Microbiology quiz 4
Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications A) have shorter incubation times. B) are accompanied by high fever. C) are more severe. D) are treated with antibiotics. E) are transmitted via contaminated water.
A
Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT A) Shigella dysenteriae B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium botulinum D) Vibrio cholerae E) Staphylococcus aureus
A
In Situation 25.1, fecal samples were found to be negative when cultured. The next step in diagnosing the cause of illness would be A) microscopic examination of fecess for oocysts. B) blood cultures. C) microscopic examination of feces for viruses. D) to begin antibiotic therapy. E) muscle biopsy.
A
In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting A) cystycerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat. B) the eggs of Taenia saginata. C) water contaminated with Diphyllobothrium latum eggs. D) cystycerci of Taenia solium in undercooked meat. E) segments of Taenia solium tapeworms.
A
Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with A) water and electrolytes. B) antitoxin. C) quinacrine. D) thorough cooking. E) penicillin.
A
Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever A) the incubation period is much longer. B) infection is spread only in the feces of domesticated animals. C) the microorganisms multiply within macrophages. D) the symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder. E) infection occurs due to ingestion of endospores.
A
Which of the following is included in GALT? A) Peyer's patches B) thymus C) salivary glands D) tonsils E) liver
A
Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse? A) Trichinella spiralis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Shigella spp. D) Salmonella enterica E) Entamoeba histolytica
A
A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment?
Acyclovir
the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?
Acyclovir
All of the following are associated with botulism outbreaks EXCEPT type E toxin is associated with seafood. type B toxin is most virulent. endospores of C. botulinum have been recovered from honey. antibodies are not an effective method of treatment. Alaskan natives have the highest rate of botulism.
Alaskan natives have the highest rate of botulism.
Pyelonephritis may result from A) urethritis. B) cystitis. C) ureteritis. D) systemic infections. E) All of the answers are correct
All of the answers are correct
16) A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is A) Anti-inflammatory drugs. B) Streptomycin. C) Chloroquine. D) Hyperbaric chamber. E) Praziquantel.
Answer: A
17) Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is false? A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus. B) It is caused by health care personnel. C) It begins as a focal infection. D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth. E) It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.
Answer: A
27) A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is A) Gangrene. B) Burns. C) Debridement. D) Hyperbaric treatment. E) An infected finger.
Answer: A
28) Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A) Puerperal sepsis B) Hantavirus infection C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis E) Tularemia
Answer: A
30) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Cat-scratch disease - malignant pustule developing into septicemia B) Brucellosis - a temperature of 40°C each evening C) Tularemia - a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer D) Borrelia - rash and flulike E) Toxoplasmosis - congenital brain damage
Answer: A
32) Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever? A) Vector B) Mode of transmission C) Presence of rash D) Reservoir E) Etiology
Answer: A
35) EB virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT A) Endocarditis. B) Infectious mononucleosis. C) Burkitt's lymphoma. D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. E) Hodgkin's disease.
Answer: A
41) Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection? A) Treatable with penicillin B) Not contagious C) Accompanied by a rash D) Affected mostly children E) Transmitted by ticks
Answer: A
7) Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Anthrax C) Brucellosis D) Listeriosis E) All of the above can be transmitted in raw milk.
Answer: A
10) Which of the following bacterial infections CANNOT be transmitted by dog or cat bites? A) Pasteurella multocida B) Streptobacillus C) Bacteroides D) Fusobacterium E) All of the above can be transmitted by dog or cat bites.
Answer: B
21) Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta? A) Borrelia B) Cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia
Answer: B
25) A characteristic symptom of plague is A) Small red spots on the skin. B) Bruises on the skin. C) Rose-colored spots. D) Recurrent fever. E) Nausea and vomiting.
Answer: B
29) Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for which of the following diseases? A) Plague B) Brucellosis C) Epidemic typhus D) Yellow fever E) Malaria
Answer: B
34) Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection? A) Borrelia B) Cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia
Answer: B
37) A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which one of the following do you suspect? A) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever B) Dengue C) Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever D) Typhus E) Yellow fever
Answer: B
4) Which of the following is NOT treated with penicillin? A) Pericarditis B) Tularemia C) Anthrax D) Listeriosis E) Rat-bite fever
Answer: B
43) A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an 8-day history of fever, chills, sweats, and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40°C. A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe? A) Hyperbaric oxygen B) Mefloquine C) No treatment D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin
Answer: B
15) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium? A) Epidemic typhus B) Tickborne typhus C) Malaria D) Plague E) Relapsing fever
Answer: C
20) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Rickettsia - intracellular parasite B) Brucella - gram-negative aerobic rods C) Francisella - gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods D) Bacillus - gram-positive endospore-forming rods E) None of the above
Answer: C
23) A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely has A) Anthrax. B) Brucellosis. C) Leishmaniasis. D) Malaria. E) Schistosomiasis.
