NASM CPT7 Exam
For individuals with osteoporosis, what is the recommended duration of physical activity?
20 to 60 minutes per day or 8- to 10-minute bouts
For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?
200 to 300 kcal
What BMI score is considered overweight?
25 to 29.9
An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length?
250%
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
4
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?
4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?
45 cm
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrates in the diet?
45 to 65% of total calories
What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
60-100 bpm
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
60-120 seconds
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
72%
How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health?
75 minutes
What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
Share positive statements about character strengths.
Affirmation
Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths?
Affirmations
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?
Agility
What does scope of practice represent?
All the things a professional can do within the legal boundaries of their job title
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?
All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity
Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Relating to two sides of the body.
Bilateral
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
The form of a vitamin that can exert its effect within the body.
Biologically active
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels
Any form of a vitamin that cannot exert its effect within the body.
Biologically inactive
What term describes the process of building a relationship based on communication and trust?
Building Rapport
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Cross-country runner
Which of the following would be the best recommended mode of exercise for individuals living with diabetes?
Cycling
The ability to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.
Core stability
What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women?
Coronary heart disease
What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Correct technique
The ability to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.
Dynamic balance
Shortness of breath or labored breathing.
Dyspnea
What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing?
Dyspnea
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?
Inferiorly
According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"?
Endurance
Mental pictures that increase drive and/or relieve stress.
Energy Imagery
What does the first law of thermodynamics state?
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
What does the term companionship support refer to?
Engaging in a behavior with another individual
Inner layer of fascia that directly surrounds an entire muscle.
Epimysium
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?
Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Erector Spinae
An amino acid that must be obtained through the diet, as the body is not able to make it.
Essential amino acids
What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?
Essential and nonessential amino acids
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom?
European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
How often does an NASM Certified Personal Trainer need to renew their certification?
Every 2 Years
How often are NASM Certified Personal Trainers required to complete a specific amount of continuing education to keep their certification active and valid?
Every 2 years
What term is used to describe the state in which the body's metabolism is elevated after exercise?
Excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
What is a common cause of chronic hypertension?
Excess weight
Lateral view.
Excessive forward lean of the torso Arms falling forward
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?
Exercise Leader
The calories expended through structured exercise or training.
Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)
Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy?
Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus
Isolated ketone bodies usually consumed in supplement form.
Exogenous ketones
What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Expiration becomes more forceful
When someone participates in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others.
Extrinsic Motivation
Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?
Firm surface
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?
First class
Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary?
Fitness Manager
Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience?
Fitness Manager
When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Flexibility
The normal extensibility of soft tissues that allows for full range of joint motion.
Flexibility
The normal extensibility of soft tissues that allows for full range of motion of a joint.
Flexibility
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
Flexibility
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Flexibility exercises
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?
Flexion and extension
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training?
Floor bridge
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States?
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Front medicine ball oblique throw
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Frontal plane
Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?
General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance
Progress training from stabilization through the power phase of training.
General sports performance
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?
Golgi tendon organs
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Growth and volume
What is nonverbal communication?
Information derived from bodily cues, not speaking
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management?
Hormones and medications
Self-esteem is defined by which of the following?
How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream?
Hyperglycemia
A joint having more range of motion than it should.
Hypermobility
Consistently elevated blood pressure.
Hypertension
What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure?
Hypertension
A solution with a higher solute load/concentration than body fluids.
Hypertonic
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream?
Hypoglycemia
A gland located in the brain that communicates with the pituitary gland.
Hypothalamus
Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland?
Hypothalamus
A solution with a lower solute load/concentration than body fluids.
Hypotonic
Which statement best demonstrates empathy?
I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.
A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal?
I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
Giving sound advice about how to achieve optimal fitness
Informational
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?
In a neutral position
Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?
LDL (low-density lipoprotein)
Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers?
Lack of Time
Which of the following is a top barrier to exercise, evident among adults of all ages?
Lack of Time
Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier?
Lack of social support
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Landing mechanics
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Lateral subsystems
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
Lead leg
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Increases intensity while decreasing volume
Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Increasing strength
How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client?
Increasing the velocity of each throw
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?
Less braking force
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Less force production
Which of the following amino acids are referred to as branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
Rigid rods (usually a long bone) where muscles attach.
Levers
What enzyme is responsible for most of the breakdown of ingested lipids into fatty acids?
Lipoprotein lipase
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local muscles
Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer?
Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?
Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension.
Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?
More efficiently
What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended questions?
Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers.
Moving in a biomechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes injury risk.
Optimal movement
A condition caused by degeneration of cartilage within the joints.
Osteoarthritis
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas?
Oxygen
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?
Palmitic acid
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
Parasympathetic Nervous System
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Pectoral group
A disease caused by niacin or tryptophan deficiency that can lead to a rash, digestive disorders, and mood or cognitive decline.
Pellagra
What reference value is used on labels in the United Kingdom and the European Union, but not in the United States?
Percent reference intake (% RI)
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?
Performance assessments
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Quickness
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e. reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Quickness
Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position?
Quickness training
What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?
RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function
The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move.
Range of motion
The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
Rate of force production
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
Rate of force production
Which of the following best describes the term power?
Rate of force production
Uses a point scale of 1 to 10 or 6 to 20.
Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Reaction to a signal
What is plyometric training also known as?
Reactive training
Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month's mesocycle?
Reassessment
Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship?
Reciprocal
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relaxed relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Reciprocal Inhibition
What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?
Reciprocal inhibition
What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?
Recovery
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body?
Red blood cells
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard.
Reflection
A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?
Reflective Listening
What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker?
Reflective listening
Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?
Remodeling
What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?
Remodeling
Which kettlebell exercise can be used effectively in Phase 1 of the OPT model to improve stability and back strength?
Renegade row
The speed at which each repetition is performed.
Repetition tempo
Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss?
Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Resistance Training
Which system consists of the airways and lungs?
Respiratory
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
Resting Metabolic Rate
What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?
Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
When performing the single-leg hip rotation exercise, what will help to decrease stress to the spine and enhance control of the core?
Rotate through the hip of the balance leg rather than the spine
The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?
Rotation
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
SAID Prinicple
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia
Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR/static stretching
Composed of five vertebrae that fuse together as the body develops.
Sacrum
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagittal
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
What term refers to the interaction between the body's processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body's motor response to that information?
Sensorimotor function
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Skill development
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine
What is the goal of dynamic stretching?
