Midterm Review

Keeping in mind the equation of CO=SVxHR and remembering what the components of stroke volume are... If a patient has damage to the myocardium resulting in remodeling and causing a decrease in contractility, which of the following might the body do in order to maintain cardiac output? A. Increase heart rate B. Decrease preload C. Decrease heart rate D. Decrease afterload

A. Increase heart rate

The 6Ps measure Acute Arterial Occlusion. Which of the following is NOT one of the 6P's? A. Purpura B. Pain C. Pallor D. Paralysis E. Polar F. Paresthesia

A. Purpura

Posterior Pituitary

ADH

Primarily a children's disorder

ALL

Cytoskeleton

An elaborate protein network responsible for the cell's shape as well as movement

Adaptive or acquire immunity

Antigen-specific immune response; previous exposure required

The hallmark of Multiple Myeloma is the presence of this protein in the urine

Bence-Jones

A patient is admitted for an MI that involves an infarct of a large area of the heart. While in the hospital, they develop signs of shock. Which type of shock does this patient most likely have? A. Obstructive B. Hypovolemic C. Cardiogenic D. Distributive

C. Cardiogenic

A patient with aortic stenosis is assessed by their provider. The provider knows that sustained aortic stenosis makes which of the following area of the heart work the hardest? A. Right ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right atrium D. Left ventricle

D. Left ventricle

A patient in an MVC experienced blunt force trauma to the chest and has since developed cardiac tamponade. The patient's blood pressure has dropped dramatically and the patient has other clinical signs of shock in addition to distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds. Which type of shock is the patient experiencing? A. Distributive B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolemic D. Obstructive

D. Obstructive

Active immunity

Immunity resulting from forming antibody in response to infection or immunization

Phagocytosis

Ingestion of pathogens by leukocytes using the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis

PTT

Intrinsic Pathway

Plasma membrane

Lipid bilayer that prevents most water soluble molecules to penetrate

Adenosine triphosphate

Molecule used as energy by cells. It cannot cross the lipid bilayer and therefore must be synthesized as it is needed.

Symptoms of unstable angina with no ST elevation on ECG

NSTEMI

Catecholamines

Neurotransmitters released in response to stress

_________ is an ATP-requiring process that results in cellular death. a. Apoptosis b. Necrosis c. Neoplasia d. Metastasis

a. Apoptosis

Which of the following are potentially reversible cellular responses to injury? Select all that apply. a. Atrophy b. Necrosis c. Metaplasia d. Hyperplasia

a. Atrophy c. Metaplasia d. Hyperplasia

Pathophysiology includes which of the following interrelated topics? a. Etiology b. Pathogenesis c. Public policy development d. Clinical manifestations

a. Etiology b. Pathogenesis d. Clinical manifestations

The stage during which the patient functions normally even though the disease processes are well established is called a. Subclinical b. Latent c. Convalescence d. Prodromal

a. Subclinical

Selye's phases of the stress response include which of the following? (Select all that apply) a. alarm b. homeostasis c. resistance d. allostasis e. exhaustion

a. alarm c. resistance e. exhaustion

The cortisol effect on protein metabolism is ______ in the liver and _______ in muscle and other tissues. a. anabolic, catabolic b. anabolic, anabolic c. catabolic, catabolic d. catabolic, anabolic

a. anabolic, catabolic

Opportunistic pathogen

A microbe that causes disease when normal defense mechanisms are compromised

Antigen

A molecule capable of stimulating an immune response

Neoplasm

A new and abnormal proliferation of cells. May or may not be malignant

Stress response

A response designed to restore balance to an organism

Cardiac dysrhythmias can cause which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Decreased ventricular filling B. Abnormally slow heart rate C. Decreased cardiac output D. Abnormally fast heart rate E. Decreased perfusion to the myocardium F. Increased cardiac output

A. Decreased ventricular filling B. Abnormally slow heart rate C. Decreased cardiac output D. Abnormally fast heart rate E. Decreased perfusion to the myocardium

Which of the following are potential characteristics of hemolytic anemia? Select all that apply A. Elevated MCV B. Weakness or Fatigue C. Elevated RBC count D. Jaundice E. Elevated bilirubin levels F. Elevated reticulocyte count

A. Elevated MCV B. Weakness or Fatigue D. Jaundice E. Elevated bilirubin levels F. Elevated reticulocyte count

Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Anemia of Chronic Renal Failure C. Aplastic anemia D. Hypertension