Answer: C
24) Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by A) Rat flea. B) Dog flea. C) The respiratory route. D) Wounds. E) Unsanitary conditions.
Answer: C
31) Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Plague C) Chagas' disease D) Bartonella E) None of these diseases is transmitted by cats.
Answer: C
40) You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because A) She could contract plague. B) She could give the cat tularemia. C) She could get toxoplasmosis. D) She could get listeriosis. E) You don't like cats and want to see your friend without one.
Answer: C
44) Which of the following statements about group B streptococci is false? A) They are present in healthy carriers. B) They cause gram-positive sepsis. C) They cause strep throat. D) They cause neonatal sepsis. E) They are classified as Str. agalactiae.
Answer: C
6) Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis? A) A local infection B) Relapsing fever C) Undulant fever D) Pneumonia E) Jaundice
Answer: C
1) Which of the following statements about sepsis is false? A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure. B) Lymphangitis may occur. C) Symptoms are due to bacterial endotoxin. D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria. E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics.
Answer: D
12) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT A) Plague. B) Epidemic typhus. C) Endemic murine typhus. D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E) Relapsing fever.
Answer: D
13) Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is false? A) It is caused by a protozoan. B) The reservoir is cats. C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route. D) It is a severe illness in adults. E) It can be congenital.
Answer: D
14) Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease? A) Causative agent - T. cruzi B) Vector - kissing bug C) Reservoir - rodents D) Diagnosis - serological tests for antibodies E) Treatment - Nifurtimox
Answer: D
18) Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is false? A) The cercariae penetrate human skin. B) A parasite of birds causes swimmer's itch in humans. C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail. D) It is caused by a roundworm. E) The female worm is attached to the male.
Answer: D
19) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is false? A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection. B) It is an inflammation of the heart. C) It is an inflammation of the joints. D) It is cured with penicillin. E) The incidence has declined in the last 10 years.
Answer: D
2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Subacute bacterial endocarditis - alpha-hemolytic streptococci B) Acute bacterial endocarditis - Staphylococcus aureus C) Pericarditis - Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Puerperal sepsis - Staphylococcus aureus E) Burkitt's lymphoma - EB virus
Answer: D
22) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Borrelia - relapsing fever B) Yersinia - plague C) Streptobacillus - rat-bite fever D) Pasteurella - cat-scratch disease E) Spirillum - rat-bite fever
Answer: D
33) Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics? A) Plague B) Tularemia C) Lyme disease D) Yellow fever E) Anthrax
Answer: D
36) Which of the following leads to all the others? A) Subcutaneous hemorrhaging B) Presence of antirickettsial antibodies C) Blockage of capillaries D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells E) Breakage of capillaries
Answer: D
39) Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely A) Lyme disease. B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C) Relapsing fever. D) Swimmer's itch. E) Chagas' disease.
Answer: D
42) Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program? A) Chikungunya fever B) Yellow fever C) Dengue D) Toxoplasmosis E) Malaria
Answer: D
11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Malaria - Anopheles (mosquito) B) Dengue - Aedes (mosquito) C) Epidemic typhus - Pediculus (louse) D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever - Dermacentor (tick) E) Encephalitis - Ixodes (tick)
Answer: E
26) Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched? A) Vector - Anopheles B) Etiology - Plasmodium C) Found in liver - sporozoites D) Diagnosis - presence of merozoites E) Treatment - antibiotics
Answer: E
3) Which of the following grows outside host cells? A) Ehrlichia B) Brucella C) Rickettsia D) Bartonella E) Streptobacillus
Answer: E
38) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched for Gram reaction? A) Lyme disease - gram-negative B) Tularemia - gram-negative C) Anthrax - gram-positive D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever - gram-negative E) Ehrlichia - gram-positive
Answer: E
45) Bioweapons A) Are all respiratory pathogens. B) Are not susceptible to antibiotics. C) Are all viruses. D) Are impossible to detect. E) Have been used for centuries.
Answer: E
5) Which of the following statements about tularemia is false? A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis. B) The reservoir is rabbits. C) It may be transmitted by arthropods. D) It may be transmitted by direct contact. E) It occurs only in California.
Answer: E
8) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? A) Aerobic B) Gram-positive C) Forms endospores D) Found in soil E) Produces endotoxins
Answer: E
9) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT A) Microbial fermentation. B) Necrotizing exotoxins. C) Proteolytic enzymes. D) Hyaluronidase. E) Anaerobic environment.
Answer: E
"Rice water stools" are characteristic of A) amebic dysentery. B) cholera. C) bacillary dysentery. D) salmonellosis. E) tapeworm infestation.