To prepare the body for more intense activity
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
Sport and Exercise psychology
Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration?
Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water.
What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?
Sprains and plantar fasciitis
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?
Squat jump with stabilization
Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?
Squat strength assessment
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Squatting
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and extend the spine
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize vertebral segments
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension?
Standing cable hip extension
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
Standing cobra
Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pulleys to assess a pushing movement?
Standing push assessment
The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position.
Static balance
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?
Static balance
Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?
Static postural and overhead squat assessments
The positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is motionless.
Static posture
Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?
Static posture assessment
Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?
Static posture assessment
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
Static stretching
What is another term for vague goals?
Subjective goals
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Subscapularis
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
Suggest she increased meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?
Superior
What term is used to describe two exercises performed back-to-back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest?
Superset
Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
actin and myosin
What is the primary energy-producing molecule in the human body?
adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
What are the building blocks of body proteins?
amino acids
What is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion?
anthropometry
What is the processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
atherosclerosis
Acting in accordance with how one wants to behave.
autonomy
Allows movement in all three directions.
ball-and-socket joint
Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?
Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site
When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?
The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?
The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
A disease caused by thiamine deficiency that can result in heart and nerve inflammation or degeneration, peripheral neuropathy, and impaired motor function.
beriberi
Relating to two sides of the body.
bilateral
What is the study of the ways in which food is turned into energy?
bioenergetics
4 to 7 g/kg of body weight.
carbohydrate
Food is composed of which three compounds?
carbohydrates, fats, proteins
The approximate midpoint of the body.
center of gravity
Composed of three to five small, fused bones.
coccyx
What term is used to describe a protein source that provides all essential amino acids?
complete protein
Describing a muscle action resulting in the shortening of a muscle.
concentric
On the opposite side of the body.
contralateral
The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration.
core endurance
The ability to control the motion of the spine.
core strength
Flexion occurring at the ankle.
dorsiflexion
A movement in which the heel bone moves laterally.
eversion
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?
every month
The ability to be elongated or stretched.
extensibility
The largest bundles of fibers within a muscle.
fascicle
What is the definition of kinesiophobia?
fear of movement
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin?
folate
What equation represents power?
force x velocity
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
frank starling law of the heart
What describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress?
general adaptation syndrome
Has the simplest movement of all joints.
gliding joint
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
gluteus maximus and medius
What is the name of the stored form of glucose?
glycogen
What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans?
glycogen
Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?
health supplements
kettlebell swings
hip hinge
When range of motion at a joint is limited.
hypomobility
Below an identified reference point.
inferior
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
The inability of the cells to respond to insulin.
insulin resistance
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
interval phase
Knees collapse inward.
knee valgus
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
low-impact activity
The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
macronutrient metabolism
Relatively closer to the midline of the body.
medial
What area of the chest contains the heart?
mediastinum
Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition.
minerals
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?
overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
Extension occurring at the ankle.
plantar flexion
On or toward the back of the body.
posterior
What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?
precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
Push press
pressing
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight.
protein
Rows
pulling
Dumbbell chest press.
pushing
One complete movement of an exercise.
repetition
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
right atrium
Found only in the metacarpal joint in the thumb.
saddle joint
What is age-related loss of muscle tissue?
sarcopenia
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
self-monitering
A group of consecutive repetitions.
set
Which exercise is performed in the sagittal plane and provides the greatest challenge to the muscles of the posterior chain (e.g., hamstrings, gluteals, and erector spinae)?
single-leg Romanian deadlift
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement?
single-leg squat
What are the three types of muscles in the body?
skeletal, cardiac, smooth
What are the two categories of fiber?
soluble and insoluble
step-ups
squatting
Postural alignment and control.
stabilization
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?
static posture
A group of fats with a ringlike structure.
sterols
What is stroke volume?
the amount of blood ejected by the heart in any one contraction
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
thoracis and sacal
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
transverse abdominis
Relating to one side of the body.
unilateral
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
upper trapezius
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Common and essential movements performed in daily life.
Fundamental movement patterns
One of the most important concepts in motor control is that muscles are recruited by the nervous system in groups. What are these groups called?
Muscle syringes
Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase?
Muscular endurance
What does the push-up test measure?
Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement
The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers.
Muscular hypertrophy
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscular hypertrophy
Represented by the equation Force x Velocity or Work ÷ Time.
Muscular power
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.
Muscular strength
Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body systems?
Muscular, nervous, and skeletal
What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition?
Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own
Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
Plantar fascitis
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Reciprocal inhibition
When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.
Reciprocal inhibition
What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systematic and gradual approach?
Progressive overload
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
Ratings of perceived exertion
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Reciprocal inhibition
Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?
Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body?
Regional interdependence
How are dietary supplements defined?
Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
The process in which the body seeks the path of least resistance during functional movements.
Relative flexibility
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Reliability
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
Resistance training
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults?
Resistance training
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?
Resistance training
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations?
Self-efficacy
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-eficacy
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-eficacy
Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client's adherence to an exercise plan?
Self-eficacy
One's belief that they can complete a task, goal, or performance.
Self-eficacy
A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?
Self-monitoring
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Self-myofascial techniques
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Self-myofascial techniques
What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances?
Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?
Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments
Internal dialogue in which the individual interprets feelings and perceptions.
Self-talk
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
Semi-dynamic balance
What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer?
Sending a handwritten thank you letter or an email.
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Serratus Anterior
When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using?
Set specific tasks
Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes?
Stabilization-focused exercises
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?
Stages 1 and 2
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
The storage form of carbohydrates in plants.
Starch
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Static Balance
Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model?
Strength Endurance
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Strength Endurance Training
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?
The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
The exercise is intense
Which law of thermodynamics states that energy in a system cannot be created or destroyed but can only be converted from one form to another?
The first law of thermodynamics
A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits
Which portion of a client's exercise program should be designed first?
The flexibility portion
Performing four or more exercises in succession with as little rest as possible between sets.
The giant set system
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?
The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?
The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
The group feels distinct from other people.
What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?
The individual is tired from the test
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?
The ingredients list
What does the term midpoint refer to?
The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2
If a client cannot touch their foot when performing the single-leg squat touchdown, where should the personal trainer instruct them to reach first?
The knee
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus?
The knees collapsing inward
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
What is the focus of the second level of training in the OPT model?
The main adaptation of strength
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?
The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product?
