NASM Final
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training? a. 25% per week b. 20% per week c. <15% per week d. 10% per week
10% per week
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest? a. 25 breaths per minute b. 19 breaths per minute c. 7 breaths per minute d. 15 breaths per minute
15 breaths per minute
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? a. 90 to 120 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 15 to 60 seconds d. 60 to 90 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations? a. 0.2 b. 0.1 c. 0.4 d. 0.3
0.1
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? a. 0.62 b. 0.92 c. 0.72 d. 0.22
0.72
What is the RDA for protein? a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight c. 1.2 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 g/kg of body weight
0.8 g/kg of body weight
What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches? a. 0.85 b. 1.18 c. 1.04 d. 0.97
0.85
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? a. 1 or 2 sessions per week b. 5 to 7 sessions per week c. 3 or 4 sessions per week d. 0 sessions per week
1 or 2 sessions per week
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? a. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises b. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions c. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions d. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? a. 60 to 90 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 15 to 60 seconds d. 90 to 120 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? a. 8 to 10 reps b. 6 to 8 reps c. 1 or 2 reps d. 3 to 5 reps
3 to 5 reps
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? a. 4-2-1-1 b. X-X-X-X c. 1-2-3-4 d. 2-0-2-0
4-2-1-1
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? a. 6 to 8 drills b. 4 to 5 drills c. 9 or 10 drills d. 2 to 4 drills
6 to 8 drills
How many B vitamins are there? a. 8 b. 12 c. 3 d. 21
8
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? a. ADP b. Fat c. ATP d. Glucose
ATP
What are the end products of the electron transport chain? a. ATP and water b. ATP and oxygen c. ADP and hydrogen ions d. ADP and water
ATP and water
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? a. Abdominals b. Adductor complex c. Lower trapezius d. Hip flexors
Abdominals
What is forecasting? a. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale b. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well c. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs d. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? a. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength b. An overweight client with adequate strength c. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength d. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? a. Use of heavy weights b. A faster tempo, similar to daily life c. Slow and controlled movements d. Stabilization of the LPHC
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
Circuit training is best described as what? a. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements b. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch c. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements d. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement
A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
What statement best describes a mid-market health club? a. A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
How can health best be defined? a. A combination of education, income, and occupation b. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium in relation to the surrounding environment and the regular tasks it is required to perform c. Genetics, access to healthcare, access to preventive medicine, socioeconomic status, natural disasters, and the built environment d. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? a. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
What is the primary function of the large intestine? a. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine b. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine c. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum d. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? a. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility. b. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage. c. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? a. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power c. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed d. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
What is sarcopenia? a. Age-related loss of muscle tissue b. Age-related loss in bone mineral density c. Lower than normal bone mineral density d. Chronic inflammation of the joints
Age-related loss of muscle tissue
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? a. Speed b. Agility c. Power d. Quickness
Agility
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth b. Stabilization, strength, and power c. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain d. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? a. Muscle mass atrophy b. Body fat loss c. Decreased volume and intensity d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
Body fat loss
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? a. Ability to stretch in small increments b. Ability to stretch only one muscle c. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods d. Altered movement patterns
Altered movement patterns
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Synergistic dominance c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Reciprocal inhibition
Altered reciprocal inhibition
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? a. Bronchioles b. Pulmonary arteries c. Trachea d. Alveolar sacs
Alveolar sacs
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? a. Appendicular b. Peripheral c. Lateral d. Axial
Appendicular
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? a. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg c. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg d. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? a. Concussions b. Medial collateral ligament injuries c. Ankle sprains d. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
Ankle sprains
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? a. Archimedes' principle b. All-or-nothing principle c. Davis's principle d. Principle of specificity
Archimedes' principle
What artery is used to measure blood pressure? a. Femoral artery b. Radial artery c. Carotid artery d. Brachial artery
Brachial artery
Kettlebells were first used in which setting? a. Eastern European gymnastic programs b. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators c. The Russian military d. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases. c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases. d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement? a. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing) b. At the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold (while standing) c. At the widest point of the waist (while seated) d. At the widest portion of the buttocks (while standing with feet together)
At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Isometric contraction
Autogenic inhibition
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? a. Balance beam b. Firm surface c. BOSU ball d. Foam pad
BOSU ball
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? a. Medicine ball overhead throw b. Dead bug c. Plank d. Back extension
Back extension
The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area? a. Social physique anxiety b. Behavioral change c. Depression d. Eating disorders
Behavioral change
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? a. Beta-oxidation b. Glycolysis c. Ketosis d. Acidosis
Beta-oxidation
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? a. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh b. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac d. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? a. Triceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Brachioradialis d. Biceps brachii
Brachioradialis
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? a. Central to the right and anterior to the spine b. Central to the right and posterior to the spine c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine d. Central to the left and posterior to the spine
Central to the left and anterior to the spine
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Thoracic and lumbar b. Cervical and sacral c. Cervical and thoracic d. Cervical and lumbar
Cervical and lumbar
What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top? a. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar c. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar d. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? a. Continuous talking becomes challenging b. Inability to speak at all c. Only a few words can be produced between breaths d. Normal conversation is maintained.