B
All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT A) Cyclospora. B) Campylobacter. C) Cryptosporidium. D) Entamoeba. E) Giardia.
B
Dental plaque is an example of A) a pellicle. B) a biofilm. C) dentin. D) tooth enamel. E) gingivitis.
B
Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus A) Escherichia coli. B) Campylobacter jejuni. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Shigella spp. E) Vibrio cholerae.
B
What is a Dane particle? A) another name for an HBV surface antigen B) the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV C) the filamentous particles that cause HAV D) the infectious virion that causes HBV E) the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV
B
Which of the following is mismatched? A) Taenia infestation — humans are the definitive host B) hydatid disease — humans are the definitive host C) pinworm infestation — humans ingest parasite's eggs D) hookworm infestation — parasite bores through skin E) trichinellosis — humans eat larva of parasite
B
Which of the following is mismatched? A) ergot — gangrene B) Salmonella endotoxin — coagulates blood C) aflatoxin — liver cancer D) shiga toxin — tissue destruction E) Vibrio enterotoxin — secretion of Cl-, K+, and H2O
B
Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever? A) It is acquired via ingestion of contaminated meat. B) Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes. C) It is caused by several different species of Salmonella. D) Enterotoxin spreads via the blood. E) It is also call bacillary dysentery.
B
rye or other cereal grains
B
Which of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses? A) Staphylococcus B) Mycoplasma C) Streptococcus D) Blastomyces E) Coccidioides
Blastomyces
A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
Bordetella
A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Bordetella B) Corynebacterium C) Burkholderia D) Mycobacterium E) Mycoplasma
Bordetella
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages?
Bordetella pertussis
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) respiratory syncytial virus
Bordetella pertussis
A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum sample. The etiology is A) Burkholderia pseudomallei. B) Chlamydophila psittaci. C) Haemophilus influenzae. D) Legionella pneumophila. E) Staphylococcus aureus
Burkholderia pseudomallei
A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from A) pooled gamma globulin. B) viral particles in patients. C) genetically modified yeast. D) viruses grown in tissue culture. E) viruses grown in embryonated eggs.
C
Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by A) exposure to contaminated soil. B) biological vectors. C) contaminated food and water. D) the respiratory route. E) unpasteurized milk.
C
The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is A) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. B) pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine. C) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. D) esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine. E) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine.
C
The relative risks shown in Table 25.1 were calculated for foods suspected of transmitting Salmonella. Which food is the most likely source of infection? A) black beans B) corn soup C) jalapeño peppers D) roma tomatoes E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
C
Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay? A) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp B) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp E) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in tooth pulp
C
Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells? A) Giardia lamblia B) Escherichia coli C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Taenia spp.
C
Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? A) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested. B) It is a bacterial infection. C) The mortality rate is high. D) It is often associated with poultry products. E) A healthy carrier state exists.
C
therapy with antibiotics was initiated. On May 4, he died. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A) hepatitis C virus B) Salmonella typhi C) Vibrio vulnificus D) Bacillus cereus E) Cyclospora cayetanensis
C
The most common NGU in the U.S is treated with
Cephalosporins
A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT Haemophilus influenza. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Listeria monocytogenes. Any of these organisms could be the causative agent
Clostridium botulinum.
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Histoplasma D) Mycobacterium E) Pneumocystis
Coccidioides
Which of the following is NOT an intracellular parasite? A) Chlamydophila B) Coccidioides C) Coxiella D) Influenza virus E) RSV
Coccidioides
The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
Corynebacterium
The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Corynebacterium B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Mycobacterium E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
Corynebacterium
Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Corynebacterium dipheriae
Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Burkholderia pseudomallei D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Pneumocystis jirovecii
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Which of the following does NOT cause otitis media? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Moraxella catarrhalis E) Coxiella burnetii
Coxiella burnetii
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Naegleria fowleri causes amoebic encephalitis Haemophilus influenzae virulence due to capsule Neisseria meningitidis produces deadly endotoxins Mycobacterium leprae cultured in armadillos Cryptococcus neoformans acid-fast rod
Cryptococcus neoformans acid-fast rod
All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT A) Shigella spp. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Clostridium perfringens. E) Yersinia enterocolitica.
D
All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT A) giardiasis. B) cholera. C) Cyclospora infection. D) trichinellosis. E) cryptosporidiosis.
D
Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by A) eating contaminated food. B) improper food storage. C) travel to an underdeveloped country. D) extended use of antibiotics. E) a blood transfusion.
D
Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with A) halitosis. B) cavities. C) trench mouth. D) gingivitis. E) periodontitis.
