NASM

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Select one: a. Reduce heart rate b. Increase breathing rate c. Provide a transition period d. Reduce body temperature

b. Increase breathing rate

How many pages are most appropriate for a resume? Select one: a. Three to four pages b. One to two pages c. One page only d. Two to three pages

b. One to two pages

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Normal b. Elevated c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension

b. Elevated

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? Select one: a. Carbon molecules b. Essential and nonessential amino acids c. Essential amino acids only d. Peptide bonds

b. Essential and nonessential amino acids

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Kinesiology b. Osteokinematics c. Arthrokinematics d. Biomechanics

b. Osteokinematics

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Sagittal d. Dorsal

b. Transverse

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Transverse abdominis c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Diaphragm

b. Transverse abdominis

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Latissimus dorsi d. Quadriceps

b. Triceps brachii

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? Select one: a. Flu b. Type 2 diabetes c. Appendicitis d. Strep throat

b. Type 2 diabetes

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked? Select one: a. Once a day b. Once a week c. Prior to every use d. Only when there are signs of wear

c. Prior to every use

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered length-tension relationship d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

What best describes an essential amino acid? Select one: a. An amino acid that is in all types of foods b. An amino acid that is required after a workout c. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods d. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

d. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries b. Medial collateral ligament injuries c. Concussions d. Ankle sprains

d. Ankle sprains

Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication? Select one: a. Painkillers b. Inhalers c. Insulin d. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

d. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Client's choice c. Skill development d. Activation

d. Activation

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout? 3 to 5 drills 1 to 3 drills 10 to 15 drills 6 to 10 drills

6 to 10 drills

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? 2 to 4 drills 9 or 10 drills 6 to 8 drills 4 to 5 drills

6 to 8 drills

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds? 6,750 reps 6,750 pounds 675 pounds 2,250 pounds

6,750 pounds

What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth? 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day 50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day 40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth? 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day 50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day 40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? 30 seconds 5 minutes 60 to 120 seconds 0 seconds

60 to 120 seconds

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers

A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Adherence Goals Overtraining Hypertrophy

Adherence

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power \

Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

What is sarcopenia? Age-related loss in bone mineral density Chronic inflammation of the joints Lower than normal bone mineral density Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Age-related loss of muscle tissue

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? A. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion B. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain D. Stabilization, strength, and power

Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost? As ATP As exhaled carbon dioxide As exhaled oxygen As water

As exhaled carbon dioxide

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost? As exhaled carbon dioxide As exhaled oxygen As ATP As water

As exhaled carbon dioxide

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? As far as can be controlled without compensating Knees at 90 degrees of flexion Thighs parallel to the ground Knees at 80 degrees of flexion

As far as can be controlled without compensating

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Stride rate Acceleration Speed Assessment of visual stimuli

Assessment of visual stimuli

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? At least 3 times a week At least 5 times a week At least 2 times a week At least 4 times a week

At least 3 times a week

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? Firm surface Foam pad BOSU ball Balance beam

BOSU ball

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Acidosis Beta-oxidation Glycolysis Ketosis

Beta-oxidation

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Biologically active forms are less efficient. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

How is Fartlek training best described? A. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. B. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. C. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. D. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Deep soft-tissue massage Gentle static stretching General cardiovascular exercise Pilates

Gentle static stretching

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Iliopsoas Rectus abdominis Latissimus dorsi Erector spinae

Iliopsoas

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training? Decreased fat loss Increased rate of power decline Decreased hormonal function Improved sleep

Improved sleep

Creatine is most effective for what purpose? Improving endurance Improving strength and muscle size Improving heart health Damaging the kidneys

Improving strength and muscle size

How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise? Kyphotic positioning Excessive lordotic position Anterior pelvic tilt In a neutral position

In a neutral position

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Increased user safety Increased multiplanar movement Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements Decreased challenges to balance and stability

Increased multiplanar movement

What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Increased muscular hypertrophy Decreased bone remodeling Decreased muscular hypertrophy Increased resting heart rate

Increased muscular hypertrophy

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Decreased oxygen exchange capacity Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate Increased parasympathetic nervous activity Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? It causes stress to the connective tissues. It creates too powerful a jump. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. It reduces force too much.

It causes stress to the connective tissues.

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis Joint hypermobility and scoliosis Cancer and bleeding disorders

Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Gait Jump Stabilize Land

Jump

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization? Keeping the knees in line with the toes Letting feet turn out for support Performing reps as quickly as possible Letting the knees cave inward

Keeping the knees in line with the toes

What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement? Proprioception Nervous system Golgi tendon organ Kinetic chain

Kinetic chain

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury? Anterior pelvic tilt Posterior pelvic tilt Knee valgus Low-back arching

Knee valgus

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Elastin Collagen Ligament Tendon

Ligament

If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do? Walking for 5 minutes High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Proprioceptive training Low-impact activity High-impact activity Steady-state aerobic training

Low-impact activity

Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase? Maximal muscular strength Postural alignment Mobility and flexibility Muscular endurance

Muscular endurance

Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase? Mobility and flexibility Postural alignment Maximal muscular strength Muscular endurance

Muscular endurance

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training? Muscular hypertrophy Sarcopenia Muscular atrophy Osteopenia

Muscular hypertrophy

What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition? Contained within healthy food items Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own Another word for macronutrients Needed to build muscle

Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? NEAT can increase muscle mass. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

NEAT can be protective against obesity.

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? Heart Bone Nerves Soft tissue

Nerves

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Sarcopenia Muscle hypertrophy Muscle atrophy Neural adaptations

Neural adaptations

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways? Remodeling Neurocircuitry Neuromotor skills Neuroplasticity

Neuroplasticity

It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling. College athletes Young females Those with ankle sprains Older individuals

Older individuals

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation? Saturated fats Omega-6 fatty acids Trans fats Omega-3 fatty acids

Omega-3 fatty acids

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation? Trans fats Omega-6 fatty acids Saturated fats Omega-3 fatty acids

Omega-3 fatty acids

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius

Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas? Platelets Carbon dioxide Water Oxygen

Oxygen

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Bound angle pose Plow pose Downward dog pose Cat pose

Plow pose

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client? Laxity of a joint Previous injury Prime-mover relaxation Stabilizer muscle relaxation

Previous injury

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers Offer users the ability to change resistance easily Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures Provide an increased range of motion

Provide an increased range of motion

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers Provide an increased range of motion Offer users the ability to change resistance easily Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures

Provide an increased range of motion

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? Reciprocal inhibition Isometric contraction Autogenic inhibition Stretch reflex

Reciprocal inhibition

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen? Frequency Volume Intensity Recovery

Recovery

The TRX® Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Inversion and eversion Abduction and Adduction Flexion and extension Rotation

Rotation

Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat? Potassium and manganese Sodium and calcium Sodium and potassium Magnesium and sodium

Sodium and potassium

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Digestive Vestibular Somatosensory Vision

Somatosensory

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements? Muscular hypertrophy Muscular endurance Stabilization Strength

Stabilization

Speed is the product of what two variables? Quickness and agility Stride rate and stride length Power and time Acceleration and deceleration

Stride rate and stride length

What is end-diastolic volume? The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product? The ingredients list The nutrition label The percent daily values The nutrition facts panel

The ingredients list

How is osteopenia best described? An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. A disease characterized by low bone density.

The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction? The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate The site of muscular contractions Exposing actin-binding sites The sliding filament theory

The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

What is glycogen? The storage form of carbohydrate in plants The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

What are triglycerides? The stored form of carbohydrate A substrate for high-intensity exercise A substrate for anaerobic exercise The stored form of fat

The stored form of fat

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks? Only athletes need plyometric training. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron

To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body

To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)? Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine Valine, leucine, and isoleucine Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine

Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Arteries Capillaries Arterioles Veins

Veins

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Intensity Volume Recovery Frequency

Volume

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? A kettlebell is heavier. A dumbbell is safer. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.

With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches? Select one: a. 0.85 b. 0.97 c. 1.04 d. 1.18

a. 0.85

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? Select one: a. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions c. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

a. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client's heart rate be? Select one: a. 80 beats per minute b. 66 beats per minute c. 72 beats per minute d. 64 beats per minute

a. 80 beats per minute

The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area? Select one: a. Behavioral change b. Social physique anxiety c. Depression d. Eating disorders

a. Behavioral change

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Elevated b. Normal c. Stage 2 hypertension d. Stage 1 hypertension

a. Elevated

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test? Select one: a. Environmental temperature b. Exercise modality c. Talk test d. Duration of each stage

a. Environmental temperature

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Gluteus medius c. Rectus abdominis d. Latissimus dorsi

a. Erector spinae

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Multifidus c. Internal oblique d. Transversus abdominis

a. Erector spinae

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Forward head and protracted shoulders b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward

a. Forward head and protracted shoulders

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Tensor fascia latae c. Lower trapezius d. Adductor complex

a. Gluteus maximus and medius

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. The electron transport chain d. The ATP-PC system

a. Glycolysis

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Select one: a. Handstand push-up b. Chin-ups c. Sit-ups d. Leg press

a. Handstand push-up

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what? Select one: a. Heart disease and diabetes b. Alzheimer's disease c. Cancer d. Osteoporosis

a. Heart disease and diabetes

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Hamstrings complex c. Gluteus maximus d. Gluteus medius

a. Hip flexors

What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Select one: a. Increased muscular hypertrophy b. Decreased bone remodeling c. Decreased muscular hypertrophy d. Increased resting heart rate

a. Increased muscular hypertrophy

How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client? Select one: a. Increasing the velocity of each throw b. Decreasing the velocity of each throw c. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer d. Throwing the ball at the same height each time

a. Increasing the velocity of each throw

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Select one: a. Injury resistance b. Performance c. Posture d. Rehabilitation

a. Injury resistance

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation b. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction c. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula

a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions? Select one: a. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries b. Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains c. High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits d. Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains

a. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 3

a. Phase 5

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Pushing b. Squatting c. Pulling d. Hip hinge

a. Pushing

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization d. Single-leg balance

a. Single-leg squat

If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct? Select one: a. Social influence b. Social ambivalence c. Social pressure d. Social connections

a. Social influence

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vision c. Vestibular d. Sensorimotor function

a. Somatosensation

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Vestibular system c. Hearing system d. Visual system

a. Somatosensory system

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible? Select one: a. Speed b. Quickness c. Agility d. Power

a. Speed

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what? Select one: a. Power b. Athletic injuries c. Strength d. Sports participation

b. Athletic injuries

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 2 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 3

b. Phase 4

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? Select one: a. 120 to 180 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. 0 to 90 seconds d. 180 to 240 seconds

c. 0 to 90 seconds

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? Select one: a. 0.25 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.1

c. 0.5

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? Select one: a. Firm surface b. Balance beam c. BOSU ball d. Foam pad

c. BOSU ball

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Select one: a. Set point b. Transformation phase c. Baseline value d. Action phase

c. Baseline value

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up? Select one: a. Between 10 and 15 minutes b. Between 3 and 5 minutes c. Between 5 and 10 minutes d. Between 1 and 3 minutes

c. Between 5 and 10 minutes

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body? Select one: a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Carbohydrates d. Amino acids

c. Carbohydrates

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. The ileum of the small intestine b. Duodenum of the large intestine c. Duodenum of the small intestine d. The ileum of the large intestine

c. Duodenum of the small intestine

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Atherosclerosis c. Dyspnea d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

c. Dyspnea

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. The community b. Exercise leader c. Family d. Exercise group

c. Family

What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Select one: a. Smoking b. Obesity c. Heart disease d. Cancer

c. Heart disease

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased stroke volume b. Decreased heart rate c. Increased heart rate d. Increased end-systolic volume

c. Increased heart rate

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isometric b. Concentric c. Isokinetic d. Eccentric

c. Isokinetic

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Isokinetic

c. Isometric

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? Select one: a. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. b. It reduces force too much. c. It causes stress to the connective tissues. d. It creates too powerful a jump.

c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Why is third-party verification important? Select one: a. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients. b. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market. c. It provides unbiased testing for a product. d. It shows which supplements to trust.

c. It provides unbiased testing for a product.

Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Rear leg b. Knee extension c. Lead leg d. Ankle plantar flexion

c. Lead leg

Which common cause of death is the most preventable? Select one: a. Dementia b. Stroke c. Obesity d. Cancer

c. Obesity

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions? Select one: a. Sartorius b. Hamstrings c. Quadriceps d. Adductor complex

c. Quadriceps

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs? Select one: a. Peripheral arterial disease b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Restrictive lung disease d. Osteoporosis

c. Restrictive lung disease

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium

c. Right atrium

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Strength Endurance d. Stabilization

c. Strength Endurance

Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product? Select one: a. The percent reference intake b. The ingredients list c. The nutrition facts panel d. The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio

c. The nutrition facts panel

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise b. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel d. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise

c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising b. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance d. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema

c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program? Select one: a. To enhance enjoyment of exercise b. To make sure the client isn't doing too much exercise c. To ensure safety d. To make sure the program is difficult enough

c. To ensure safety

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type IIa b. Type Iic c. Type I d. Type IIb

c. Type I

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Upper crossed syndrome d. Pes planus distortion syndrome

c. Upper crossed syndrome

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Relevance b. Reliability c. Validity d. Appropriateness

c. Validity

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Visual system c. Vestibular system d. Auditory system

c. Vestibular system

What BMI score is considered overweight? Select one: a. 18.5 to 24.9 b. 30 to 34.9 c. 35 to 39.9 d. 25 to 29.9

d. 25 to 29.9

What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates? Select one: a. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise b. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes c. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest d. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch

d. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? Select one: a. In-season training b. Off-season training c. Preseason training d. Cardio training

d. Cardio training

What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women? Select one: a. COPD b. Diabetes c. Cancer d. Coronary heart disease

d. Coronary heart disease

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Select one: a. Lower body temperature b. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) c. Increased cardiac output d. Decreased blood flow

d. Decreased blood flow

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Box jumps b. Single-leg hops c. Ice skaters d. Depth jumps

d. Depth jumps

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)? Select one: a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise. b. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals. c. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise. d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality? Select one: a. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined. b. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations. c. Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises. d. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

d. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Stability b. Proper movement c. Mobility d. Endurance

d. Endurance

Which of the following is a primary goal of the strength endurance phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Teaching optimal movement patterns b. Maximal Strength Training c. Maximal muscle growth d. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength

d. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Thermic effect of food b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis c. Exercise activity thermogenesis d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Select one: a. Seated exercises b. Standing exercises on a gym floor c. Exercises using selectorized machines d. Exercises with free weights

d. Exercises with free weights

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing b. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx c. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Body composition b. Blood pressure c. Resting heart rate d. Flexibility

d. Flexibility

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments b. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs c. Stabilize individual vertebral segments d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? Select one: a. Stating an outcome expectation b. Self-monitoring c. Creating a coping plan d. Forming an implementation intention

d. Forming an implementation intention

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Lack of fatty acids b. Depletion of phosphocreatine c. Lack of pyruvate d. Free hydrogen ions

d. Free hydrogen ions

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Select one: a. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive. b. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. c. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Pilates b. General cardiovascular exercise c. Deep soft-tissue massage d. Gentle static stretching

d. Gentle static stretching

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Protein b. Ketone bodies c. Fat d. Glucose

d. Glucose

Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland? Select one: a. Pancreas b. Stomach c. Liver d. Hypothalamus

d. Hypothalamus

You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy? Select one: a. Inadequate fat intake b. Excess fat intake c. Inadequate protein intake d. Inadequate carbohydrate intake

d. Inadequate carbohydrate intake

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased lipogenesis b. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate c. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume d. Increased lipolysis

d. Increased lipolysis

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production? Select one: a. Eccentric contractions are minimized. b. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces. c. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful. d. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

d. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

Why is third-party verification important? Select one: a. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market. b. It shows which supplements to trust. c. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients. d. It provides unbiased testing for a product.

d. It provides unbiased testing for a product.

