MSE 2203 Final Exam Review

True or false: A person with blood group A has both A and B type antibodies.

False

True or false: Human traits are controlled only by the genetic material found in the 46 chromosomes.

False

True or false: In the mid-twentieth century, researchers discovered that genes are made of proteins and that this is the genetic material found in cellular structures known as chromosomes.

False

Where does protein synthesis occur? Write the name of the organelle.

Ribosome

The brain is a part of the: a. Central Nervous System b. Peripheral Nervous System c. Adaptive Immune System d. Innate Immune System

a. Central Nervous System

When does DNA replication occur? a. sporadically in response to environmental pressures b. during S phase of the cell cycle c. while the organism is dormant, hibernating, or sleeping depending on the species sleep/wake cycle d. when the mitochondria has produced enough cellular energy to reach the energetic threshold required for replication activation

b. during S phase of the cell cycle

The fundamental unit of heredity is called a(n) ___________. a. evolution b. gene c. genome d. karyotype

b. gene

Albinism is a recessive trait controlled by a single gene. If the frequency of albinos in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes for this trait? a. 0.25 b. 0.90 c. 0.50 d. 0.75

c. 0.50

​Alternate forms of a gene are called ____. a. homologues b. loci c. alleles d. heterozygous

c. alleles

The physical barrier of the skin and the mucus produced by the epithelial cells lining body cavities ____. a. activate the complement system b. facilitate the production of antibodies c. protect the body from infection by pathogens d. release histamines​

c. protect the body from infection by pathogens

A characteristic of all cancers is that ____. a. they always have a benign form and a deadly form b. the majority are caused by inheritance of genes c. the cells divide continuously d. several mutations in several different genes are required in order for cancer to develop

c. the cells divide continuously

What is the complementary DNA strand to the following strand: 5' - AGGCGGATCGACCGTAC - 3'? a. 5' - TCCGCCTAGCTGGCATG - 3' b. 5' - AGGCGGATCGACCGTAC - 3' c. 3' - AGGCGGATCGACCGTAC - 5' d. 3' - TCCGCCTAGCTGGCATG - 5'

d. 3' - TCCGCCTAGCTGGCATG - 5'

One of Mendel's Laws states that for two genes on different chromosomes, the inheritance of one gene does not influence the chance of inheriting the other gene. This is called: a. The Mode of Inheritance b. Monohybrid Cross Theory c. The Law of Segregation d. The Law of Independent Assortment

d. The Law of Independent Assortment

What does the g in gRNA stand for?

guide

How does CRISPER occur to replace mutated genes with proper functioning genes?

1. DNA is cut with the CRISPER complex to create double strand break 2. Cells are given a template strand containing the correct sequence 3. Homology Directed repair occurs, incorporating the template DNA into the genome and repairing mutations

What are the stages of PCR and what occurs in each stage?

1. Denature: unwinds and separate the two strands of the double helix 2. Anneal: cooling allows for primers to bond to DNA template 3. Extend: activates Taq polymerase; dNPTs are added to replicated DNA

There is a group of genes that code for enzymes that are always found next to CRISPER sequences. When together, they form the CRISPER - ___ system and are very effective in attacking invader DNA.

Cas

True or false: Pedigrees use a circle to show a male.

False

True or false: Redness, swelling, heat, and pain of an infection are a result of the adaptive immune response.

False

True or false: Sea urchins conduct internal fertilization, same as humans.

False

True or false: The only way an individual develops cancer is through spontaneous mutations.

False

True or false: The overall charge of DNA is positive.

False

True or false: The presence of a mutation on chromosomes 2, 3, or 7 will definitvely result in a person getting HNPCC 100% of the time.

False

Are gametes diploid or haploid?

Haploid

In humans what are the male and female gametes?

Male: sperm Female: egg

True or false: "Caretaker genes" are present to help protect our bodies against developing cancer.

True

True or false: Conserved genes show the early stages of development are common accross many species.

True

True or false: DNA replication proceeds in a 5' to 3' direction.

True

True or false: Gel electrophoresis works by separating bands by molecular weight.

True

True or false: Genetic counseling is the process of helping people understand and adapt to the medical, psychological, and familial implications of genetic contributions to disease.

True

True or false: In some instances, the environment of an individual may influence whether or not an individual who is predisposed to cancer actually exhibits that cancer. (for example: exposure to UV rays of the sun developing skin cancer)

True

True or false: Microarrays are a useful tool to show gene expression (which genes are activated or silenced).

True

True or false: Pedigrees are a useful way to visual family history and track a specific trait.

True

True or false: Pedigrees use a shaded shape to show if a person is afflicted with a condition.

True

True or false: Prion disease, Alzheimer's, dementia, and cystic fibrosis have all been linked to misfolded proteins.

True

True or false: Restriction enzymes only cleave at specific sites on a strand of DNA.

True

True or false: Stem cell research has led to the ability to begin building organs such as a pancreas in a laboratory setting, which scientists are hopeful will aid in the treatment of diabetes

True

True or false: The alteration of brain and nervous system structure/function in examples like Huntington's and Alzheimer Disease supports the claim that behavioral disorders are actually linked to a genetic component.

True

True or false: ​If a dihybrid cross is begun with a P1 generation of a true-breeding plant that produces smooth and yellow peas (smooth and yellow are both dominant traits), crossed with a plant that produces wrinkled green peas (wrinkled and green are both recessive traits), the F1 plants will all be smooth and yellow.