D
Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it A) hides in macrophages. B) makes a capsule. C) makes HCl. D) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl. E) invades epithelial cells
D
In Situation 25.1, fecal samples should be cultured for all of the following EXCEPT A) Salmonella enterica. B) enteropathogenic Escherichia coli. C) Shigella spp. D) Giardia lamblia. E) Campylobacter jejuni
D
Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the A) mouth. B) stomach. C) stomach and small intestine. D) small intestine and large intestine. E) accessory structures.
D
The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is A) Salmonella enterica. B) Shigella spp. C) Campylobacter jejuni. D) Escherichia coli. E) Giardia lamblia.
D
Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT A) shigellosis. B) trichinellosis. C) salmonellosis. D) staphylococcal food poisoning. E) beef tapeworm.
D
Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver? A) Vibrio cholerae B) Escherichia coli C) Salmonella enterica D) hepatitis A virus E) Shigella spp.
D
Which of the following is mismatched? A) custard and cream pies - Staphylococcus aureus B) chicken - Campylobacter jejuni C) oysters -Vibrio parahaemolyticus D) eggs - Trichinella spirlais E) beef - E. coli O157:H7
D
Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by A) Giardia. B) Trichinella. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Salmonella. E) rotavirus.
E
All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT A) all family members living with the patient must also be treated. B) it is a helminth disease. C) transmission is typically by contact with fomites or inhalation of eggs. D) diagnosis is by detecting eggs on transparent tape pressed to the perianal area. E) it is most commonly transmitted by cysts in water.
E
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by A) Vibrio cholerae. B) Clostridium perfringens. C) Helicobacter pylori. D) Shigella spp. E) Salmonella enterica.
E
The most common mode of HAV transmission is A) contaminated hypodermic needles. B) airborne. C) contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment. D) blood transfusion. E) contamination of food during preparation.
E
Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) Vibrio gastroenteritis B) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis C) bacillary dysentery D) traveler's diarrhea E) mumps
E
Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States? A) Taenia saginata B) Trichuris trichiura C) Echinococcus granulosus D) Enterobius vermicularis E) Ascaris lumbricoides
E
Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? A) crevicular fluid B) dentin C) sucrose D) lysozyme E) lactic acid
E
Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Giardia lamblia C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Trichinella spiralis E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
E
Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE? A) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes. B) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms. C) It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food. D) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin. E) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes.
E
Which of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is TRUE? A) The causative agent is a virus. B) The symptoms resemble pneumococcal pneumonia. C) The causative agent cannot be cultured. D) Treatment is tetracyclines.
E) Annual vaccination can prevent infection treatment is tetracyclines
Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? A) It is transmitted by direct contact. B) It is caused by papillomaviruses. C) It is always precancerous. D) It is treated by removing them.
E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women it is always precancerous
Cystitis is most often caused by
E. coli
Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by
E. coli
An eight-year-old girl in rural Wisconsin has chills, headache, and fever and reports having been bitten by mosquitoes. How would you confirm your diagnosis?
ELISA test for IgM antibodies
) Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Proteus spp. C) Escherichia coli. D) Enterobacter aerogenes. E) Streptococcus pyogenes
Escherichia coli
Cystitis is most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Leptospira interrogans. C) Candida albicans. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
CSF contains high levels of complement and circulating antibodies to prevent infection of the brain and spinal cord.
False
The most common reportable disease in the U.S is
Gonorrhea
A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms?
Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated Gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by
Haemophilus influenzae.
The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Corynebacterium B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Mycobacterium
Haemophius
___ antibodies are found in mucosal secretions and help to protect the respiratory system from infection
IgA
Which of the following is an accurate description of Cryptococcus neoformans?
It is a fungus found in dried pigeon droppings. When inhaled, it is especially dangerous to immunocompromised individuals and can cause fatal meningitis.
Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitisis FALSE?
It is a gram-positive anaerobe.
Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
It is always precancerous
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of
Lactobacillus
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A) Lactobacillus. B) Streptococcus. C) Mycobacterium. D) Neisseria. E) Candida
Lactobacillus
Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism?
Listeria
all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route
Listeria monocytogenes.
Which of the following would be an effective treatment for bacterial meningitis?
MCV4
Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE? Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection. Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques. Hydrophobia is associated with the disease. It is caused by Lyssavirus.
Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.
All of the following are classified as fungi EXCEPT A) Blastomyces. B) Coccidioides. C) Histoplasma. D) Mycobacterium. E) Pneumocystis
Mycobacterium
Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract? A) Chlamydophila B) Legionella C) Mycobacterium D) Mycoplasma E) Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
10.Which of the following microbes has NOT been associated with bacterial meningitis?
Mycobacterium leprae
All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT/ Which of the following microbes has NOT been associated with bacterial meningitis? Mycobacterium leprae Haemophilus influenzae. Neisseria meningitidis. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Mycobacterium leprae.
Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Blastomyces dermatidis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
Mycoplasma
Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) Mycobacterium
Mycoplasma
Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?
Mycoplasma
Which of the following is a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis?
Naegleria and Acanthamoeba
Which of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is FALSE? A) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis. B) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis. C) It is responsible for nearly 2 million deaths per year. D) At least 1/3 of those who are TB-positive are also HIV-positive. E) Treatment requires at least six months of antibiotic therapy
Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis
Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones? A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Treponema pallidum E) Gardnerella vaginalis
Neissera gonorrhoeae
all of these cause NGU
Neisseria
Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) Mycoplasma homini. B) Candida albicans. C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) streptococci. E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which of the following characteristics are shared by the causative agents of bacterial meningitis? They are all prevented through the Hib vaccine. They are all diplococci. They're all Gram-negative
None of the above is correct
All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others? A) Antibody production is stopped. B) CD4+ T lymphocytes do not activate. C) There is an increased risk of other STIs. D) Opa protein attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes. E) CD4+ T lymphocytes do not proliferate
Opa protein attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes
Claire is a healthy 19 year-old college freshman enjoying her first few weeks of being on a college campus. She's made lots of new friends, has been participating in many of the on-campus outdoor social activities, and is getting used to a hectic class schedule. For the last couple of days, she's been feeling more tired than usual, and she's had a sore throat. Her sore throat has been worsening, and she also has a low-grade fever and a headache that has been getting worse throughout the day. Although Claire thinks that her symptoms are due to exhaustion, Claire's roommate urges her to go the student health center just to make sure that it's nothing too major. At the student health center, Claire is examined by Dr. Peterson. She takes a routine medical history and does some basic assessment of Claire's condition including listening to her heart and lungs, checking her ears and eyes (for light responsiveness), looking at her throat, and feeling the lymph nodes in Claire's neck. Claire expects that Dr. Peterson is going to tell her to go home, drink plenty of liquids, and get lots of rest and that she'll be back to normal in a couple of days. Instead, Claire is surprised when Dr. Peterson tells her that there have been a couple of cases of meningitis reported in students living in Claire's dorm and she would like to do further tests for meningitis. Claire informs Dr. Peterson that she has received the vaccine for meningitis. Although Dr. Peterson tells Claire that this is a good thing, she informs Claire that they need to conduct further tests to confirm the causative agent and proceed with treatment. Part A. Claire's symptoms are characteristic of many different infections. Why does Dr. Peterson suspect that Claire may have meningitis? Part B. What diagnostic test would be most useful at this stage of Dr. Peterson's diagnosis?
Part A ans: 1.The closed, mixed environment of the college dorm allows for infection of susceptible students. 2.There have been documented cases of meningitis in Claire's dorm. Part B ans: A lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE?
Patients with leprosy must be isolated.
Which of the following statements concerning the blood-brain barrier is FALSE? Most antibiotics cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. Substances that are lipid-soluble can cross the blood-brain barrier readily. Inflammation can alter the blood-brain barrier, increasing the likelihood that a substance can cross.
Penicillin is useless against infections of the brain because it is completely incapable of crossing the barrier.
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Histoplasma D) Mycobacterium E) Pneumocystis
Pneumocystis
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen? A) Pneumocystis B) Legionella C) Histoplasma D) Mycoplasma E) rhinovirus
Pneumocystis
Soil is a reservoir for all of the following EXCEPT A) Q fever. B) melioidosis. C) blastomycosis. D) histoplasmosis. E) coccidioidomycosis
Q fever
Which of the following is mismatched? A) epiglottitis — Haemophilus B) Q fever — Rickettsia C) psittacosis — Chlamydia D) whooping cough — Bordetella E) melioidosis — Burkholderia
Q fever - Rickettsia
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?
Relief can be obtained through exercise.
Which of the following types of infection can result in infertility?
Salpingitis
Which of the following is treated with penicillin?
Syphilis
Which of the following statements regarding African trypanosomiasis is true?
T.b. rhodesiense not only causes disease, but also severely affects food production because it infects domestic animals, which could otherwise be used for agriculture.
Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning the Sabin and Salk vaccines?
The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form.
these are generally successful if treatment is obtained immediately following exposure. Why does post-exposure vaccination work?
The infection progresses so slowly that there is time for post-exposure vaccination to generate immunity.
Which statement regarding arboviral encephalitis is FALSE?
The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination.
Why should children younger than 1 year of age NOT be fed honey?
They may contract botulism.