The nutrition facts panel
What is the primary purpose of a professional certification?
To ensure individuals can perform the tasks required by a specific job category.
What is the primary role of the respiratory system?
To ensure proper cellular function
What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
To ensure safety
Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?
To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
Training Frequency
An individual's level of effort compared with their maximal effort.
Training intensity
What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage?
Training intensity
What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed?
Training plans
What is calculated by totaling the number of repetitions performed in a set during a training session, then multiplying it by the resistance used?
Training volume
Wrap up a session or announce a shift in focus.
Transitional summaries
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Transverse
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Transverse
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Transverse Abdominis
The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?
Transverse abdominis
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Transverse abdominis
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Transverse plane box jump-down
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps Brachii
The chemical substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.
Triglycerides
What term is used to describe ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg while sprinting?
Triple extensions
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
Troponin
TRUE OR FALSE? As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills involving dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? Components of a speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) program can significantly improve the physical health profile of apparently healthy sedentary adults and those with medical or health limitations.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? On a physiological level, exercise exerts an effect similar to that of insulin.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? Pregnant clients who were engaged in an exercise program before pregnancy may continue with moderate levels of exercise, with appropriate modifications, until the third trimester.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? Stability balls are best used with clients who demonstrate a need for increased overload of stability.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the rib cage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? The mechanical effect of direct roller compression is the relaxation of the local myofascial by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restriction and adhesions.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? Using a rope when performing cable pushdowns may help decrease the risk of elbow pain.
True
TRUE OR FALSE? With regard to resistance training for youth, progression should be based on postural control and not the amount of weight that can be used.
True
In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5?
Underweight
If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle?
Undulating
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Undulating
Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?
Undulating periodization
Anti-rotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.
Unilateral
Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?
Unilateral
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Vertical jump
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
Vestibular
Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Vestibular system
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?
Vestibular system
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
ViPR
What popular piece of exercise equipment is a cylindrical tube constructed of hardened rubber, designed to be dragged, tossed, lifted, pulled, pressed, and carried?
ViPR
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
The process of nutrients being taken into the body's cells.
Absorption
Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building?
Absorption
A sudden lack of blood supply to the brain.
Stroke
What are the two categories of bone markings?
Depressions and processes
Which of the following is a ketone body?
Acetoacetic acid
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?
Autonomic Nervous System
The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?
Behavioral change
Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?
Bench press
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
Bench press and stability ball push-ups
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Contemplation
When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in?
Contemplation
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Continuous talking becomes challenging
What are myofibrils?
Contractile components of a muscle cell
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Acetyl CoA
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?
Action
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Activation
What is the second section of the OPT programming template?
Activation
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue
A gland located just above the kidneys, responsible for secreting catecholamines and cortisol.
Adrenal gland
6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability.
Advanced
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?
No more than 10% of body weight
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Nociceptor
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
Non synovial
Within the fitness industry, what does the term prospect refer to?
An individual who has been identified as a potential client
The wasting away or decrease in size of body tissue.
Atrophy
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic Inhibition
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation that provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles located within the same muscle.
Autogenic inhibition
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Nonaxial
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise.
Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body?
Contralateral
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Coping responses
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Platelets
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Plow pose
Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process?
Desired exercise intensity
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0-60 seconds
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
0-90 seconds
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
0.1
At what rate does NASM award continuing education units?
0.1 per contact hour
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is composed of water?
0.6
What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
0.85
7 calories.
1 gram of alcohol
9 calories.
1 gram of lipid
4 calories.
1 gram of protein
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 or 2 sessions per week
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
Develop an appropriate aerobic base
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
1-3 times per week
Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
2
How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
What is the shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations?
10%
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?
10% per week
Regarding human nutrition, how many of the 20 relevant amino acids are considered nonessential amino acids?
11
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
12 inches
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?
120/80 mm Hg
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
1200 kcal
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
135/80 mm Hg
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
140 beats per minute
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?
15 breaths per minute
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 to 60 seconds
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?
15-60 seconds
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
15-60 seconds
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
150 minutes per week
What BMI score is considered within normal limits?
18.5 to 24.9
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
A decrease in metabolic rate
What is acidosis in muscle?
A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?
A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.
What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success?
A SWOT Analysis
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?
A barrier to exercise
What is forecasting?
A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal.
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed in SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
What is an approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
A dropset
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
What statement best describes a premium health club?
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What statement best describes a low-cost health club?
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
Which of the following is required for fat loss?
A net deficit in caloric intake
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?
A sprain
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?
A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day
ow can health best be defined?
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
What is the primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?
A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts
What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?
A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight. What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion?
Active stretching
The most successful Certified Personal Trainers are those who can do which of the following?
Adapt to each client's communication preferences and coaching needs
What term is used to describe metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure as a result of changes in energy intake?
Adaptive thermogenesis
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Adding a stabilization pause between reps
Movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body.
Adduction
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Adductor Complex
What are the components of ATP?
Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
The level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action.
Adherence
What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action?
Adherence
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work?
ATP
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
ATP and water
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Abdominals
Movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body.
Abduction
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
About 3,500
What is the optimal ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids in the diet?
About 4:1
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
About 5-15%
What are cognitive strategies intended to do?
Alter the way someone thinks about an activity
When a muscle's resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce.
Altered length-tension relationship
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered movement patterns
Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
When an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gasses in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Alveolar sacs
What is the defining feature of the contemplation phase?
Ambivalence
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?
Ambivalence
Organic building blocks of proteins containing both a carboxyl and an amino group.
Amino acids
A term often used to refer to the condition of insufficient iron in the body that can result in fatigue and shortness of breath.
Anemia
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle plantar flexion
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of injury by 46%?
Ankle sprains
Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Anterior and posterior tibialis
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
Anterior cruciate ligament injury
An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.
Anterior pelvic tilt
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Anterior pelvic tilt
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?
Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids?
Anti-inflammatory properties
What term describes core exercises performed in a manner in which the exerciser resists forces that cause torso rotation?
Anti-rotational exercises
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?
Autogenic inhibition
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Any medical precautions or contraindications
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
Mental pictures of visible physical or health-related outcomes.
Appearance Imagery
What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
Appearance Imagery
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Appendicular
What is the correct foot placement when performing kettlebell swinging exercises?
Approximately shoulder-width apart
What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon?
Archimedes' principle
Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?
Archimedes' principle
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?