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension c. Cancer and bleeding disorders d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt c. Knee dominance d. Knee varus

d. Knee varus

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Select one: a. Posterior oblique subsystem b. Deep longitudinal subsystem c. Anterior oblique subsystem d. Lateral subsystem

d. Lateral subsystem

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Elastin b. Tendon c. Collagen d. Ligament

d. Ligament

Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Maria was a co-captain on a state champion volleyball team in high school. b. Maria worked as a camp counselor at a youth sports camp while in college. c. Maria placed second in her first bikini competition. d. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.

d. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Select one: a. Strength assessments b. PAR-Q+ c. Body composition assessments d. Movement assessments

d. Movement assessments

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. BOSU squat c. Dumbbell renegade row d. Multiplanar lunge

d. Multiplanar lunge

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture? Select one: a. Physical and mental well-being b. Flexibility c. Cardiorespiratory fitness d. Muscle imbalances

d. Muscle imbalances

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? Select one: a. Coronary b. Vascular c. Digestive d. Muscular

d. Muscular

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Power b. Speed c. Strength d. Neuromuscular stabilization

d. Neuromuscular stabilization

Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely b. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched c. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely b. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees c. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to this information, how would Robert be classified? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Overweight c. Underweight d. Obese

d. Obese

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Class II obesity c. Obese d. Overweight

d. Overweight

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Select one: a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 3

d. Phase 3

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching? Select one: a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions c. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)? Select one: a. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function. b. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion. c. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise. d. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting.

a. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Select one: a. Scapular retraction b. Scapular depression c. Scapular elevation d. Scapular protraction

a. Scapular retraction

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form? Select one: a. Technique imagery b. Appearance imagery c. Cognitive fusion d. Energy imagery

a. Technique imagery

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 143/92 mm Hg b. 135/80 mm Hg c. 124/80 mm Hg d. 118/78 mm Hg

b. 135/80 mm Hg

How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips d. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Positive self-talk b. Appearance imagery c. Energy imagery d. Technique imagery

b. Appearance imagery

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Select one: a. Machine leg press b. BOSU squat c. Barbell squats d. Sandbag squat

b. BOSU squat

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Select one: a. Standing cable chest press b. Ball squat, curl to press c. Push-up d. Romanian deadlift

b. Ball squat, curl to press

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac c. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac d. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? Select one: a. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume b. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis c. Consistent in its approach d. Predetermined timelines

b. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Select one: a. Getting in and out of the car b. Cleaning c. Raking leaves d. Moving a grocery cart

b. Cleaning

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core endurance b. Core stability c. Core power d. Core strength

b. Core stability

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele? Select one: a. Every 6 months b. Every month c. Every year d. Every week

b. Every month

A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional? Select one: a. Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits. b. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them. c. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client. d. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer.

b. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called? Select one: a. Fight-or-flight response b. Homeostasis c. Neuromuscular efficiency d. Excitation-contraction coupling

b. Homeostasis

What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Select one: a. Increased resting heart rate b. Increased muscular hypertrophy c. Decreased bone remodeling d. Decreased muscular hypertrophy

b. Increased muscular hypertrophy

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris b. Infraspinatus and teres minor c. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae d. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid

b. Infraspinatus and teres minor

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Arthritis b. Osteopenia c. Lung cancer d. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.

b. Osteopenia

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Overweight c. Obese d. Class II obesity

b. Overweight

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension c. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion d. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension

b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency. Select one: a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation

b. Preparation

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms? Select one: a. Asymmetrical resistance loading b. Proprioceptively enriched environment c. Feed-forward activation d. Integrative function

b. Proprioceptively enriched environment

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Exercise b. Resting metabolic rate c. Thermic effect of food d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

b. Resting metabolic rate

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool? Select one: a. Battle ropes b. Sandbags c. TRX Rip Trainer d. Kettlebells

b. Sandbags

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Diet, exercise, and recovery b. Stabilization, strength, and power c. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance d. Health, fitness, and wellness

b. Stabilization, strength, and power

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Venous return b. Stroke volume c. Resting heart rate d. Cardiac output

b. Stroke volume

Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint? Select one: a. Type III b. Type II c. Type I d. Type Ia

b. Type II

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? Select one: a. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers b. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do. c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. d. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers

c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

When a client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own, she is likely in need of which type of support? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Informational support c. Companionship support d. Emotional support

c. Companionship support

Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise? Select one: a. Balance b. Core strength and stability c. Diet supplementation d. Speed, agility, and quickness

c. Diet supplementation

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Seated abdominal crunch machine b. Suspended chest press c. Elastic band woodchop d. Dumbbell lat row

c. Elastic band woodchop

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Exercise activity thermogenesis b. Thermic effect of food c. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

c. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client? Select one: a. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal. b. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea. c. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy. d. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day.

c. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? Select one: a. Muscle spindles b. Tendons c. Fascia d. Connective tissues

c. Fascia

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Erector spinae c. Gluteus medius d. Hip flexor

c. Gluteus medius

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Hamstrings complex c. Hip flexors d. Gluteus maximus

c. Hip flexors

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Select one: a. Little motion b. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion c. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing d. No motion

c. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Rectus abdominis c. Iliopsoas d. Latissimus dorsi

c. Iliopsoas

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume c. Increased lipolysis d. Increased lipogenesis

c. Increased lipolysis

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability b. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency d. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability

c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Select one: a. Standing hamstring stretch b. Assisted supine hamstring stretch c. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings d. Supine hamstrings stretch

c. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Davis's law and Wolf's law b. Pain response and muscle spasm c. Mechanical and neurophysiological response d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength

c. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career? Select one: a. Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her clients can use to help grow her following b. Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area c. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results d. Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each client

c. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Select one: a. Percentage of VO2max b. Metabolic equivalents c. Ratings of perceived exertion d. Percentage of maximal heart rate

c. Ratings of perceived exertion

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Select one: a. Abduction and Adduction b. Inversion and eversion c. Rotation d. Flexion and extension

c. Rotation

What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Squat jump with stabilization d. Box jump-down with stabilization

c. Squat jump with stabilization

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Explosiveness b. Rate of force production c. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing d. Speed

c. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. b. The stretch is too advanced for the average person. c. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee. d. The stretch is too complicated for the new client.

c. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 60 minutes per week b. 120 minutes per week c. 90 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week

d. 75 minutes per week

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? Select one: a. ATP b. Amino acids c. Pyruvate d. Acetyl CoA

d. Acetyl CoA

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Maintenance c. Contemplation d. Action

d. Action

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Acceleration c. Speed d. Assessment of visual stimuli

d. Assessment of visual stimuli

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top? Select one: a. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic b. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar c. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic d. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

d. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? Select one: a. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym. b. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate. c. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate. d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

How is a general warm-up best defined? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

What are the three macronutrients? Select one: a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients b. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids c. Carbohydrates, protein, and vitamins d. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids

d. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids

Prior to ever working with a client, what is the most important priority when starting an independent personal training business? Select one: a. Purchasing fitness equipment b. Designing a website to advertise personal training services c. Having consistent names on all social media accounts d. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses

d. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their toes b. Reach to their shin c. Reach to their waist d. Reach to their knee

d. Reach to their knee

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? Select one: a. Skill development b. Activation c. Warm-up d. Resistance training

d. Resistance training

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Select one: a. Self-image b. Self-esteem c. Resilience d. Self-efficacy

d. Self-efficacy

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg balance b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization d. Single-leg squat

d. Single-leg squat

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. b. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. c. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances? Select one: a. They should never be discussed with clients in any capacity. b. They have overexaggerated side effects that typically do not occur. c. They should always be recommended to clients to help them get results quickly. d. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

d. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. b. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. c. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Force c. Force velocity d. Torque

d. Torque

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Variables and pattern b. Variables and progression c. Velocity and pattern d. Volume and progression

d. Volume and progression

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. Rockport walk test d. V̇O2max

d. V̇O2max

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna? Irregular Long Flat Short

Long

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? Microcycle Mesocycle Macrocycle Megacycle

Macrocycle

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Vitamin Trace mineral Macromineral Macronutrient

Macromineral

The B vitamins have a primary role in what? Macronutrient metabolism Cancer prevention Hydration Muscle contraction

Macronutrient metabolism

The B vitamins have a primary role in what? Macronutrient metabolism Muscle contraction Hydration Cancer prevention

Macronutrient metabolism

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? 3 or 4 sessions per week 0 sessions per week 5 to 7 sessions per week 1 or 2 sessions per week

1 or 2 sessions per week

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? 3 or 4 sets 1 or 2 sets 6 to 8 sets 5 or 6 sets

1 or 2 sets

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? 5,000 kcal 500 kcal 1,200 kcal 12,000 kcal

1,200 kcal

How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat? About 500 About 1,000 About 5,500 About 3,500

About 3,500

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? Hypoglycemia Hypertension Hyperglycemia Hypotension

Hyperglycemia

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface? Osteokinematics Biomechanics Kinesiology Arthrokinematics

Arthrokinematics

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise? Push-up Barbell squat Pull-up Bench press

Bench press

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Moving a grocery cart Raking leaves Getting in and out of the car Cleaning

Cleaning

Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Knee extension Lead leg Rear leg Ankle plantar flexion

Lead leg

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? A. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises. B. Osteoporosis is considered a precaution for static stretching. C. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. D. Osteoporosis is considered a precaution for myofascial rolling.

Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Complex training Pyramid system Drop set Peripheral heart action system

Peripheral heart action system

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure? Thermic effect of food Thermic effect of activity Resting metabolism Exercise

Resting metabolism

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Increase maximal strength Correct muscle imbalances Restore optimal length-tension relationships Improve sports skills

Restore optimal length-tension relationships

Which vitamin is the most transient? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin A

a. Vitamin C

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Vestibular system Visual system Auditory system Somatosensory system

Visual system

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Hearing system Visual system Vestibular system Somatosensory system

Visual system

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients? 0 to 60 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 120 to 180 seconds

0 to 60 seconds

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? 180 to 240 seconds 0 to 90 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 120 to 180 seconds

0 to 90 seconds

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? 0.2 0.8 0.6 0.4

0.4

What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? 0.4 0.25 0.1 0.5

0.5

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? 0.92 0.22 0.72 0.62

0.72

What is the RDA for protein? 0.8 g/kg of body weight 1.6 g/kg of body weight 2.0 g/kg of body weight 1.2 g/kg of body weight

0.8 g/kg of body weight

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less? 0.5 in. 1.5 in. 2 in. 1 in.

2 in.

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? 10 to 35% of total calories 5 to 20% of total calories 45 to 65% of total calories 20 to 35% of total calories

20 to 35% of total calories

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session? 25 to 75 kcal 100 to 150 kcal 200 to 300 kcal 600 to 700 kcal

200 to 300 kcal

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

What BMI score is considered overweight? 30 to 34.9 18.5 to 24.9 35 to 39.9 25 to 29.9

25 to 29.9

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Jump b. Gait c. Stabilize d. Land

a. Jump

Which of the following is iron considered to be? Select one: a. Macromineral b. Trace mineral c. Performance supplement d. Vitamin

b. Trace mineral

Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement? Select one: a. 80/120 mm Hg b. 120/60 mm Hg c. 125/75 mm Hg d. 120/80 mm Hg

d. 120/80 mm Hg

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 0 to 15 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds

d. 15 to 60 seconds

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 125 minutes per week b. 300 minutes per week c. 75 minutes per week d. 150 minutes per week

d. 150 minutes per week

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 3 b. 4.5 c. 1.5 d. 2

d. 2

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve Hypertrophy adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM d. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM

d. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM

Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective? Select one: a. 20 minutes of low-intensity activity b. 5 minutes of high-intensity activity c. 20 minutes of walking d. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

d. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 7 to 9 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 1 or 2 drills d. 4 to 6 drills

d. 4 to 6 drills

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. Pro shuttle c. Overhead squat d. 40-yard dash

d. 40-yard dash

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 4 times a week b. 6 times a week c. 3 times a week d. 5 times a week

d. 5 times a week

What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime? Select one: a. 90% b. 50% c. 30% d. 80%

d. 80%

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 30% b. About 50% c. About 90% d. About 5-15%

d. About 5-15%

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? 7 to 9 sets 1 to 4 sets 5 or 6 sets 0 sets

1 to 4 sets

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event? 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity 2 to 3 liters of fluid Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity 12 to 15 ounces of fluid

1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? 2 minutes 35 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes

10 minutes

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? 20% 30% 10% 5%

10%

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training? <15% per week 10% per week 25% per week 20% per week

10% per week

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Less than 15 seconds 15 to 60 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 60 to 90 seconds

15 to 60 seconds

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? 15 to 60 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 0 to 15 seconds