A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? A) metronidazole B) cephalosporins C) acyclovir D) miconazole E) No treatment is available
acyclovir
the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate? A) acyclovir B) metronidazole C) miconazole D) penicillin E) surgery
acyclovir
Legionella is transmitted by A) airborne transmission. B) foodborne transmission. C) person-to-person contact. D) fomites. E) vectors
airborne transmission
Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis B) Aspergillus C) Rhizopus D) Mucor E) All of the answers are correct
all of the answers are correct
The most effective means of preventing influenza is
annual vaccination
The most effective means of preventing influenza is A) annual vaccination. B) isolation of carriers. C) vector control. D) pasteurization of milk. E) administration of amantadine
annual vaccination
Which statement regarding Influenzavirus is true?
antigenic shift can occur because the genome is in several pieces
Part C Based on Claire's medical history and the Gram stain results, which is the most likely causative organism? a. West Nile Virus (WNV) b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Neisseria meningitidis
Which of the following statements about meningitis is TRUE? a. A vaccine exists to protect people against only meningitis caused by H. influenzae. b. Viral meningitis, while less severe than bacterial meningitis, is more common in occurrence. c. Meningitis is an infection of the cerebral tissue resulting when bacteria or viruses cross the blood brain barrier. d. There are more than 50 bacterial species commonly associated with meningitis.
b. Viral meningitis, while less severe than bacterial meningitis, is more common in occurrence.
All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT A) vaccination. B) current tuberculosis infection. C) previous tuberculosis infection. D) immunity to tuberculosis. E) being near someone with tuberculosis
being near someone with tuberculosis
All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test except
being near someones with tuberculosis
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? rabies virus - destroys cells of the CNS tetanus - releases potent neurotoxin leprosy deformation of nose and hands can occur poliomyelitis - multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine
botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
30.Vaccination is available for all the following except Neisseria meningitis. tetanus. rabies. Haemophilus meningitis.
botulism.
this response is much less extreme in viral meningitis. d. N. meningitidis produces an exotoxin that specifically kills immune cells resulting in a decreased ability to fight the infection.
c. The immune response generated against bacteria leads to a massive influx of immune cells in the meninges
The common cold
can result from deposition of a single rhinovirus on the nasal mucosa
Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. E) lymphogranuloma venereum
candidiasis
Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) trichomoniasis B) genital herpes C) candidiasis D) gonorrhea E) chancroid
candidiasis
Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A) genital herpes B) genital warts C) candidiasis D) syphilis E) trichomoniasis
candidiasis
The most common NGU in the United States is treated with A) penicillin. B) cephalosporins. C) acyclovir. D) AZT. E) doxycycline
cephalosporins
One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Candida albicans
chlamydia trachomatis
Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following organisms? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) Chlamydophila
coccidioides
Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir? A) tuberculosis — cattle B) histoplasmosis — soil C) psittacosis — parakeets D) coccidioidomycosis — air E) pneumocystis — humans
coccidioidomycosis - air
The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following except
competition with the normal flora of the lungs
he lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT A) competition with the normal flora of the lungs. B) IgA antibodies. C) mucous secretions. D) the ciliary escalator. E) alveolar macrophages
competition with the normal flora of the lungs
Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes A) cystitis. B) pyelonephritis. C) vaginitis. D) gonorrhea. E) syphilis
cystitis
therefore they stimulate a larger immune response. c. The protein carrier allows the vaccine conjugate to be transported to more sites involved in generating the immune response therefore the overall response that is generated will be stronger. d. In contrast to polysaccharide vaccines, protein-conjugated vaccines elicit a strong T-cell dependent response.
d. In contrast to polysaccharide vaccines, protein-conjugated vaccines elicit a strong T-cell dependent response.
59. What is a likely result of the elevated WBC level in Claire's CSF? a. Due to the high number of WBCs that have moved to the CSF to fight the infection, the N. meningitidis will be quickly eliminated. b. Due to the massive influx of WBCs, the cerebral tissue will be destroyed as the WBCs move from the CSF to the tissue. c. Claire will be more susceptible to infections in other anatomical locations because the majority of her immune cells will be in her brain. d. There will be an extreme inflammatory response which will eventually lead to shock and ultimately to Claire's death.
d. There will be an extreme inflammatory response which will eventually lead to shock and ultimately to Claire's death.
Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?
diarrhea
Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza? A) fever B) chills C) headache D) diarrhea E) muscle aches
diarrhea
Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age? A) coccidioidomycosis B) diphtheria C) legionellosis D) scarlet fever E) psittacosis
diphteria
Which of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins? A) diphtheria B) tuberculosis C) whooping cough D) scarlet fever E) psittacosis
diphtheria
Diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by
direct fluorescent-antibody test.
Tuberculosis is the name of the ___ caused by the ___ Mycobacterium tuberculosis
disease
The most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is A) humans. B) water. C) domestic dogs. D) domestic cats. E) rats
domestic dogs
therefore glucose drops in other locations such as the CSF. c. N. meningitidis uses the glucose as a source of energy to fuel its growth. d. N. meningitidis produces a virulence factor which breaks down extracellular glucose so that immune cells are unable to use it as a source of energy. e. N. meningitidis uses the glucose as a source of energy to fuel its growth.
e. N. meningitidis uses the glucose as a source of energy to fuel its growth.