True

Assume the trait for brown eyes is completely dominant to blue eyes and this trait is controlled by a single gene. If 400 people in a population of 10,000 have blue eyes, how many people would be expected to be heterozygous for this trait? (Hint: Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula.) a. 3,200 b. 5,400 c. 320 d. 960

a. 3,200

One of the major outcomes and impacts of lethal alleles is: a. A phenotype class does not survive to reproduce b. One gene masks or otherwise affects another genes' phenotype c. A heterozygote's phenotype is distinct and not an intermediate between those of the two homozygotes d. A heterozygote's phenotype is intermediate between those of the two homozygotes

a. A phenotype class does not survive to reproduce

Which of the following correctly illustrates the relationship between alleles, genotypes, and phenotypes? a. Alleles are variations of a gene. A genotype is comprised of two alleles. The genes that are expressed in a phenotype are "coded" for by the genotype. b. Genotypes are physical expressions of a gene. Phenotypes are variations of a gene. Alleles are comprised of one genotype and one phenotype. c. Alleles are synonymous with traits. Genotypes are comprised of one allele and one phenotype. Phenotypes are directly inherited from maternal grandparents. d. Alleles are expressed based on environment of the organism. Phenotypes are the genetic code. Genotypes are the phyisical appearance.

a. Alleles are variations of a gene. A genotype is comprised of two alleles. The genes that are expressed in a phenotype are "coded" for by the genotype.

Which of the following matches the step in cancer development with the appropriate description? a. Breakthrough: step one, where controls on cell division are lifted b. Expansion: step one, an environmental stimulus causes a mutation c. Expansion: step two, further mutations in multiple pathways; enters the blood stream d. Invasion: step three, cancer cells divide more frequently and sustain themselves on scarce nutrients

a. Breakthrough: step one, where controls on cell division are lifted

Crossing Over and Independent Assortment are features of meiosis which allow for variations to occur within sexual reproduction. Which of the following correctly pairs each feature with its phase of meiosis? a. Crossing Over= Prophase 1 Independent Assortment= Metaphase 1 b. Crossing Over= Prophase 1 Independent Assortment= Prophase 2 c. Crossing Over= Prophase 2 Independent Assortment= Metaphase 1 d. Crossing Over= Prophase 1 Independent Assortment= Metaphase 2

a. Crossing Over= Prophase 1 Independent Assortment= Metaphase 1

What phase of PCR has the temperature reach 94C? a. Denaturation b. Annealing c. Extension d. Initiation

a. Denaturation

Which two enzymes correctly match their function? a. Helicase - unwinds the DNA molecule; DNA polymerase - catalyzes the polymerization of dNTP in the 5' to 3' direction to form the growing DNA strand b. Helicase - catalyzes the polymerization of dNTP in the 5' to 3' direction to form the growing DNA strand; DNA polymerase - unwinds the DNA molecule c. Ligase - unwinds the DNA molecule; Helicase - joins fragments of DNA together d. Ligase - joins fragments of DNA together; DNA polymerase - catalyzes the polymerization of dNTP in the 3' to 5' direction to form the growing DNA strand

a. Helicase - unwinds the DNA molecule; DNA polymerase - catalyzes the polymerization of dNTP in the 5' to 3' direction to form the growing DNA strand

When given the following strand of DNA, and after transcribing to mRNA from the question above, which is the correct amino acid sequence that would be translated? 3' TACGTAATAGAT 5' a. Met-His-Tyr-Leu b. Leu-Tyr-His-Met c. Leu-Arg-Thr-Glu d. Ile-Tyr-Tyr-Val

a. Met-His-Tyr-Leu

Which of the following answers shows the correct pairings? a. Nondividing cells = nerves ; Continuously dividing = epithelial cells b. Nondividing cells = liver ; Continuously dividing = epithelial cells c. Nondividing cells = epithelial cells ; Continuously dividing = liver d. Nondividing cells = nerves ; Continuously dividing = liver

a. Nondividing cells = nerves ; Continuously dividing = epithelial cells

When activated, which gene causes cancer by increasing the rate of cell division? a. Oncogenes b. Tumor suppressor genes c. Macrophages d. T-cells

a. Oncogenes

What is the name for the common sequence found in all spacers which allows CAS enzymes to recognize their target? a. PAM b. Cas c. gRNA d. MISPR

a. Pam

In many organisms, ____________________ functions to transfer genetic information from out of the nucleus through the nuclear pores, through the cytoplasm, and to the ribosome. a. RNA b. DNA c. Proteins d. Lipids

a. RNA

Which of the following is NOT an example of a teratogen? a. There is a correlation between tobacco, smokers and lung cancer b. The zika virus can be passed from sperm and damage the CNS (central nervous system) of a developing embryo c. X-rays on pregnant women increase risk of growth restrictions and intellectual disabilities for the baby d. Alcohol and causation of Fetal alcohol syndrome

a. There is a correlation between tobacco, smokers and lung cancer

The most effective level of defense against pathogens is the ____ immune system, because it ____. a. adaptive; recognizes specific pathogens b. inflammatory response; is mediated by T cells c. innate; recognizes specific pathogens d. skin; provides a physical barrier against pathogens

a. adaptive; recognizes specific pathogens

If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, ____. a. all gametes will be abnormal b. three gametes will be normal and one will have two extra chromosomes c. two gametes will be normal and two will have one extra chromosome d. all gametes will be normal

a. all gametes will be abnormal

Amino acids are characterized by ____. a. an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group b. an amino group and a hydrochloric group c. a carboxyl group and a hydrogen bond d. an amino group and a hydrogen bond

a. an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group

If a genetic disorder appears in a family with no prior history, and is fully expressed by everyone carrying that allele, it is most likely a(n) ____ trait. a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive d. Y-linked

a. autosomal dominant

The major obstacle to the use of xenotransplants can possibly be overcome by ____. a. changing genetic markers in humans to make them more receptive to nonhuman tissue b. cloning donor animals using human DNA c. giving a series of injections that depress the immune systems of recipients d. altering the patient's MHC complex

a. changing genetic markers in humans to make them more receptive to nonhuman tissue