15 to 60 seconds

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week? 165 minutes per week 150 minutes per week 180 minutes per week 125 minutes per week

165 minutes per week

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? 25 to 29.9 18.5 to 24.9 30 to 34.9 35 to 39.9

18.5 to 24.9

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? 25 to 29.9 30 to 34.9 35 to 39.9 18.5 to 24.9

18.5 to 24.9

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? 5 or 6 sets 1 or 2 sets 7 to 8 sets 3 or 4 sets

3 or 4 sets

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? 8 to 10 reps 1 or 2 reps 3 to 5 reps 6 to 8 reps

3 to 5 reps

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills? 1. 1 or 2 reps 2. 3 to 5 reps 3. 8 to 10 reps 4. 6 to 8 reps

3 to 5 reps

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? 7.0 mL/kg/min 3.5 mL/kg/min 2.5 mL/kg/min 5.0 mL/kg/min

3.5 mL/kg/min

At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase? 22.5 18.5 20 30

30

At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase? 30 18.5 20 22.5

30

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)? 60 minutes 45 minutes 90 minutes 30 minutes

30 minutes

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein? 2 6 4 9

4

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? 7 to 9 drills 1 or 2 drills 4 to 6 drills 9 or 10 drills

4 to 6 drills

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? 2 or 3 drills per workout 1 or 2 drills per workout 9 or 10 drills per workout 4 to 8 drills per workout

4 to 8 drills per workout

Which of the following is an example of linear periodization? 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2 Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week Phases 1 and 5 every other day

4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? 75 cm 55 cm 45 cm 65 cm

45 cm

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet? 45 to 65% of total calories 10 to 35% of total calories 20 to 35% of total calories 30 to 50% of total calories

45 to 65% of total calories

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down? 4 minutes 3 to 4 minutes 5 to 10 minutes 1 to 2 minutes

5 to 10 minutes

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone over 6 feet tall? 75 cm 55 cm 45 cm 65 cm

75 cm

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength An overweight client with adequate strength A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle

A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training? A reduction in blood pressure at rest Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers A decrease in metabolic rate A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest

A decrease in metabolic rate

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Stabilization of the LPHC Use of heavy weights A faster tempo, similar to daily life Slow and controlled movements

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

Circuit training is best described as what? Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

What is the principle of specificity? 1. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium 2. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts 3. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it 4. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

What is the Valsalva maneuver? The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men? A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change.

A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations

A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label? There is no difference. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label. Supplement labels only list active ingredients. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis? A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

What is the peripheral heart action system? A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? About 50% About 30% About 90% About 5-15%

About 5-15%

Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building? Peristalsis Absorption Motility Mastication

Absorption

Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building? Peristalsis Motility Mastication Absorption

Absorption

What is the primary function of the large intestine? Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine

Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Activation Skill development Client's choice Resistance training

Activation

What are the components of ATP? Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups Adenine, amino acids, and three phosphate groups Adenine, glucose, and one phosphate group Adenine, ribose, and two phosphate groups

Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Altered movement patterns Ability to stretch in small increments Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods Ability to stretch only one muscle

Altered movement patterns

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Altered length-tension relationship Altered reciprocal inhibition Synergistic dominance Reciprocal inhibition

Altered reciprocal inhibition

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called? Overtraining syndrome Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) Altered reciprocal inhibition Eccentric overload

Altered reciprocal inhibition

What are essential amino acids? Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body The only type of amino acid found in protein sources

Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? A. An RPE of 3 to 4 B. An RPE of 7 to 8 C. An RPE of 5 to 6 D. An RPE of 9 to 10

An RPE of 5 to 6

What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids? Plant proteins Legumes Animal proteins Fortified foods

Animal proteins

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Ankle plantar flexion Hip abduction Ankle dorsiflexion Knee flexion

Ankle plantar flexion

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Ankle sprains Concussions Anterior cruciate ligament injuries Medial collateral ligament injuries

Ankle sprains

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Posterior pelvic tilt Medial pelvic tilt Anterior pelvic tilt Lateral pelvic tilt

Anterior pelvic tilt

Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids? Increased energy Anti-inflammatory properties Proinflammatory properties Improved thyroid function

Anti-inflammatory properties

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises? Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results Any medical precautions or contraindications Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results

Any medical precautions or contraindications

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Atherosclerosis Hypoglycemia Hyperglycemia Arteriosclerosis

Arteriosclerosis

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Select one: a. Hyperglycemia b. Atherosclerosis c. Arteriosclerosis d. Hypoglycemia

Arteriosclerosis

Kettlebells were first used in which setting? By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales The Russian military Eastern European gymnastic programs

As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Stretch reflex Reciprocal inhibition Isometric contraction Autogenic inhibition

Autogenic inhibition

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Anterior and posterior Axial and appendicular Osteoclasts and osteoblasts Upper and lower

Axial and appendicular

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Back squat Bench press Calf raise Triceps extension

Back squat

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Calf raise Bench press Back squat Triceps extension

Back squat

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Romanian deadlift Push-up Standing cable chest press Ball squat, curl to press

Ball squat, curl to press

Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Ball-and-socket Saddle Hinge Pivot

Ball-and-socket

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise? Medicine ball soccer throw Barbell bench press Single-leg cable row Box jumps

Barbell bench press

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter? Barbell chest press Stability ball wall squat Terra-Core push-up Selectorized machine lat pull down

Barbell chest press

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Baseline value Transformation phase Action phase Set point

Baseline value

Battle ropes are good for Phases 1 and 2, and potentially Phase 4, but they are considered low impact and thus not ideal for Phase 5 development.

Battle ropes

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Power step-ups and ice skaters Deadlifts and squats Bench press and stability ball push-ups Single-leg hops and ball push-ups

Bench press and stability ball push-ups

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Biomechanical ankle platform system Stable floor environment Weight training Aqua therapy

Biomechanical ankle platform system

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone? Bone density Osteopenia Sarcopenia Osteoporosis

Bone density

For what is vitamin D most important? Hair growth Bone health Skin pigmentation Eyesight

Bone health

For what is vitamin D most important? Hair growth Eyesight Bone health Skin pigmentation

Bone health

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Isolating Inhibition Drawing in Bracing

Bracing

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? Preseason training Cardio training Off-season training In-season training

Cardio training

Food is composed of which three compounds? ATP, glucose, and pyruvate Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins Ketones, insulin, and ADP Amino acids, ATP, and glycogen

Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel? Select one: a. Peripheral arterial disease b. Heart failure c. Stroke d. Intermittent claudication

C. stroke

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Terra-Core Suspended bodyweight training TRX Rip Trainer Cable machines

Cable machines

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Terra-Core TRX Rip Trainer Cable machines Suspended bodyweight training

Cable machines

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Single-leg dumbbell scaption Ball cobra Calf raise Standing dumbbell lateral raise

Calf raise

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques? Pregnancy and diabetes Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins Young children and older adults Cancer and bleeding disorders

Cancer and bleeding disorders

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss.

Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product? Water Carbon dioxide Oxygen Platelets

Carbon dioxide

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy? Cool-down Activation Resistance Client's choice

Client's choice

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Cervical and sacral Cervical and thoracic Cervical and lumbar Thoracic and lumbar

Cervical and lumbar

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Power Speed Strength Change of direction

Change of direction

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? Predetermined timelines Changing acute variables on a weekly basis Increasing intensity while decreasing volume Consistent in its approach

Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated? Clients with no comorbidities but who sit for extended periods of time Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy Clients with an underactive gluteal complex

Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency.

Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients.

Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients? Choosing the highest box available Letting the client choose the box size Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities Choosing only small step boxes

Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production? Type 1 diabetes Chronic obstructive lung disease Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis Type 2 diabetes

Chronic obstructive lung disease

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)? Doing 20 minutes of resistance training Running for 5 miles Cleaning the house Sleeping

Cleaning the house

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)? Running for 5 miles Cleaning the house Doing 20 minutes of resistance training Sleeping

Cleaning the house

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy? Client's choice Activation Cool-down Resistance

Client's choice

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature? Lat pulldown Close grip bench press Ball cobra Seated cable row

Close grip bench press

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Loaded movements Open-chain movements Closed-chain movements Suspended bodyweight movements

Closed-chain movements

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Pyramid system Drop set Giant set Complex training

Complex training

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Inability to speak at all Normal conversation is maintained Only a few words can be produced between breaths Continuous talking becomes challenging

Continuous talking becomes challenging

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Core strength Core power Core stability Core endurance

Core stability

What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women? Diabetes COPD Cancer Coronary heart disease

Coronary heart disease

Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise? Local muscle endurance Dynamic posture control Eccentric strength Delayed-onset muscle soreness

Delayed-onset muscle soreness

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Overload principle Wolff's law Davis's law Archimedes' principle

Davis's law

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Adequate joint stability Power exercise familiarity Deconditioning Adequate core stability

Deconditioning

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming? Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes Reduced risk of falls Reduced risk of ankle sprains Improved proprioception or body awareness

Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Increased cardiac output Lower body temperature Decreased blood flow Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)

Decreased blood flow

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training? Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport PreviousPrevious Submit NextNext

Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders? Depressed and slightly protracted Depressed and slightly retracted Elevated and slightly retracted Elevated and slightly protracted

Depressed and slightly retracted

What are the two categories of bone markings? Surface and deep Depressions and processes Irregular and flat Short and long

Depressions and processes

What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made? Hypertension Dyspnea Diabetes Intermittent claudication

Diabetes

Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing? Scalenes Abdominals Internal intercostals Diaphragm

Diaphragm

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States? Creatine Hordenine Dimethylamylamine (DMAA) Caffeine

Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States? Dimethylamylamine (DMAA) Creatine Hordenine Caffeine

Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Sport skills Depth jumps Side-to-side hops Dual-foot drills

Dual-foot drills

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? The ileum of the small intestine The ileum of the large intestine Duodenum of the small intestine Duodenum of the large intestine

Duodenum of the small intestine

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening? Concentric action Isokinetic action Eccentric action Isometric action

Eccentric action

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Ankle stability Eccentric loading Increased amortization Concentric contractions

Eccentric loading

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise? Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? Stationary balance Semi-dynamic balance Static balance Dynamic balance

Dynamic balance

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Static balance High-level balance Dynamic balance Semi-dynamic balance

Dynamic balance

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Pneumonia Pulmonary hypoplasia Hypoxia Dyspnea

Dyspnea

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing? Rheumatoid arthritis Dyspnea Atherosclerosis Chronic obstructive lung disease

Dyspnea

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing? Rheumatoid arthritis Dyspnea Chronic obstructive lung disease Atherosclerosis

Dyspnea

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Isometric Isokinetic Eccentric Concentric

Eccentric

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Eccentric Amortization Concentric Acceleration

Eccentric

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Dumbbell lat row Seated abdominal crunch machine Suspended chest press Elastic band woodchop

Elastic band woodchop

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Elastic band woodchop Suspended chest press Dumbbell lat row Seated abdominal crunch machine

Elastic band woodchop

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality? Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.

Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

What does EMG stand for? Electromagnetic spectrum Electromyography Elektrokardiogramm Electrocardiogram

Electromyography

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Erector spinae Rectus abdominis Gluteus medius Latissimus dorsi

Erector spinae

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Internal oblique Multifidus Transversus abdominis Erector spinae

Erector spinae

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Erector spinae Multifidus Diaphragm Quadratus lumborum

Erector spinae

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Multifidus Erector spinae Transverse abdominis Pelvic floor muscles

Erector spinae

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom? European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)

European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction

Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy? Most recreational pursuits are inappropriate for pregnant women. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus. The fetus will be harmed by decreased oxygen supply during physical activity. The fetus will be harmed by increased blood circulation during physical activity.

Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy? Most recreational pursuits are inappropriate for pregnant women. The fetus will be harmed by decreased oxygen supply during physical activity. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus. The fetus will be harmed by increased blood circulation during physical activity.

Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Exercises with free weights Seated exercises Exercises using selectorized machines Standing exercises on a gym floor

Exercises with free weights

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Seated exercises Exercises with free weights Exercises using selectorized machines Standing exercises on a gym floor

Exercises with free weights

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? Breathing becomes more shallow. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm. Inspiration is prolonged. Expiration becomes more forceful.

Expiration becomes more forceful.

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm. Expiration becomes more forceful. Breathing becomes more shallow. Inspiration is prolonged.

Expiration becomes more forceful.

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals? Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management. Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated. Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals. Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day.

Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question? Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

A client asks you to provide her with a meal plan specifying how many calories and grams of protein, carbohydrates, and fat she should eat for weight loss. What is the best way to respond to her request to stay within scope of practice? Agree to review her diet and provide her with a meal plan with specific recommendations for calories and macronutrients. Provide her with an online 1,200-calorie meal plan for weight loss. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, then suggest that she look up weight-loss meal plans on the internet. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.

Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins? Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.

Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells? Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells? Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program? Firm surface Wobble board Foam pad BOSU ball

Firm surface

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Third class Second class Fourth class First class

First class

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Flexibility and cardio Core Plyometrics Resistance

Flexibility and cardio

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Resistance Plyometrics Flexibility and cardio Core

Flexibility and cardio

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components? Flexibility and joint ROM Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency Muscle strength and power Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness

Flexibility and joint ROM

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States? European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

What equation represents power? Y = mx + b Time ÷ work a2 + b2 = c2 Force x velocity

Force x velocity

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Peripheral resistance Venous pooling Frank Starling Law of the Heart Valsalva maneuver

Frank Starling Law of the Heart

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Below VT1 Above VT2 From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2

From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset? Stability ball push-up Lat pulldown Front medicine ball oblique throw Dumbbell shoulder press

Front medicine ball oblique throw

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? Sagittal and transverse Transverse and frontal Frontal and sagittal All planes of motion

Frontal and sagittal

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Horizontal plane Sagittal plane Frontal plane Transverse plane

Frontal plane

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Structural (non-functional) scoliosis Permanent scoliosis Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis Bony scoliosis

Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer? Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual's caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual's medical diagnoses

General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer? Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual's caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual's medical diagnoses General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Phosphocreatine was depleted. ADP was depleted. Glycogen stores were exhausted. Fatty acid stores were exhausted.

Glycogen stores were exhausted.

