most missed questions
#151 Which of the following transforms the luminescent light from the PSP into the image seen on the CRT? A. ADC b. Helium neon laser c. Photostimulable phosphor d. Scanner- reader
A. ADC
123. Which of the following will best demonstrate the facial bones? A. parietoacanthial (Water's) projection b. PA with 20° caudal angle c. PA with 25° cephalad angle d. AP with 30° caudal angle
A. parietoacanthial (Water's) projection
#138 All of the following are used to control production of scattered radiation except: A. Grid use b. Collimation c. Optimization of the kVp d. All of the above
A. Grid use
#164 The grid characteristic which determines the number of grid strips per inch or centimeter and determines how well the grid absorbs scattered radiation is called grid _______. A. Range b. Radius c. Frequency d. Ratio
c. Frequency
53. Which of the following increases the likelihood of a photoelectric interaction? a. High-energy incident photons b. Use of compensating filter c. High atomic number of absorber d. All of the above
c. High atomic number of absorber
63. What agency publishes the document that requires radiologic science programs to assess the problem-solving and critical thinking skills of their students? a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists b. American Society of Radiologic Technologists c. Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology d. International Society of Radiographers and Radiologic Technologist
c. Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology
191. If 90 kVp is used with a single-phase generator, the minimum electron voltage across the tube is ________ keV. A. 90 b. 60 c. 30 d. 0
d. 0
108. In the medial oblique projection of the ankle, the: 1. talofibular joint is visualized 2. talotibial joint is visualized 3. plantar surface should be vertical a. 1 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
d. 1, 2 & 3
34. Which of the following have an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage? 1. quality of radiation 2. type of tissue being irradiated 3. fractionation a. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
d. 1, 2 & 3
73. Factors that are important to evaluate when selecting contrast media are: 1. miscibility- property of two substances to mix in all proportions (that is, to fully dissolve in each other at any concentration), forming a homogeneous solution. 2. potential toxicity 3. viscosity- thickness a. 1 & 2 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
d. 1, 2 & 3
The pixel size of a digital detector determines the spatial resolution of the system. The pixel size is determined by: 1. Detector element (DEL) size 2. Sampling frequency 3. Bit depth (# of shades of gray and is determined by the ADC) A. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
A. 1 and 2
77. The maximum weekly permitted equivalent dose for a controlled area must not exceed _____ microsievert. A. 1000 B. 100 C. 20 D. 2
A. 1000
159. Which of the following radiography equipment features is NOT designed to eliminate unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient? A. filtration b. minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) of 30 inches c. tube window d. collimation
A. filtration
#194 An area of decreased brightness visualized on a computer monitor has ________density on a film image. A. increased b. decreased c. no
A. increased
#113 With a fixed matrix CR reader system, changing to a larger IP, for the same FOV, will result in: A. larger pixels. b. smaller pixels. c. improved spatial resolution. d. B and C.
A. larger pixels.
121. The left mastoid fontanel becomes the ____ in an adult. A. left asterion b. left pterion c. left bregma d. squamosal suture
A. left asterion
#196 When using a digital imaging system, changing from 40 in SID to 72 in SID would result in _____________ brightness and ____________ contrast. A. no change in; no change in b. decreased; increased c. no change in; decreased d. decreased; decreased
A. no change in; no change in
#91 When using a digital imaging system, changing from 40 in SID to 72 in SID would result in _____________ brightness and ____________ contrast. A. no change in; no change in b. decreased; increased c. no change in; decreased d. decreased; decreased
A. no change in; no change in
55. Indicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart: A. pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aortic valve B. pulmonary artery, left atrium, left ventricle, aortic valve C. pulmonary veins, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve D. pulmonary artery, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve
A. pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aortic valve
#17 Accurate patient measurement is most critical for the: A. variable kVp-fixed mAs technique chart design. b. variable kVp-variable mAs technique chart design. c. fixed kVp-variable mAs technique chart design. d. fixed kVp-fixed mAs technique chart design.
