MLT ASCP Review 6
CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations? - Mature T cells - Normal B cells - Both mature T cells and normal B cells - None of the above, CD5 is not a lymphoid marker
Mature T cells
What is the most common early abnormality observed in the lymph nodes of AIDS patients? - Reactive lymphadenopathy - Mantle cell lymphoma - Classic type Hodgkin lymphoma - B lymphoblastic leukemia with t(9;22) translocation
Reactive lymphadenopathy
What is the inside portion of the needle tube called? - Bevel - Shaft - Hub - Lumen
Lumen
What is the International Normalized Ratio (INR) calculation used for? - Standardize PT and aPTT results - Standardize PT results between different reagent sensitivities - Standardize aPTT results between different reagent sensitivities - Calibrate coagulation instruments for all coagulation testing
Standardize PT results between different reagent sensitivities
Antibodies are ruled out using panel cells that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen because: - Multiple antibodies will not react with heterozygous cells - Stronger reactions are seen with homozygous cells - Heterozygous cells are usually negative - Heterozygous cells cannot be used at all for rule-outs
Stronger reactions are seen with homozygous cells
A mother types as O+. Her newborn types as A+ with a (1+) positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST? - Test an eluate prepared from newborn's red cells against an antibody identification panel by IAT - Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT - Test newborn's plasma against mother's red cells by IAT - Test newborn's plasma against father's red cells by IAT
Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT
The principal amount of testosterone in males is produced by which endocrine gland? - Adrenals - Testes - Pituitary - Hypothalamus
Testes
All of the following white blood cells would produce a positive leukocyte esterase test, EXCEPT? - Neutrophils - Eosinophils - Basophils - Lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
Why is it dangerous to transfuse a blood group O person with a unit of blood group A? - The patient will make antibodies to the type A blood - The group A blood may become the prominent blood group - The patient's Anti-O would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient - The patient's Anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient
The patient's Anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient
The process of pipetting 1.0 mL of plasma or serum into a tube containing 1.0 mL of saline, mixing the contents and then repeating the same procedure into several additional tubes also containing 1.0 mL of saline is referred to as: - One to one serial dilution - Two-fold serial dilution - Multiple dilution - Decreasing serial dilution
Two-fold serial dilution
A quick mathematical check which can be applied to verify that the hemoglobin and hematocrit values on a complete blood count correspond with each other would be: - Hematocrit x 3 = hemoglobin - Hemoglobin x 3 = hematocrit - Hemoglobin / hematocrit = 3 - Hemoglobin + hematocrit = 3
Hemoglobin x 3 = hematocrit
The most significant class of microbial targets for Natural Killer (NK) cells is: - Bacteria - Parasites - Viruses - Fungi
Viruses
A D-negative mother gives birth to a D-positive child. the result of the fetal-maternal hemorrhage test is positive. The Kleihauer-Betke test is performed next to quantify the volume of the fetal bleed. The result of this test indicates that the mother has been exposed to 20mL of fetal blood. How many 300 microgram vials of RhIG should the mother receive? - 1 vial - 2 vials - 3 vials - RhIG is not indicated for this mother
2 vials
The accepted interval between whole blood donations is: - 2 days - 4 weeks - 8 weeks - 16 weeks
8 weeks
What abnormal red blood cell inclusion is composed of multiple small, dark blue aggregates of ribosomes (RNA) that are inhibited throughout the RBC? - Pappenheimer bodies - Basophilic stippling - Heinz bodies - Howell-Jolly bodies
Basophilic stippling
Bordet-Gengou plates are used to isolate: - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Bordetella pertussis - Haemophilus influenzae
Bordetella pertussis
Which tests will be abnormal in a patient with Fibrin Stabilizing factor deficiency? - aPTT - 5 M urea clot solubility test - Factor XIII assay - Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay
Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay
Bioavailability of an oral drug refers to the : - Availability for therapeutic administration - Ratio of protein-bound to free drug - Amount of drug transformation - Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into the systemic circulation
Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into the systemic circulation
What does the abbreviation FTE stand for? - Factual Time Equity - Full Time Equivalent - Fixed Time Expenditure - Factual Time Expenditure
Full Time Equivalent
In order to avoid repeating pretransfusion testing on a neonate during one hospital admission, all of the following must be true, EXCEPT? - Received only ABO-compatible blood - Received only Rh-compatible blood - No unexpected antibodies in the serum or plasma - Has only received formula for nourishment
Has only received formula for nourishment
A culture was performed on a stool sample. After growth was obtained on the blood agar plate, the gram stain showed curved gram negative rods. The oxidase, catalase, and urease were positive. What is the most likely bacterial identification? - Helicobacter pylori - Campylobacter concisus - Helicobacter cinaedi - Arcobacter spp.