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Oxidative phosphorylation Glycolysis The electron transport chain The ATP-PC system

Glycolysis

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Joint receptors Golgi tendon organs Muscle spindles Interneurons

Golgi tendon organs

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Joint receptors Muscle spindles Interneurons Golgi tendon organs

Golgi tendon organs

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it? Acceleration force Stabilization force Ground reaction force Deceleration force

Ground reaction force

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Growth and volume Strength and volume Growth and stabilization Strength and stabilization

Growth and volume

You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy? Inadequate fat intake Excess fat intake Inadequate carbohydrate intake Inadequate protein intake

Inadequate carbohydrate intake

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Sit-ups Handstand push-up Leg press Chin-ups

Handstand push-up

What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Cancer Heart disease Smoking Obesity

Heart disease

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Hip extensors Hip abductors Hip flexors Hip internal rotators

Hip abductors

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Hip extensors Hip flexors Hip abductors Hip internal rotators

Hip abductors

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Hip internal rotation Hip flexion Hip extension Hip adduction

Hip extension

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing No motion Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion Little motion

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management? Blood flow Hormones and medications Vitamin and mineral supplements Body temperature

Hormones and medications

Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management? Blood flow Vitamin and mineral supplements Body temperature Hormones and medications

Hormones and medications

What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model? Power Stabilization Speed Hypertrophy

Hypertrophy

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Hypotension Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Hypertension

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring Involves training multiple styles each week Changes acute variables on a weekly basis Increases intensity while decreasing volume

Increases intensity while decreasing volume

Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model? Increasing strength Improving stability Improving mobility Proper movement patterns

Increasing strength

Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model? Proper movement patterns Improving mobility Improving stability Increasing strength

Increasing strength

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels? Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and cortisol levels.

Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Supine floor crunches Stability ball Russian twist Incline plank Supine reverse crunches

Incline plank

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Reduce heart rate Provide a transition period Increase breathing rate Reduce body temperature

Increase breathing rate

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for: Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion Greater support and safety for elderly clients Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for: Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball Greater support and safety for elderly clients Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Changes acute variables on a weekly basis Involves training multiple styles each week Increases intensity while decreasing volume Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring

Increases intensity while decreasing volume

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Posture Rehabilitation Injury resistance Performance

Injury resistance

How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client? Increasing the velocity of each throw Throwing the ball at the same height each time Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer Decreasing the velocity of each throw

Increasing the velocity of each throw

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. Athletic performance is a universal goal.

Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training? Sports skills Injury history Height Body composition

Injury history

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones? Testosterone Insulin-like growth factor Growth hormone Insulin

Insulin

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Calcitonin Glucagon Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) Cortisol

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

What two factors define any form or type of exercise? Duration and time Speed and complexity Intensity and duration Intensity and speed

Intensity and duration

What two factors define any form or type of exercise? Speed and complexity Intensity and speed Intensity and duration Duration and time

Intensity and duration

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Warm-up phase Conditioning phase Cool-down phase Interval phase

Interval phase

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings Supine hamstrings stretch Standing hamstring stretch Assisted supine hamstring stretch

Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? It increases muscular hypertrophy. It decreases core muscle activation. It increases flexibility and joint mobility. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.

It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? It involves expiring against a closed glottis. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

Why is third-party verification important? It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients. It provides unbiased testing for a product. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market. It shows which supplements to trust.

It provides unbiased testing for a product.

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise? Jumping down lessens force deceleration. Jumping down requires more concentric force control. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Force production Power development Landing mechanics Core stability

Landing mechanics

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Deep longitudinal subsystem Lateral subsystem Posterior oblique subsystem Anterior oblique subsystem

Lateral subsystem

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Left ventricle Left atrium Right atrium Right ventricle

Left ventricle

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Right atrium Left atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle

Left ventricle

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following? Less speed Less stability Less forward drive Less braking force

Less braking force

Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization? Nonlinear periodization Linear periodization Undulating periodization Localized periodization

Linear periodization

Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization? Nonlinear periodization Localized periodization Undulating periodization Linear periodization

Linear periodization

What area of the chest contains the heart? Ventricle Mediastinum Myofibril Atrium

Mediastinum

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as? Utilizing supersets during training Mastering basic movement patterns Focusing on improving muscular growth Improving the rate of force production

Mastering basic movement patterns

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? Stabilization Endurance Training Maximal Strength Training Muscular Development Training Strength Endurance Training

Maximal Strength Training

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Mechanical and neurophysiological response Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength Pain response and muscle spasm Davis's law and Wolf's law

Mechanical and neurophysiological response

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body? Lateral Medial Anterior Posterior

Medial

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Kettlebell Resistance band Suspended bodyweight training Medicine ball

Medicine ball

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness? Sandbag ViPR Medicine ball Kettlebell

Medicine ball

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Suspended bodyweight crunch Stability ball plank Barbell squats Medicine ball catch and pass

Medicine ball catch and pass

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power? Barbell squat Terra-Core push-up Medicine ball chest pass Sandbag step-up

Medicine ball chest pass

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? Medicine ball soccer throw Bench press Single-leg cable row Barbell squat

Medicine ball soccer throw

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Cable chop Reverse crunch Bird dog Medicine ball woodchop throw

Medicine ball woodchop throw

How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health? More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption. It improves the immune system. High doses can be dangerous. High doses can improve heart health.

More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Motor function Neuroplasticity Muscle function Wolff's law

Motor function

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Muscle function Neuroplasticity Wolff's law Motor function

Motor function

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Core stability Motor unit recruitment Balance Overall base strength

Motor unit recruitment

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Strength assessments PAR-Q+ Movement assessments Body composition assessments

Movement assessments

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what? Sports skills Phases Movement patterns Exercises

Movement patterns

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? Multifidus Pectoralis major Iliopsoas Latissimus dorsi

Multifidus

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine? Latissimus dorsi Erector spinae Iliopsoas Multifidus

Multifidus

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Butt kick Multiplanar jump with stabilization Tuck jump Power step-up

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint? Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization Single-leg hop forward Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization Multiplanar hop with stabilization

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into? Power Stabilization Strength Endurance Muscular Development

Muscular Development

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into? Power Strength Endurance Stabilization Muscular Development

Muscular Development

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? Afferent nerve function Neuromuscular function Vestibular function Sensory function

Neuromuscular function

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Speed Neuromuscular stabilization Power Strength

Neuromuscular stabilization

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? At least 21% of body weight No more than 10% of body weight 11 to 15% of body weight 16 to 20% of body weight

No more than 10% of body weight

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull? Condyloid Ball-and-socket Nonsynovial Pivot

Nonsynovial

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull? Pivot Ball-and-socket Nonsynovial Condyloid

Nonsynovial

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development.

Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

What is credible nutrition information? Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science Nutrition information that is believable Nutrition information that is supported by news and media Nutrition information that is reported to be true

Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Osteopenia Osteoporosis Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Kinesiology Arthrokinematics Biomechanics Osteokinematics

Osteokinematics

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Osteopenia There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. Arthritis Lung cancer

Osteopenia

What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 20 to 40 g b. 15 to 20 g c. 30 to 50 g d. 60 to 70 g

a. 20 to 40 g

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Drop set Peripheral heart action system Pyramid system Complex training

Peripheral heart action system

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division? Peripheral nervous system Sympathetic nervous system Autonomic nervous system Somatic nervous system

Peripheral nervous system

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division? Somatic nervous system Peripheral nervous system Sympathetic nervous system Autonomic nervous system

Peripheral nervous system

What BMI score is considered overweight? Select one: a. 25 to 29.9 b. 35 to 39.9 c. 18.5 to 24.9 d. 30 to 34.9

a. 25 to 29.9

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Perturbation Neuromuscular control Somatosensation Sensorimotor function

Perturbation

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Phase 3 Phase 4 Phase 1 Phase 5

Phase 1

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Phase 3 Phase 5 Phase 1 Phase 4

Phase 1

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Phase 2 Phase 3 Phase 5 Phase 4

Phase 2

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Phase 4 Phase 2 Phase 5 Phase 3

Phase 2

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Phase 2 Phase 1 Phase 5 Phase 3

Phase 3

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Phase 4 Phase 3 Phase 5 Phase 2

Phase 4

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Phase 4 Phase 5 Phase 1 Phase 3

Phase 5

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Posterior Lateral Superior Anterior

Posterior

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Frontal plane Posterior chain Anterior chain Transverse plane

Posterior chain

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Frontal plane Posterior chain Transverse plane Anterior chain

Posterior chain

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Deep cervical flexors Posterior chain Intrinsic core musculature Anterior chain

Posterior chain

In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent? Postmenopausal women Women under the age of 50 Adolescent girls Men under the age of 50

Postmenopausal women

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance? Too much cardiovascular exercise Poor SMART goals Inability to exercise 3 times per week Postural distortions

Postural distortions

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? Strength endurance Muscular development Power Stabilization endurance

Power

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? Strength endurance Stabilization endurance Muscular development Power

Power

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training Power Training Strength Endurance Training

Power Training

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2

Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? Increased muscle strength and speed Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion Increased mobility and balance

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends? Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.

Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Proprioception Knowledge of performance Knowledge of results Motivation

Proprioception

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? External feedback Force velocity Stretch-shortening cycle Proprioception

Proprioception

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Stretch-shortening cycle Proprioception Force velocity External feedback

Proprioception

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance. Static balance Flat floor Proprioceptively enriched Seated weight-training exercises

Proprioceptively enriched

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms? Integrative function Asymmetrical resistance loading Feed-forward activation Proprioceptively enriched environment

Proprioceptively enriched environment

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program? Number of sets/reps Quality of movement Amount of external resistance Speed of exercise completion

Quality of movement

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? Biceps curls Push-ups Machine leg extension Lat pulldown

Push-ups

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? Machine leg extension Lat pulldown Push-ups Biceps curls

Push-ups

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Hip hinge Squatting Pulling Pushing

Pushing

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Pulling Hip hinge Pushing Squatting

Pushing

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set? Pyramid system Multiple-set system Superset system Complex training

Pyramid system

Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position? Olympic weightlifting Powerlifting Speed training Quickness training

Quickness training

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? Absent stretch reflex Prolonged amortization phase Release of stored energy during concentric phase Rapid amortization phase

Rapid amortization phase

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible? Stretch-shortening cycle Core stabilization Integrated performance paradigm Rate of force production

Rate of force production

Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase? Muscular endurance Rate of force production Stability Muscle growth

Rate of force production

Which of the following best describes the term power? Joint protection Rate of force production Sport-specific skills Muscle growth

Rate of force production

What differentiates change of direction from agility? Changing directions Acceleration Reaction to a signal Deceleration

Reaction to a signal

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month's mesocycle? SAQ Reassessment Cardio Resistance

Reassessment

What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Osteokinematics Regional interdependence Kinesiology Biomechanics

Regional interdependence

What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Regional interdependence Kinesiology Osteokinematics Biomechanics

Regional interdependence

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training? Resistance training Core Plyometrics Rehabilitation

Rehabilitation

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction Pull the elbows into extension Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Core training Balance training Cardiorespiratory training Resistance training

Resistance training

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? Skill development Resistance training Warm-up Activation

Resistance training

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs? Restrictive lung disease Rheumatoid arthritis Peripheral arterial disease Osteoporosis

Restrictive lung disease

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Retraction Elevation Protraction Upward rotation

Retraction

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis Osteopenia

Rheumatoid arthritis

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Right atrium Right ventricle Left atrium Left ventricle

Right atrium

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training? SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer. There is no evidence to support this adaptation.

SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Semi-dynamic balance Static balance Stable balance Dynamic balance

Semi-dynamic balance

Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance? Semi-dynamic balance Dynamic balance Stationary balance Static balance

Semi-dynamic balance

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps Active stretching of the hamstrings

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize? SMR/dynamic stretching SMR/active stretching SMR/ballisitc stretching SMR/static stretching

SMR/static stretching

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Frontal Sagittal Extension Transverse

Sagittal

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Sagittal Frontal Transverse Extension

Sagittal

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool? TRX® Rip Trainer Sandbags Kettlebells Battle ropes

Sandbags

Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Strength machines Sandbags TRX Rip Trainer Battle ropes

Sandbags

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press

Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Barbell squat Seated leg extension Overhead press Bench press

Seated leg extension

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Overhead press Seated leg extension Bench press Barbell squat

Seated leg extension

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Self-image Resilience Self-efficacy Self-esteem

Self-efficacy

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Static stretching Dynamic stretching Active stretching Self-myofascial techniques

Self-myofascial techniques

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Dynamic stretches Self-myofascial techniques Sports drills Active stretches

Self-myofascial techniques

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column.

Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? Increased oxygen delivery Slow to fatigue Short-term contractions Smaller in size

Short-term contractions

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Stability ball push-up Shoulder/military press Squat jump Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press

Shoulder/military press

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Medicine ball soccer throw Cable rotation Floor crunch Side plank

Side plank

Which exercise is performed in the sagittal plane and provides the greatest challenge to the muscles of the posterior chain (e.g., hamstrings, gluteals, and erector spinae)? Lunge with Rotation Cable Machine Row Single-leg Romanian Deadlift Cable Rotations

Single-leg Romanian Deadlift

Which exercise is performed in the sagittal plane and provides the greatest challenge to the muscles of the posterior chain (e.g., hamstrings, gluteals, and erector spinae)? Lunge with Rotation Single-leg Romanian Deadlift Cable Rotations Cable Machine Row

Single-leg Romanian Deadlift

What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Atrioventricular node Intercalated discs Right bundle branch Sinoatrial node

Sinoatrial node

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. PreviousPrevious Submit NextNext

Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand.

Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Heart rate cardio Long continuous runs Steady-state treadmill workouts Small circuits

Small circuits

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system? Somatosensory system Auditory system Visual system Vestibular system

Somatosensory system

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Vestibular system Hearing system Somatosensory system Visual system

Somatosensory system

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice? Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies. Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories.

Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice? Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management. Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories.

Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Knees Spine Shoulders Ankles

Spine

Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration? Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water Water mixed with fruit juice Fruit juice Plain water

Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water

What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Squat jump with stabilization Depth jumps Multiplanar jump with stabilization Box jump-down with stabilization

Squat jump with stabilization

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body? Ball squat Multiplanar step-up Squat, curl to two-arm press Single-leg Romanian deadlift

Squat, curl to two-arm press

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Squatting Pushing Pulling Hip hinge

Squatting

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Strength Power Endurance Stability

Stability

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power Stabilization, Strength, and Power

Stabilization, Strength, and Power

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Plyometric exercise Strength-focused exercise Stabilization-focused exercise Balance exercise

Stabilization-focused exercise

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise? Stage 5 Stage 2 Stage 4 Stage 3

Stage 2

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises? Standing Lying down on back Sitting Kneeling

Standing

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver Ball bridge Standing cable hip extension Floor bridge

Standing cable hip extension

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Standing cable hip extension Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver Floor bridge Ball bridge

Standing cable hip extension

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Floor bridge Reverse crunch Standing cobra Knee-up

Standing cobra

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Dynamic stretching Active stretching Ballistic stretching Static stretching

Static stretching

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Rhomboids Diaphragm Sternocleidomastoid Upper trapezius

Sternocleidomastoid

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Stabilization Endurance Strength Endurance Power Maximal Strength

Strength Endurance

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Stabilization Power Strength Strength Endurance

Strength Endurance

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Strength Endurance Power Strength Stabilization

Strength Endurance

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Resistance bands Terra-Core Strength machines Suspended bodyweight training

Strength machines

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? Stretch reflex Eccentric contraction Isometric contraction Lengthening reaction

Stretch reflex During the stretch reflex, a neurological signal from the muscle spindle occurs that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Stretch-shortening cycle Stretching phase Muscular-power phase Explosive-shortening phase

Stretch-shortening cycle

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Stretching of the antagonist muscle Shortening of the agonist muscle Transitioning of forces Stretching of the agonist muscle

Stretching of the agonist muscle

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel? Heart failure Stroke Peripheral arterial disease Intermittent claudication

Stroke

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Synergistic dominance Altered length-tension relationship Altered reciprocal inhibition Reciprocal inhibition

Synergistic dominance

Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89 Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80

Systolic <120 and diastolic <80

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance? Tell them no. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use. Tell them it could help with their training.

Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? Piriformis Adductors Tensor fascia latae Thoracic spine

Tensor fascia latae

Balance is best described as which of the following? The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

Balance is best described as which of the following? The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration PreviousPrevious Submit NextNext

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

What is end-diastolic volume? The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined? An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active A method to help determine an individual's heart rate

The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body? The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface The approximate midpoint of the body The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support The highest elevation of the body in space when walking

The approximate midpoint of the body

What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete? A parent says training is okay. No balance training should be conducted following an injury. The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional. The athlete can perform complex stage 3 balance exercises first.

The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

What are the two components of the central nervous system? The nerves and sensory receptors The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems The brain and spinal cord The somatic and autonomic nervous systems

The brain and spinal cord

What are the two components of the central nervous system? The nerves and sensory receptors The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems The somatic and autonomic nervous systems The brain and spinal cord

The brain and spinal cord

How should an eccentric muscle action be described? The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue

The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72 to 96 hours after rolling. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance.

The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? The environment Ligament integrity Joint stability Muscle strength

The environment

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis? The essential amino acids Caffeine Vitamins Minerals

The essential amino acids

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis? Vitamins Caffeine Minerals The essential amino acids

The essential amino acids

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? The sight, hearing, and taste systems The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.

The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product? The ingredients list The nutrition facts panel The percent reference intake The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio

The nutrition facts panel

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. The person has suffered an ACL sprain. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.

The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome? The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity.

The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? The talk test Haskell's 220-minus-age formula The Tanaka formula Metabolic Equivalent (MET)

The talk test

Which three senses are involved in the balance system? Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

What is cardiac output? The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

Which of the following is true of protein shakes? They are a poor choice for recovery. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake. They are required to build muscle. They are dangerous and should be avoided.

They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

Which of the following is true of protein shakes? They are required to build muscle. They are dangerous and should be avoided. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake. They are a poor choice for recovery.

They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.

They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? This stretch is too advanced for the average person. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. This stretch is too complicated for the older client. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups? Hamstrings and erector spinae Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators

Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Liver function Heart function Thyroid function Kidney function

Thyroid function

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Force production Tissue overload Functional movement Motor unit recruitment

Tissue overload

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising

Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program? To enhance enjoyment of exercise To make sure the program is difficult enough To make sure the client isn't doing too much exercise To ensure safety

To ensure safety

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose? For general well-being To mitigate the side effects of medication To improve athletic performance and/or body composition To correct nutrient imbalances

To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Force Force velocity Torque Arthrokinematics

Torque

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? Allowing the gaze to move freely Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips Tracking the knees over the second and third toes Keeping the feet facing inward

Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Intensity Volume Recovery Training frequency

Training frequency

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Training plan Macrocycle Periodization Acute variables

Training plan

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? External obliques Diaphragm Transverse abdominis Erector spinae

Transverse abdominis

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Transverse abdominis Rectus abdominis Diaphragm Sternocleidomastoid

Transverse abdominis

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Transverse abdominis Latissimus dorsi Rectus abdominis Erector spinae

Transverse abdominis

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Sagittal plane box jump-down Frontal plane box jump-up Transverse plane box jump-down Sagittal plane box jump-up

Transverse plane box jump-down

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Front medicine ball oblique throw Medicine ball chest pass Two-arm push press Soccer throw

Two-arm push press

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Gestational Type 2 Type 1 Prediabetes

Type 1

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Prediabetes Type 1 Gestational Type 2

Type 1

Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost? Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis Type 2 diabetes Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis Type 1 diabetes

Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell? Gestational Prediabetes Type 2 Type 1

Type 2

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Type Iic Type I Type IIa Type IIb

Type I

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? Type I Type IIx Type III Type IIa

Type I

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Mesocycle Macrocycle Linear Undulating

Undulating

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Mesocycle Macrocycle Undulating Linear

Undulating

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Linear periodization Direct periodization Undulating periodization Localized periodization

Undulating periodization

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Localized periodization Linear periodization Undulating periodization Direct periodization

Undulating periodization

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Loaded Bilateral Proprioceptive Unilateral

Unilateral

Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body? Contralateral Bilateral Unilateral Ipsilateral

Unilateral

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Arteries Capillaries Veins Arterioles

Veins

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? Hearing system Somatosensory system Visual system Vestibular system

Vestibular system

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? ViPR Strength machines Speed ladders Suspended bodyweight training

ViPR

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Vitamin C Vitamin B6 Vitamin A Vitamin B12

Vitamin A

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Velocity and pattern Volume and progression Variables and pattern Variables and progression

Volume and progression

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density? Cycling Water aerobics Walking Swimming

Walking

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT? Structured exercise Walking Sleeping Eating

Walking

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 1 week b. 48 to 72 hours c. 24 hours d. 12 hours

b. 48 to 72 hours

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle. A dumbbell is safer. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same. A kettlebell is heavier.

With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Zone 2 Zone 1 Zone 3 Zone 4

Zone 3

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. 15 to 60 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. Less than 15 seconds

a. 15 to 60 seconds

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM d. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM

a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? Select one: a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 35 minutes d. 2 minutes

a. 10 minutes

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 10% per week b. 20% per week c. 25% per week d. <15% per week

a. 10% per week

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. 12 inches b. 10 inches c. 16 inches d. 14 inches

a. 12 inches

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 3.5 mL/kg/min b. 2.5 mL/kg/min c. 5.0 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min

a. 3.5 mL/kg/min

At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase? Select one: a. 30 b. 18.5 c. 22.5 d. 20

a. 30

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. 4-2-1-1 b. 2-0-2-0 c. 1-2-3-4 d. X-X-X-X

a. 4-2-1-1

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down? Select one: a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 1 to 2 minutes c. 3 to 4 minutes d. 4 minutes

a. 5 to 10 minutes

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout? Select one: a. 6 to 10 drills b. 10 to 15 drills c. 3 to 5 drills d. 1 to 3 drills

a. 6 to 10 drills

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person? Select one: a. 80 beats per minute b. 105 beats per minute c. 50 beats per minute d. 120 beats per minute

a. 80 beats per minute

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men? Select one: a. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change. b. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels. c. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change. d. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline.

a. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight. What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Select one: a. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them. b. The diet seems simple enough to maintain for a period of time and facilitate some weight loss. c. The limited diet sounds like a good plan to limit extra calories from other foods. d. The chicken and rice combination seems adequate to provide caloric, macronutrient, and micronutrient needs.

a. A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 3? Select one: a. Above VT2 b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 c. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 d. Below VT1

a. Above VT2

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Action b. Contemplation c. Precontemplation d. Maintenance

a. Action

Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. b. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. c. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage. d. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.

a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Agility b. Power c. Speed d. Quickness

a. Agility

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Alveolar sacs b. Pulmonary arteries c. Bronchioles d. Trachea

a. Alveolar sacs

What are the building blocks of body proteins? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Ketone bodies c. Glucose d. Triglycerides

a. Amino acids

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate? Select one: a. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality. b. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. c. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. d. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.

a. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Lateral pelvic tilt

a. Anterior pelvic tilt

Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Anti-inflammatory properties b. Increased energy c. Proinflammatory properties d. Improved thyroid function

a. Anti-inflammatory properties

What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate? Select one: a. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed b. The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources d. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity.

a. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost? Select one: a. As exhaled carbon dioxide b. As ATP c. As water d. As exhaled oxygen

a. As exhaled carbon dioxide

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases. c. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant. d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases.

a. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone? Select one: a. Bone density b. Sarcopenia c. Osteoporosis d. Osteopenia

a. Bone density

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Brachioradialis b. Biceps brachii c. Brachialis d. Triceps brachii

a. Brachioradialis

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Bracing b. Inhibition c. Isolating d. Drawing in

a. Bracing

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Cable machines b. Suspended bodyweight training c. Terra-Core d. TRX Rip Trainer

a. Cable machines

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and lumbar b. Cervical and thoracic c. Thoracic and lumbar d. Cervical and sacral

a. Cervical and lumbar

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Closed-chain movements b. Loaded movements c. Suspended bodyweight movements d. Open-chain movements

a. Closed-chain movements

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring? Select one: a. Cognitive fusion b. Stopping c. Reverse listing d. Acceptance

a. Cognitive fusion

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs b. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages c. Discussing the customer's budget d. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle

a. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions. b. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones. c. Compression of the myofascia "tightens" the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction. d. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.

a. Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities b. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness c. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going d. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise

a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core stability b. Core endurance c. Core strength d. Core power

a. Core stability

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment? Select one: a. Correct technique b. Both feet on the floor c. The absence of perturbations d. A stable floor

a. Correct technique

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Davis's law b. Archimedes' principle c. Overload principle d. Wolff's law

a. Davis's law

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming? Select one: a. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes b. Reduced risk of ankle sprains c. Improved proprioception or body awareness d. Reduced risk of falls

a. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented? Select one: a. Decreased rest periods b. Fewer exercises c. Decreased intensity d. Increased complexity of exercises

a. Decreased rest periods

Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise? Select one: a. Diet supplementation b. Balance c. Core strength and stability d. Speed, agility, and quickness

a. Diet supplementation

Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy? Select one: a. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus. b. The fetus will be harmed by decreased oxygen supply during physical activity. c. The fetus will be harmed by increased blood circulation during physical activity. d. Most recreational pursuits are inappropriate for pregnant women.

a. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client? Select one: a. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy. b. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal. c. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day. d. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea.

a. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? Select one: a. Expiration becomes more forceful. b. Inspiration is prolonged. c. Breathing becomes more shallow. d. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.

a. Expiration becomes more forceful.

What is the definition of kinesiophobia? Select one: a. Fear of movement b. Fear of stairs c. Fear of heights d. Fear of standing

a. Fear of movement

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head b. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle c. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx d. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing

a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. First class b. Second class c. Fourth class d. Third class

a. First class

Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary? Select one: a. Fitness manager b. General manager c. Strength and conditioning coach d. Master instructor

a. Fitness manager

Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience? Select one: a. Fitness manager b. Group fitness manager c. General manager d. Area fitness manager

a. Fitness manager

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Repeat step-ups c. Deadlifts d. Barbell chest press

a. Floor bridge

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining? Select one: a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment b. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment c. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic

a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Hypertrophy b. Power c. Stabilization d. Speed

a. Hypertrophy

A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal? Select one: a. I want to deadlift 300 pounds. b. I want to lift 3 times per week. c. I want to deadlift after work. d. I want to deadlift once per week.

a. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.

Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Identifying a customer's needs b. Discussing pricing options c. Asking for referrals d. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity

a. Identifying a customer's needs

Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Identifying a customer's needs b. Discussing pricing options c. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity d. Asking for referrals

a. Identifying a customer's needs

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels? Select one: a. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels. b. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and cortisol levels. c. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels. d. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels.

a. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.