A. variable kVp-fixed mAs technique chart design.
#90 Which of the following sets of technical factors will produce the least contrast? mAs kVp Grid IR Size A 10 70 5:1 14X17 B 12 90 8:1 14X17 C 15 90 12:1 8X10 D 20 80 10:1 10X12
B 12 90 8:1 14X17
157. What is the established fetal dose-limit guideline for pregnant radiographers during the entire gestation period? a. 0.1 rem B. 0.5 rem C. 5.0 rem d. 10.0 rem
B. 0.5 rem
178. Which of the following interactions is known as "modified scatter"? A. Photoelectric interaction B. Compton interaction C. Thomson interaction D. Pair production
B. Compton interaction
107. Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive? A. Megakaryocytes B. Myocytes C. Erythroblasts D. Myelocytes
B. Myocytes
181. Which of the following is the most common result of cell irradiation? A. Cell death B. Sterilization C. Mutation D. Uncontrolled growth
B. Sterilization
34. When considering adequate radiation safety during fluoroscopy, which of the following is correct? A. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 10 R/min in high level fluoro. B. Tabletop radiation intensity should not exceed 2.1 R/min/mA at 80 kVp. C. In equipment without high-level fluoroscopy capability, tabletop radiation intensity should not exceed 20 R/min. D. The source of x-rays is 6 inches below tabletop, so it must be limited to keep the ESE within a safe range.
B. Tabletop radiation intensity should not exceed 2.1 R/min/mA at 80 kVp.
42. The specific purpose of a contrast medium is to: A. show surrounding tissue with the same density as the region of interest. B. help distinguish differences between anatomic tissues. C. produce density changes in soft tissue anatomy. D. reduce the radiologist's need for ambient light.
B. help distinguish differences between anatomic tissues.
24. Where would the majority of RNA molecules be found in a human cell? A. Cytoplasm B. DNA molecule C. Nucleolus D. Chromosome
C. Nucleolus
#52 Which of the following sets of technical factors will produce the greatest spatial resolution? mAs FSS SID OID A 50 2.0 40 6 B 33 1.0 72 4 C 75 0.6 40 3 D 60 0.3 36 2
D 60 0.3 36 2
104. The dose rate at the table top during fluoroscopy cannot exceed ____R per minute. A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10
D. 10
175. Which of the following forms of radiation are governed by the inverse square law with respect to distance and intensity? A. Scatter radiation B. Gamma rays C. Beta rays D. A and B only E. All of the above
D. A and B only
179. Which of the following illustrates the radiation sensitivity of a particular type of cell? A. Epidemiologic data curve B. Extrapolation curve C. Dose-response curve D. Survival curve
D. Survival curve
194. The cerebrovascular form of ARS results when the CNS and CVS receive doses of __________________ ionizing radiation. a. 50 Gyt or more b. 15 to 20 rad c. 6 Gy and peaks after 10 Gyt d. 1 to 10 Gyt
a. 50 Gyt or more
158. What is the first duty the radiographer should perform when beginning a radiographic examination? a. Check the physician's orders in the chart b. Verify the patient's identity c. Place the film in the Bucky tray d. Obtain an accurate medical history on the patient
a. Check the physician's orders in the chart
153. Which of the following bones is part of the floor of the cranium? a. Temporal b. Occipital c. Frontal d. Parietal
a. Temporal
6. According to the textbook, where is the best place for students to begin developing the ability to apply previous knowledge to new situations? a. classroom or laboratory b. clinical education c. personal life d. all of the above
a. classroom or laboratory
22. All of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image EXCEPT FOR: a. kVp. b. part size = OID=magnification=loss of recorded detail c. tube angle= distortion d. SID
a. kVp.
105. The primary function of filtration is to reduce: a. patient skin dose. b. operator dose. c. film noise. d. scattered radiation.
a. patient skin dose.
100. The primary function of filtration is to: a. reduce patient skin dose b. reduce operator dose c. reduce film noise d. reduce scattered radiation
a. reduce patient skin dose
137. The BEST reason to use touch for emphasis when performing a radiologic examination is to: a. specify instructions or locations. b. convey empathy. c. measure a body part before choosing exposure factors. d. identify landmarks on the patient.
a. specify instructions or locations.