Continuous talking becomes challenging
A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome? a. Convenience b. Ambivalence c. Lack of social support d. Lack of time
Convenience
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? a. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities c. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going d. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens? a. Dairy and shellfish b. Gluten and corn c. Peas and peanuts d. Soy and aspartame
Dairy and shellfish
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? a. Amortization b. Stabilization c. Acceleration d. Deceleration
Deceleration
Which of the following is a component of agility training? a. Stride rate b. Deceleration c. Reaction d. Assessment of visual stimuli
Deceleration
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? a. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) b. Increased cardiac output c. Decreased blood flow d. Lower body temperature
Decreased blood flow
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? a. Ice skaters b. Single-leg hops c. Depth jumps d. Box jumps
Depth jumps
What is the superior boundary of the core? a. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles b. Pelvic floor and hip musculature c. Abdominal muscles d. Diaphragm
Diaphragm
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? a. The ileum of the large intestine b. Duodenum of the small intestine c. Duodenum of the large intestine d. The ileum of the small intestine
Duodenum of the small intestine
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Dynamic balance c. Stationary balance d. Static balance
Dynamic balance
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? a. Ankle stability b. Increased amortization c. Eccentric loading d. Concentric contractions
Eccentric loading
What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain? a. Melatonin b. Adrenaline c. Endorphins d. Androgens
Endorphins
According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? a. Proper movement b. Endurance c. Stability d. Mobility
Endurance
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation? a. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training b. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption c. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity d. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training
Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test? a. Environmental temperature b. Exercise modality c. Talk test d. Duration of each stage
Environmental temperature
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? a. Multifidus b. Quadratus lumborum c. Erector spinae d. Diaphragm
Erector spinae
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? a. Multifidus b. Transverse abdominis c. Erector spinae d. Pelvic floor muscles
Erector spinae
What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? a. Peptide bonds b. Carbon molecules c. Essential amino acids only d. Essential and nonessential amino acids
Essential and nonessential amino acids
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? a. Exercising because they feel guilty b. Exercising because a doctor tells them to c. Exercising because it is fun d. Exercising because they value the health benefits
Exercising because it is fun
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins? a. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health. b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body. c. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body. d. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? a. Feed-forward b. Antagonist function c. Feedback d. Synergist function
Feed-forward
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? a. Third class b. Second class c. Fourth class d. First class
First class
What equation represents power? a. Force x velocity b. Y = mx + b c. a2 + b2 = c2 d. Time ÷ work
Force x velocity
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? a. Lack of fatty acids b. Lack of pyruvate c. Depletion of phosphocreatine d. Free hydrogen ions
Free hydrogen ions
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? a. Sagittal and transverse b. Frontal and sagittal c. All planes of motion d. Transverse and frontal
Frontal and sagittal
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? a. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis b. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis c. Permanent scoliosis d. Bony scoliosis
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? a. Rectus abdominis b. Hip flexor complex c. Gluteus maximus d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
Gluteus maximus
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Lower trapezius c. Adductor complex d. Tensor fascia latae
Gluteus maximus and medius
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? a. Muscle spindles b. Joint receptors c. Interneurons d. Golgi tendon organs
Golgi tendon organs
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? a. Societal influence b. Group influence c. Peer pressure d. Health influence
Group influence
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? a. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating? a. Being a part of a social group b. Improved physical appearance c. Health and well-being d. Competition with others
Health and well-being
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? a. Hip flexors b. Hamstrings complex c. Gluteus medius d. Gluteus maximus
Hip flexors
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Erector spinae d. Iliopsoas
Iliopsoas
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine. a. Decreased kyphosis b. Increased lordosis c. Increased kyphosis d. Decreased lordosis
Increased lordosis
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? a. Increased ventricular filling b. Decreased ventricular filling c. Decreased venous return d. Venous pooling
Increased ventricular filling
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? a. Superiorly b. Laterally c. Inferiorly d. Medially
Inferiorly
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? a. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris b. Infraspinatus and teres minor c. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae d. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid
Infraspinatus and teres minor
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? a. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. b. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. d. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? a. Start establishing an emotional support system. b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. c. Establish short- and long-term goals. d. Create a plan for overcoming barriers.