Arteriosclerosis
A condition marked by chronic inflammation of the joints.
Arthritis
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?
Arthrokinematic
Kettlebells were first used in which setting?
As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
As exhaled carbon dioxide
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
As far as can be controlled without compensating
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
As the contraction velocity increases the ability to develop force also increases.
What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client?
Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
At least 3 times a week
When performing the modified box drill, where should the client begin?
At middle cone
Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement?
At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)
What causes coronary heart disease?
Atherosclerosis
SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?
Athletic injuries
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Bench press strength assessment
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Beta-oxidation
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
B vitamins
NASM recommends the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up be performed at a low-to-moderate intensity and last for how long?
Between 5 and 10 minutes
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric training
What term is used to describe the amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?
Basal metabolic rate
The area beneath a person consists of every point of contact made between the body and the support surface.
Base of support
Carbohydrates composed of long chains of glucose units.
Polysaccharides
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline Value
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability.
Beginner
What is the most widely used assessment tool to identify individuals who are underweight, overweight, and obese?
BMI
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercises is least likely to be beneficial?
BOSU Squat
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
BOSU ball
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extensions
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
Back squat
When performing the T-Drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill?
Backpedal
In sprinting, it refers to the alignment of the rear leg and pelvis.
Backside mechanics
Which of the following exercises consists of these three parts: a Y, T, then A position (or scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra)?
Ball combo I
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Ball squat, curl to press
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions?
Ball-and-Socket
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?
Barbell bench press
Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter?
Barbell chest press
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?
Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions?
Collagen synthesis and immunity
Continue the client's thoughts and add momentum to the conversation.
Collecting summaries
For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?
College aged athletes
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Drawing-in-maneuver
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
Cable machines
Which of the following is a major mineral?
Calcium
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
Calf raise
Which of the following exercises helps strengthen the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar flexor muscles?
Calf raise
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer and bleeding disorders
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?
Carbohydrates
Which of the following is the primary energy source during vigorous exercise?
Carbohydrates
During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product?
Carbon dioxide
Forms a flexible framework and provides support and motion for the head.
Cervical Spine
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Change of direction
Talk that reflects movement toward behavior change.
Change talk
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities?
Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power
Where was the first multivitamin product developed?
China
Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?
Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
A condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucus production.
Chronic obstructive lung disease
What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?
Chronic obstructive lung disease
A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
Circuit training
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?
Cleaning the house
Finding physically active options for social gatherings
Companionship
Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement?
Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Complex training
What type of resistance training alternates heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement?
Complex training
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression to the local myofascial "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions
Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine from a posterior view?
Concave lumbar curve
Elastic energy released; enhanced muscle force production.
Concentric
Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action?
Concentric
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Concentric
Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
Concentric action
Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations?
Conducting online coaching and personal training
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like?
Consitency
Connective tissue that wraps around individual muscle fibers within a fascicle.
Endomysium
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?
Dairy and shellfish
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
Dairy foods
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis' Law
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Death jumps
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?
Deconditioning
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?
Decreased blood flow
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
Decreased rest periods
From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?
Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
The muscles of the lower leg, hamstrings, and low back region make up which of the following global muscular subsystems?
Deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS)
Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?
Delayed-onset muscle soreness
What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity?
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Depressed and slightly retracted
What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made?
Diabetes
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?
Diaphragm
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats.
Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)
Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?
Diet Supplementation
The process of getting oxygen from the environment to the body tissues.
Diffusion
A multistep process that describes the passage of food through the body.
Digestion
What term refers to the complex group of anatomical structures that function to break down, process, and absorb the food we eat?
Digestive system
Two monosaccharides joined together to form a simple sugar.
Disaccharides
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?
Elevated
Encouraging someone to exercise
Emotional
How are buying decisions primarily driven?
Emotionally
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Handstand Push-up
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be an example of a strength?
Having the NASM-CPT credential
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Health and well-being
Which screening tool is used to evaluate the benefits and risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?
Health risk assessment (HRA)
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Health risk management
Into what two categories are dietary supplements typically classified?
Health supplements and performance supplements
What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Heart disease
Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?
Heart disease and diabetes
A condition in which the heart can't pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.
Heart failure
The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?
Heart health
Target heart rate = [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest.
Heart rate reserve (HRR)
What two factors are used to calculate body mass index (BMI)?
Height and Weight
A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has canceled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional?
Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
Allows movement predominantly in one direction (uniaxial).
Hinge joint
You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy?
Inadequate carbohydrate intake
What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?
Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?
Incline plank
Which of the following is not the purpose of an effective cool-down?
Increase breathing rate
Once children become accustomed to completing four to five simple SAQ exercises once or twice per week, what is an appropriate progression for a Certified Personal Trainer to implement over the next few months?
Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
Increased Ventricular filling
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?
Increased heart rate
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Increased lipolysis
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased lordosis
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users?
Increased multiplanar movement
What is a physical benefit of resistance training?
Increased muscular hypertrophy
Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?
Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Injury history
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
Injury resistance
Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Instability training using a stability ball
Paying for someone's gym membership
Instrumental
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Instrumental Support
The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?
Insulin
With type 1 diabetes, what hormone does the pancreas fall short in making?
Insulin
Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes?
Insulin Resistance
You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information?
Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
Isokinetic
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
Isometric
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Isometric
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
A solution with a solute load/concentration similar to that of body fluids.
Isotonic
What are the three overarching types of muscle actions?
Isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?
It is not a curable diesease
Why is third-party verification important?
It provides unbiased testing for a product.
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
What does the phrase "training under the table" refer to?
Joining a gym to offer personal training directly to other members
The site where two bones meet and movement occurs due to muscle contraction.
Joint
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
Metabolic acidosis induced by very high levels of ketone bodies.
Ketoacidosis
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Long
The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating the concave portion of the spine.
Lordotic/Lordosis
Having poor body image is most likely to be associated with which of the following?
Low self-esteem
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?
Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Lower Crossed Syndrome
Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?
Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT)
Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lumbar lordosis.
Lower crossed syndrome
Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media post for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?
Mastering basic movement patterns
The process whereby the oral muscles and teeth break down food.
Mastication
The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following?
Motivation
The intensity and direction of someone's effort to participate in an activity or engage in a behavior.
Motivation
Which of the following is a primary reason that people purchase fitness tracking devices?
Motivation
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Motivation
A client-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence.