The main purpose of preparing karyotypes is to ____. a. diagnose or rule out certain genetic disorders b. prepare for gene extractions c. separate DNA into its component parts d. determine gender

a. diagnose or rule out certain genetic disorders

​A zygote is a(n) ____. a. diploid cell b. ​haploid cell c. gamete d. ​female gonad

a. diploid cell

The process of copying the information in DNA is straightforward and occurs the same way each time a strand is replicated in the human body because: a. each strand of a DNA molecule carries complementary information b. the pairing of two DNA strands is antiparallel c. the molecule can be copied without disrupting the hydrogen bonds between bases d. any purine (A or G) can pair with any pyrimidine (T or C)

a. each strand of a DNA molecule carries complementary information

In meiosis of spermatogenisis, how many mature sperm result? a. four b. three c. two d. one

a. four

Of these developmental stages below, which is the latest? a. gastrula b. 2 cell c. zygote d. blastula

a. gastrula

A cell in G0 state ____. a. has entered a resting stage and is not actively dividing b. is actively replicating chromosomes c. is in cytokinesis d. is actively growing before cell division begins

a. has entered a resting stage and is not actively dividing

​Stem cells ____. a. have the property of self-renewal by division b. are found only in cancerous tumors c. are immature cells that become nerve tissue susceptible to cancer d. ​do not have the ability to divide

a. have the property of self-renewal by division

If a man expresses an X-linked recessive trait, ____. a. his mother was heterozygous or homozygous for the trait b. his father transmitted the trait to him c. all of his brothers will also express it d. all of his sisters will also express it

a. his mother was heterozygous or homozygous for the trait

*Which answer below if a similarity between DNA replication and PCR? a. in both, the hydrogen bonds between two DNA strands are broken b. in both, the process of denaturation by heating is used c. both occur naturally in the body d. both utilize Taq polymerase

a. in both, the hydrogen bonds between two DNA strands are broken

Griffith's search for a(n) ____ treatment led to the discovery that DNA carries genetic information. a. pneumonia b. tuberculosis c. ​AIDS d. influenza

a. pneumonia

*Taq polymerase is a(n)_____. a. protein b. amino acid c. nucleic acid d. fatty acid

a. protein

​Once the strands of DNA are separated, the enzyme DNA polymerase ____ and links nucleotides together. a. reads the nucleotide sequence of the template strand b. ​transforms adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine c. transforms the template strand to either 3' or 5' d. unwraps the DNA from the nucleosomes

a. reads the nucleotide sequence of the template strand

A locus is ____. a. the location of a gene on a chromosome b. the site of crossing over c. an alternate form of a gene d. ​the chromosome location of the centromere

a. the location of a gene on a chromosome

If a genetic disorder appears in a family with no prior history, and is fully expressed by everyone carrying that allele, it is most likely a(n) ____ trait. a. ​autosomal dominant b. ​Y-linked c. ​autosomal recessive d. ​X-linked recessive

a. ​autosomal dominant

​Identical twins have identical ____, but due to the environment they do not always have identical ____. a. ​genotypes; phenotypes b. mitochondrial DNA; genotypes c. genotypes; mitochondrial DNA d. phenotypes; genotypes

a. ​genotypes; phenotypes

The karyotype designation for a female with X chromosome trisomy is ___________________. a. 45, XXX b. 47, XXX c. 46, XXX d. 47, XX

b. 47, XXX

A tumor is identified early in a young patient, and the oncologist notes that it will be easy to surgically remove the cells because the tumor has grown in place and did not spread to invading tissue. Which of the following best describes the tumor in this situation? a. Metastases b. Benign c. Malignant d. Transplantable

b. Benign

Which of the following correctly matches the blood type with the corresponding antigens on the surface of red blood cells? a. Blood Type A- Antigen B b. Blood Type AB- Antigens A and B c. Blood Type AB- Neither antigen A nor B d. Blood Type B- Antigen A

b. Blood Type AB- Antigens A and B

The alleles which control blood group antigens "A" and "B" and the resulting AB Blood Types are examples of: a. Incomplete Dominance b. Codominance c. Variable Expressionalism d. Semidominance

b. Codominance

You are performing PCR for the first time in the lab. You have all your reagents ready, but you forgot to add adenine. What will be the result of your reaction? a. DNA synthesis will occur until the polymerase reaches an adenine in the template strand, and then it will halt. b. DNA synthesis will occur until the polymerase reaches a thymine in the template strand, and then it will halt. c. DNA synthesis will occur normally, but there will be a hole in the DNA strand where the adenine should go. d. DNA synthesis will occur normally because TaqI polymerase will substitute another nucleotide for adenine.

b. DNA synthesis will occur until the polymerase reaches a thymine in the template strand, and then it will halt.

