of its single-stranded DNA genome to the host cell genome. > Infectable host cell membranes must present surface receptors including a CD4 marker, as well as a co-receptor. > Infectable host cells must actively phagocytize the HIV particle through the host cell membrane.

The HIV envelope contains glycoproteins that mediate viral absorption and fusion to the host cell. Infectable host cell membranes must present surface receptors including a CD4 marker, as well as a co-receptor.

Please select all of the statements which are TRUE regarding isolated colonies. > The colony results from a single cell or a cluster of cells multiplying into a visible mass > The cells within the colony are all the same species > Isolated colonies form on a solid nutrient media > Isolated colonies form in a liquid nutrient media > Isolated colonies can only be obtained via the streak plate method

The colony results from a single cell or a cluster of cells multiplying into a visible mass The cells within the colony are all the same species Isolated colonies form on a solid nutrient media

Which of the following are correct descriptions of biological oxidation-reduction reactions? > The compound that loses electrons is oxidized. > The compound that loses electrons is reduced. > The compound that gains electrons is oxidized. > The compound that gains electrons is reduced.

The compound that loses electrons is oxidized. The compound that gains electrons is reduced.

After performing a quadrant streak plate from a pure bacterial culture and incubating, you observe several smooth cream colored colonies and a few fuzzy green and black colonies on the agar plate. Which of the following are most likely correct? (Choose all that apply) > The smooth cream colored colonies are the bacteria > The fuzzy green and black colonies are contaminating bacteria > The fuzzy green and black colonies are contaminating fungi > The smooth cream colored colonies are fungi > The plate is contaminated > The plate is not contaminated

The smooth cream colored colonies are the bacteria The fuzzy green and black colonies are contaminating fungi The plate is contaminated

Please select all of the correct answers which describe thermal dimorphism. > The temperature where the fungus is growing determines the form it takes > At 37C the fungus is a yeast whereas at 45C it is a mold > Most fungi do not display dimorphism > A fungus displaying thermal dimorphism requires two temperatures in order for the fungal culture to grow on media

The temperature where the fungus is growing determines the form it takes Most fungi do not display dimorphism A fungus displaying thermal dimorphism requires two temperatures in order for the fungal culture to grow on media

Please choose the correct explanation regarding these tapeworm dimensions—30 feet long, yet extremely thin. > The thinness of the worms allows maximal absorption of nutrients. > Their segments, called proglottids, are produced at the neck, adding length to the worm. > The male and female worms attach end-to-end during reproduction, making them appear to be longer than they really are. > They are flattened nematodes.

The thinness of the worms allows maximal absorption of nutrients. Their segments, called proglottids, are produced at the neck, adding length to the worm.

Please select the factors below that must be considered in managing a patient's antimicrobial drug therapy. > Therapeutic index of the antimicrobial drug > Potential allergies or toxic reactions > Route of administration of the drug > Source of the drug > Cost of the drug > Patient compliance

Therapeutic index of the antimicrobial drug Potential allergies or toxic reactions Route of administration of the drug Cost of the drug Patient compliance

Based on these results from the Bacterial Examination of Food exercise, what can you conclude about the bacteria present in the food sample? (Choose all that apply) > They cannot ferment lactose > They are strong lactose fermenters > They are not coliforms > They are facultative anaerobes > They are Gram-negative > They are obligate anaerobes > They are Gram-positive > They are coliforms

They are strong lactose fermenters They are facultative anaerobes They are Gram-negative They are coliforms

Microscopic examination of a bacterial culture reveals a variety of curved, motile bacterial cells. What genera could be suspected at this point? > Vibrio > Campylobacter > Helicobacter > Escherichia > Salmonella

Vibrio Campylobacter Helicobacter

A correctly stained Gram positive organism should appear ___________ under the microscope.

Violet

Which of these statements are false? Assume normal face-to-face labs as described in the lab manual. (Choose all that apply) > Water bottles are acceptable in the lab > Gloves must be worn when working with ALL microorganisms > Closed-toe shoes that cover the top of the foot and heel are required to work in the lab > Uncontaminated paper towels can be thrown away in a regular trashcan > A laboratory coat must be worn at all times while you are in the laboratory > Regular prescription glasses can be substituted for safety glasses or goggles in the lab

Water bottles are acceptable in the lab Gloves must be worn when working with ALL microorganisms Regular prescription glasses can be substituted for safety glasses or goggles in the lab

Dr. Jane Hinton: (choose all that apply) > Worked at Harvard > Was the grand-daughter of slaves > Developed the Kirby-Bauer procedure > Co-developed the media used in the Kirby-Bauer test > Was one of the first female African-American veterinarians in the US > Was a professor at Harvard

Worked at Harvard Was the grand-daughter of slaves Co-developed the media used in the Kirby-Bauer test Was one of the first female African-American veterinarians in the US

Eddie looks at his broth tubes that have been incubating at different temperatures for 48h. One tube, "A", looks significantly more turbid than another tube "B". When he measures the optical density of his samples Tube A has an OD of 0.62; Tube B has on OD of 0.24. Do these results make sense?

Yes

Should any additional tests be performed on organisms identified using HardyCHROM chromogenic media? > Yes, biochemical tests should be performed on colonies from pure cultures for complete identification for organisms other than E. coli and Enterococcus spp. > Yes, biochemical tests should be performed on ALL colonies from pure cultures for complete identification. > No additional tests are necessary

Yes, biochemical tests should be performed on colonies from pure cultures for complete identification for organisms other than E. coli and Enterococcus spp

Choose all of the correct statements. > You will be making dilutions of 1:1, 1:10, 1:100, and 1:1000 for the high quality milk sample. > You will be making dilutions of 1:100, 1:1000, 1:10,000, and 1:100,000 for the poor quality milk sample. > You will be performing a standard plate count for the milk experiment. > You will be using serological pipettes for the milk exercise. > You will be making dilutions of 1:1, 1:10, 1:100, and 1:1000 for the low quality milk sample. > You will be making dilutions of 1:100, 1:1000, 1:10,000, and 1:100,000 for the high quality milk sample. > You will be performing a filtration for the milk experiment. > You will be using micropipettes for the milk exercise.

You will be making dilutions of 1:1, 1:10, 1:100, and 1:1000 for the high quality milk sample. You will be making dilutions of 1:100, 1:1000, 1:10,000, and 1:100,000 for the poor quality milk sample. You will be performing a standard plate count for the milk experiment. You will be using serological pipettes for the milk exercise.

Which of these statements are correct? Assume normal face-to-face labs as described in the lab manual. (Choose all that apply) > You will occasionally work with BSL-2 organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus > Plastic petri dishes are autoclaved and reused > Lab benches should be disinfected before and after each use > You will occasionally work with BSL-3 organisms such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis > Long hair should be tied back while working in the lab > COC's microbiology laboratory procedures are based on the ASM (American Society of Microbiology) Guidelines for BSL 2 teaching labs

You will occasionally work with BSL-2 organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus Lab benches should be disinfected before and after each use Long hair should be tied back while working in the lab COC's microbiology laboratory procedures are based on the ASM (American Society of Microbiology) Guidelines for BSL 2 teaching labs