Helicobacter pylori
Select the equation which is used to determine the pH of a solution containing a weak acid and it's salt. - Van Deemter equation - Van Slyke equation - Nernst equation - Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
The autohemolysis test is MOST useful in the diagnosis of which condition? - Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency - G6PD deficiency - Sickle cell anemia - Hereditary spherocytosis
Hereditary spherocytosis
The serum from a patient of African-American descent is reactive with all screening and panel cells. Which antibody directed to a high-incidence antigen is most likely present? - Anti-Lub - Anti-Jk3 - Anti-U - Anti-Ku
Anti-U
The serum of which of the following individuals may agglutinate group A1 cells? - A2 individual - A1B individual - A1 individual - Newborn
A2 individual
Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the immediate outcomes of kidney transplants? - ABO compatibility - HLA compatibility - Rh compatibility - Other blood group system compatibility (Kell, Kidd, Duffy, etc.)
ABO compatibility
A clean catch midstream urine specimen from a 57 year old woman was sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture. The patient has a history of fever, chills, and flank pain upon examination. The urine grew out 10,000 cfu/mL of Escherichia coli. Which of the following categories would the patient be classified? - Acute, uncomplicated UTI in women - Acute, uncomplicated pyelonephritis - Asymptomatic bacteriuria in female patients - Asymptomatic bacteriuria in male patients
Acute, uncomplicated pyelonephritis
Observations that can be made based on the Gram stain examination include all of the following EXCEPT: - Gram stain reaction - Shape of the organism - Cellular arrangement - Age of the organism
Age of the organism
A Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) consists of which group of tests? - Cholesterol, Lipoprotein, HDL, Triglycerides - Albumin, Glucose, BUN, Creatinine, Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, CO2, AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase, Total Protein, Total Bilirubin, Calcium - Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, CO2 - AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase, Total Protein, Albumin, Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin
Albumin, Glucose, BUN, Creatinine, Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, CO2, AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase, Total Protein, Total Bilirubin, Calcium
Which clinical situation below is GGT elevation most often associated with? - Bone disease - Alcohol consumption - Pancreatic disease - Nephrotic syndrome
Alcohol consumption
What is the effect of aging with the hormones of the endocrine system? - Aldosterone decreases and norepinepherine increases - Aldosterone increases and norepinepherine increases - Aldosterone decreases and norepinepherine decreases - Aldosterone increases and norepinepherine decreases
Aldosterone decreases and norepinepherine increases
A patient reported to her doctor that her stools have been ribbon-like over the last few weeks. What is most likely the cause of the patient's stool appearance? - Diarrhea - Constipation - Inflammation of the intestinal wall - Bowel obstruction
Bowel obstruction
All of the following Candida species can be commonly recovered in a clinical specimen of blood, EXCEPT? - Candida albicans - Candida tropicalis - Candida parapsilosis - Candida neoformans
Candida neoformans
In DNA sequencing, multiple fluorescent labeled nucleotides are commonly separated using what type of test? - Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) - Capillary electrophoresis (CE) - Two-dimensional electrophoresis - HPLC
Capillary electrophoresis (CE)
The purpose of C3a and C5a, the split products of the complement cascade, is to: - Bind with specific membrane receptors of lymphocytes and cause release of cytotoxic substances - Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release histamine from basophils - Bind with membrane receptors of macrophages to facilitate phagocytosis and the removal of debris and foreign substances - Regulate and degrade membrane cofactor protein after activation by C3 convertase
Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release histamine from basophils
Central Tolerance in the human immune defense system operates by: - Clonal deletion of T cells and clonal editing of B cells - Cellular inactivation by weak signaling without a co-stimulus - Clearance of apoptotic bodies - Antigen segregation
Clonal deletion of T cells and clonal editing of B cells
Each of the bacterial species listed below are correctly matched with its identifying characteristic, EXCEPT: - Listeria monocytogenes-room temperature umbrella motility - Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae-H2S production - Corynebacterium urealyticum-urease negative - Bacillus anthracis-spore former
Corynebacterium urealyticum-urease negative
Which of the statements below regarding the diagnosis of pancreatitis is correct? - Amylase and lipase are as predictive in chronic as in acute pancreatitis - Diagnostic sensitivity for acute pancreatitis is increased by assaying both amylase and lipase - Chronic pancreatitis occurs most often in women - Increased amylase levels stay increased after the cause of the pancreatitis is removed