134. Compared to a low-ratio grid, a high-ratio grid will 1. absorb more primary radiation 2. absorb more scattered radiation 3. allow more centering latitude A. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1 & 2 only
140. An image lacking sufficient radiographic density (brightness) may be attributable to insufficient: 1. kilovoltage 2. grid-central ray alignment 3. filtration a. 2 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1 & 2 only
175. The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates: 1. an oblique projection of the shoulder 2. anterior or posterior dislocation 3. a lateral projection of the shoulder A. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 2 & 3 only
b. 1 & 2 only
60. Which are the appropriate methods to ensure the correct drug is administered to the patient? 1. Confirm the correct medication. 2. Record the time and date of administration. 3. Check the label at least 3 times. a. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 3
82. Signs and symptoms associated with approaching diabetic coma is/are: 1. Severe thirst 2. Quick onset of symptoms 3. Fruity smelling breath a. 1 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
#195 A digital image with decreased spatial resolution may be due to: 1. Increased central ray angulation 2. Decreased grid ratio 3. Decreased SID A. 1 and 2 only. b. 1 and 3 only. c. 2 and 3 only. d. 1, 2, and 3.
b. 1 and 3 only.
126. The typical flow rate for drip infusion drug administration is ________ drops per minute. A. 50 to 10 b. 10 to 20 c. 20 to 30 d. 30 to 40
b. 10 to 20
47. Which of the following is a guideline used to reduce personnel and patient dose during fixed fluoroscopy? a. 30 R/min maximum tabletop exposure rate b. 15-inch minimum SSD c. minimum filtration of 1.5 mm aluminum equivalent d. 0.5 mm primary protective barrier
b. 15-inch minimum SSD
150. An increase in the amount of current supplied to the x-ray tube filament will cause an increase in: 1. x-ray photon energy 2. the quantity of x-ray photons produced 3. the half-value layer a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
b. 2 only
128. What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and central ray in the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal? A. 90° b. 37° c. 53° d. 45°
b. 37°
43. X-ray tubes are operated at or above ______ kVp to avoid being space-charge limited. a. 35 c. 55 b. 40 d. 70
b. 40
116. Using a 75 kVp x-ray beam with a 0.25 mm lead-equivalent apron provides protection from _______ of the beam. a. 55% b. 66% c. 77% d. 88%
b. 66%
1. Which of the following routines should be performed for a study of the second toe? a. AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, mediolateral projection b. AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, lateromedial projection c. AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, lateromedial projection d. AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, mediolateral projection
b. AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, lateromedial projection
121. When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, the pulse should be assessed using the: a. Carotid artery b. Brachial artery c. Femoral artery d. Radial artery
b. Brachial artery
99. Which of the following refers to a mechanical device that is used to correct an abnormal ventricular rhythm in the heart? a. Pacemaker - regulates the heart rhythm b. Defibrillator c. Cardiac monitor d. ECG
b. Defibrillator
195. Which of the following pathological conditions would allow the x-ray beam to easily penetrate the patient? a. Edema b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Paget's disease d. Pneumonia
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
#157 With digital imaging, if lower than needed kVp is set, the image will have _______________ brightness and _________________ quantum mottle. A. very low; increased b. appropriate; increased c. excessive; decreased d. unacceptable; decreased
b. appropriate; increased
#142 The electrons in the tube current travel: A. at the speed of light b. approximately half the speed of light c. approximately one-fourth the speed of light d. none of the above
b. approximately half the speed of light
30. The center of gravity for a standing patient is: a. near the umbilicus b. at approximately the second sacral segment c. at the center of the diaphragm d. at the level of the second lumbar vertebra
b. at approximately the second sacral segment
