multiple choice ch.19,20,21,22,23,

Match the following etiological agents with their respective syndromes: ___Adenovirus __Sarcoptes scabiei __Chlamydia tranchomatis __Neisseria gonorrhoeae __Pasteurella multocida __Enterovirus __Candida albicans a. vaginal yeast infection b. acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis c. scabies d. ophthalmia neonatorum e. trachoma f. cat or dog bites and scratches g. epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

Adenovirus: g. epidemic keratoconjunctivitis sarcoptes scabiei: c. scabies Chlamydia tranchomatis: d. ophthalmia neonatorum and e. trachoma Neisseria gonorrhoeae: d. ophthalmia neonatorum Pasteurella multocida: f. cat or dog bites and scratches Enterovirus: b. acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis Candida albicans: a. vaginal yeast infection

22. Match the following microorganisms to their prespective description: __Corynebacterium diphtheriae __Streptococcus pneumoniae __Mycoplasma pneumoniae __Histoplasma capsulatum __Cryptococcus neofrmans a. fungus present in chicken impacted soil and bat guano b. yeast that causes a mild respiratory infection that can spread to meninges c. causes the majority of cases of lobar pneumonia d. infects the pharynx and produces a systemic toxin e. causes primary atypical pneumonia

Corynebacterium diphtheriae- a. fungus present in chicken-impacted soil and bat guano Streptococcus pneumoniae- b. yeast that causes a mild respiratory infection that can spread to meninges Mycoplasma pneumoniae- c. causes the majority of cases of lobar pneumonia Histoplasma capsulatum- d. infects the pharynx and produces a systemic toxin Cryptococcus neoformans- e. causes primary atypical pneumonia

23. Match the following organisms to their staining reaction and shape: __Streptococcus pyogenes __ Haemophilus influenzae __Mycoplasma pneumoniae __Legionella pneumophilia __Corynebacterium diphtheriae __Bordetella pertussis __Mycobacterium tuberculosis a. gram-negative rod b. gram-positive rod c. gram-negative coccobacillus d. gram-negative coccus e. gram-positive coccus f. acid-fast rod g. no staining reaction

Streptococcus pyogenes- e. gram-positive coccus Haemophilus influenzae- c. gram-negative coccobacillus Mycoplasma pneumoniae- g. no staining reaction Legionella pneumophilia- a. gram-negative rod Corynebacterium diphtheriae- b. gram-positive rod Bordetella pertussis- c. gram-negative coccobacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis- f. acid-fast rod

Match the following diseases with their respective etiological agent __Swimmer's itch __Cat scratch fever __Loaiasis __River blindness __Myiasis a. afipia and bartonella b. nematode larvae from blackfly bites c. filarial worm d. schistosome larvae e. screwworm fly larvae

Swimmer's itch: d. schistosome larvae Cat scratch fever: a. afipia and bartonella Loaiasis: c. filarial worm River blindness: b. nematode larvae from blackfly bites Myiasis: e. screwworm fly larvae

6. Bacterial endocarditis is an infection and inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart and occurs as a result of transient bacteria attaching to fibrin from exposed collagen fibers of damaged valvular surfaces. true or false?

True

Pediculosis is an infection of body lice that causes intense itching. True or false?

True

4. Urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by bacteria are common and can ascend or descend to spread through the urogenital system. Match the following resulting UTI-related diseases to their descriptions: __Glomerulonephritis __Toxic shock syndrome __Pyelonephritis __Leptospirosis __Prostatis __Vaginitis a. opportunistic gardnerella vaginalis in combination with anaerobic bacteria commonly cause this vaginal infection that can be diagnosed with "clue cells" b. associated with superabsorbent tampons left in too long, allowed for the multiplication of strains of staphylococcus aureus producing ecotoxin C c. infection of the prostate in men. commonly caused by Escherichia coil d. an immune complex disease of the glomeruli of the kidney tipped of by nephrogenic strains off streptococcus pyogenes e. an inflammation of the kidney usually caused by the backup of urine with consequent ascent of escherichia coli f. a zoonotic infection by leptospira interrogans usually acquired by direct contact with contaminated dog, cat, or wild animal urine or in water or soil