Diagnostic sensitivity for acute pancreatitis is increased by assaying both amylase and lipase
A common hematology test that measures the rate at which the red blood cells fall and settle in a period of one hour is called? - Platelet function assay (PFA) - Prothrombin time (PT) - Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or PTT) - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? - Late stage of Salicylate poisoning - Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus - Renal failure - Excessive vomiting
Excessive vomiting
IgG coated red cells are added to negative antiglobulin tests to detect which of the following sources of error? - Delay in washing procedure - Improper resuspension of the red cells - Failure to add AHG - Improper incubation time or temperature
Failure to add AHG
Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? - Beta-Glucuronidase - Bilirubin oxidase - Bilirubin reductase - Glucuronyl transferase
Glucuronyl transferase
Which of the following has been compared to a hockey puck when discussing its morphology on chocolate agar? - Neisseria subflava - Moraxella catarrhalis - Neisseria lactamica - Neisseria sicca
Moraxella catarrhalis
Compared to the primary immune response, the secondary immune response typically demonstrates: - Less antibodies produced - A longer lag time - More antibodies produced - A lower affinity
More antibodies produced
Which of the following is the MOST likely identity of an acid fast bacilli that showed buff colored, dry, heaped colonies; niacin, nitrate and urease positive; took 23 days at 35*C to grow: - Mycobacterium avium - Mycobacterium kansasii - Mycobacterium bovis - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A patient presents with the following tests results: Total Bilirubin: 3.0 mg/dL Conjugated Bilirubin: 1.2 mg/dL Urine urobilinogen: Decreased Stool color: Clay color The MOST probable cause is: - Viral infection of the liver - Chemical damage to the liver - Obstructive jaundice - Hepatitis
Obstructive jaundice
Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals? - Phase contrast - Darkfield microscopy - Brightfield microscopy - Polarized light
Polarized light
History records an outbreak with the sudden onset of high fever, headache, and abdominal pain among 93 persons who had attended a public church dinner the week before. An XLD plate has growth with black colonies and is representative of the organism that may have been recovered from blood cultures from any one of these 93 persons. The most likely identification is: - Escherichia coli - Salmonella serotype Typhi - Shigella sonnei - Edwardsiella tarda
Salmonella serotype Typhi
Why are small dense LDL molecules more atherogenic? - Small dense LDL molecules contain less cholesterol and phospholipid - Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of HDL-C in the blood - Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of adiponectin and inflammatory cytokines - Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall
Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall
Each of the bacterial series listed below may be associated with culture-negative endocarditis EXCEPT: - Cardiobacterium hominis - Streptococcus abiotropha - Brucella abortis - Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Which of the following statements is correct regarding blood bank adverse event reporting to the FDA? - All patient deaths while being transfused must be reported to the FDA, even when it has been confirmed that the death was not related to the transfusion - When a transfusion reaction is the result of an error it must be reported to the FDA in writing - A transfusion related death must be reported to the FDA within 24 hours of the patient's death - The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion
The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion
CSF pleocytosis can refer to: - A decreased number of lymphocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample - An increased number of lymphocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample - An increased number of myeloblasts in a CSF when compared to a normal sample - A decreased number of monocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample
An increased number of lymphocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample
In which of the following conditions would you NOT expect to find Howell-Jolly bodies? - Sickle cell anemia - Iron deficiency anemia - Post splenectomy - Megaloblastic anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Which of the following statements are true about anti-H? - Anti-H does not react with group O cells - Anti-H reacts more strongly with A1 cells than with O cells - Anti-H never reacts with group A cells - Anti-H reacts more strongly with group A2 cells than with group A1 cells
Anti-H reacts more strongly with group A2 cells than with group A1 cells
A physician suspects his patient might have rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following markers should be ordered? - Antimitochondrial antibodies - Anti-IgG - Antineutrophilic antibodies - Antimyocardial antibodies
Anti-IgG
All of the following antibodies are detected at immediate spin EXCEPT? - Anti-P1 - Anti-Jka - Anti-A - Anti-M
Anti-Jka