165. The ________ sphincter prevents reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. a. pyloric b. cardiac c. ileocecal d. duodenal
b. cardiac
112. When natural sources of ionizing radiation become increased because of accidental or deliberate human actions such as mining, they are referred to as _____ sources. a. artificial b. enhanced natural c. extraterrestrial d. manmade
b. enhanced natural
104. Which of the following cells is the MOST radiosensitive? a. myelocytes b. erythroblasts c. megakaryocytes d. myocytes
b. erythroblasts
158. Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the RAO position? a. splenic flexure b. hepatic flexure c. sigmoid colon d. iliocecal valve
b. hepatic flexure
138. All of the following EXCEPT ________ will result in an increase in AEC response time. a. decreasing the kVp b. increasing the focal spot size c. increasing the part thickness d. increasing the source-to-image distance (SID)
b. increasing the focal spot size
174. All of the following are methods used to help reduce colonic spasms during radiographic examination of the barium-filled large bowel, EXCEPT: A. lowering the enema bag b. placing the patient Trendelenburg c. administering glucagon d. instructing the patient to breath deeply though the mouth
b. placing the patient Trendelenburg
18.Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from ________________ can result in congenital abnormalities. a.0 days to 9 days of development b.10 days to 6 weeks of development c. 6 weeks to 20 weeks of development d. 21 weeks to term
b.10 days to 6 weeks of development
5. An acceptable PA chest exam is taken using 300 mA, 0.008 seconds, and 110 kVp. If this examination is repeated using an AEC that has a minimum response time of 10 ms, which of the following exposure factors would be appropriate? A.400 mA, 0.006 seconds, 110 kVp b.200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp c.600 mA, 0.004 seconds, 110 kVp d. All of the above would be appropriate
b.200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp
31. Protective eyeglasses with optically clear lenses should contain a minimal lead equivalent protection of _____ mm. a. 0.15 b. 0.25 c. 0.35 d. 0.50
c. 0.35
113. The type(s) of radiation produced at the target is (are): 1. photoelectric (tissue interaction) 2. characteristic 3. Bremsstrahlung a. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2 & 3 only
68. Which of the following describes the partial transfer of energy from a photon during its interaction with tissue in diagnostic radiology? a. Photodisintegration- above 10MeV (RAD therapy) b. Absorption c. Scatter d. Primary beam
c. Scatter
169. Which of the following characterizes a secondary protective structural barrier to radiation exposure? a. It should be 1/16 of an inch lead equivalent. b. It extends from the floor to a height of 7 feet. c. The x-ray control booth is a secondary protective barrier. d. All of the above characterize secondary protective structural barriers to radiation exposure.
c. The x-ray control booth is a secondary protective barrier.
99. The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the: a. coronal plane 45° to the film b. mid sagittal plane 45° to the film c. coronal plane 70° to the film d. mid sagittal plane 70° to the film
c. coronal plane 70° to the film
164. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize: a. position of the organ b. size and shape of the organ c. diverticula d. gastric or bowel mucosa
c. diverticula d. gastric or bowel mucosa both are correct
195. If the center cell is selected for an anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine, the MOST likely response of the automatic exposure control (AEC) if the spine is not over the ion chamber is that: A. kVp will decrease. b. mAs will increase. c. exposure time will decrease. d. milliamperage will increase.
c. exposure time will decrease.
92. Children have epiphyseal plates made of ________ that can be evaluated as part of normal chronologic age for bone age analysis. a. fibrocartilage. b. elastic cartilage. c. hyaline cartilage. d. osteogenic cartilage.
c. hyaline cartilage.
92. The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _________. a. increases markedly, decreases b. decreases markedly, increases c. increases markedly, increases d. stays the same, increases
c. increases markedly, increases
When acquiring a lateral projection of the first/great toe, the central ray enters the: a. proximal interphalangeal joint. b. distal interphalangeal joint. c. interphalangeal joint. d. third metatarsophalangeal joint.
c. interphalangeal joint.
141. Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed: a. scattered radiation b. secondary radiation c. leakage radiation d. remnant radiation
c. leakage radiation
154. In which of the following positions are the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated? a. lateral foot b. lateral oblique foot c. medial oblique foot d. weight-bearing foot
c. medial oblique foot
76. Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breath easily while in the recumbent position? a. dyspnea - difficult or labored breathing. b. apnea- stop breathing c. orthopnea d. hyperpnea- increased depth and rate of breathing
c. orthopnea
38. When the x-ray beam is NOT properly aligned with the grid strips the ________ is changed. A. spatial resolution b. sampling frequency c. receptor exposure d. distortion
c. receptor exposure
66. A 25-gauge, 0.5-inch needle is BEST used for a(n) ________ injection. a. intradermal b. intramuscular c. subcutaneous d. intravenous
c. subcutaneous
187. According to the American College of Radiology, which of the following are indications for obtaining a skeletal survey? 1. suspected nonaccidental trauma 2. skeletal dysplasias, syndromes, and metabolic disorders 3. neoplasms (cancer) A. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
#102 With a standard x-ray tube, ______________% of the x-ray beam produced with 65 kVp is the result of bremsstrahlung interactions. A. 0 b. 15 c. 85 d. 100
d. 100
97. The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, twelve-pulse rectified generator is about: a. 100% b. 32% c. 13% ( three phase- 6-pulse) d. 4% (3.5%)
d. 4% (3.5%)
170. The International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP) dose equivalent limit for occupational exposure to the hands is_______ mSv. A. 20 b. 50 c. 150 d. 500
d. 500
55. Which of the following gonadal radiation doses may cause permanent sterility in a human male? a. 0.01 Gy b. 1.0 Gy c. 2.0 Gy d. 6.0 Gy
d. 6.0 Gy
198. Which of the following is not a violation of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Code of Ethics for the Profession of Radiologic Technology? a. Refusal to participate in an innovative technical procedure b. Refusal to wear a lead apron during fluoroscopy c. Refusal to participate in continuing education d. Failure to communicate suspicions of child abuse to a referring physician
d. Failure to communicate suspicions of child abuse to a referring physician
105. Which of the following is correct concerning transmission of patient health information by facsimile? a. It is illegal. b. It is permitted only for third-party payer prior authorization c. It is only permitted when information is required urgently for care of patient. d. It is preferable to use facsimile only when patient information is urgently required. e. It is only permitted when identifying patient identification is removed from records.
d. It is preferable to use facsimile only when patient information is urgently required.
184. The abbreviation that stands for a heart attack is: a. hx b. HA c. CVA d. MI
d. MI
183. Which of the following stages of cell division is considered to be the most radiosensitive? a. Prophase b. Anaphase c. Telophase d. Metaphase
d. Metaphase
155. The greatest source of natural background radiation exposure is: a. Cosmic rays b. Radioactive materials c. The body itself d. Radon gas
d. Radon gas
164. Neglect or omission of reasonable care defines: a. Respondeat superior b. Res ipsa loquitur c. Gross negligence d. Unintentional misconduct
d. Unintentional misconduct
152. If 100 rads (1 Gy) or more is received as whole-body dose in a short period of time, certain symptoms will occur and are referred to as: a. short-term effects b. long-term effects c. lethal dose d. acute radiation syndrome
d. acute radiation syndrome
189. Although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot, focal spot size really varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the smallest? A. at its outer edge b. along the path of the central ray c. at cathode end d. at the anode end
d. at the anode end
200. The ________ grid design is manufactured to match the divergence of the x-ray beam. A. parallel b. crossed c. linear d. focused
d. focused
191. Genetic mutations at the molecular level are called _____ mutations. a. chromatid b. chromosome c. molecular d. point
d. point
165. The amount of energy transferred to electrons by ionizing radiation is the basis of the concept of: a. electromagnetic radiation b. nuclear power c. radioactive decay d. radiation dose
d. radiation dose
25. Radiation that exits the patient and is directed toward the receptor is referred to as ________ radiation. A. primary b. scatter c. secondary d. remnant
d. remnant
185. Which of the following structures is located in the mediastinum? A. right middle lobe and esophagus b. left upper lobe and heart c. aorta and thyroid d. trachea and thymus
d. trachea and thymus esophagus would also be correct, by itself