All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT A) it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses. B) it is transmitted via aerosols and contact. C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms. D) complications include laryngitis and otitis media. E) the duration of symptoms is approximately one week
early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms
All of the following are true of the common cold except
early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms
Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality rate of 30 percent?
eastern equine encephalitis
Clostridium botulinum.
elimination of the mosquito population.
Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.
encephalitis
Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT A) strep throat. B) scarlet fever. C) rheumatic fever. D) pharyngitis. E) epiglottitis
epiglottitis
Which of the following is mismatched? A) pharyngitis — sore throat B) laryngitis — voice loss C) epiglottitis — sore throat D) sinusitis — headache and nasal mucous E) otitis media — earache
epiglottitis - sore throat
Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Enterococcus. C) Proteus. D) Klebsiella. E) Pseudomonas
escherichia coli
Coccidioides immitis causes Valley fever, a disease that is endemic to the Mississippi Valley.
false
A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated
false
A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated.
false
A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.
false
A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis?
false
Genital candidiasis is a disease that only affects women.
false
Most UTI infections in the population are a result of catheterization in a hospital setting.
false
Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media will not resolve unless they are treated with antibiotics.
false
Only HSV-2 can cause genital herpes
false
Only HSV-2 can cause genital herpes.
false
Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus
false
Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus.
false
Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems
false
Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems.
false
All of the following are used as first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT A) ethambutol. B) isoniazid. C) fluoroquinolones. D) rifampin. E) pyrazinamide
fluoroquinolones
Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of
genital herpes
Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. E) lymphogranuloma venereum
genital herpes
Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? A) genital herpes B) gonorrhea C) syphilis D) trichomoniasis E) leptospirosis
genital herpes
Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
genital herpes
Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) chancroid E) LGV
genital herpes
the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable? A) candidiasis B) genital herpes C) gonorrhea D) NGU E) syphilis
genital herpes
The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ___ to ___ by bacteria
glycogen
lactic acid
glycogen
The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) cystitis. B) lymphogranuloma venereum. C) gonorrhea. D) syphilis. E) candidiasis.
gonorrhea
Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis? A) Histoplasma B) Coccidioides C) Legionella D) Mycoplasma E) Influenza virus
histoplasma
Which statement regarding the structure or function of the urinary system is false?
in the male, the urethra conveys only urine to the exterior
Which population is most likely to develop bacterial meningitis?
infants and young children
A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder A) is sterile. B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D) contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml. E) has leukocyte esterase
is sterile
Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE? A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain. B) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae. C) It can be transmitted sexually. D) It can be caused by C. trachomatis. E) It can be caused by T. pallidum
it can be caused by T. pallidum
All of the following are true of M. leprae except it survives ingestion by macrophages. it invades cells of the PNS. it can be cultured in armadillos. it grows best at temperatures below 37° C.
it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.
Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) genital herpes C) candidiasis D) trichomoniasis E) lymphogranuloma venereum
lymphogranuloma venereum
All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) syphilis. B) gonorrhea. C) nongonococcal urethritis. D) genital herpes. E) lymphogranuloma venereum
lymphogranuloma verenum
Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
many antibiotics cannot penetrate the bloodbrain barrier.
Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because A) maternal antibodies offer protection. B) the disease cannot be transmitted to newborns. C) the disease is not communicable. D) prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn. E) the virus is not growing
maternal antibodies offer protection
A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? A) metronidazole B) cephalosporins C) acyclovir D) miconazole E) No treatment is available
metronidazole
The prodromal symptom(s) of bacterial meningitis is/are
mild cold symptoms.
Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because
mosquito populations increase.
All of the following microorganisms can directly cause meningitis EXCEPT bacteria. protozoa. virus. fungi.
mosquitoes.
All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water. the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus. initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine. the majority of cases are asymptomatic.
most cases result in muscle paralysis.
Which of the following is mismatched? A) Burkholderia — melioidosis B) Coxiella — Q fever C) Mycoplasma — walking pneumonia D) Chlamydophila — psittacosis E) Mycobacterium — whooping cough
mycobacterium - whopping cough
Which of the following is mismatched? A) Corynebacterium — gram-positive rod B) Mycobacterium — acid-fast rod C) Mycoplasma — gram-positive pleomorphic rod D) Bordetella — gram-negative pleomorphic rod E) Haemophilus — gram-negative rod
mycoplasma - gram-positive pleomorphic rod
all of these are predisposing factors
none of the answers is correct
all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea
none of these answers are correct
Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent?
oral polio vaccine
A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. This disease can be treated with A) acyclovir. B) metronidazole. C) miconazole. D) penicillin. E) surgery
penicillin
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has A) tuberculosis. B) influenza. C) pneumococcal pneumonia. D) mycoplasmal pneumonia. E) the common cold
pneumococcal pneumonia
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route rabies - direct contact leprosy - direct contact listeriosis - ingestion
poliomyelitis - respiratory route
On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. These people were given
postexposure prophylaxis.