A patient who has a primarily vegetarian diet will most likely have: - An acid urine pH - An alkaline urine pH - A neutral pH - pH is not affected by the patient's diet
An alkaline urine pH
Corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reasons, including all of the following with the exception of: - Avascularity - Reasonably low concentration of class I antigens - An essential absence of class II antigens - Eccentrically placed grafts
Eccentrically placed grafts
What would you expect the serum iron (SI) and total binding capacity (TIBC) to be in a person with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) - Increased SI and decreased TIBC - Decreased SI and decreased TIBC - Decreased SI and increased TIBC - Increased SI and increased TIBC
Increased SI and decreased TIBC
In an autoimmune disorder, conditions influencing the development of a disorder include the following factors with the EXCEPTION of: - Genetic factors - Exogenous factors - Immunopathogenic mechanisms - Increased discrimination of self from non-self antigens
Increased discrimination of self from non-self antigens
Sodium fluoride is an excellent preservative for collecting glucose specimens because it does which of the following? - Prevents interference with other substances - Inhibits glycolysis - Enhances chemical reactions - Inhibits certain clotting factors
Inhibits glycolysis
Which of the following may cause a false positive bilirubin result on a urine chemical reagent strip? - Urobilinogen - Presence of nitrites - Large doses of chloropromazine - Urobilin
Large doses of chloropromazine
A group of Canadian travelers were visiting the island of Kauai in Hawaii for a summer vacation. They noticed a cave in the middle of the island that contained a 10 ft deep pool of water. Much to their surprise, they were the only individuals enjoying this newly discovered swimming hole. A few days later, all the swimmers became ill. Their physician believed they all had Weil disease. Which of the following organisms can cause this disease? - Chlamydia trachomatis - Treponema pallidum - Borrelia burgdorferi - Leptospira interrogans
Leptospira interrogans
What is his MOST likely genotype for a white male who has the following Rh antigens C,c,D,E,e? - R1r - R1R2 - Ror - r'r"
R1R2
A technologist is evaluating a blood smear. The technologist notices variability in cell size. Which parameter from the automated CBC would confirm the anisocytosis observed on the blood smear? - MCHC - MCH - MCV - RDW
RDW
What is the threshold limit value? - The maximum level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without causing adverse health effects - The temperature at which a chemical will ignite - The amount of water needed to dilute a chemical for laboratory use - The amount of a chemical that can legally be stored in a laboratory
The maximum level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without causing adverse health effects
Which of the following statements is true regarding CYP450 enzymes? - They are the only hepatic enzymes involved in drug metabolism - They are few in number bit very important in metabolism - They are very specific in the substrates they accept - They are able to make compounds more water-soluble and therefore enhance excretion
They are able to make compounds more water-soluble and therefore enhance excretion
The function of the cerebrospinal fluid includes all of the following EXCEPT: - Nutritional enrichment of nervous tissue - Transmittance of neurologic impulses - Removal of metabolic waste products - Protection of neurologic tissue from trauma
Transmittance of neurologic impulses
The site most frequently used to collect bone marrow samples from adults is: - Sternum - Anterior iliac crest - Posterior iliac crest - Tibia
Posterior iliac crest
Which one of the following is a TRUE statement concerning alkaline phosphatase? - It is optimally active at pH 5 - It is decreased in bone disorders involving the osteoblasts - It is increased in obstructive jaundice - It is increased in myocardial infarctions
It is increased in obstructive jaundice
A patient with a documented history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTR's) should receive _________ blood components: - Leukoreduced - Irradiated - Cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative - Hemoglobin S negative
Leukoreduced
The biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends on the number of: - Free amino groups - Free carboxyl groups - Peptide bonds - Protein molecules
Peptide bonds
You are analyzing a patient sample in the hematology laboratory when the instrument you use for automatic CBC flags your specimen for having a low platelet count. Upon performing a visual differential of the slide, you notice that there are indeed very few platelets on the slide. You also notice numerous, fragmented red blood cells. Which of the following choices could be associated with the low platelet count and fragmented red blood cells found in this case? - Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) - The patient has bone marrow failure - The patient is undergoing chemotherapy for multiple myeloma - Myelodysplastic syndrome
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? - Fever and chills - Unexplained bleeding from surgical site - Unexplained drop in hemoglobin - Transient jaundice
Unexplained bleeding from surgical site