Glomerulonephritis- d. an immune complex disease of the glomeruli of the kidney tipped of by nephrogenic strains off streptococcus pyogenes Toxic shock syndrome- b. associated with superabsorbent tampons left in too long, allowed for the multiplication of strains of Staphylococcus aureus producing ecotoxin C Pyelonephritis- e. an inflammation of the kidney usually caused by the backup of urine with consequent ascent of Escherichia coli Leptospirosis- f. a zoonotic infection by Leptospira interrogans usually acquired by direct contact with with contaminated dog, cat, or wild animal urine or in water or soil Prostatis- c. infection of the prostate in men. commonly caused by Escherichia coli Vaginitis- a. opportunistic gardnerella vaginalis in combination with anaerobic bacteria commonly cause this vaginal infection that can be diagnosed with "clue cells"

8. Match the stages of syphilis to their descriptions: __Incubation stage __Primary stage __Primary latent period __Secondary stage __Secondary latent stage __Tertiary stage a. disease of multiple body systems occur including "neurosyphilis" with formations of granulomatious inflammations called "gummas" b. all symptoms disappear again. can persist for life, variable periods, or not at all. In some patients syphilis does not progress beyond this stage. c. Highly contagious stage in which symptoms can appear, disappear, and reappear over a period of up to five years. Copper-colored rashes are common d. External signs of disease disappear, but blood tests are still positive since the spirochetes are spreading through the circulation e. Inflammatory "chancres" usually develop at the primary entry site 3 weeks later after inital infection. Chancres disappear 4-6 weeks later but disease has progressed to next stage f. Organisms are multiplying and spreading throughout the body over a period lasting 2-6 weeks after entering the body

Incubation stage- f. organisms are multiplying and spreading throughout the body over a period lasting 2-6 weeks after entering the body. Primary stage- e. Inflammatory "chancres" usually develop at the primary entry site three weeks later after inital infection. Chancres disappear 4-6 weeks later but disease has progressed to next stage. Primary latent period- d. external signs of disease disappear, but blood tests are still positive since the spirochees are spreading through the circulation Secondary stage- c. highly contagious stage in which symptoms can appear, disappear, and reappear over a period of up to five years. Copper-colored rashes are common. Secondary latent stage- b. all symptoms disappear again. Can persist for life, variable periods, or not at all. In some patients syphilis does not progress beyond this stage Tertiary stage- a. disease of multiple body systems occur including "neurosyphilis" with formation of granulomatous inflammation called "gummas."

Humans have protective devices against microbial invasion or infection of the eyes and mucous membranes. match the following trypes of protection to their decription: __Lysozyme __Eyelashes __Eyelid ___Mucus ___IgA ___conjunctiva ___Tears a. physical barriers of the eye b. physical barriers of mucous membranes c. Glandular secretion of the eye d. Glandular secretion of the mucous membranes

Lysozyme: c. glandular secretion of the eye Eyelashes: a. physical barriers of the eye Eyelid: a. physical barriers of the eye Mucus: b. physical barriers of mucous membranes, and d. glandular secretion of the mucous membranes IgA: d. glandular secretion of the mucous membranes Conjunctiva: a. physical barriers of the eye Tears: a. physical barriers of the eye, and c. glandular secretion of the eye

8. Match the following bacterial enteric disease or terms to their descriptions: __Typhoid fever __ Traveler's diarrhea __Vibriosis __Salmonellosis __Shigellosis __Asiatic cholera __Dysentery __Enteric fever a. an enteritis caused by ingestion of raw or undercooked contaminated seafood b. systemic infection spread from intestinal mucosa c. enteritis of the large intestine causing diarrhea d. serious enteric fever caused by ingestion of salmonella typhi-contaminated food or water e. a self-limiting enteritis commonly caused by members of the genus Salmonell and associated with ingestion of improperly prepared, previously contaminated foods f. Bacillary dysentery caused by serovars of Shigella that can produce fever-eliciting endotoxin and neural-acting Shiga toxin g. Diarrgea caused most commonly by enteroinvasive or enterotoxigenic strains of Escherichia coli h. associated with fecal contamination of water, this enteritis causes massive electrolyte loss and diarrhea accompanied by severe nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