Which of the following definitions is associated with CHANGES in DNA? a. Heritable b. Genetic c. Epigenetic

b. Genetic

A white flower is crossed with a red flower, and the resulting phenotype of the F1 generation is a mixture of the two colors, pink. What is this an example of? a. Lethal Alleles b. Incomplete Dominance c. Codominance d. Epistasis

b. Incomplete Dominance

There is a genetic link (in form of SNP heritability) for individual behavioral disorders between 5 major Psychiatric Disorders, suggesting these pairs of disorders share underlying genes. These disorders are: a. Rhemutoid Arthritis, Multiple Sclerosis, Spina bifida, Severe allergies, Celiac Disease b. Major Depressive Disorder, ADHD, Schizophrenia, Bipolar Disorder, and Autism c. AIDS, HIV, Herpes, Syphillis, Gonorrhea d. Leukemia, Lung Cancer, Breast Cancer, Melanoma, Colorectal Cancer

b. Major Depressive Disorder, ADHD, Schizophrenia, Bipolar Disorder, and Autism

Which of the following processes is paired corretly with the organelle in which the process takes place? a. Replication= Ribosome Transcription= Nucleus Protein Synthesis= Nucleus b. Replication= Nucleus Transcription= Nucleus Protein Synthesis= Ribosome c. Replication= Mitochondria Transcription= Mitochondria Protein Synthesis= Nucleus d. Replication= Ribosome Transcription= Mitochondria Protein Synthesis= Nucleus

b. Replication= Nucleus Transcription= Nucleus Protein Synthesis= Ribosome

"Chargaff's Rule" allows us to understand the process of DNA replication by stating... a. The percentage of "A" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "U", the percentage of "C" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "G" b. The percentage of "A" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "T", the percentage of "C" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "G" c. The percentage of "A" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "G", the percentage of "C" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "T" d. The percentage of "A" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "C", the percentage of "G" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "T"

b. The percentage of "A" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "T", the percentage of "C" in DNA is equal to the percentage of "G"

Cancer-causing mutations of the cell cycle _______. a. increase the speed of each phase of the cycle itself b. cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle c. eliminate one or more stages of the cell cycle d. stop the cycle and cause a build-up of cell toxins

b. cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle

​Cancer-causing mutations of the cell cycle ____. a. stop the cycle and cause a build-up of cell toxins b. cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle c. ​increase the speed of the cycle d. eliminate one or more stages of the cycle

b. cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle

Different alleles that are both equally and fully expressed in a heterozygote are: a. dominant b. codominant c. incomplete dominance d. homozygous dominant

b. codominant

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. Draw a punnet square to show the cross of a hemophiliac male and a carrier female. Which of the following is the most accurate description of their offspring? a. none of the females will have hemophilia, all of the males will have hemophilia b. half of the females will have hemophilia, and half of the males will have hemophilia c. half of the females will have hemophilia, all of the males will be carriers d. half of the females will have hemophilia, and all of the males will have hemophilia

b. half of the females will have hemophilia, and half of the males will have hemophilia

Genome Wide Association Studies (GWAS): a. compares the genome of healthy cells versus the genome of cancer cells within one single individual b. have potential to identify genes associated with behavioral traits by finding certain SNPs and chromosome regions that may contain disease genes with varying frequency in affected individuals than the general population c. are ethically questionable, and should not be performed except as a last resort during diagnosis and treatment d. cannot contribute to the field of behavioral genetics because the environment is a much more powerful influence on behavior than genes

b. have potential to identify genes associated with behavioral traits by finding certain SNPs and chromosome regions that may contain disease genes with varying frequency in affected individuals than the general population

Sickle cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. The genotype of an individual with sickle cell disease is: a. homozygous dominant b. homozygous recessive c. heterozygous d. a genotype beyond Mendel's Laws

b. homozygous recessive

Proteins contain twenty different subunits ____. a. that are the carriers of genetic information b. in the form of amino acids c. arranged in a double helix attached to DNA d. in the form of nucleotides

b. in the form of amino acids

In a human pedigree that traces the inheritance of albinism, a filled square represents a: a. female with albinism b. male with albinism c. heterozygous male d. heterozygous female

b. male with albinism

If a cell begins to divide in an uncontrolled way, it ____. a. will always be life threatening b. may form a benign tumor c. signals uncontrolled cell division in other parts of the body d. is a sign of metastasis

b. may form a benign tumor

*During translation, a template of the original DNA strand is made from ____ RNA. a. ribosomal b. messenger c. nucleotide d. transfer

b. messenger

The heritability of a trait is the ____. a. average amount of genetic variation in each individual b. proportion of phenotypic variation that is caused by different genotypes c. proportion of phenotypic variation that is caused by the environment d. absolute measurement of genotypic variation in a population

b. proportion of phenotypic variation that is caused by different genotypes

DNA's two major functions are to ____________________ and to carry the ____________________ information for proteins and RNA molecules. a. provide bone structure; structural b. replicate; genetic c. store energy; metabolic d. transport oxygen; reproductive

b. replicate; genetic

In DNA, the ________________________ comprise the sturdy "backbone" of the molecule, and the ________________________ comprise the "rungs" of the ladder. a. nitrogenous bases; sugar-phosphate group b. sugar-phosphate group; nitrogenous bases c. nucleotides; proteins d. proteins; nucleotides

b. sugar-phosphate group; nitrogenous bases

A heterozygote is an individual who has: a. an extra genome b. two different alleles for a gene c. two identical alleles for a gene d. an extra pair of sex chromosomes