Motivational Interviewing
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Motivational Interviewing
Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system?
Muscular
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?
Muscular Development
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Muscular Development Training
What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into?
Muscular development
The ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.
Muscular endurance
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?
NEAT can be protective against obesity
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?
Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines?
Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise
A cellular structure that contains the majority of the cell's genetic material.
Nucleus
What is the official term for a statement that maintains that a food has a specific nutritional property or provides a specific benefit?
Nutritional claim
At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to this information, how would Robert be classified?
Obese
What is the fastest growing health problem in America and in most other industrialized countries?
Obesity
Which common cause of death is the most preventable?
Obesity
Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs?
Offering online coaching programs
It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling.
Older individuals
Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation?
Omega-3 fatty acids
How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?
One or two pages
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous Injury
Connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fascicle.
Perimysium
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Peripheral heart action system
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
Peripheral nervous system
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Peripheral vasodilation
The muscle action of the GI system that pushes food through the body.
Peristalsis
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
When utilizing devices such as a stability ball, BOSU ball, or the Terra-Core, the user is forced to actively engage their core musculature due to their body weight displacing air inside the bladder of the device, causing which of the following? Perturbation
Perturbation
Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips.
Pes planus distortion syndrome
What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle?
Post-activation potentiation
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Posterior
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
Posterior chain
An excessive rotation of the pelvis that results in lesser lumbar lordosis.
Posterior pelvic tilt
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Posterior pelvic tilt
In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?
Postmenopausal women
Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?
Postural alignment
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural distortions
Rate of force production.
Power
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Power
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power training
A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in?
Precontemplation
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Precontemplation
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?
Preparation
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Preparation
How often should elastic resistance bands be checked?
Prior to every use
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Pro shuttle
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Pro shuttle
Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach?
Processes
The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?
Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?
Progressive Overload
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Proprioception
Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one?
Provide an increased range of motion
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?
Provide them with education and knowledge
Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career?
Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Providing information on the health benefits
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
Providing psychological benefits
Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?
Psychologist and psychiatrist
Roberta is an NASM Certified Personal Trainer who is going to be working as an independent contractor at a popular health club. What is the most important step to take before starting her job?
Purchasing liability insurance to protect her personal assets
Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise?
Push-ups
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Pushing
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Pushing test
Increasing or decreasing weight with each set.
Pyramid system
Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool?
Sandbags
During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response?
Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy daycare, or she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks multitasking helps prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.
A type of fat which has no double bonds in its chemical structure.
Saturated fats
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together?
Scapular retraction
A disease caused by vitamin C deficiency that can lead to anemia, joint weakness, swelling, and tooth loss.
Scurvy
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?
Seated leg extension
What trap do new exercisers often fall into?
Setting goals that are unrealistic
Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?
Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Short-term contractions
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Shoulder Impingement
For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?
Shoulder elevation
Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press?
Shoulder shrug
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?
Shoulder/military press
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side plank
Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training?
Single-leg lift and chop
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus maximus and shoulder retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids?
Single-leg squat to row
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
Sinoatrial node
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?
Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Slow to fatigue
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Small Intestine
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Small circuits
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small jumps
If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct?
Social Influence
Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?
Social physique anxiety
Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation?
Socioeconomic Health
The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?
Socioeconomic status
Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?
Sodium and potassium
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Somatosensation
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
Somatosensory system
You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice?
Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?
Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
When initially attempting a multiplanar box jump-down with stabilization exercise, the client should be instructed to do which of the following?
Step off and drop from the prescribed height
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Step ups
Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged?
Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
Muscular endurance and prime mover strength.
Strength
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Strength
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Strength Endurance
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Stretch reflex
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Stretch-shortening Cycle
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Stretch-shortening cycle
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Stretching of the agonist muscle
The distance covered with each stride during the gait cycle.
Stride length
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
Stride length
The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).
Stride rate
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Sustain talk
Talk that represents and predicts movement away from behavior change.
Sustain talks
Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion?
Synergist
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic dominance
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)?
Synergistic dominance
Which joints are most associated with human movement?
Synovial
What are the most common joints in the human body?
Synovial joints
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein?
Synthesis of hormones
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association?
Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting.
Systolic blood pressure (SBP)
Informational support would be provided by which example?
Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day
What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?
Technique Imagery
What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Tensor fascia latae
Which muscle(s) may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team?
The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of?
The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member.
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
The ATP-PC system
Which of the following would be a credible source of nutrition information?
The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics
What does the term force refer to?
The ability of one entity to act on another entity, causing acceleration or deceleration
Empathy is best described as:
The ability to identify with how another person feels
What is the most accurate description of motor control?
The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
Balance is best described as which of the following?
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
Core stability is best described as:
The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
What is end-diastolic volume?
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete?
The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional
Which of the following is one of the three integrated systems in the human movement system?
The nervous system
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?
The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements
What are the two components of the central nervous system?
The brain and spinal cord
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
The built environment
What does the term decisional balance refer to?
The client's weighing of the pros and cons of changing a behavior
For most consumers, which of the following are the two most informative features of a food label?
The nutrition facts label and the ingredients list
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist
Generally speaking, what does psychology influence regarding fitness and wellness on any given day?
The decision to be physically active or not
Which of the following describes attitude?
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue
Performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set.
The drop set
What is the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction?
The end-sylostic volume
Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis?
The essential amino acids
A variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercises throughout the set.
The peripheral heart action system
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person has suffered an ACL sprain
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.
What is the right side of the heart referred to as?
The pulmonic side
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
The pyruvate will be converted to lactate
How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process?
The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.
What concept describes how the function of one segment of the body can impact other areas?
The regional interdependence model
Which of the following is the most likely benefit of becoming a Certified Personal Trainer?
The relatively low cost of starting a business
Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?
This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine
Composed of 12 vertebrae located in the upper and middle back.
Thoracic spine
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Thoracic spine
The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups?
Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Thumbs pointing up
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Thyroid function
An endocrine gland, located in the anterior neck, secretes many hormones.
Thyroid gland
The duration an individual is engaged in a given activity.
Time
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Tissue overload
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?
To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Torque
Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what?
Toxicity
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Trace mineral
Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?
Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client?
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
The mode of physical activity in which an individual is engaged.
Type
Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber?
Type 1
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type 1
What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin?
Type 1
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
Type 1
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Which of the following is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone?
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
Type 2
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Type I fibers are "slow twitch"
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?