Typhoid fever- d. Serious enteric fever caused by ingestion of Salmonella typhi-contaminated food or water Traveler's diarrhea-g. Diarrhea caused most commonly by enteroinvasive or enterotoxigenic strains of Escherichia coli Vibriosis- a. An enteritis caused by ingestion of raw or undercooked contaminated seafood Salmonellosis- e. A self-limiting enteritis commonly caused by members of the genus Salmonella and associated with ingestion of improperly prepared, previously contaminated foods Shigellosis- f. Bacillary dysentery caused by serovars of Shigella that can produce fever-eliciting endotoxin and neural-acting Shiga toxin Asiatic cholera- h. Associated with fecal contamination of water, this enteritis causes massive electrolyte loss and diarrhea accompanied by severe nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain Dysentery- c. Enteritis of the large intestine causing diarrhea Enteric fever- b. Systemic infection spread from intestinal mucosa

11. Complications arising following campylobacteriosis include which of the following? a. Arthritis b. Brain damage c. Kidney damage d. Paralysis e. Blindness

a. Arthritis

11. Alternate periods with fever along with periods without fever are characteristics of relapsing fever caused by members of the genus: a. Borellia b. Yersinia c. Brucella d. Pediculus e. Streptococcus

a. Borellia

10. Which of the following species of microbe is associated with being a good indicator of fecal contamination and an extremely versatile opportunistic pathogen? a. Escherichia coli b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Yesinia enterocolitica d. Shigella dysenteriae e. Salmonella typhi

a. Escherichia coli

18. Which of the following protozoan parasites inhibits the adsorption of fats in the intestine? a. Giardia b. cryptosporidium c. rotavirus d. amoeba e. echovirus

a. Giardia

12. Which of the following disease is not a zoonosis? a. Relapsing fever b. Tularemia c. Anthrax d. Plaque e. Brucellosis

a. Relapsing fever

21. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is: a. associated with inhalation of dried feces and urine of carrier rodents b. a syndrome that has only been reported in Africa and latin America c. Transmitted by the bite of a rodent carrying the virus d. attributed to rats but not mice e. preventable by vaccination

a. associated with inhalation of dried feces and urine of carrier rodents

The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused by: a. chlamydia trachomatis b. haemophilus influenzae c. neisseria gonorrhoeae d. staphylococcus aureus e. streptococcus pneumoniae

a. chlamydia trachomatis

10. Legionella pneumophila, the causative agent of Legionnaires' disease, is transmitted by aerosol inhalation. Which of the following fomites have NOT been implicated in the spread of this disease? a. clothing b. air conditioners c. ornamental fountains d. humidifiers e. patient vaporizers

a. clothing

4. ______ are the leading cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis while _____ cause the multisystem disorder rheumatic fever. a. group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae); Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes b. Beta-hemolytic Staphlococcus pyogenes; Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) c. Beta-hemolytic Staphylococcus aureus; Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Klebsiella pneumoniae e. b and c

a. group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae); Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes

14. Clinical symptoms of tuberculosis are primarily due to: a. host inflammatory response b. mycotoxins c. endotoxins d. mucus production e. exotoxins

a. host inflammatory response

1. Which of the following is NOT true about dental plaque? a. it is an intermittently formed coating of microbes and organic matter on tooth surfaces that serves as the first step in tooth decay and gum disease b. it begins as positively charged salivary proteins adhere to negatively charged enamel surfaces, forming a pellicle (film) over the tooth surface c. Streptococcus mutans attaches to the pellicle where it hydrolyzes sucrose to fructose and glucose, or polymers of glucose that serve as bridges, holding together cells in plaque d. plaque consists of up to 30 different genera of bacteria and their products, such as polymers of glucose (dextran), saliva proteins, and minerals e. plaque that is allowed to accumulate in crevices near the gumline can change into anaerobic pockets full of bacteria that can irritate the gums or destroy underlying bone

a. it is an intermittently formed coating of microbes and organic matter on tooth surfaces that serves as the first step in tooth decay and gum disease