b. two different alleles for a gene

Doctors classify cancer based on: a. the last system that it spreads to b. where it begins c. how the patient chooses to proceed with treatment d. sex of the individual

b. where it begins

The technology of transplanting nonhuman organs into humans is known as _____. a. genomic transmission b. xenotransplantation c. organotransplantation d. cross reception

b. xenotransplantation

In pre-mRNA processing, ____. a. introns are spliced out and combined to form complete proteins b. ​introns are spliced out and the exons are combined in the mature mRNA c. ​introns are spliced out and combined in the tRNA d. exons are spliced out and the introns are combined in the mature mRNA

b. ​introns are spliced out and the exons are combined in the mature mRNA

In humans, hair texture is an incompletely dominant trait. Curly is the dominant genotype, wavy is heterozygous, and straight hair is recessive. What is the probable phenotypic ratio for a cross between a man with wavy hair and a woman with curly hair? a. All curly hair b. 3/4 wavy hair; 1/4 straight hair c. 1/2 wavy hair; 1/2 curly hair d. 1/4 curly hair; 1/2 wavy hair; 1/4 straight hair

c. 1/2 wavy hair; 1/2 curly hair

You are working with a novel organism with double stranded DNA and you discover that this organism has 20% adenine in its DNA. What percentage of cytosine do you expect that this organism has in its DNA? a. 20% b. 40% c. 30% d. 60%

c. 30%

When given the following strand of DNA, which is the correct RNA sequence that would be produced? 3' TACGTAATAGAT 5' a. 3' AUGCAUUAUCUA 5' b. 3' GAGCCAUGCUUA 5' c. 5' AUGCAUUAUCUA 3' d. 3' CUCGGUACGUAA 5'

c. 5' AUGCAUUAUCUA 3'

Which of the following does NOT support the claim that interactions between genes and the environment exist? a. Smokers who develop lung cancer have 10 times as many mutations in their cancer cells as nonsmokers who develop lung cancer b. Women with BRCA1/2 mutations born after 1940 have a higher risk of developing cancer than those born earlier c. A monozygotic twin study reveals that both twins suffer from the same genetic disorder d. Farmers exposed to insecticides etc., along with a translocation mutation developed non-Hodgkin's lymphoma tumors

c. A monozygotic twin study reveals that both twins suffer from the same genetic disorder

In PCR, what do primers enable us to do? a. Replicate the entire genome and molecule in rapid time b. Guide the vector into the appropriate place of the host cell so cloning can take place c. Amplify a specific segment of interest from DNA rather than an entire molecule d. Prime the gene for amplification by searching for errors before the process begins; similar to a gatekeeper gene

c. Amplify a specific segment of interest from DNA rather than an entire molecule

Which of the following is NOT true of DNA? a. Replicates itself as the first step of the central dogma b. Double stranded c. Contains four nitrogoneous bases, a phosphate group, and the sugar ribose d. The four nitrogenous bases are Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, and Thymine

c. Contains four nitrogoneous bases, a phosphate group, and the sugar ribose

What would be the most likely outcome if methylation occurs? a. the extent to which DNA is wrapped around histones changes; a genetic change b. a phosphate group is added; an epigenetic change c. DNA is tagged by the methyl groups and activate or repress genes; an epigenetic change d. methylation would have no epigenetic effect only a genetic change

c. DNA is tagged by the methyl groups and activate or repress genes; an epigenetic change

Why does DNA synthesis occur from 5' to 3' on the growing strand? a. it adds the new strand from top to bottom which is always 5' to 3' b. the DNA polymerase only knows how to read the 5' so it starts there every time c. DNA polymerase can only fit new nucleotides at the 3' end of the new strand due to the bulky nature of the phosphate group d. the new strand only contains a 5' end

c. DNA polymerase can only fit new nucleotides at the 3' end of the new strand due to the bulky nature of the phosphate group

The two types of nucleic acids are _____________ and ____________. a. proteins; amino acids b. phenotype; genotype c. DNA; RNA d. glycerol; fatty acids

c. DNA; RNA

In 2005, professional basketball player Eddy Curry was traded by the Chicago Bulls to the New York Knicks for refusing to submit to a DNA test associated with a cardiac condition. If this had occurred after 2008, the ____ may have protected him from losing his position with the Bulls. a. Human Microbiome Project b. National Organ Transplant Act c. Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) d. HapMap Project

c. Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)

What process is ultimately responsible for the normal growth, size, and regulation of organs and tissues? a. Transcription b. Translation c. Mitosis d. Meiosis

c. Mitosis

​In a cross between a true-breeding plant bearing the dominant traits of smooth, yellow seeds and a true-breeding plant bearing the recessive traits of wrinkled, green seeds, the offspring (F1) are all smooth and yellow and their genotype is ____. a. SSyy b. ssYY c. SsYy d. ssyy

c. SsYy

The quick response of the immune system to a second infection is due to the _____, a feature of the immune system as demonstrated by the success of vaccines. a. suppression of suppressor cells b. new cytotoxic T cell.​ c. T and B memory cells d. high levels of antigen

c. T and B memory cells

If a pedigree of several generations shows only females affected by a particular trait, it cannot be a(n) ____ trait. a. autosomal dominant b. X-linked c. Y-linked d. autosomal recessive

c. Y-linked

Dedifferentation can be explained as ___________ a. The same thing as specialization b. A lower capacity to divide c. a return to "stemness" d. many distinguishing characteristics of the original cell

c. a return to "stemness"