A. Hemolytic anemia

Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (select all that apply) a. hygiene b. environmental toxins c. overcrowding d. nutrition e. genetics

a. hygiene b. environmental toxins c. overcrowding d. nutrition

Which is not normally secreted in response to stress? a. insulin b. cortisol c. norepinephrine d. epinephrine

a. insulin

Ion channels open and close in response to which of the following? Select all that apply. a. ligand binding b. voltage change c. mechanical pressure d. temperature changes

a. ligand binding b. voltage change c. mechanical pressure

In Mitral Valve stenosis, where would fluid backup would cause symptoms in a patient a. lungs b. aortic c. tricuspid d. mitral valves

a. lungs

Which of the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose? (Select all that apply) a. norepinephrine b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. epinephrine

a. norepinephrine b. cortisol d. epinephrine

Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? Select all that apply. a. surgery b. corticosteroids c. low protein level d. high blood sugar e. genetic disorders

a. surgery b. corticosteroids c. low protein level d. high blood sugar

Which of the following is an example of the clinical manifestation known as a sign? a. Neck pain b. Dislocated elbow c. Nausea d. Double vision (diplopia)

b. Dislocated elbow

Which of the following is used to describe a state of equilibrium or balance in an organism? a. Allostasis b. Homeostasis c. General Adaptation Syndrome d. Adaptation Stage

b. Homeostasis

Passive immunity is provided by which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Active infections b. Injection of human immune globulin c. Transfer of preformed human antibodies d. Injection with preformed animal antibodies e. Vaccines

b. Injection of human immune globulin c. Transfer of preformed human antibodies d. Injection with preformed animal antibodies

A patient has been exposed to COVID-19 but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the ______ stage. a. Convalescence b. Latent c. Prodromal d. Sequela

b. Latent

A disease that is native to a particular location is called a. Pandemic b. Native c. Endemic d. Ethnographic

c. Endemic

A 17-year-old college bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of a. Secondary prevention b. Prophylaxis c. Primary prevention d. Tertiary prevention

c. Primary prevention

Which of the following is true about proto-oncogenes? a. They lead to abnormal tumor suppressor genes. b. They are the same as oncogenes. c. They are normal cellular genes that promote growth. d. They result from severe mutational events.

c. They are normal cellular genes that promote growth.

Chronic overactivation of adaptive regulatory physiologic systems that increases susceptibility to disease is a. homeostasis b. allostasis c. allostatic overload d. coping

c. allostatic overload

Nucleus

Home of the genomic DNA

Pathogen

An agent that causes disease

Long term blood pressure management involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). What is the correct sequential order in relation to RAAS:

1. Renin released from kidney in reaction to low blood pressure 2. Renin activates angiotensin to turn into angiotensin 1 3. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 4. Angiotensin 2 vasoconstricts- aldosterone released- also signals adrenals to release catecholamines and Posterior Pituitary to release ADH 5. Sodium and water retained- potassium excreted

Endemic disease

A disease that is native to a local area or region

Which of the following is used to describe a process of adaptive change in an attempt to achieve equilibrium or balance in an organism? a. Allostasis b. Homeostasis c. General Adaptation Syndrome d. Alarm Stage

Allostasis

Which of the following are properties of cardiac cells? Select all that apply. A. Adaptability B. Conductivity C. Automaticity D. Contractility E. Excitability

B. Conductivity C. Automaticity D. Contractility E. Excitability

54 year old male presents to the hospital with a suspected acute arterial occlusion. The nurse knows that the alterations in pressure and flow from this acute occlusion are best represented by which of the following: A. Decreased pressure upstream, decreased flow downstream B. Decreased pressure upstream, increased flow downstream C. Increased pressure upstream, decreased flow downstream D. Increased pressure upstream, increased flow downstream

C. Increased pressure upstream, decreased flow downstream

Which of the following is a finding unique to left-sided heart failure? A. Decreased urine output B. Increased heart rate C. Shortness of breath D. Peripheral dependent edema

C. Shortness of breath

What term best describes angina caused by coronary artery vasospasm: A. Unstable angina B. Stable angina C. Variant or Prinzmetal angina D. ST elevation MI

C. Variant or Prinzmetal angina

Condition associated with the Philadelphia Chromosome

CML

Allostatic overload

Can be caused by inadequate ability to adapt

Stressor

Can be positive or negative

Etiology

Cause or reason for something

Innate immune defense

Defenses that require no previous exposure in order to respond

Pathogenesis

Development or evolution of a disease

Hematologic neoplasms of the myeloid lineage include all of the following EXCEPT A. Monocytes B. Platelets C. RBCs D. Granulocytes E. B cells

E. B cells

Catabolism

Energy-releasing breakdown of large molecules of nutrients into smaller molecules

Anabolism

Energy-using metabolic process that results in synthesis of complex molecules, cells, and tissues.