14. Which of the following cell wall components are most affected by the action of bile? a. Lipids b. proteins c. carbohydrates d. prions e. lps

a. lipids

2. Which of the following components of the respiratory system is normally free of microorganisms? a. lungs b. nasal cavity c. pharynx d. trachea e. bronchi

a. lungs

16. Herpesviruses usually establish a latent infection in which part of the body? a. nerve ganglia b. gallbladder c. stomach d. intestine e. eyes

a. nerve ganglia

8. In whooping cough, patients experience violent coughing episodes during the ___ stage and can have bluing of the skin or __ due to lack of oxygen from massive mucus and bacterial airway blockage a. paroxysmal; cyanosis b. catarrhal; pigmentation c. convalescent; osmosis d. pneumotic; hydrolysis e. primary; emesis

a. paroxysmal; cyanosis

6. Trichomoniasis is caused by what type of organism? a. Protozoan b. bacterium c. virus d. prion e. helminth

a. protozoan

All of the following characteristics of skin help make it a good defensive barrier against pathogenic microbes EXCEPT: a. springly elasticity b. saltiness due to production of sweat from sweat glands c. acidic pH due to oily compound (sebum) metabolism d. normal microflora of skin e. constant sloughing off of old dead epithelial skin cells

a. springy elasticity

20. Antigenic shifts in influenza virus are represented by dramatic changes in the viral antigens. It is likely they arise from rare events in which: a. two different influenza viruses infect a cell at the same time b. two separate viruses undergo lysogenic conversion c. two viruses conjugate d. mutations accumulate e. all of the above

a. two different influenza viruses infect a cell at the same time

2. The causative agent of 80% of urinary tract infections is: a. staphylococcus aureus b. Escherichia coli c. Proteus mirabilis d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. Escherichia coli

16. Which of the following is NOT true of mycobacterium tuberculosis? a. can remain viable in dried sputum for 6 to 8 months b. it is highly resistant to direct sunlight c. can grow inside macrophages d. can cause disease many years after initial infection e. transmission is by inhalation of respiratory secretions or dried sputum

b. It is highly resistant to direct sunlight

14. A louseborne disease that has influenced the course of wars (epidemic typhus) is caused by: a. Bartonella bacilliformis b. Rickettsia prowazekii c. Rickettsia akari d. Borrelia burgdorferi e. Yersinia pestis

b. Rickettsia prowazekii

2. Which of the following is commonly directly responsible for causing septic shock today? a. bacterial hemagglutinins b. bacterial endotoxins c. bacterial exotoxins d. fungal aflatoxins e. bacterial neurotoxins

b. bacterial endotoxins

Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with: a. staphylococcus aureus b. clostridium perfringens c. streptococcus pneumoniae d. neisseria gonorrhoeae e. pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. clostridium perfringens

3. which of the following is NOT true about the normal microflora found in the urogenital system? a. Females of childbearing age normally bear vaginal lactobacilli that produce an acidic pH that inhibits the growth of most other types of microbes b. females during childhood and after menopause normally bear a predominance of vaginal streptococci and staphylococci that keep an acidic pH c. in males, except for the last third of the urethra, the genital tract lacks a normal microflora and is sterile d. in both sexes, all parts of the urinary tract are normally sterile except for the portion of the urethra nearest it's opening e. all of the above are true

b. females during childhood and after menopause normally bear a predominance of vaginal streptococci and staphylococci that keep an acidic pH

The majority of microorganisms comprising the normal microflora inhabiting the skin surface are: a. gram-positive fungi of the single-celled yeast b. gram-positive bacteria of the staphylococcus, micrococcus, corynebacterium, and proprionibacterium genera c. gram-negative bacteria of the enterobacteriaceae family d. gram-negative bacteria of the neisseria, pseudomonas and salmonella genera e. all the above

b. gram-positive bacteria of the staphylococcus, micrococcus, corynebacterium, and proprionibacterium genera

12. The disease caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and diagonsed by finding "Donovan bodies" (large mononuclear cells) from lesions scrapings is known as: a. Lymphogranuloma venereum b. granuloma inguinale c. mycoplasmosis d. Inclusion conjunctivitis e. a and b

b. granuloma inguinale

17. Which of the following viruses requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease? a. hepatitis B b. hepatitis D c. Norwalk virus d. Rotavirus e. Echovirus

b. hepatitis D

7. Which of the following is NOT a way in which Neisseria Gonorrhoeae infects or causes disease in the genitourinary tract of humans? a. it uses attachment pili b. it produces an exfoliating exotoxin c. it produces a damaging endotoxin that damages the fallopian tube mucosa d. it produces a protease that cleaves IgA e. It often survives phagocytosis by neutrophilis and can survive and multiply within them

b. it produces an exfoliating exotoxin

6. A viral disease caused by paramyxoviruses that affect glands of the oral cavity, and sometimes other non-oral cavity glands and meninges, is called: a. measles b. mumps c. rubeola d. AIDS e. Thrush