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation b. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion c. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula d. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? a. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency c. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability d. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? a. Stabilize b. Gait c. Jump d. Land
Jump
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? a. Posterior deltoid b. Rhomboids c. Middle and lower trapezius d. Latissimus dorsi
Latissimus dorsi
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium
Left ventricle
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? a. Global muscles b. Back muscles only c. Local and global muscles d. Local muscles
Local muscles
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? a. Macrocycle b. Mesocycle c. Megacycle d. Microcycle
Macrocycle
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? a. Bench press b. Medicine ball soccer throw c. Barbell squat d. Single-leg cable row
Medicine ball soccer throw
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? a. Kettlebells b. BOSU balls c. Medicine balls d. Strength machines
Medicine balls
What is adaptive thermogenesis? a. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure b. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake d. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence? a. Motivational interviewing b. Reflective listening c. Collecting summaries d. Affirming
Motivational interviewing
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? a. Butt kick b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Power step-up d. Tuck jump
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint? a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization b. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization d. Single-leg hop forward
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? a. Sternum and clavicle b. Scapula and humerus c. Cranium and facial bones d. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Muscle atrophy c. Sarcopenia d. Neural adaptations
Neural adaptations
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? a. Vestibular function b. Neuromuscular function c. Sensory function d. Afferent nerve function
Neuromuscular function
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? a. Nonsynovial b. Synovial c. Condyloid d. Nonaxial
Nonaxial
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? a. Arthrokinematics b. Kinesiology c. Biomechanics d. Osteokinematics
Osteokinematics
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? a. Arthropathy b. Arthrokinematics c. Osteoporosis d. Osteokinematics
Osteokinematics
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? a. The ATP-PC system b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Beta-oxidation d. Glycolysis
Oxidative phosphorylation
A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements? a. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty. b. Participants are encouraged to push as hard as they can and may work harder in the presence of the group. c. When a group or situation is warm and inviting, it brings people together; when people feel welcome, they are likely to return. d. Participants have people they can compare themselves with. Being able to see what others can do and achieve can serve as further motivation.
Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? a. Blood pressure b. Thermoregulation c. Peripheral vasodilation d. Heart rate
Peripheral vasodilation
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments? a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward b. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome c. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome d. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? a. Phase 3 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 4
Phase 2
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? a. Phosphorylation b. ATP-PC c. Oxidation d. Transformation
Phosphorylation
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? a. SAQ training b. Power training c. Plyometric training d. Stabilization training
Plyometric training
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? a. Strength endurance b. Muscular development c. Stabilization endurance d. Power
Power
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? a. Flexibility b. Muscular strength c. Power d. Aerobic fitness
Power
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? a. Power Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Strength Endurance Training
Power Training
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? a. Rotator cuff muscles b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Deltoid
Serratus anterior
Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? a. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it. b. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate. c. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone. d. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate.
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach? a. Processes b. Sulcus c. Depressions d. Bone spurs
Processes
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? a. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion b. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle c. Increased muscle strength and speed d. Increased mobility and balance
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? a. Motivation b. Knowledge of performance c. Knowledge of results d. Proprioception
Proprioception
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? a. Pushing b. Hip hinge c. Pulling d. Squatting
Pushing
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary? a. Shark skill test b. Pushing test c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test d. Davies test
Pushing test
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? a. Gluteus medius b. Biceps brachii c. Quadriceps d. Adductor longus
Quadriceps
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? a. Agility b. Coordination c. Balance d. Quickness
Quickness
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? a. Release of stored energy during concentric phase b. Rapid amortization phase c. Absent stretch reflex d. Prolonged amortization phase
Rapid amortization phase
Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? a. Autonomous b. Unequal c. Reciprocal d. Independent
Reciprocal
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Muscle imbalance c. Length-tension relationship d. Reciprocal inhibition
Reciprocal inhibition
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Isometric contraction d. Stretch reflex
Reciprocal inhibition
Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? a. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions b. Voluntary contractions c. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training. d. Preplanned voluntary contractions
Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? a. Osteokinematics b. Kinesiology c. Biomechanics d. Regional interdependence
Regional interdependence
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness? a. Resistance training b. Jogging/running c. Sports competition d. Rowing
Resistance training
Javier has recently earned his NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and is starting to apply to health clubs for his first job as a personal trainer. Which job from his previous non-fitness industry work experience demonstrates qualities that would best be applicable to personal training? a. Restaurant server b. Nightclub security guard c. Warehouse worker d. Driver for a ride-sharing service
Restaurant server
Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)? a. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT) b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) c. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT) d. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF)
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? a. Cognitive fusion b. Imagery c. Reverse listing d. Stopping
Reverse listing
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? a. Left atrium b. Right atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
Right atrium
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? a. Right ventricle b. Left atrium c. Right atrium d. Left ventricle
Right atrium
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs? a. Right ventricle b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium
Right ventricle
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? a. Rectus abdominis b. Rotatores c. Latissimus dorsi d. Iliopsoas
Rotatores
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? a. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra d. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? a. Law of thermodynamics b. SAID principle c. Archimedes' principle d. Theory of general relativity
SAID principle
Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? a. Active stretching of the hamstrings b. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps c. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings d. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize? a. SMR/static stretching b. SMR/dynamic stretching c. SMR/active stretching d. Dynamic/active stretching
SMR/static stretching
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? a. Sagittal b. Axial c. Transverse d. Frontal
Sagittal
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? a. TRX Rip Trainer b. Sandbags c. Strength machines d. Battle ropes
Sandbags
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? a. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra d. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? a. Rotator cuff tear b. Frozen shoulder c. Shoulder impingement d. Dislocation of the shoulder
Shoulder impingement
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. b. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. c. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand.
Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels? a. Skill development b. Resistance c. Cool-down d. Warm-up
Skill development
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? a. Health psychology b. Sport and exercise psychology c. Social psychology d. Developmental psychology
Sport and exercise psychology
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? a. Box jump-down with stabilization b. Depth jumps c. Squat jump with stabilization d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Squat jump with stabilization
What is the primary action of the multifidus? a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure b. Stabilize and extend the spine c. Support the contents of the pelvis d. Regulate inspiration
Stabilize and extend the spine
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise? a. Stage 3 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 5 d. Stage 4
Stage 2
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow? a. Single-leg squat b. 40-yard dash c. Static posture d. Bench press strength
Static posture
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? a. Rhomboids b. Upper trapezius c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Diaphragm
Sternocleidomastoid
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? a. Amortization phase b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Loading phase d. Unloading phase
Stretch-shortening cycle
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? a. Stretching of the antagonist muscle b. Shortening of the agonist muscle c. Transitioning of forces d. Stretching of the agonist muscle
Stretching of the agonist muscle
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? a. Anterior tibialis b. Infraspinatus c. Scalenes d. Subscapularis
Subscapularis
Balance is best described as which of the following? a. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in motion c. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping d. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
What are the two components of the central nervous system? a. The nerves and sensory receptors b. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems c. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems d. The brain and spinal cord
The brain and spinal cord
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? a. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. b. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. c. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action. b. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect. c. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action. d. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.
The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? a. Groups rely only on the leader for support. b. The group feels distinct from other people. c. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. d. Groups function only when all members are present.
The group feels distinct from other people.
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. b. The stretch is too advanced for the average person. c. The stretch is too complicated for the new client. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? a. Thoracic and lumbar b. Thoracic and sacral c. Cervical and sacral d. Cervical and thoracic
Thoracic and sacral
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? a. Lumbar spine b. Frontal plane c. Sagittal plane d. Thoracic spine
Thoracic spine
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? a. Kidney function b. Heart function c. Liver function d. Thyroid function
Thyroid function
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? a. Functional movement b. Motor unit recruitment c. Force production d. Tissue overload
Tissue overload
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices? a. To set prices for supplements b. To ban illegal substances c. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used d. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? a. Torque b. Force velocity c. Force d. Arthrokinematics
Torque
Which of the following is iron considered to be? a. Trace mineral b. Macromineral c. Vitamin d. Performance supplement
Trace mineral
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? a. Axial b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Sagittal
Transverse
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? a. Sagittal b. Dorsal c. Transverse d. Frontal
Transverse
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? a. Frontal plane box jump-up b. Sagittal plane box jump-up c. Sagittal plane box jump-down d. Transverse plane box jump-down
Transverse plane box jump-down
Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? a. Localized periodization b. Undulating periodization c. Direct periodization d. Linear periodization
Undulating periodization
Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. a. Bilateral b. Unilateral c. Loaded d. Proprioceptive
Unilateral
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? a. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients. b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. d. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)? a. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine b. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine c. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine d. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? a. Visual system b. Somatosensory system c. Hearing system d. Vestibular system
Vestibular system
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? a. ViPR b. Dumbbells c. Strength machines d. Suspended bodyweight training
ViPR
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? a. Vestibular system b. Hearing system c. Somatosensory system d. Visual system
Visual system
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin B6
Vitamin A
Which vitamin is the most transient? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D
Vitamin C
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? a. Vitamin C, B complex, and K b. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins c. Vitamin C, D, and K d. Vitamin C, B complex, and D
Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
What are the three micronutrients? a. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids b. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids c. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