Unique Selling Proposition (USP)
If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?
Unrealistic Goals
If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?
Unrealistic goals
A type of fat that has at least one "double bond" in its chemical structure.
Unsaturated fats
Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders?
Upper crossed syndrome
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Upper trapezius
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
VO2 Max
Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?
VO2max
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
What term describes the act of holding in breath during exercise while contracting the abdominals?
Valsalva maneuver
Which of the following is a process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability?
Valsalva maneuver
What is the process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability?
Valsalva maneuver?
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Veins
What term is used to describe the accumulation of blood in the extremities?
Venous Pooling
What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function?
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Visual System
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?
Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Vitamin A
Which vitamin is the most transient?
Vitamin C
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?
Vitamin C and B complex vitamins
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin K
Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what?
Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
Organic compounds required in small quantities to support growth and metabolic processes.
Vitamins
What are the three micronutrients?
Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Volume
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and Progression
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
WHR of 0.88
Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk?
Waist
A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density?
Walking
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
Walking
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?
Water
Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?
Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise?
Weight Lifiting
Which of the following is a question that may promote change?
What might you want to change?
What is the definition of energy balance?
When daily food intake is matched to energy needs
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?
When goals are not adjusted
When is a muscle considered overactive?
When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?
When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height
Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source?
Whole eggs
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
Why don't you want to change?
What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?
With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble board
Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option?
Working for a premium health club company
Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process?
Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
YMCA 3-minute step test
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?
Yardwork
Can supplements contain food allergens?
Yes, and if they do contain allergens, they should be listed on the label.
Starting to sweat but can still carry on a conversation effortlessly.
Zone 1
Continual talking is becoming challenging.
Zone 2
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Zone 2
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 3
Profuse sweating.
Zone 3
Speaking is impossible or limited to grunts of single words.
Zone 4
The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls.
Blood pressure
In sprinting, it refers to the alignment of the lead leg and pelvis.
Frontside mechanics
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition.
Minerals
Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?
Mitochondria
A cellular structure that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell.
Mitochondrion
Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell?
Mitochondrion
The ability to move freely, often described as flexibility plus joint range of motion.
Mobility
The simplest form of carbohydrate; single sugar molecules.
Monosaccharides
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
Planning social gatherings for the group
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
Plant foods and dairy
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
The ability to quickly start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus while maintaining postural control.
Agility
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
Extrinsic Motivation
TRUE OR FALSE? A Phase 5 flexibility routine typically involves static and dynamic stretching.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? After vigorous exercise, how quickly a person's heart rate drops in the first minute after exercise is a predictor of poor heart health.
False
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
When did modern-day nutritional supplements originate?
1940
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?
2 seconds
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?
20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?
20 to 35% of total calories
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?
20 to 40 g
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate?
208 - (0.7 x age)
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?
25
TRUE OR FALSE? Closed-chain exercises involve movements in which the distal extremities are not in a fixed position, and the force applied by an individual is great enough to overcome the resistance.
False
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 or 4 sets
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase?
30
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
30
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?
30 minutes
What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held?
30 seconds
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
4-6 drills
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for the number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
4-8 drills per workout
At what level of intensity should individuals with cancer begin aerobic exercise?
40 to 50% of peak capacity
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
40 yard dash
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
40%
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
48 to 72 hours
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
5 times a week
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
5-10 minutes
What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?
50%
Of the 20 amino acids used by the human body, how many are called essential amino acids?
9
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
96 steps per minute
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
6 to 10 drills
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
6 to 8 drills
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
6,750 pounds
What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth?
60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
What duration of daily moderate to vigorous physical activity is currently recommended for children and adolescents?
60 minutes or more
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
75 minutes per week
Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception
How many B vitamins are there?
8
If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client's heart rate be?
80 bpm
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
9
What statement best describes a mid-market health club?
A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
What is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius? It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie?
A kilocalorie (kcal)
What do the health benefits of exercise depend on?
A long-term commitment
What is an open-ended question?
A nondirective question that can't be answered with a simple yes or no
What is homeostasis?
A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?
A sacromere
Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?
A very low-carbohydrate diet
Which of the following best defines cholesterol?
A waxy, fat-like substance found in bodily cells
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
What term is used to describe any unfavorable medical occurrence associated with the use of a medication, medical intervention, or dietary supplement?
Adverse Effect
What is defined as steady-state exercise?
Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity
The number of training sessions in a given timeframe.
Frequency
What are essential amino acids?
Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
Nerves meet synapse in the spinal cord; signals sent to stretched muscle.
Amortization
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
When someone is not motivated to engage in an activity or behavior.
Amotivation
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
An RPE of 5 to 6
What does the term perturbation mean?
An alteration of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force
Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?
An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators?
An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?
Between 5 and 10 minutes
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Biomechanical Ankle Platform System
From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?
Body composition
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Body fat loss
Cycle the client through the first three phases of the OPT model only.
Body fat reduction
Which of the following is true about body image?
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
Which of the following represents the measurement of a person's weight relative to their height?
Body to Mass Index (BMI)
The amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus, in a segment of bone.
Bone density
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?
Bone density
For what is vitamin D most important?
Bone health
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Brachial artery
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominis and external obliques?
Bracing
A respiratory rate that is too slow; fewer than 8 breaths per minute.
Bradypnea
A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?
Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?
Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails.
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Frontal and sagittal
What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
Cardiac
Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan?
Cardio training
The five components of fitness include which of the following?
Cardiorespiratory (aerobic) fitness
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax)
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Central to the left and anterior to the spine
Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?
Client's choice
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?
Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy
What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?
Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close grip bench press
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?
Closed-chain movements
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?
Cognitive fushion
Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?
Communicating solutions for the customers needs
When a client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own, she is likely in need of which type of support?
Companionship support
A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?
Convenience
The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?
Core stability
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core strength
Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?
Cortisol
What is the most common, and likely most effective form of creatine available as a dietary supplement?
Creatine Monohydrate
What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service?
Creating a brand identity
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?
Elastic band wood-chop
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment?
Designing the flexibility portion of the program
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?
Determinants
What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do?
Develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Environmental temperature
A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
A client asks you to provide her with a meal plan specifying how many calories and grams of protein, carbohydrates, and fat she should eat for weight loss. What is the best way to respond to her request to stay within scope of practice?
Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling
When performing a ball cobra exercise, which of the following instructions should the Certified Personal Trainer provide to the client?