b. mumps

Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxins (exfoliatins) produced by: a. steptococcus pyogenes b. staphylococcus aureus c. propionibacterium acnes d. pseudomonas aeruginosa e. demodex folliculorum

b. staphylococcus aureus

15. Rotavirus infection is a major cause of viral enteritis among infants and children. Which of the following is NOT true about rotaviruses? a. They are transmitted by the fecal-oral route, damage intestinal epithelium, and cause a watery diarrhea b. they are major cause of adult morbidity and mortality in developing countries c. they are reoviruses that replicate their double-stranded RNA in great numbers d. breast-fed infants are protected by anti-rotavirus antibodies and the complex carbohydrate lactadherin e. they are not the only major cause of viral enteritis

b. they are a major cause of adult morbidity and mrtality in developing countries

a superficial infection (thrush) can be caused by Candida albicans. This organism is a type of: a. filamentous fungi b. yeast c. gram-positive bacteria d. gram-negative bacteria e. virus

b. yeast

17. What characteristic of Coxiella burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, allows it to survive for up to two years? a. Metachromatic granule b. Exotoxin c. Endospore d. Hemagglutinin e. Cilia

c. Endospore

9. Which of the following organisms produces a potent toxin most similar to Shiga toxin? a. Salmonella typhi b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Escherichia coli O157:H7 d. Clostridium botulinum e. Clostridium perfringens

c. Escherichia coli O157:H7

21. Infection with which of the following can be diagnosed by finding its eggs in fecal specimens? a. Rotavirus b. Vibrio cholerae c. Helminths d. Hepatitis A e. Aspergillus niger

c. Helminths

2. Dental caries occur when sugars diffuse through plaque to the embedded bacteria, which in turn ferment the sugars into organic ____ , which cannot diffuse out of the area, resulting in a gradual ____ of the enamel. a. bases; precipitation b. bases; buildup c. acids; dissolving d. acids; osmosis e. none of the above

c. acids; dissolving

Hyperbaric oxygen may be useful in treating infectins caused by: a. gram-positive bacteria b. gram-negative bacteria c. anaerobic bacteria d. yeast e. viruses

c. anaerobic bacteria

13. Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete _____, which is carried and transmitted by the blacklegged tick ____ ____. a. yersinia pestis; pulex irritans b. borrelia recurrentis; musca domestica c. borrelia burgdorferi; Ixodes scapularis d. rickettsia akari; aedes aegypti e. francisella tularensis; culex pipiens

c. borrelia burgdorferi; Ixodes scapularis

10. A pathogen of both humans and cattle that causes undulant fever is a member of the genus: a. yersinia b. borellia c. brucella d. pediculus e. streptococcus

c. brucella

10. which of the following diseases is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi and is often characterized by signs and symptoms of the "soft chancre" and "buboes" (enlarged masses of lymphatic tissue)? a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. chancroid d. pelvic inflammatory disease e. lymphogranuloma venereum

c. chancroid

3. All of the following are symptoms of septic shock EXCEPT a. shock b. lymphangitis c. Chills d. Fever e. Collapsed blood vessels

c. chills

the virus used to immunize individuals against smallpox causes the disease: a. chickenpox b. measles c. cowpox d. molluscum contagiosum e. warts

c. cowpox

7. Which of the following is NOT true about parainfluenza viruses? a. most infants by the age of six months have been exposed to and develop antibodies against all four parainfluenza viruses b. they cause rhinitis characterized by nasal, pharyngeal and bronchial inflammation, primarily in children c. parainfluenza virus infection can be prevented by vaccination d. they can cause noisy respiration (stridor) and acute obstruction of the larynx called croup e. the viruses are spread by direct contact or by large droplets

c. parainfluenza virus infection can be prevented by vaccination

12. Mycobacteria are difficult to Gram stain, and are termed "acid-fast" due to their: a. ability to survive in acidic conditions b. resistance to drying c. thick, waxy cell walls d. resistance to sunlight e. lack of a peptidoglycan layer

c. thick, waxy cell walls

ringworm infections by Tinea spp. cause infections of the groin, nails, scalp, and beard. The term "ringworm": a. refers to the small circular worms that cause these infections b. refers to all disease-causing fungi c. is misleading and gets its name from the shape of the ringlike lesions produced in Tinea spp. infections d. is misleading and gets its name from the samll circular shaped fungi e. b and d