In the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure, the polynucleotide chains ____. a. are of unequal length b. ​are arranged with the bases forming the backbone of the helix c. are oriented in opposite directions d. form covalent bonds between uracil and adenine

c. are oriented in opposite directions

The Hardy-Weinberg law is used to calculate allele and genotype frequencies ____. a. more in males than in females b. only in females c. as a result of hormone differences between males and females d. ​only in males

c. as a result of hormone differences between males and females

When the immune systems no longer distinguishes between self and nonself, _____ can result. a. viral infections b. minor allergic reactions c. autoimmunity disorders​ d. enhanced immune response

c. autoimmunity disorders​

A phosphate group is a compound containing phosphorus ____. a. chemically bonded to three nitrogen molecules b. and sodium attached to a sugar c. chemically bonded to four oxygen molecules d. and calcium attached to a base

c. chemically bonded to four oxygen molecules

As DNA polymerase synthesizes a new DNA strand, it can ____. a. not detect an incorrect nucleotide b. induce apoptosis when it detects a mistake in DNA synthesis c. detect an incorrect nucleotide d. immediately stop the cell cycle

c. detect an incorrect nucleotide

In an inflammatory response, the direct effect of histamine is to ____. a. attack cytotoxic T cells b. decrease heat accumulation in the area of infection c. dilate blood vessels causing increased blood flow to the area of infection (creating symptoms similar to those of allergies) d. directly kill bacteria

c. dilate blood vessels causing increased blood flow to the area of infection (creating symptoms similar to those of allergies)

When Mendel crossed pure breeding peas having yellow seed color (YY) with pure breeding peas having green seed color (yy), all of the offspring had yellow seed color. These results mean that yellow seed color is the: a. most attractive to potential mates b. genotypic value c. dominant phenotype d. recessive phenotype

c. dominant phenotype

One characteristic of an autosomal dominant trait is that ____ a. heterozygous fathers will always have affected daughters b. 50% of individuals with two affected parents will be affected c. every affected individual has at least one affected parent d. ​if two affected individuals are homozygous, the risk of having an affected child is 1:4

c. every affected individual has at least one affected parent

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. Draw a punnet square to show the cross of a hemophiliac male and a carrier female. Which of the following is the most accurate description of their offspring? a. half of the females will have hemophilia, and all of the males will have hemophilia b. half of the females will have hemophilia, all of the males will be carriers c. half of the females will have hemophilia, and half of the males will have hemophilia d. none of the females will have hemophilia, all of the males will have hemophilia

c. half of the females will have hemophilia, and half of the males will have hemophilia

​In genetics, a chi-square test can be used to determine ____. a. whether an organism with a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous b. what the predicted outcome of a dihybrid cross will be c. how closely actual results of a cross match the expected results d. whether an allele exhibits complete or incomplete dominance

c. how closely actual results of a cross match the expected results

Marbles is a Manx cat whose tail is so short that she appears not to have one. The genotype for short tail in Manx cats is heterozygous (Mm). Cats that are genotype mm have normal length tails, but cats that are genotype MM die before birth due to highly abnormal brains and spinal cords. Marbles has one copy of a dominant _____ allele. a. pleiotropic b. penetrant c. lethal d. polymorphic

c. lethal

​The DNA components adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine are examples of ____. a. ​genes b. phosphates c. nitrogenous ​bases d. sugars

c. nitrogenous ​bases

Mendel's results and conclusions were accurate but are seen differently today because we now realize and understand that: a. pea color is actually more complex than the human visual system can perceive. b. pea inheritance utilizes different principals than human inheritance c. single-gene traits are usually influenced by the environment and other genes. d. he didn't count enough peas to draw any informed conclusions

c. single-gene traits are usually influenced by the environment and other genes.

B and T cells become activated, meaning they no longer carry stem cell characteristics (no longer naive cells), once _____. a. plasma cells begin to produce and secrete antibodies​ b. major histocompatibility genes are expressed c. they are activated by an antigen d. killer T cells bind to any pathogen

c. they are activated by an antigen

*Which substiution mutation would least likely impact the amino acid in a codon? a. first position b. second position c. third position d. any position would have an equal effect on the result amino acid

c. third position

Codons are ____ that encode the information for a specific amino acid in a protein. a. made of two polynucleotide strands b. ribosomal subunits c. triplets of nucleotides in mRNA d. mRNA templates that are transcribed into tRNA

c. triplets of nucleotides in mRNA

In pea plants, the allele for tall (T) is dominant to the allele for short (t). The genotype for a short pea plant is _____. a. TT b. Tt c. tt d. Both TT and Tt will result in the same phenotype of short plant

c. tt

One goal of pedigree analysis is to determine ____. a. if two people are related b. what treatment a person should undergo c. whether a gene has a dominant or recessive pattern of inheritance d. gene loci

c. whether a gene has a dominant or recessive pattern of inheritance

Of these developmental stages below, which is the earliest? a. gastrula b. 2 cell c. zygote d. blastula

c. zygote

The process of meiosis results in ____.​ a. ​a doubling of the chromosome number b. the production of four identical cells c. ​a reduction in the chromosome number d. ​two diploid cells

c. ​a reduction in the chromosome number

Proteins contain twenty different subunits ____. a.​ that are the carriers of genetic information b.​ including thymine, cytosine, guanine, and adenine c.​ in the form of amino acids d. ​in the form of nucleotides e.​ arranged in a double helix attached to DNA