Externally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing up toward the sky
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Dual-foot drills
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Duodenum of the small intestine
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Dynamic balance
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
Dynamic balance
The alignment of the body while in motion.
Dynamic posture
Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Dynamic posture assessment
Isometric
Dynamic stabilization
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
Dyspnea
For Certified Personal Trainers working for a commercial facility, what is frequently a benefit of completing continuing education?
Earning a higher pay rate
Describing a muscle action that occurs when a muscle develops tension while lengthening.
Eccentric
During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action?
Eccentric
Elastic energy stored; stimulation of muscle spindles; signal sent to spinal cord.
Eccentric
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Eccentric
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric action
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
Eccentric loading
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
Erector spinae
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Erector spinae
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Erector spinae
When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to?
Evidence Based Practice
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
Excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training?
Exercises with free weights
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Exercising because it is fun
A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals?
Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.
TRUE OR FALSE? Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).
False
TRUE OR FALSE? Performing shoulder external rotation with tubing helps strengthen the subscapularis.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? Plyometric exercises are only appropriate for athletes.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? Strength training machines should never be the strength modality of choice for those who lack stability or have other functional limitations.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? The Certified Personal Trainer is encouraged to spot at the client's elbows instead of the wrists when using dumbbells (e.g., in a dumbbell shoulder press) to provide better support for the lifter.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight plates under the feet when performing a barbell bench press exercise is never acceptable.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? To decrease stress on the elbows when performing a standing barbell curl, the client should use a very wide grip.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the "ball squat, curl to press" exercise, the client should lean back into the ball throughout the squatting motion, relying on it for support.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the dumbbell squat exercise, the client's feet should be positioned hip-width apart.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? When working with clients with hypertension, core exercises in the supine position are preferred over standing core exercises.
False
TRUE OR FALSE? While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.
False
TRUE or FALSE? The scope of practice for a fitness professional dictates that they can prescribe specific meal plans to clients.
False
Connective tissue that surrounds muscles and bones.
Fascia
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?
Fascia
20 to 35% of total calories.
Fat
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?
Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
Feed-foward
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
Anterior view.
Feet externally rotating (turning out) knee valgus
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?
Females
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?
Femur parallel to the ground
Who enforces guidelines for dietary supplements in the United States?
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Concentric
Force production
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Eccentric
Force reduction
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing?
Forming an implementation intention
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Forward head and protracted shoulders
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?
Gastrocnemius and soleus
Which term refers to the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress?
General adaptation syndrome
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle static stretching
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
Gluconeogenesis
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Glucose
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Gluteus maximus and medius
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Gluteus medius
What term describes the measure of how quickly a carbohydrate will raise an individual's glucose levels when consumed on its own, irrespective of the amount eaten?
Glycemic index
A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Glycogen stores were exhausted
What metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell is responsible for converting glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
Glycolysis
A sensory receptor sensitive to changes in muscular tension and the rate of that change.
Golgi tendon organ
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?
Ground reaction force
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Group Influence
Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance?
Integrated training
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improves the body?
Muscle hypertrophy
At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true?
Her diastolic pressure is 70
Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?
High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?
Hip abduction
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Hip extension
Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?
Hip extension
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension
Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?
Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal?
I want to run a 6-minute mile.
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Ice skaters
Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process?
Identifying a customers needs
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?
Iliopsoas
What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?
Implementation intention
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
Improved Sleep
Rather than simply designing workout programs to change appearance, the modern personal trainer has evolved to a professional responsible for producing which of the following?
Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients
Creatine is most effective for what purpose?
Improving strength and muscle size
When performing a squat jump with stabilization exercise, where should the client's knees be positioned upon landing?
In line with the toes
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Lower trapezius
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
Lower trapezius
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional's accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Individual Professional Experience
A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?
Informational Support
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Infraspinatus and teres minor
The level of demand placed on the body by a given activity.
Intensity
What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
Intensity and duration
Any form of exercise can be defined by what two factors?
Intensity and energy
6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability.
Intermediate
What term refers to the manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease?
Intermittent claudication
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?
Internodal pathway
When people engage in an activity or behavior because they feel a sense of satisfaction.
Intrinsic Motivation
Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit?
Intrinsic Motivation
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
It causes stress to the connective tissues
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
It increases flexibility and joint mobility
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Lower trapezius
When performing a single-leg dumbbell curl, which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the bicep's musculature?
Keeping the scapulae retracted
A state of carbohydrate depletion where the liver manufactures ketone bodies to meet energy demands
Ketosis
What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement?
Kinetic chain
Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?
Knee Valgus
Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury?
Knee valgus
Knees bow outward.
Knee varus
Which of the following is an anti-rotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?
Kneeling Pallof press
What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise?
Knees over second and third toes
The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.
Kyphotic/Kyphosis
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
Latissimus dorsi
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Latissimus dorsi
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?
Latissimus dorsi
Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?
Leader's Qualities
For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential?
Learning how to lead group training programs
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
Left Atrium
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?
Left Ventricle
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
Leg pain
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back
Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization?
Linear periodization
Which of the following is a traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time?
Linear periodization
Tie together information the client has presented.
Linking summaries
Composed of the largest segments in the spinal column.
Lumbar spine
A small gland located in the brain that secretes the hormone melatonin.
Pineal gland
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming?
Macro cycle
Annual plan.
Macrocycle
Which of the following is magnesium classified as?
Macromineral
Calcium is of principal importance for what?
Maintaining strong bones
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?
Maintenance
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?
Maintenence
Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer's needs
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Maximal strength training
What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?
Measurable
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.
Mechanical specificity
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Mechanical specificity
What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body?
Medial
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
Medicine ball
Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
Medicine ball catch and pass
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?
Medicine ball chest pass
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Medicine ball soccer throw
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?
Medicine ball wood-chop throw
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Medicine balls
Mental pictures of any type of internalized experiences.
Mental imagery
Monthly plan.
Mesocycle
What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
One unit is equal to 3.5 mL O2 · kg -1 · min-1.
Metabolic equivalent (MET)
Refers to the energy demands placed on the body.
Metabolic specificity
What term refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself?
Metabolism
Weekly plan.
Microcycle
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Middle Deltoid
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?
Middle and lower trapezius
Which term refers to a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates?
Motor Unit
How the human movement system responds to internal and external stimuli.