c.Is misleading and gets its name from the shape of the ringlike lesions produced in Tinea spp. infections

pimples and scalded skin syndrome are caused by ________ whereas scarlet fever and erysipelas are caused by ________ but pyoderma and impetigo could be caused by _________. a. streptococcus, staphylococcus aureus; neither b. pseudomonas aeruginosa; stretococcus; both c. staphylococcus aureus; streptococcus; both d. staphylococcus aureus; pseudomonas; neither e. none of the above

c.staphylococcus aureus; streptococcus; both

18. What percentage of U.S. adults are believed to be carrying CMV? a. 10% b. 20% c. 50% d. 80% e. 100%

d. 80%

19. Aflatoxins are produced by a: a. bacterium b. Virus c. Unknown organism d. Fungus e. Protozoan

d. Fungus

17. genital warts are caused by: a. Treponema pallidum b. Herpesviruses c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Human papillomaviruses e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d. Human papillomaviruses

6. Why are colds difficult to treat and prevent? a. different cold viruses predominate during different seasons b. because there are so many different types of rhino-and coronaviruses, each with different antigens, development and administration of vaccines are currently prohibitive c. although some human interferons, delivery to infection sites if difficult, and unwanted side effects can occur. d. all of the above e. both a and c

d. all of the above

which of the following fungal disease result from an oportunistic fungal infection? a. zygomycoses b. aspergillosis c. candidiasis d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

antibiotic is used to treat the eyes of newborn infants when: a. the mother has gonorrhea b. the mother has genital herpes c. neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the newborn's eyes d. always e. the mother has a history of multiple sex partners

d. always

8. An organism that can cause cutaneous infections and can be transmitted by endospores is: a. staphylococcus aureus b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Yersinia pestis d. bacillus anthracis e. streptococcus pyogenes

d. bacillus anthracis

1. Whooping cough is caused by which organism? a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. staphylococcus epidermidis c. staphylococcus aureus d. bordetella pertussis e. streptococcus pyogenes

d. bordetella pertussis

13. Which of the following are associated with pelvic inflammatory disease? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Escherichia coli c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. both a and c e. a, b, and c

d. both a and c

11. Which of the following species causes lymphogranuloma venereum and most cases of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)? a. mycoplasma hominis b. ureaplasma urealyticum c. klebsiella granulomatis d. chlamydia trachomatis e. treponema pallidum

d. chlamydia trachomatis

4. Which of the following is NOT true about strep throat? a. It is caused by group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes b. It can be acquired through droplet nuclei inhalation from active cases, healthy carriers, and family pets, as well as from contaminated food, milk, and water c. Active cases can have inflamed and sore throat, swollen adenoids and lymph nodes in neck, pus-filled tonsillar lesions, fever, chills, headache, nausea, and vomiting d. coughing and nasal discharge are common hallmarks of strep throat e. If immediate treatment with an antibiotic is not given, the patient has a risk of also getting rheumatic fever

d. coughing and nasal discharge are common hallmarks of strep throat

5. What is the most likely explanation of how Streptococcus pyogenes causes rheumatic fever? a. Strep throat infections migrate down to the heart b. endotoxin production causes septicemia c. Vegetation followed by fibrin deposition d. cross-reactivity of an antibody for a streptococcus pyogenes antigen to a heart cell antigen e. it is an opportunistic infection triggered by coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

d. cross-reactivity of an antibody for a streptococcus pyogenes antigen to a heart cell antigen

20. Cytomegaloviruses are a widespread and diverse group of: a. cytoviruses b. retroviruses c. poxviruses d. herpesviruses e. mycoplasmas

d. herpesviruses

9. Which of the following is true of then chancre observed during primary syphilis? a. it disappears and leaves a scar b. it last throughout all stages of syphilis c. it is usually found on the face d. it is a hard, painless, lesion e. It is painful and purulent

d. it is a hard, painless, lesion

Which of the following is not true about acne? a. It is most commonly the result of male sex hormones that stimulate increased sebaceous gland growth and secretion of sebum. b. propionibacterium acnes in particular can turn a mild case of acne into a severe case by causing increased and widespread inflammation, tissue destruction, and scarring. c. common treatments are frequent cleasing of the skin and topical ointments that reduce the risk of infection d. low doses of oral antibiotics are often prescribed to prevent bacterial infections of lesions and are without side effects. e. in most cases , acne disappears or decreases in severity on its own as the body adjusts to the hormonal changes of puberty and sebaceous gland function stabilizes