You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals? b. Has the information been reported on the news and in other media? c. Is the magazine article in a recent publication or is it outdated? d. Is the nutrient available as a supplement, given the purported weight-loss benefits?

a. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries? Select one: a. Ischemic heart disease b. Arrhythmia c. Hypertension d. Heart valve problem

a. Ischemic heart disease

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Isometric b. Isokinetic c. Eccentric d. Concentric

a. Isometric

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable? Select one: a. Isometrically contracted b. Eccentrically contracted c. Relaxed d. Concentrically contracted

a. Isometrically contracted

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. b. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability. c. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. d. It involves expiring against a closed glottis.

a. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization? Select one: a. Keeping the knees in line with the toes b. Performing reps as quickly as possible c. Letting feet turn out for support d. Letting the knees cave inward

a. Keeping the knees in line with the toes

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Multifidus c. Diaphragm d. Quadriceps

a. Latissimus dorsi

What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD? Select one: a. Leg pain b. Shoulder pain c. Neck pain d. Low-back pain

a. Leg pain

Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine? Select one: a. Lower crossed syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Pes planus distortion syndrome d. Excessive pronation

a. Lower crossed syndrome

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Action

a. Maintenance

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as? Select one: a. Mastering basic movement patterns b. Improving the rate of force production c. Utilizing supersets during training d. Focusing on improving muscular growth

a. Mastering basic movement patterns

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball woodchop throw b. Bird dog c. Cable chop d. Reverse crunch

a. Medicine ball woodchop throw

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Pectoralis major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Teres major

a. Middle and lower trapezius

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking? Select one: a. Motivation b. Positive outcome expectation c. Autonomy d. Self-efficacy

a. Motivation

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Motor unit recruitment b. Overall base strength c. Balance d. Core stability

a. Motor unit recruitment

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Rectus abdominis c. Erector spinae d. Gluteus maximus

a. Multifidus

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Neural adaptations b. Sarcopenia c. Muscle hypertrophy d. Muscle atrophy

a. Neural adaptations

What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Concentric control c. All-or-nothing principle d. Eccentric control

a. Neuromuscular efficiency

What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission? Select one: a. Neurotransmitters b. Sarcomeres c. Synapses d. Adenosine triphosphate

a. Neurotransmitters

Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? Select one: a. Osteokinematics b. Arthrokinematics c. Arthropathy d. Osteoporosis

a. Osteokinematics

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Select one: a. Overhead squat b. Pushing assessment c. Single-leg squat d. Pulling assessment

a. Overhead squat

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Select one: a. Performance assessment b. Static posture assessment c. Overhead squat assessment d. Dynamic posture assessment

a. Performance assessment

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division? Select one: a. Peripheral nervous system b. Autonomic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system

a. Peripheral nervous system

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Thermoregulation c. Blood pressure d. Heart rate

a. Peripheral vasodilation

Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example? Select one: a. Planning social gatherings for the group b. Providing modifications during the workout c. Setting the time for the group to meet d. Planning the workout for the group

a. Planning social gatherings for the group

What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Plant foods and dairy b. Proteins c. All foods d. Animal and plant foods

a. Plant foods and dairy

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion c. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion d. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension

a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? Select one: a. Platelets b. White blood cells c. Red blood cells d. Plasma

a. Platelets

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Select one: a. Plow pose b. Bound angle pose c. Cat pose d. Downward dog pose

a. Plow pose

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Preparation b. Action c. Precontemplation d. Maintenance

a. Preparation

Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified? Select one: a. Preventive care b. Alternative medicine c. Physical therapy d. Behavioral health

a. Preventive care

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Select one: a. Proprioception b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Force velocity d. External feedback

a. Proprioception

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance. Select one: a. Proprioceptively enriched b. Seated weight-training exercises c. Static balance d. Flat floor

a. Proprioceptively enriched

rior to ever working with a client, what is the most important priority when starting an independent personal training business? Select one: a. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses b. Having consistent names on all social media accounts c. Purchasing fitness equipment d. Designing a website to advertise personal training services

a. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen? Select one: a. Recovery b. Frequency c. Intensity d. Volume

a. Recovery

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body? Select one: a. Red blood cells b. Platelets c. Plasma d. White blood cells

a. Red blood cells

This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. Select one: a. Reflections b. Active listening c. Closed-ended questions d. Open-ended questions

a. Reflections

How are dietary supplements defined? Select one: a. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component b. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders c. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals d. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients

a. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Core training c. Balance training d. Cardiorespiratory training

a. Resistance training

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Core training c. Cardiorespiratory training d. Balance training

a. Resistance training

Javier has recently earned his NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and is starting to apply to health clubs for his first job as a personal trainer. Which job from his previous non-fitness industry work experience demonstrates qualities that would best be applicable to personal training? Select one: a. Restaurant server b. Driver for a ride-sharing service c. Nightclub security guard d. Warehouse worker

a. Restaurant server

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Reverse listing b. Cognitive fusion c. Imagery d. Stopping

a. Reverse listing

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? Select one: a. SAID principle b. Law of thermodynamics c. Archimedes' principle d. Theory of general relativity

a. SAID principle

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row b. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown c. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press d. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat

a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Select one: a. Seated leg extension b. Barbell squat c. Bench press d. Overhead press

a. Seated leg extension

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Attitudes c. Outcome expectations d. Intention

a. Self-efficacy

A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Imagery c. Contemplation d. Goal setting

a. Self-monitoring

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius d. Cervical extensors

a. Serratus anterior

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Set specific tasks b. Provide instructions c. Verbal persuasion d. Experience mastery

a. Set specific tasks

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears? Select one: a. Shoulder elevation b. Scapular winging c. Arms fall forward d. Forward lean

a. Shoulder elevation

What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on? Select one: a. Speed of force generation b. Speed of force reduction c. Muscle size d. Fat content

a. Speed of force generation

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Spine b. Shoulders c. Knees d. Ankles

a. Spine

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization, Strength, and Power b. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power c. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power d. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength

a. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing b. Speed c. Explosiveness d. Rate of force production

a. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still? Select one: a. Static posture assessment b. Performance assessment c. Overhead squat assessment d. Dynamic posture assessment

a. Static posture assessment

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT? Select one: a. Structured exercise b. Walking c. Sleeping d. Eating

a. Structured exercise

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system

a. Sympathetic nervous system

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements? Select one: a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site. b. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results. c. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise. d. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.

a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

Informational support would be provided by which example? Select one: a. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day b. Working out alongside a client c. Holding the client accountable to lifting weights 3 days per week d. Letting a client know they are not alone in the process of losing weight

a. Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation b. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation d. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain

a. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

Which of the following would be a credible source of nutrition information? Select one: a. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics b. Social media c. The Washington Post d. A newspaper review article

a. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics

What is the most accurate description of motor control? Select one: a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements b. The integration of motor control processes through practice c. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli d. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span

a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined? Select one: a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest b. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active d. A method to help determine an individual's heart rate

a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements? Select one: a. The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements b. The resistance to the external disruptions to one's postural equilibrium c. The brain's positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement d. Awareness of the body's position as it moves through multiple planes of motion

a. The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements

What is the definition of anthropometry? Select one: a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion b. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body c. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface d. The measurement of a person's weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity

a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? Select one: a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action. b. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action. c. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect. d. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action.

a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. The group feels distinct from other people. b. Groups function only when all members are present. c. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. d. Groups rely only on the leader for support.

a. The group feels distinct from other people.

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee varus? Select one: a. The knees bowing outward b. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes c. The knees collapsing inward d. The hip shifting toward one side or the other

a. The knees bowing outward

How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. b. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. c. A disease characterized by low bone density. d. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.

a. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems b. The sight, hearing, and taste systems c. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. d. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

a. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

What are triglycerides? Select one: a. The stored form of fat b. A substrate for anaerobic exercise c. A substrate for high-intensity exercise d. The stored form of carbohydrate

a. The stored form of fat

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. b. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. c. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. d. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. c. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. d. This stretch is too complicated for the older client.

a. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. d. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.

a. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Select one: a. Tissue overload b. Motor unit recruitment c. Force production d. Functional movement

a. Tissue overload

What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification? Select one: a. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category b. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training c. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA d. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals

a. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category

Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what? Select one: a. Toxicity b. Better outcomes c. Deficiency d. Improved performance

a. Toxicity

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols b. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats c. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol d. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s

a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell? Select one: a. Type 2 b. Type 1 c. Prediabetes d. Gestational

a. Type 2

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Adductor complex c. Lower trapezius d. Hip flexors

a. Upper trapezius

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Upper trapezius and levator scapula b. Lower trapezius c. Infraspinatus d. Latissimus dorsi

a. Upper trapezius and levator scapula

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. VO2max b. Maximal heart rate c. Steady-state heart rate d. Ventilatory threshold

a. VO2max

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Select one: a. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. Rockport walk test d. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

a. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? Select one: a. Vestibular system b. Visual system c. Hearing system d. Somatosensory system

a. Vestibular system

The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins b. Vitamin C, D, and K c. Vitamin C, B complex, and D d. Vitamin C, B complex, and K

a. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density? Select one: a. Walking b. Swimming c. Water aerobics d. Cycling

a. Walking

Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences? b. Do you have any injuries? c. Are you currently exercising? d. Are you taking any medications?

a. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?

Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past? b. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals? c. Did you exercise this week? d. What do you currently weigh?

a. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?

What is the definition of energy balance? Select one: a. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs b. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout c. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown d. When daily food intake is consistent

a. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

When is a muscle considered overactive? Select one: a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction b. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment c. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity d. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation

a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement? Select one: a. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body b. When someone has anxiety about social situations c. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror d. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity

a. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance? Select one: a. Why don't you want to change? b. What might work for you? c. If you decided to make a change, what might you do? d. What might you want to change?

a. Why don't you want to change?

What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Electromagnetic spectrum b. Electromyography c. Elektrokardiogramm d. Electrocardiogram

b. Electromyography

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM d. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM

b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there? Select one: a. 11 b. 9 c. 3 d. 7

b. 9

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.8 b. 0.6 c. 0.5 d. 0.4

b. 0.6

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ? Select one: a. 0 times per week b. 1 to 3 times per week c. 4 or 5 times per week d. 5 to 7 times per week

b. 1 to 3 times per week

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight c. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight d. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight

b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 1 or 2 reps b. 3 to 5 reps c. 8 to 10 reps d. 6 to 8 reps

b. 3 to 5 reps

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 1 or 2 drills per workout b. 4 to 8 drills per workout c. 9 or 10 drills per workout d. 2 or 3 drills per workout

b. 4 to 8 drills per workout

What statement best describes a premium health club? Select one: a. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities c. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

What statement best describes a nonprofit health club? Select one: a. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives c. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

What is the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts b. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium d. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach

b. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

How can health best be defined? Select one: a. A combination of education, income, and occupation b. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium in relation to the surrounding environment and the regular tasks it is required to perform d. Genetics, access to healthcare, access to preventive medicine, socioeconomic status, natural disasters, and the built environment

b. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

Which of the following best defines cholesterol? Select one: a. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons b. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells c. A narrowing of arteries to the heart d. A raising of blood pressure

b. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells

What are the fat-soluble vitamins? Select one: a. A, B12, C, and D b. A, D, E, and K c. C, D, and K d. B12, B6, and C

b. A, D, E, and K

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Select one: a. Activation of the intercalated discs b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system c. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system d. Activation of sarcomeres

b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Adductor complex c. Upper trapezius d. Gluteus maximus and medius

b. Adductor complex

What is defined as steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Exercise that burns a lot of calories b. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity c. Exercise that goes on for a long time d. Exercise performed for a short duration of time

b. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? Select one: a. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption c. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout d. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes

b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Age-related loss in bone mineral density b. Age-related loss of muscle tissue c. Lower than normal bone mineral density d. Chronic inflammation of the joints

b. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Select one: a. Quickness b. Agility c. Stride rate d. Speed

b. Agility

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch c. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch

b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? Select one: a. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion d. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg

b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client? Select one: a. Agreeing to call the potential client in 2 days to follow up b. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session c. Swapping social media handles so the trainer and client can follow each other d. Asking the member for a personal phone number to use to follow up via texting

b. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session

How can fitness professionals earn CEUs? Select one: a. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club b. Attending fitness industry conferences c. Reading scholarly research journals d. Reading exercise-science textbooks

b. Attending fitness industry conferences

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Stretch reflex b. Autogenic inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Isometric contraction

b. Autogenic inhibition

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Select one: a. Triceps extension b. Back squat c. Bench press d. Calf raise

b. Back squat

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Select one: a. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups c. Power step-ups and ice skaters d. Deadlifts and squats

b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Decreased volume and intensity b. Body fat loss c. Muscle mass atrophy d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

b. Body fat loss

What is the primary muscle type of the heart? Select one: a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Myofibril d. Skeletal

b. Cardiac

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Select one: a. Speed b. Change of direction c. Power d. Strength

b. Change of direction

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients? Select one: a. Choosing only small step boxes b. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities c. Letting the client choose the box size d. Choosing the highest box available

b. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

What equation represents power? Select one: a. Y = mx + b b. Force x velocity c. a2 + b2 = c2 d. Time ÷ work

b. Force x velocity

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Select one: a. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open b. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails c. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants d. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center

b. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Diabetes c. Intermittent claudication d. Dyspnea

b. Diabetes

Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Dynamic balance c. Stationary balance d. Static balance

b. Dynamic balance

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Hypoxia b. Dyspnea c. Pneumonia d. Pulmonary hypoplasia

b. Dyspnea

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Concentric contractions b. Eccentric loading c. Ankle stability d. Increased amortization

b. Eccentric loading

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading b. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading c. Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading d. Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

b. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. 1,500 mg of sodium per day b. Excess weight c. A low-fat diet d. Vigorous exercise

b. Excess weight

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals? Select one: a. Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals. b. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management. c. Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated. d. Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day.

b. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Exercise group b. Family c. The community d. Exercise leader

b. Family

How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. c. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. d. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

b. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells? Select one: a. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders b. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head c. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head d. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck

b. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Butt to heels b. Femur parallel to ground c. Knees to 45 degrees d. Full-depth squat

b. Femur parallel to ground

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? Select one: a. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes b. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss c. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work d. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work

b. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors. b. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. c. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart. d. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.

b. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States? Select one: a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) d. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Peripheral resistance b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart c. Valsalva maneuver d. Venous pooling

b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. Above VT2 b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 c. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 d. Below VT1

b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Gluteus medius c. Hip flexor d. Gluteus maximus

b. Gluteus medius

A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. Phosphocreatine was depleted. b. Glycogen stores were exhausted. c. Fatty acid stores were exhausted. d. ADP was depleted.

b. Glycogen stores were exhausted.

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum b. Hamstrings and erector spinae c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

b. Hamstrings and erector spinae

At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true? Select one: a. Her systolic pressure is 70. b. Her diastolic pressure is 70. c. She needs to modify her diet to bring down her blood pressure. d. She has hypertension.

b. Her diastolic pressure is 70.