Kidney

Erythropoeitin

PT/INR

Extrinsic Pathway

Spleen (storage)

Platelets

Endoplasmic reticulum

Play important role in synthesis of proteins and lipids

Anaplasia

Presense of abnormal nuclei and variations in cell size and shape

Angiogenesis

Process of forming new blood cells

Mitochondria

Produce ATP and also contain a specialized type of DNA

Gluconeogenesis

Production of glucose from body proteins

Transmembrane proteins

Proteins that extend through the lipid bilayer and facilitate transport through the plasma membrane

Hodgkin disease has these cells in lymph node tumors

Reed-Sternberg

Internal endothelial injury

Release of collagen- intrinsic

External tissue injury

Release of tissue factor- Extrinsic

Evidence of acute ischemia on ECG

STEMI

Clinical manifestations

Signs and symptoms of illness or disease. Can be subjective (symptoms) or objective (signs)

Angina onset usually predictable and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin

Stable angina

Epidemiology

Study of patterns of disease

Complement

System of plasma proteins that interact and function as inflammatory mediators and serve an important role in immunity

Passive immunity

Transfer of preformed antibodies against a specific antigen to an unprotected person

Metastasis

Travel of cancer cells to distant areas in body

Malignant tumor

Type of tumor likely to metastasize and invade local tissue; Usually poorly differentiated

Benign tumor

Type of tumor that does not metastasize, stays localized, and is usually well differentiated

Not predictable- May progress to acute ischemia

Unstable angina

Vasospasms- unpredictable- usually related to physical or emotional exertion (increased O2 demand)

Variant/Prinzmetal Angina

Leukocytes

White blood cells

In the tissues, oxygen has a(n) _____________ affinity for hemoglobin and ____________ unloading to the tissues.

[decreased] [increased]

Hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia are forms of _________________ injury while necrosis and apoptosis are forms of _________________ injury

[reversible] [irreversible]

Your patient was recently exposed to a group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal (throat) infection. You examine him and note a temperature of 102.3º F, a skin rash, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), and a reddened throat with multiple white pustules. He complains of a sore throat, body aches, and joint stiffness. The throat culture is positive for Streptococcus and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of your patient's illness is a. Sore throat b. Streptococcal infection c. Genetic susceptibility d. Pharyngitis

b. Streptococcal infection

Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by a. glucagon b. norepinephrine c. cortisol d. ACTH

b. norepinephrine

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in a. stress reduction b. movement into the resistance stage c. permanent damage and death d. exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system

c. permanent damage and death

Allostasis is best defined as . a. the process by which the body heals following disease b. steady-state c. the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being d. a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism

c. the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being

Liver

clotting factors

The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Bone marrow stem cells b. Basophils c. Antibody-secreting plasma cells d. Dendritic cells e. Monocytes and tissue macrophages

d. Dendritic cells e. Monocytes and tissue macrophages

Which of the following is an example of primary prevention? a. Monthly breast examinations b. Colonoscopy for cancer screening c. Cardiac rehab after a heart attack d. Education about healthy diet and regular physical exercise

d. Education about healthy diet and regular physical exercise

The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is a. Set a new baseline steady state b. Invoke a resting state d. Produce exhaustion d. Energy and repair

d. Energy and repair

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE

d. IgE

The effects of excessive cortisol production include a. Inflammatory reactions b. Anorexia c. Hypoglycemia d. Immune suppression

d. Immune suppression

After experiencing a heart attack, a patient is instructed to take cholesterol lowering medication. This is an example of a. Disease treatment b. Primary prevention c. Secondary prevention d. Tertiary prevention

d. Tertiary prevention

Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all of the following except a. tachycardia (increased heart rate) b. diaphoresis (sweating) c. increased blood pressure d. pupil constriction

d. pupil constriction