d. low doses of oral antibiotics are often prescribed to prevent bacterial infections of lesins and are without side effects

a latent herpesvirus infection of cranial or spinal ganglia that can erupt along the pathway of the associated nerves causing a painful skin lesions is known as: a. smallpox b. chickenpox c. cowpox d. shingles e. warts

d. shingles

11. How many cases of tuberculosis are reported globally each year? a. 10 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 3 million e. 10 million

e. 10 million

5. All of the following are true about ear infections EXCEPT: a. middle ear infections (otitis media) often produce a puslike exudate (referred to as otitis media with effusion) due to infection by genera of Streptococcus, Haemophilus, or various species of anaerobes b. External auditory canal (otitis externa) infections are typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. After successful treatment of middle ear infections with antibiotics, sometimes tubes are inserted to prevent fluid accumulation, repeated infections, and hearing loss d. Pseudomonad infections are common in swimmers because these organisms are able to produce a soluble greenish-blue pigment e. Repeated ear infections in children often decrease markedly because as the child ages, the Eustachian tube changes shape and develops an angle that prevents most organisms from reaching the middle ear

e. Repeated ear infections in children often decrease markedly because as the child ages, the Eustachian tube changes shape and develops an angle that prevents most organisms from reaching the middle ear

12. Heliobacter is able to survive the acidic conditions of the stomach by producing which enzyme? a. B-galactosidase b. Coagulase c. Lactase d. Amylase e. Urease

e. Urease

1. Urogenital infections are most common near the openings of the vagina and urethra. However, which of the following nonspecific defenses help prevent infection? a. cleansing action of urine outflow b. urinary sphincters c. acidic pH of mucous membranes d. competition from normal microflora e. all of the above

e. all of the above

7. Which of the following apply to Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin? a. it causes food poisoning b. it inflames the intestinal lining and inhibits intestinal water adsorption c. it is heat stable d. it stimulates the vomiting center in the brain e. all of the above

e. all of the above

The bacterial eye diseases (ophthalmia neonatorum, bacterial conjunctivitis, and trachoma) can be tansmitted which of the following methods: a. fomites b. the process of birth c. direct contact d. insect vectors e. all of the above

e. all of the above

3. Which of the following is true about diphtheria? a. it is caused by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infected with a prophage that carries an exotoxin producing gene b. a pseudomembrane composed of Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells, damaged epithelial cells, fibrin, and blood cell forms that can block the airway and cause suffocation c. The exotoxin spreads throughout the body, damaging multiple organ systems by interfering with cellular protein synthesis d. It can be prevented with DTP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine and treated with both antitoxin and antibiotics e. all of the above are true

e. all of the above are true

The pus-producing skin infection (pyoderma) can be caused by: a. staphylococci b. streptococci c. corynebacteria d. a combination of staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria e. all of these

e. all of these

9. Which of the following statements is true of infection caused by Yersinia pestis? a. it can produce enlarged lymph nodes (buboes) b. it can infect the circulatory system, causing septicemia c. it can cause pneumonia d. it is called sylvatic plaque in areas where it is carried by wild rodents e. all of these are true

e. all of these are true

5. Longstanding plaque that becomes calcified on its surface, forming a hard crust, is referred to as: a. crest b. calculus c. tartar d. colgate e. b and c

e. b and c

13. Which of the following is true about pathogenic mycobacteria? a. they have a long generation time of 12 to 18 hours b. They are obligate anaerobes sensitive to small amounts of oxygen c. they are highly resistant to drying and can remain viable in dried sputum 6 to 8 months later d. both a and b e. both a and c

e. both a and c

which of the following is NOT a characteristic of impetigo? a. common in children b. can be caused by staphylococcus aureus c. can be caused by streptococcus pyogenes d. Is highly contagious e. can be caused by pseudomonads

e. can be caused by pseudomonas

19. The human papilloma virus is thought to play a role in what disease other than genital warts? a. diarrhea b. blindness c. arthritis d. deafness e. cervical cancer

e. cervical cancer

20. Which of the following infectious organisms is a prokaryotic organism? a. cryptosporidium parvum b. aspergillus niger c. taenia solium d. salmonella typhi e. giardia lamblia

e. giardiasis lamblia

3. All of the following are ways to prevent or treat dental caries EXCEPT: a. remove decay and fill cavities with resins or amalgams b. limit the intake of sticky foods c. brush with plaque-removing toothpaste and flossing between teeth d. use fluoridated water, toothpastes, and mouthwashes e. increase sugar intake to enhance increased salivary flow, which will wash away oral bacteria

e. increase sugar intake to enhance increased salivary flow, which will wash away oral bacteria