c. ​in the form of amino acids

In pre-mRNA processing, ____. a.​ exons are spliced out and used to produce ribosomal subunits b. ​exons are spliced out and the introns are combined in the mature mRNA c. ​introns are spliced out and the exons are combined in the mature mRNA d. ​introns are spliced out and combined in the tRNA e. ​introns are spliced out and combined to form complete proteins

c. ​introns are spliced out and the exons are combined in the mature mRNA

During meiosis in an organism where 2n = 8, how many chromatids will be present in a cell at the beginning of meiosis II?​ a. 2 b. 12 c. 6 d. 8

d. 8

What is the phenotypic ratio of a heterozygous two-trait (dihybrid) cross? a. 8:8 b. 15:1 c. 1:2:1 d. 9:3:3:1

d. 9:3:3:1

What are some situations where DNA profiling has been used to identify victims? a. Identifying World Trade Center victims b. Identifying victims of natural disasters such as tsunamis c. Reuniting families such as the Dirty War d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following demonstrates the genetic nature of cancer? a. Mutations accumulate within the genome b. Genes that increase the risk of cancer can interact with environmental triggers c. Sequencing tumors have found differences in cancerous and healthy cells within the same individual d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following behavioral disorders has the highest prevalence in the U.S. adult population (based on the data from lecture and in our text)? a. Eating Disorders b. Autism spectrum disorders c. Mood disorders (Major Depressive, Bipolar) d. Anxiety

d. Anxiety

What tool connects diseases that share genes that have altered expression? a. Bioinformatics b. Transcriptomics c. Proteomics d. Diseasome

d. Diseasome

When thinking of the characteristics of skin cancer (ABCDE), what is meant by "E"? a. Exaggerated b. Emergent c. Excessive d. Elevated

d. Elevated

In a family that starts with you, your grandchildren would be the _____ generation. a. P1 b. P2 c. F1 d. F2

d. F2

Which of the following is the correct flow of genetic information? a. Translation --> Transcription --> Replication b. Replication --> Translation -> Transcription c. Translation --> Replication --> Transcription d. Replication --> Transcription --> Translation

d. Replication --> Transcription --> Translation

Some organisms are capable of asexual or sexual reproduction. Under favorable conditions, reproduction proceeds asexually. When conditions become more stressful reproduction switches to a sexual mode. Which of the following below is the most logical explanation, based on what you know about biological success, evolution, and populations? a. Sexual reproduction is simple and more rapid allowing larger numbers of offspring to be produced. b. Sexual reproduction requires two separate individuals, who can mutually provide nutrient support during stress. c. Asexual reproduction requires more energy d. Sexual reproduction produces individuals with new combinations of recombined chromosomes increasing diversity.

d. Sexual reproduction produces individuals with new combinations of recombined chromosomes increasing diversity.

If allele T (long tongue) exhibits incomplete dominance over the recessive allele t (short tongue), a heterozygote for this gene would most likely have which phenotype: a. a long tongue b. a short tongue c. a tongue that continuously changes length d. a tongue of intermediate length

d. a tongue of intermediate length

Autosomes represent ____. a. the half of the chromosomes inherited from one parent b. all chromosomes including the sex chromosomes c. those chromosomes found only in gametes d. all chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes

d. all chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes

Studying the genetics of behavior is important because it can inform our understanding of: a. natural selection b. learning c. survival of populations d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following are possible concerns for CRISPER? a. possbility of cutting the wrong target b. potential increase in cancer risk in early non-clinical tests c. use of this stratgey in a complex, multicellular organism rather than single celled bacteria can cause unpredictable outcome d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following are possible functions of RNA? a. be a protein template via transcription b. used as a sensor that can control activity of genes c. become molecules that could recognize DNA sequences that direct enzymes to the target site for removal d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following immunity impairments can be caused by mutations? a. immune deficiencies b. allergies c. cancer d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What can humans do with the CRISPER technology they discovered in nature? a. improve human health b. make food supply hardier/resistant to disease c. advance any aim of science that involves living cells (biofuels and waste management) d. all of the above are possible uses of CRISPER

d. all of the above are possible uses of CRISPER

Which of the following is true about epigenetic changes? a. They are reversible b. they are heritable chemical modifications to DNA and its associated proteins that alter gene expression c. the epigenome may change many times over a lifespan due to environmental conditions d. all of the above are true

d. all of the above are true

The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the ____ and the results of chemical modifications and other processing events. a. initiation complex​ b. interaction with other polypeptide chains c. interaction of R groups d. amino acid sequence

d. amino acid sequence

In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate in ____. a. ​metaphase II b. metaphase I c. anaphase II d. anaphase I

d. anaphase I

When describing DNA, which of the following words is describing the orientation of the two strands? a. semi-conservative b. somatic versatility c. phenotypic variations d. anti-parallel

d. anti-parallel

Y-linked traits are ____. a. ​passed on to only 50% of female progeny b. known to skip generations in males c. carried only by females, but are never expressed d. carried only by males and transmitted only to males

d. carried only by males and transmitted only to males

In mice, fur color has several options. Agouti is the dominant phenotype, and will be expressed if the mouse carries an AA or Aa gene pairing. However, if a second gene pairing is present, "cc", then the mouse will be albino. This is an example of: a. muliple alleles b. lethal alleles c. pleiotropy d. epistasis

d. epistasis

One characteristic of an autosomal dominant trait is that ____. a. 50% of individuals with two affected parents will be affected b. if two affected individuals are homozygous, the risk of having an affected child is 1:4 c. heterozygous fathers will always have affected daughters d. every affected individual has at least one affected parent