Motor behavior
How the central nervous system integrates internal and external sensory information with previous experiences to produce a motor response.
Motor control
How skilled motor behavior changes over time throughout the lifespan.
Motor development
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?
Motor function
How repeated practice and experience of motor control processes leads to a relatively permanent change in skilled motor behavior.
Motor learning
What term refers to the integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior?
Motor learning
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
With regard to the application of the OPT model for the goal of body fat reduction, what is the best way to increase the calories burned?
Move more through both structured exercise and daily physical activity
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement assessments
Abnormal movement patterns that can indicate possible muscle imbalances or mobility limitations.
Movement impairments
Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?
Movement patterns
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion?
Multiplanar lunge
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.
Muscle Imbalance
Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?
Muscle Imbalance
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?
Muscle Imbalances
A sensory receptor sensitive to changes in muscular length and the rate of that change.
Muscle Spindle
Progress training programs with higher volumes (more sets, reps, and intensity).
Muscle hypertrophy
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Nerves
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?
Neural Adaptations
The interconnection of neurons in the brain and spinal cord.
Neurocircuitry
The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all planes of motion.
Neuromuscular efficiency
What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?
Neuromuscular efficiency
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Neuromuscular function
Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.
Neuromuscular specificity
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Neuromuscular stabilization
A specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system.
Neuron
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Neuron
Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process causes the brain to reform neural pathways?
Neuroplasticity
The concept that the brain will continually change or grow, re-forming neural pathways.
Neuroplasticity
A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question?
Open-ended question
When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps, designed to establish which of the following?
Optimal landing mechanics
What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for?
Optimum Performance Training
A cellular structure that performs specific functions within a cell.
Organelle
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
Osteoarthritis
Special cells that form and lay down new bone tissue.
Osteoblasts
Special cells that break down and remove old bone tissue.
Osteoclasts
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
Osteokinematics
Lower than normal bone density.
Osteopenia
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Osteopenia
A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases the risk of bone fracture.
Osteoporosis
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Overhead squat
What is typically the first movement assessment used for most clients?
Overhead squat assessment
What term refers to excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery?
Overtraining
Which of the following can cause undue fatigue, increase the risk of injury, and potentially lead to burnout?
Overtraining
In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?
Overweight
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Oxidative phosphorylation
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
PAR-Q+
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?
Place a small board under the heels
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?
Planning
A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?
Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?
Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Pes planus distortion syndrome
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases?
Phase 1
Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?
Phase 1
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Phase 2
Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?
Phase 2
Muscle hypertrophy is the primary goal of which phase of training within the OPT model?
Phase 3
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Phase 3
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Phase 4
If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
Phase 5
During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?
Phase 5 Power
A type of fat composed of glycerol, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphate group.
Phospholipids
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?
Phosphorylation
What term is used to describe the number of total calories expended per day divided by the resting metabolic expenditure?
Physical Activity Level (PAL)
What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?
Poor activation of the local core
The individual is planning to begin exercising soon, has taken steps toward it, and may be sporadically exercising.
Preparation
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?
Preparation
Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?
Prescribing a supplement
What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?
Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
Preventative Care
What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?
Proper technique
Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?
Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?
Proprioception
What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Proprioception
When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function?
Proprioception
This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.
Proprioceptively enriched
What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?
Proprioceptively enriched environment
Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect?
Protein
What are the three macronutrients?
Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased?
Rate of progression
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
Pyramid system
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?
Quadriceps
Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat?
Quadriceps
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?
Quadriceps
Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?
Quality of movement
The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during dynamic activities.
Quickness
What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate?
Radial pulse
Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase?
Rate of force production
Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time?
Rate of force production
Javier has recently earned his NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and is starting to apply to health clubs for his first job as a personal trainer. Which job from his previous non-fitness industry work experience demonstrates qualities that would best be applicable to personal training?
Restaurant Server
The rate at which the body expends energy when fasted and at complete rest.
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?
Restore optimal length-tension relationships
What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs?
Restricitive lung disease
A condition characterized by fibrous lung tissue, which results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs.
Restrictive lung disease
What is necessary to market a candidate's skills to obtain an in-person interview?
Resume
When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement?
Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Retraction
A degenerative joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue.
Rheumatoid arthritis
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Right Ventricle
Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?
Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
Which of the following would be considered a process goal?
Run 3 times a week
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides?
Sagittal
Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
Salmon
Which of the following is one of the strongest determinants of physical activity in adults?
Self Eficacy
An internal conflict that occurs when an individual compares their actual self with their ideal self.
Self-discrepancy
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?
Situational Factors
Which of the following best describes proper hand position when performing a close grip bench press?
Slightly inside shoulder-width apart
What term refers to low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the upcoming sets of more intense exercise?
Specific warm-up
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
Speed
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?
Speed of force generation
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Spine
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?
Squat
Which fundamental movement pattern is used in activities of daily living, such as sitting down and standing up from a chair?
Squatting
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"?
Stability
What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system?
Stabilization Endurance Training
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Stabilization Endurance Training
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Stabilization, Strength, and Power
When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?
Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization-focused exercise
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
Stride rate
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride rate and stride length
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily
What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel?
Stroke
What term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?
Stroke Volume
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?
Stroke volume
A respiratory rate that is too fast; greater than 24 breaths per minute.
Tachypnea
What is one of the most important things about psychology and its relationship with fitness and wellness?
The role it plays in the behavioral change process
What is the imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides?
The sagittal plane
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?
The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
Which of the following refers to the series of steps in muscle contraction?
The sliding filament theory
Training different body parts on separate days.
The split-routine system
What are triglycerides?
The stored form of fat
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee
Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest.
The superset system
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?
The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
The talk test
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
The unused energy is dissipated as heat
Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?
The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client's heart rate response
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?
Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
The energy required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed.
Thermic effect of food (TEF)
What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body?
Thermoregulation
What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?
Thermoregulation
What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs?
They act as shock absorbers.
Which of the following is true of protein shakes?
They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.
Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances?
They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.
Why are acute variables an important part of exercise programming?
They specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?
Third class
What is the main goal of balance training?
To continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability
Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the Certified Personal Trainer?
To design safe and effective exercise programs to help clients reach health, wellness, and fitness goals
What is the goal of core training?
To develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power
What term is used to describe training that adds a weight or load to dynamic, full-body, multiplanar movements?
loaded movement training
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases.
With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?
tissue trauma and inflammation