9. Penicillins have no effect on Mycoplasma pneumoniae because: a. mycoplasmas are viruses b. mycoplasmas possess beta lactamases c. mycoplasmas are too small d. mycoplasmas are eukaryotes e. mycoplasmas lack cell walls

e. mycoplasmas lack cell walls

13. Which of the following are incorrectly matched? a. hamburger-escherichia coli O157:H7 (EHEC) b. chickens and turkey- Salmonella enteritidis c. cooked rice- Bacillus cereus d. Potato salad- Staphylococcus aureus e. None of the above are incorrectly matched

e. none of the above are incorrectly matched

1. The normal microflora of the heart includes species of: a. gram-positive bacteria b. gram-negative bacteria c. fungi d. viruses e. none of these

e. none of these

7. Blood flukes causing schistosomiasis require a particular ____ as an intermediate host to complete their life cycle, while roundworms causing filariasis depend on a ___ host to complete their life cycle. a. mussel; black fly b. fish; tick c. virus; porcine d. metacercariae; tsetse fly e. snail, mosquito

e. snail, mosquito

5. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by a superantigen produced by which organism? a. salmonella enterica b. escherichia coli c. chlamydia trachomatis d. neisseria gonorrhoeae e. staphylococcus aureus

e. staphylococcus aureus

14. Which of the following microbes lack a cell wall, is one of the smallest bacteria known to cause human disease, requires 10% urea to grow in, and accounts for more than half of all infections that make couples infertile? a. mycoplasma hominis b. chlamydia trachomatis c. herpes hominis virus d. a and c e. ureaplasma urealyticum

e. ureaplasma urealyticum

15. Birds serving as reservoir hosts for Chlamydophila psittaci is the only way humans can contract ornithosis. true or false?

false

18. Diphtheroids are the strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that cause diphtheria. true or false?

false

16. Which of the following hepatitis viruses would most likely be transmitted by contaminated water? a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis B c. hepatitis C d. hepatitis D e. hepatitis E f. a and c g. a and e

g. a and e

Match the following viral skin diseases with their descriptions: ___smallpox ___cowpox ___rubella (german measles) __rubeola (measles) __papilloma (warts) __chickenpox a. mildest viral disease causing skin rash by togavirus and is prevented by administration of attenuated virus in the combined MMR vaccine b. Paramyxovirus infection causing fever and rash with "Koplik's spots" c. highly contagious disease causing skin lesions brough on by the varicella-zoster herpesvirus and can reoccur later in life causing shingles d. eradicated disease that brought on sickness and death for centuries and was found to be preventable by cowpox immunization by edward. jenner e. transmission of the vaccinia virus from cattle to humans causes this disease f. Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of skin and mucous membranes; also responsible fro 99% of all cervical cancer cases

smallpox d. Eradicated disease that brought on sickness and death for centuries and was found to be preventable by cowpox immunization by Edward Jenner. cowpox e. transmission of the vaccina virus from cattle to humans causes this disease rubella (german measles) a. mildest viral disease causing skin rash by togavirus and is prevented by administration of attenuated virus in the combined MMR vaccine rubeola (measles) b. Paramyxovirus infection causing fever and rash with "Koplik's spots" papilloma (warts) f. human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of skin and mucous membranes; also responsible for 99% of all cervical cancer cases chickenpox c. highly contagious disease causing skin lesions brought on by the varcella-zoster herpesvirus and can reoccur later in life causing shingles

15. Herpes simplex virus type 1 typically causes fever blisters (cold sores), and herpes simplex virus type 2 typically causes genital herpes. true or false?

true

19. Some strains of Legionella pneumophila live as endosymbionts of many amoebas in moist environments. True or false?

true

4. Periodontal disease occurs when bacteria become trapped in gingival crevices where they cause tooth decay, gum inflammation, and erosion of periodontal ligaments and alveolar bone that supports teeth. true or false

true