Which statements regarding normal microbiota of the urinary and reproductive systems are true?
pregnancy and menopause are associated with higher rates of urinary tract infections
all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus. eastern equine encephalitis. St. Louis encephalitis.
primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).
A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates
pyelonephritis
A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) cystitis. B) gonorrhea. C) urethritis. D) pyelonephritis. E) genital herpes
pyelonephritis
A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death?
rabies
Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. kuru. bovine spongiform encephalopathy. sheep scrapie.
rabies.
Which of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?
respiratory syncytial virus
Which of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants? A) rhinovirus B) adenovirus C) respiratory syncytial virus D) influenza E) Mycoplasma
respiratory syncytial virus
A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in? A) NGU B) primary C) secondary D) tertiary
secondary
) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis? A) bacterial culture B) microscopic examination of blood C) serological test for antibodies D) serological test for antigen E) viral culture
serological test for antibodies
Which of the following is/are associated with secondary stage syphilis
skin rashes of varying appearance
Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
streptococcal pneumonia
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) RSV
streptococcus
On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. The patient had partially healed superficial knee wounds incurred while laying cement. He reported eating home-canned green beans and stew containing roast beef and potatoes 24 hours before onset of symptoms. The patient should be treated with
supportive care, including respiratory assistance.
Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) NGU D) trichomoniasis E) genital herpes
syphilis
Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? A) nongonococcal urethritis B) gonorrhea C) syphilis D) lymphogranuloma venereum E) candidiasis
syphilis
The symptoms of tetanus are due to
tetanospasmin
40.Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is
tetanus immune globulin.
Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is
tetanus toxoid.
The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
the answer cannot be determined based on the information
A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having A) streptococcal pharyngitis. B) scarlet fever. C) diphtheria. D) the common cold. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
the answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Corynebacterium B) Rhinovirus C) Bordetella D) Streptococcus E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
the answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through
the circulatory system.
Which of the following is greater? A) the number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year B) the number of reported cases of AIDS last year C) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea and AIDS are likely equal
the number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year
An individual presents with a pinkish-red rash and red sore throat. Gram-positive cocci and cultured from a throat swab. The cocci are growing in chains. Which of the following is the most likely conclusion?
the patient has scarlet fever
Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system?
the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women
all of these are antimicrobial features of the urinary system
the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women
Which of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is true?
treatment is tetracyclines
A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansens disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT disfiguring nodules form all over the body. the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage. infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual. a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis.
treatment will include injections of penicillin.
A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms? A) Nesseria B) HPV C) HSV-2 D) Candida E) Treponema
treponema
Leukocytes at the infected site are a symptom of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. E) lymphogranuloma venereum
trichomoniasis
Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) lymphogranuloma venereum B) genital herpes C) gonorrhea D) chancroid E) trichomoniasis
trichomoniasis
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) trichomoniasis — fungus B) gonorrhea — gram-negative cocci C) chancroid — gram-negative rod D) Gardnerella — clue cells E) syphilis — gram-negative spirochete
trichomoniasis - fungus
Trichomoniasis is the only known STI caused by a protozoan.
true
Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men
true
Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men.
true
Infections with Legionella pneumophila are usually transmitted via aerosols from contaminated air conditioning systems, showers, and humidifiers.
true
It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract
true
It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract.
true
Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, also known as "walking pneumonia."
true
Risks for Q fever include contact with infected cattle and drinking unpasteurized milk.
true
The TORCH panel of tests is used to screen for diseases like syphilis.
true
The male urethra is typically sterile.
true
The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
true
The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells.
true
Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine? A) tuberculosis — toxoid B) whooping cough — heat-killed bacteria C) diphtheria — toxoid D) influenza — viruses grown in embryonated eggs E) pneumococcal pneumonia — capsular polysaccharides
tuberculosis - toxoid
Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?
tuberculosis toxoid
Patients with leprosy usually die from complications such as
tuberculosis.
If a person in the United States is exposed to rabies, which animal is the most likely culprit?
wild bats
Candida is a normal flora found in the majority (greater than 50%) of
women. false
The primary victims of the influenza pandemic of 1918-1919 were
young adults
therefore, it was known as the "Spanish Flu." D) young adults. E) residents of the U.S
young adults