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypertension d. Hyperglycemia

b. Hypoglycemia

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal? Select one: a. I want to lose weight. b. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months. c. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month. d. I want to lose 20 pounds.

b. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Proprioceptive plyometrics b. Ice skaters c. Depth jumps d. Squat jump

b. Ice skaters

Creatine is most effective for what purpose? Select one: a. Improving heart health b. Improving strength and muscle size c. Improving endurance d. Damaging the kidneys

b. Improving strength and muscle size

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased stroke volume b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased heart rate d. Increased end-systolic volume

b. Increased heart rate

What two factors define any form or type of exercise? Select one: a. Intensity and speed b. Intensity and duration c. Duration and time d. Speed and complexity

b. Intensity and duration

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? Select one: a. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate. b. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate. c. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym. d. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.

b. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? Select one: a. It decreases vertical jump height. b. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently. c. It requires less eccentric deceleration. d. It requires the use of less elastic energy.

b. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rhomboids d. Posterior deltoid

b. Latissimus dorsi

For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential? Select one: a. Earning a massage therapy license to be able to offer massage treatments b. Learning how to lead group training programs c. Becoming a registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN) to provide nutritional counseling d. Pursuing a degree in exercise science

b. Learning how to lead group training programs

Which common cause of death is the most preventable? Select one: a. Stroke b. Obesity c. Cancer d. Dementia

b. Obesity

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. c. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. d. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.

b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following? Select one: a. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension b. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension c. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension d. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension

b. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? Select one: a. Mesocycle b. Macrocycle c. Megacycle d. Microcycle

b. Macrocycle

Calcium is of principal importance for what? Select one: a. Nutrient absorption b. Maintaining strong bones c. Clearing toxins d. Maintaining a strong immune system

b. Maintaining strong bones

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? Select one: a. Less efficiently b. More efficiently c. Not at all d. Equally

b. More efficiently

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Butt kick b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Power step-up d. Tuck jump

b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Select one: a. Muscle endurance b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Muscle strength d. Muscle power

b. Muscle hypertrophy

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? Select one: a. Strength Endurance b. Muscular Development c. Stabilization Endurance d. Maximal Strength

b. Muscular Development

Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder? Select one: a. Power Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Maximal Strength Training

b. Muscular Development Training

Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase? Select one: a. Postural alignment b. Muscular endurance c. Maximal muscular strength d. Mobility and flexibility

b. Muscular endurance

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? Select one: a. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate. b. NEAT can be protective against obesity. c. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness. d. NEAT can increase muscle mass.

b. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Action potential b. Nociceptor c. Neurotransmitter d. Mechanoreceptor

b. Nociceptor

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions? Select one: a. Reflective listening b. Nonverbal communication c. Verbal communication d. Motivational interviewing

b. Nonverbal communication

At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha's BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Overweight c. Underweight d. Obese

b. Overweight

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. An annual physical b. PAR-Q+ c. Overhead squat assessment d. Dietary assessment

b. PAR-Q+

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? Select one: a. The community b. Parents c. Peers d. Exercise groups

b. Parents

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Pattern overload c. Stretch reflex d. Reciprocal inhibition

b. Pattern overload

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult? Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Perturbation c. Neuromuscular control d. Sensorimotor function

b. Perturbation

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Transformation b. Phosphorylation c. ATP-PC d. Oxidation

b. Phosphorylation

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting? Select one: a. Red blood cells b. Platelets c. Plasma d. White blood cells

b. Platelets

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Lateral pelvic tilt d. Medial pelvic tilt

b. Posterior pelvic tilt

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Pyruvate c. Fatty acids d. Glycogen

b. Pyruvate

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible? Select one: a. Integrated performance paradigm b. Rate of force production c. Core stabilization d. Stretch-shortening cycle

b. Rate of force production

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Reliability c. Validity d. Relevance

b. Reliability

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Remodeling c. Lengthening d. Neuroplasticity

b. Remodeling

Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs? Select one: a. Endocrine b. Respiratory c. Cardiovascular d. Digestive

b. Respiratory

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Rotatores c. Rectus abdominis d. Latissimus dorsi

b. Rotatores

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra b. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press c. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation

b. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

Which of the following would be considered a process goal? Select one: a. Run one mile b. Run three times a week c. Squat 100 pounds d. Run a 10k race

b. Run three times a week

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Extension b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Frontal

b. Sagittal

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Shoulder/military press c. Stability ball push-up d. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press

b. Shoulder/military press

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Follower's qualities b. Situational factors c. Leader's qualities d. Leadership styles

b. Situational factors

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Short-term contractions b. Slow to fatigue c. Fewer capillaries d. Decreased oxygen delivery

b. Slow to fatigue

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine? Select one: a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase b. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases c. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases d. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase

b. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term? Select one: a. Net worth b. Socioeconomic status c. Social influence d. Income status

b. Socioeconomic status

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power b. Stabilization, Strength, and Power c. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength d. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power

b. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Select one: a. Strength-focused exercise b. Stabilization-focused exercise c. Plyometric exercise d. Balance exercise

b. Stabilization-focused exercise

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Standing cable hip extension c. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver d. Ball bridge

b. Standing cable hip extension

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Select one: a. Active stretching b. Static stretching c. Dynamic stretching d. Ballistic stretching

b. Static stretching

Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged? Select one: a. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be more powerful. b. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful. c. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be more powerful. d. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.

b. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? Select one: a. Isometric contraction b. Stretch reflex c. Eccentric contraction d. Lengthening reaction

b. Stretch reflex

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Cardiac output b. Stroke volume c. Resting heart rate d. Venous return

b. Stroke volume

Core stability is best described as: Select one: a. The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving c. The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension d. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine

b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.

b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

How should an eccentric muscle action be described? Select one: a. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue b. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue c. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue d. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue

b. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test? Select one: a. The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered. b. The individual is tired from the test. c. Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise. d. Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.

b. The individual is tired from the test.

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise c. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise d. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise

b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined? Select one: a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded c. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute) d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. c. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.

b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? Select one: a. Haskell's 220-minus-age formula b. The talk test c. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) d. The Tanaka formula

b. The talk test

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I fibers are "fast twitch." b. Type I fibers are "slow twitch." c. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. d. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.

b. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Direct periodization b. Undulating periodization c. Localized periodization d. Linear periodization

b. Undulating periodization

What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services? Select one: a. SWOT analysis b. Unique selling proposition (USP) c. PERT estimate d. Statement of work (SOW)

b. Unique selling proposition (USP)

Which three senses are involved in the balance system? Select one: a. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems c. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems d. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems

b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise? Select one: a. Shoveling snow b. Weightlifting c. Walking a dog d. Yardwork

b. Weightlifting

Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. What makes you think that you're not at risk? b. What might you want to change? c. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? d. Why don't you just do this?

b. What might you want to change?

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source? Select one: a. Peas b. Whole eggs c. Beans d. Lentils

b. Whole eggs

Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process? Select one: a. Calling the manager to ask when the first day of work will be scheduled b. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job c. Sending a text to the manager saying, "Thanks for your time." d. Posting a video on social media showing him working out at the health club

b. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test d. Rockport 1-mile walk test

b. YMCA 3-minute step test

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 6 to 8 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 3 or 4 sets

c. 1 or 2 sets

When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations? Select one: a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.1 d. 0.3

c. 0.1

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.22 b. 0.62 c. 0.72 d. 0.92

c. 0.72

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? Select one: a. 5 to 7 sessions per week b. 3 or 4 sessions per week c. 1 or 2 sessions per week d. 0 sessions per week

c. 1 or 2 sessions per week

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? Select one: a. 25 to 29.9 b. 35 to 39.9 c. 18.5 to 24.9 d. 30 to 34.9

c. 18.5 to 24.9

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less? Select one: a. 1 in. b. 1.5 in. c. 2 in. d. 0.5 in.

c. 2 in.

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? Select one: a. VO2max x % intensity desired b. HRmax x % intensity desired c. 208 - (0.7 x age) d. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest

c. 208 - (0.7 x age)

At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed? Select one: a. 30 b. 18 c. 25 d. 22

c. 25

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 1 or 2 sets b. 5 or 6 sets c. 3 or 4 sets d. 7 to 8 sets

c. 3 or 4 sets

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. Indefinitely b. 6 months c. 4 years d. 1 year

c. 4 years

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 120 minutes per week b. 60 minutes per week c. 75 minutes per week d. 90 minutes per week

c. 75 minutes per week

How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 21 b. 3 c. 8 d. 12

c. 8

What is forecasting? Select one: a. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale b. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal d. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well

c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training? Select one: a. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest b. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers c. A decrease in metabolic rate d. A reduction in blood pressure at rest

c. A decrease in metabolic rate

What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength b. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue d. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men? Select one: a. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line b. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple d. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic d. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Select one: a. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover b. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining c. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. d. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations

c. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) d. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual

c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum c. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

c. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Select one: a. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed b. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power d. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power

c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Select one: a. Collecting summaries b. Transitional summaries c. Affirmations d. Reflections

c. Affirmations

What are essential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis b. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body c. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body d. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources

c. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

What is a prospect? Select one: a. A potential career advancement opportunity b. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal c. An individual who has been identified as a potential client d. A method of creating a service identified by specific characteristics

c. An individual who has been identified as a potential client

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Knee flexion b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Hip abduction

c. Ankle plantar flexion

Which of the following is true about body image? Select one: a. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. b. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting. c. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately. d. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.

c. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Isotonic b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Eccentric

c. Concentric

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening? Select one: a. Isometric action b. Eccentric action c. Concentric action d. Isokinetic action

c. Concentric action

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Business practice b. Professionalism c. Confidentiality d. Legal and ethical

c. Confidentiality

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Action

c. Contemplation

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Select one: a. Normal conversation is maintained. b. Inability to speak at all c. Continuous talking becomes challenging d. Only a few words can be produced between breaths

c. Continuous talking becomes challenging

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? Select one: a. Olympic weightlifter b. Avid resistance trainer c. Cross-country runner d. Powerlifter

c. Cross-country runner

In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens? Select one: a. Peas and peanuts b. Soy and aspartame c. Dairy and shellfish d. Gluten and corn

c. Dairy and shellfish

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Beans b. Grains c. Dairy foods d. Legumes

c. Dairy foods

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Antagonist function b. Feedback c. Feed-forward d. Synergist function

c. Feed-forward

What does the first law of thermodynamics state? Select one: a. Food increases metabolic rate. b. All energy is converted to heat. c. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. d. Metabolic rate is constant.

c. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Select one: a. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium b. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium d. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium

c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) c. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

c. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele? Select one: a. Every 6 months b. Every year c. Every month d. Every week

c. Every month

When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to? Select one: a. Traditional compliance b. Peer-observed procedure c. Evidence-based practice d. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums

c. Evidence-based practice

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question? Select one: a. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss. b. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast. c. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable. d. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss.

c. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action? Select one: a. Give him a diabetic meal plan that you find on the internet. b. Agree to review his diet and provide him with specific dietary guidelines on what foods to eat and what to avoid. c. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling. d. Say that you cannot help him because this is a medical issue, and tell him he needs to follow up with his doctor again.

c. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck b. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest c. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck d. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

c. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Select one: a. Resistance b. Core c. Flexibility and cardio d. Plyometrics

c. Flexibility and cardio

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Strengthening exercises b. Balance exercises c. Flexibility exercises d. Plyometric exercises

c. Flexibility exercises

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Sagittal plane b. Transverse plane c. Frontal plane d. Horizontal plane

c. Frontal plane

Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Hip flexors c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Upper trapezius

c. Gastrocnemius and soleus

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. Oxidation c. Gluconeogenesis d. Glycolysis

c. Gluconeogenesis

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be an example of a strength? Select one: a. Competition from the other health clubs and training studios in the immediate area b. Needing to learn more about marketing and sales c. Having the NASM-CPT credential d. Taking a workshop to learn more about sales and marketing for fitness professionals

c. Having the NASM-CPT credential

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Hip internal rotators c. Hip abductors d. Hip extensors

c. Hip abductors

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle dorsiflexion b. Hip flexion c. Hip extension d. Knee flexion

c. Hip extension

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Hip flexor complex d. Hamstrings complex

c. Hip flexor complex

Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk? Select one: a. Thigh b. Arm c. Hips d. Waist

c. Hips

Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management? Select one: a. Vitamin and mineral supplements b. Body temperature c. Hormones and medications d. Blood flow

c. Hormones and medications

Which statement best demonstrates empathy? Select one: a. I don't understand why you think it's so hard to do 30 minutes of cardio 3 times a week. b. If you spend more time in the gym, you will reach your goals faster. c. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well. d. I think you will feel healthier once you finally lose some weight.

c. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.

A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal? Select one: a. I want to run outside. b. I want to run in the morning before work. c. I want to run a 6-minute mile. d. I want to run 3 times per week.

c. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Guided practice c. Implementation intention d. Coping plan

c. Implementation intention

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation b. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation c. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation d. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation

c. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Athletic performance is a universal goal. b. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. d. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.

c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. b. Start establishing an emotional support system. c. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. d. Establish short- and long-term goals.

c. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Marching on a stable surface b. Prone dead bugs on floor c. Instability training using a stability ball d. Planking on a stable surface

c. Instability training using a stability ball

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Multifidus d. Iliopsoas

c. Multifidus

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Preparation c. Maintenance d. Contemplation

c. Maintenance

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Maximal Strength Training d. Strength Endurance Training

c. Maximal Strength Training

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Posture specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Mechanical specificity d. Metabolic specificity

c. Mechanical specificity

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Barbell squats b. Suspended bodyweight crunch c. Medicine ball catch and pass d. Stability ball plank

c. Medicine ball catch and pass

How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health? Select one: a. High doses can be dangerous. b. High doses can improve heart health. c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption. d. It improves the immune system.