d. every affected individual has at least one affected parent

Which of the following is used to explain the unity, and diversity, of all life? a. longevity b. gene therapy c. artificial intelligence d. evolution

d. evolution

What is the third stage of PCR? a. anneal b. denature c. prime d. extend

d. extend

Sperm cells and egg cells are called: a. grommets b. marmites c. gonads d. gametes

d. gametes

​The offspring (F1) resulting from the cross between two red flowered plants are 3/4 red and 1/4 white. The most likely genotype of both red flowered parental plants (P1) is ____. a. homozygous recessive b. codominant recessive c. incomplete dominant d. heterozygous

d. heterozygous

If a man expresses an X-linked recessive trait, ____. a. his father transmitted the trait to him b. ​all of his brothers will also express it c. all of his sisters will also express it d. his mother was heterozygous or homozygous for the trait

d. his mother was heterozygous or homozygous for the trait

Epigenetics is the study of heritable alterations in gene expression caused by ____. a. translocations between alleles b. the mutation of a single gene c. environmental factors d. mechanisms that do not alter any DNA sequence

d. mechanisms that do not alter any DNA sequence

Polyploidy is characterized by ____. a. a condition in which one member of a chromosomal pair is missing b. the haploid number of bacteria being present in the human genome c. a condition in which one chromosome is missing entirely d. more than two paired sets of chromosomes

d. more than two paired sets of chromosomes

​ Polyploidy is characterized by ____. a. a condition in which one member of a chromosomal pair is missing b. the haploid number of bacteria being present in the human genome c. a condition in which one chromosome is missing entirely d. more than two paired sets of chromosomes

d. more than two paired sets of chromosomes

Mutation differs from the other sources of genetic variation, identified in the principles of Hardy-Weinberg, because a. mutations are always harmful b. mutations are the only source of variation that is unpredictable c. mutations only affect lab mice d. mutations introduce a change, while the other factors act upon already existing alleles

d. mutations introduce a change, while the other factors act upon already existing alleles

A(n) ____________________ is made up of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base. a. monosaccharide b. glycerol and fatty acid c. amino acid d. nucleotide

d. nucleotide

The X and Y chromosomes ____. a. are found paired with all 22 autosomal chromosomes b. are responsible for albinism c. are responsible for autosomal recessive inheritance d. play major roles in determining the sex of an individual

d. play major roles in determining the sex of an individual

​Independent assortment means that the ____. a. gametes produced must be heterozygous in all cases b. phenotypes are often a blending of two independent genotypes c. segregation of one gene pair depends on the segregation of another gene pair d. segregation of one gene pair occurs as if no other gene pair was present

d. segregation of one gene pair occurs as if no other gene pair was present

​Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments because ____. a. the offspring are infertile b. others were also using pea plants for their experiments and this would allow data sharing c. he was told by his superior that only pea plants were suitable for experimentation d. they can be self-fertilized or artificially fertilized by hand

d. they can be self-fertilized or artificially fertilized by hand

In RNA, the base ____ takes the place of the base thymine. a. deoxyribose b. guanine c. pentose d. uracil

d. uracil

The process of meiosis results in ____. a. two diploid cells b. a doubling of the chromosome number c. ​the production of four identical cells d. ​a reduction in the chromosome number

d. ​a reduction in the chromosome number

If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, ____. a. ​all gametes will be normal b. ​two gametes will be normal and two will have one extra chromosome c. ​three gametes will be normal and one will have two extra chromosomes d. ​all gametes will be abnormal

d. ​all gametes will be abnormal

In meiosis, cells become haploid ____. a. during metaphase I b. during anaphase I c. at the end of prophase II d. ​at the end of telophase I

d. ​at the end of telophase I

The major obstacle to the use of xenotransplants DIRECTLY CAUSED BY THE BIOLOGICAL RESPONSE FROM THE MHC is _____. a. finding nonhumans with similar-sized organs b. ​the lack of human donors c. resistance from opponents of genetically modified animals d. ​organ rejection by recipients and immune response to attack invader cells/tissues

d. ​organ rejection by recipients and immune response to attack invader cells/tissues

​Independent assortment means that the ____. a.​ phenotypic ratio in F2 will be the same for dihybrid and monohybrid crosses b. ​phenotypes are often a blending of two independent genotypes c. ​gametes produced must be heterozygous in all cases d. ​segregation of one gene pair occurs as if no other gene pair was present e. ​segregation of one gene pair depends on the segregation of another gene pair

d. ​segregation of one gene pair occurs as if no other gene pair was present

In codominant inheritance, ____. a. two recessive alleles interact and express themselves as a single dominant trait b. the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate to those of the parents c. there is partial phenotypic expression of one member of a gene pair in the homozygous condition d. ​there is full phenotypic expression of both members of a gene pair in the heterozygous condition

d. ​there is full phenotypic expression of both members of a gene pair in the heterozygous condition

In meiosis, cells become haploid ____.​ a.​ during anaphase I b.​ at the end of prophase II c.​ at the beginning of metaphase II d.​ at the end of telophase I e.​ during metaphase I

d.​ at the end of telophase I

Fill in the blanks (all the same word): When a _____ invades a bacterium, the bacterium identifies the ______ as foreign and collects some of its DNA so it can be recognized the next time it shows up. The bacterium puts the _____ DNA into a spacer in the CRISPER section of its own DNA.

virus