c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Ambition b. Aspiration c. Motivation d. Initiative

c. Motivation

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Power c. Muscular Development d. Strength Endurance

c. Muscular Development

Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs? Select one: a. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts b. Offering customized meal plans for each client c. Offering online coaching programs d. Teaching group fitness workouts

c. Offering online coaching programs

It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling. Select one: a. College athletes b. Young females c. Older individuals d. Those with ankle sprains

c. Older individuals

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteopenia c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis

c. Osteoarthritis

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Complex training b. Drop set c. Peripheral heart action system d. Pyramid system

c. Peripheral heart action system

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Knee valgus c. Pes planus distortion syndrome d. Lower crossed syndrome

c. Pes planus distortion syndrome

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 5

c. Phase 2

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 5

c. Phase 2

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Power Training d. Strength Endurance Training

c. Power Training

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Power Training d. Strength Endurance Training

c. Power Training

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

c. Precontemplation

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client? Select one: a. Diagnosing balance disorders b. Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation) c. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history d. Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits

c. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Long (broad) jump c. Pro shuttle d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

c. Pro shuttle

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. 40-yard dash c. Pro shuttle d. Long (broad) jump

c. Pro shuttle

Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect? Select one: a. Glycogen b. Carbohydrate c. Protein d. Fat

c. Protein

Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? Select one: a. Glucose b. Carbohydrates c. Protein d. Lipids

c. Protein

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Select one: a. Offer users the ability to change resistance easily b. Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures c. Provide an increased range of motion d. Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers

c. Provide an increased range of motion

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Select one: a. Improving their confidence for their technique b. Helping them make a plan c. Providing information on the health benefits d. Helping make the exercises fun

c. Providing information on the health benefits

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment? Select one: a. Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist b. Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional c. Psychologist or psychiatrist d. Registered dietitian or nutritionist

c. Psychologist or psychiatrist

Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Adductor longus b. Gluteus medius c. Quadriceps d. Biceps brachii

c. Quadriceps

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)? Select one: a. Speed b. Stride rate c. Quickness d. Agility

c. Quickness

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? Select one: a. Stretch reflex b. Autogenic inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Isometric contraction

c. Reciprocal inhibition

What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Select one: a. Osteokinematics b. Biomechanics c. Regional interdependence d. Kinesiology

c. Regional interdependence

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Osteoporosis c. Remodeling d. Wolff's law

c. Remodeling

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Select one: a. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings b. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps d. Active stretching of the hamstrings

c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Sagittal d. Axial

c. Sagittal

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation b. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra d. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation

c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

What statement best describes the category of simple sugars? Select one: a. Sugar syrups that are easily absorbed by the body b. Sugars that have been added to packaged foods c. Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body d. Sugars that are dissolved into liquid for consumption

c. Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Select one: a. Steady-state treadmill workouts b. Heart rate cardio c. Small circuits d. Long continuous runs

c. Small circuits

Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation? Select one: a. Behavioral health b. Global state of health c. Socioeconomic status d. Emotional health

c. Socioeconomic status

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Move the trunk b. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement c. Stabilize vertebral segments d. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities

c. Stabilize vertebral segments

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes? Select one: a. Stage 2 b. Stage 4 c. Stage 1 d. Stage 3

c. Stage 1

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 4 training b. Stage 3 training c. Stage 2 training d. Stage 1 training

c. Stage 2 training

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises? Select one: a. Kneeling b. Lying down on back c. Standing d. Sitting

c. Standing

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Reverse crunch c. Standing cobra d. Knee-up

c. Standing cobra

Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement? Select one: a. Standing overhead press b. Standing pull assessment c. Standing push assessment d. Davies test

c. Standing push assessment

Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Motion balance

c. Static balance

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride? Select one: a. Power b. Agility c. Stride length d. Stride rate

c. Stride length

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Anterior tibialis b. Infraspinatus c. Subscapularis d. Scalenes

c. Subscapularis

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point? Select one: a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Superior d. Inferior

c. Superior

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Altered length-tension relationship c. Synergistic dominance d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

c. Synergistic dominance

Which joints are most associated with human movement? Select one: a. Saddle b. Nonaxial c. Synovial d. Nonsynovial

c. Synovial

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form? Select one: a. Energy imagery b. Appearance imagery c. Technique imagery d. Cognitive fusion

c. Technique imagery

Balance is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping b. The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration c. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position d. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate

c. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body? Select one: a. The approximate midpoint of the body b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support d. The highest elevation of the body in space

c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus? Select one: a. The knees bowing outward b. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes c. The knees collapsing inward d. The hip shifting toward one side or the other

c. The knees collapsing inward

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? Select one: a. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds b. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes d. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. b. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. c. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate. d. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.

c. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

What are triglycerides? Select one: a. A substrate for anaerobic exercise b. A substrate for high-intensity exercise c. The stored form of fat d. The stored form of carbohydrate

c. The stored form of fat

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure? Select one: a. The head of the participant b. The midline of the pelvis of the participant c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing d. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant

c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy is stored for the next jump. b. The attempt at jumping will fail. c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat. d. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.

c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs? Select one: a. They minimize movement of the spine. b. They provide support for the head. c. They act as shock absorbers. d. They support most of the body's weight and are attached to many back muscles.

c. They act as shock absorbers.

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power c. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness d. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity

c. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver? Select one: a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core. b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core. c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine. d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.

c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Force velocity b. Arthrokinematics c. Torque d. Force

c. Torque

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? Select one: a. Allowing the gaze to move freely b. Keeping the feet facing inward c. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes d. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips

c. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. External obliques c. Transverse abdominis d. Diaphragm

c. Transverse abdominis

What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client? Select one: a. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable b. Two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable c. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable d. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable, single-leg stable

c. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? Select one: a. Type IIa b. Type IIx c. Type I d. Type III

c. Type I

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Ambivalence c. Unrealistic goals d. Social physique anxiety

c. Unrealistic goals

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Variables and pattern b. Velocity and pattern c. Volume and progression d. Variables and progression

c. Volume and progression

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise? Select one: a. Cycling b. Running c. Yardwork d. Weightlifting

c. Yardwork

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients? Select one: a. 120 to 180 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 0 to 60 seconds

d. 0 to 60 seconds

What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.2 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 g/kg of body weight d. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

d. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? Select one: a. All-or-nothing principle b. Davis's principle c. Principle of specificity d. Archimedes' principle

d. Archimedes' principle

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion b. Thighs parallel to the ground c. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant. c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases. d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

What causes coronary heart disease? Select one: a. Cirrhosis b. Tuberculosis c. Osteoporosis d. Atherosclerosis

d. Atherosclerosis

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body? Select one: a. Mechanoreceptors b. The brain c. Somatic nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system

d. Autonomic nervous system

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. Water-soluble vitamins d. B vitamins

d. B vitamins

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball overhead throw b. Dead bug c. Plank d. Back extension

d. Back extension

Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Select one: a. Saddle b. Hinge c. Pivot d. Ball-and-socket

d. Ball-and-socket

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Pull-up b. Push-up c. Barbell squat d. Bench press

d. Bench press

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up? Select one: a. Between 10 and 15 minutes b. Between 1 and 3 minutes c. Between 3 and 5 minutes d. Between 5 and 10 minutes

d. Between 5 and 10 minutes

Which statement about cancer is most accurate? Select one: a. It is most common in adults between the ages of 30 and 55. b. Almost all cancers are preventable. c. There is a lack of cell growth in the body. d. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

d. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate? Select one: a. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice. b. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally. c. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice. d. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.

d. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? Select one: a. Predetermined timelines b. Consistent in its approach c. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume d. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

d. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)? Select one: a. Sleeping b. Running for 5 miles c. Doing 20 minutes of resistance training d. Cleaning the house

d. Cleaning the house

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome? Select one: a. Lack of time b. Ambivalence c. Lack of social support d. Convenience

d. Convenience

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core stability b. Core endurance c. Core power d. Core strength

d. Core strength

Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Diabetes b. Cancer c. Dementia d. Coronary artery disease

d. Coronary artery disease

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Attitudes b. Behavior change techniques c. Self-efficacy d. Determinants

d. Determinants

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Bracing b. Back squat c. Medicine ball throw d. Drawing-in maneuver

d. Drawing-in maneuver

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise? Select one: a. Companionship support b. Informational support c. Emotional support d. Instrumental support

d. Instrumental support

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Muscle spindles b. Interneurons c. Joint receptors d. Golgi tendon organs

d. Golgi tendon organs

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip adduction b. Hip flexion c. Hip internal rotation d. Hip extension

d. Hip extension

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Select one: a. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion b. Little motion c. No motion d. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

d. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Increased parasympathetic nervous activity b. Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate c. Decreased oxygen exchange capacity d. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

d. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement? Select one: a. Resistance training has not been shown to have any positive effect on sleep disturbances. b. In order for exercise to improve sleep, it must be coupled with medication. c. Getting 10 minutes a day of physical activity is all that is needed to improve insomnia. d. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

d. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Deconditioned individuals b. Elderly individuals c. Individuals recovering from an injury d. Individuals with performance goals

d. Individuals with performance goals

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training? Select one: a. Height b. Sports skills c. Body composition d. Injury history

d. Injury history

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure b. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure c. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure d. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

d. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Intercalated discs b. Right bundle branch c. Left bundle branch d. Internodal pathway

d. Internodal pathway

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Warm-up phase b. Conditioning phase c. Cool-down phase d. Interval phase

d. Interval phase

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Select one: a. Extrinsic motivation b. Amotivation c. Incentive motivation d. Intrinsic motivation

d. Intrinsic motivation

You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information? a. Is the nutrient available as a supplement, given the purported weight-loss benefits? b. Is the magazine article in a recent publication or is it outdated? c. Has the information been reported on the news and in other media? d. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

d. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate? Select one: a. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms. b. It is typically a stress-induced condition. c. It is an acute disease. d. It is not a curable disease.

d. It is not a curable disease.

Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following? Select one: a. A drive to be good at something b. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors c. Being motivated by a fear of failure d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others

d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential? Select one: a. College instructor b. Becoming an NASM Master Instructor c. College football conditioning coach d. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

d. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Neuromuscular specificity b. Posture specificity c. Metabolic specificity d. Mechanical specificity

d. Mechanical specificity

What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Myofibril b. Ventricle c. Atrium d. Mediastinum

d. Mediastinum

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg cable row b. Bench press c. Barbell squat d. Medicine ball soccer throw

d. Medicine ball soccer throw

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Select one: a. Lateral triceps brachii b. Lateral hamstrings c. Medial gastrocnemius d. Middle deltoid

d. Middle deltoid

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Muscle function c. Wolff's law d. Motor function

d. Motor function

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises? Select one: a. Phase 4 Maximal Strength b. Phase 3 Muscular Development c. Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance d. Phase 5 Power

d. Phase 5 Power

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change? Select one: a. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance b. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance c. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance d. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

d. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Select one: a. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells b. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities c. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2 d. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

d. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? Select one: a. Increased muscle strength and speed b. Increased mobility and balance c. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion d. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

d. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments? Select one: a. Kinesthetic awareness b. Biomechanics c. Kinesiology d. Proprioception

d. Proprioception

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following? Select one: a. Developing intrinsic motivation b. Winning a triathlon c. Reducing burnout d. Providing psychological benefits

d. Providing psychological benefits

Roberta is an NASM Certified Personal Trainer who is going to be working as an independent contractor at a popular health club. What is the most important step to take before starting her job? Select one: a. Buying new outfits so that other members will notice her while she's working out b. Designing cute T-shirts with her logo to give away to potential clients c. Purchasing social media followers to enhance her profile d. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

d. Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets

Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position? Select one: a. Olympic weightlifting b. Speed training c. Powerlifting d. Quickness training

d. Quickness training

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)? Select one: a. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise. b. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion. c. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting. d. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

d. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

What differentiates change of direction from agility? Select one: a. Deceleration b. Changing directions c. Acceleration d. Reaction to a signal

d. Reaction to a signal

What is plyometric training also known as? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Stability training c. Strength training d. Reactive training

d. Reactive training

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Muscle imbalance b. Length-tension relationship c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Reciprocal inhibition

d. Reciprocal inhibition

Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice? Select one: a. Referencing a social media post b. Referring to a colleague's practical knowledge c. Reading information presented in a blog article d. Referencing peer-reviewed research

d. Referencing peer-reviewed research

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Select one: a. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction b. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction c. Pull the elbows into extension d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Select one: a. Correct muscle imbalances b. Increase maximal strength c. Improve sports skills d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Select one: a. Elevation b. Protraction c. Upward rotation d. Retraction

d. Retraction

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Osteopenia d. Rheumatoid arthritis

d. Rheumatoid arthritis

Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Beef b. Milk c. Grilled chicken d. Salmon

d. Salmon

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool? Select one: a. TRX Rip Trainer b. Battle ropes c. Kettlebells d. Sandbags

d. Sandbags

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Bench press c. Overhead press d. Seated leg extension

d. Seated leg extension

What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer? Select one: a. Having a parent call to ask about the interview results b. Posting a note on social media saying how much fun it was to interview and how cool it would be to work for the company c. Texting the hiring manager to thank them for their time during the interview d. Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email

d. Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Floor crunch c. Medicine ball soccer throw d. Side plank

d. Side plank

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Digestive b. Vestibular c. Vision d. Somatosensory

d. Somatosensory

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice? Select one: a. Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management. b. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories. c. Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain. d. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

d. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Low-level balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Static balance

d. Static balance

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Loading phase b. Unloading phase c. Amortization phase d. Stretch-shortening cycle

d. Stretch-shortening cycle

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Series elastic component d. Stretch-shortening cycle

d. Stretch-shortening cycle

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Stretching of the antagonist muscle b. Shortening of the agonist muscle c. Transitioning of forces d. Stretching of the agonist muscle

d. Stretching of the agonist muscle

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? Select one: a. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. b. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities. c. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. d. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

d. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. Change talk b. A collecting summary c. An affirmation d. Sustain talk

d. Sustain talk

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Somatic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system

d. Sympathetic nervous system

Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Regulation of body temperature b. Padding of vital internal organs c. Insulation of internal organs d. Synthesis of hormones

d. Synthesis of hormones

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Upper trapezius c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

d. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. Rockport 1-mile walk test c. The talk test d. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

d. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of? Select one: a. The vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean during the shift b. The remote control for the TVs or sound system c. Rags and cleaning supplies d. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

d. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

What is stroke volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is continuous in nature. c. The exercise is rhythmic. d. The exercise is intense.

d. The exercise is intense.

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. d. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

d. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product? Select one: a. The percent reference intake b. The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio c. The ingredients list d. The nutrition facts panel

d. The nutrition facts panel

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture. b. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy. c. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity. d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

What is atherosclerosis? Select one: a. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream b. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. c. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable d. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

d. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases b. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading c. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

What is cardiac output? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia? Select one: a. Health Canada b. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. First class b. Fourth class c. Second class d. Third class

d. Third class

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? Select one: a. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body b. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron c. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons d. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

d. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Select one: a. Intensity b. Volume c. Recovery d. Training frequency

d. Training frequency

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Axial b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Transverse

d. Transverse

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Quadratus lumborum b. Diaphragm c. Pelvic floor musculature d. Transverse abdominis

d. Transverse abdominis

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? Select one: a. Flu b. Appendicitis c. Strep throat d. Type 2 diabetes

d. Type 2 diabetes

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Select one: a. Bilateral b. Proprioceptive c. Loaded d. Unilateral

d. Unilateral

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Select one: a. Capillaries b. Arteries c. Arterioles d. Veins

d. Veins

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training b. Strength machines c. Speed ladders d. ViPR

d. ViPR

Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what? Select one: a. Increased bone growth b. Mineral toxicity c. Rapid weight gain d. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

d. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Select one: a. Frequency b. Recovery c. Intensity d. Volume

d. Volume

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. Rockport walk test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test d. V̇O2max

d. V̇O2max