National Board Review_Anatomic Sciences

Which muscle, upon contraction, protrudes the tongue? A. Genioglossus B. Hyloglossus C. Styloglossus

A.

Which of the following cells is/are DIRECTLY responsible for immunoglobulin production? A. Plasma B. Basophils C. Monocytes D. Neutrophils E. Eosinophils

A.

Which tooth numbers represent maxillary first premolars? A. #5 and #12 B. #4 and #13 C. #21 and #28 D. #24 and #25

A.

Match each cell type to the structure it forms. ____ 1. Ameloblasts ____ 2. Cementoblasts ____ 3. Odontoblasts ____ 4. Dental follicle A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Alveolar bone D. Enamel

1D, 2A, 3B, 4C

Match each germ layer listed to the structure it forms in the developing embryo. ____ 1. Endoderm ____ 2. Mesoderm ____ 3. Ectoderm A. Gastrointestional tract, epithalium, and associated glands B. Nervous system, epidermis, sensory epithelium of the eye, ear, and nose; tooth enamel; and oral epithelium C. Muscles, bone, cartilage, blood, dentin, pulp, cementum, and periodontal ligament

1A, 2C, 3B

For each numbered structure, select the most closely linked primary nodes that drain those structures from the list provided. 1. Sublingual salivary gland 2. Parotid salivary gland 3. Base of tongue 4. Paranasal sinus 5. Lower lip A. Deep parotid B. Submandibular C. Superior deep cervical D. Submental E. Retropharyngeal

1B, 2C, 3E, 4A, 5D

For each numbered muscle, select the most closely linked facial expression from the list provided. 1. Mentalis 2. Risorius 3. Corrugator supercilii 4. Levator anguli oris 5. Buccinator A. Frowning B. Raising chin and protruding lower lip C. Chewing D. Stretching lips E. Smiling

1B, 2D, 3A, 4E, 5C

For each division of the trigeminal nerve (V) listed, select its appropriate name from the list provided. ____ 1. Division 1 ____ 2. Division 2 ____ 3. Divison 3 A. Maxillary B. Mandibular C. Opthalmic

1C, 2A, 3B

For each of the developing branchial arches listed, select the most appropriate anatomic structure that it gives rise to. ____ 1. Mandibular arch (branchial I) ____ 2. Hyoid arch (branchial II) ____ 3. Branchial arch III ____ 4. Branchial arch IV A. Muscles of facial expression, cranial nerve VII B. Tongue, cranial nerve IX C. Muscles of throat, inferior hyoid cartilage, cranial nerve X D. Mandible, muscles of mastication, cranial nerve V

1D, 2A, 3B , 4C

For each numbered temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disk position, select the most closely linked description of the movement from the list provided. 1. Elevation 2. Lateral deviation 3. Retraction 4. Protrusion 5. Depression A. Shifting the mandible to one side by unilateral contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscle B. Opening the mouth by contraction of the inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscles and the suprahyoid muscles C. Moving the jaw forward by bilateral contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscles D. Raising the lower jaw by contraction of all portions of the temporalis, masseter, and medial pterygoid muscles E. Moving the jaw back by contraction of the posterior portions of both temporalis muscles

1D, 2A, 3E, 4C, 5B

Match each dental anomaly listed with its description. ____ 1. Dwarf roots ____ 2. Concrescence ____ 3. Dilaceration ____ 4. Mulberry molars ____ 5. Gemination ____ 6. Dens in dente A. Partial splitting of tooth germ B. Crown or root demonstrating sharp bends, curves C. Fusion after root formation D. Extreme condition impacting crown-to-root ratio E. Result of congenital syphilis F. Tooth within a tooth

1D, 2C, 3B, 4E, 5A, 6F

Order the stages of odontogenesis. Match each letter with its proper sequence number. ____ A. Cap stage ____ B. Bud stage ____ C. Bell stage ____ D. Maturation stage ____ E. Initiation stage

1E, 2B, 3A, 4C, 5D

From the following list, select the structures of the embryo that begin development in week 4 of prenatal development. A. Face B. Neck C. Palate D. Tongue E. Placenta

A, B, D

Each cell facilitates the exfoliation of a primary tooth EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Ameloblast B. Osteoclast C. Odontoblast D. Cementoclast

A.

Each is an important function of the CEJ EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Prevention of caries B. Self-cleansing properties C. Food deflection resulting in gingival inflammation D. Health and maintenance of periodontal tissue in interproximal spaces

A.

Enamel is formed by ameloblasts, which are derived from the ectoderm. The ectoderm also signals the mesoderm to start development of dentin and pulp. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A.

How many teeth are present in an individual with a full deciduous dentition? A. 20 B. 24 C. 28 D. 32

A.

Many veins in the head and neck region lack valves. Valveless veins of the head and neck contribute to the severe and rapid spread of dental infections. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A.

The TMJ is capable of which two types of movement? A. Rotation, gliding B. Hinge, translation C. Pivot, ball and socket D. Ball and socket, saddle

A.

The cusp of Carabelli is found on which permanent molars? A. #3, #14 B. #2, #15 C. #19, #30 D. #18, #31

A.

The facial vein drains each region of the head and neck EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Orbital region B. Upper lip area C. Lower lip area D. Submental region

A.

The opthalmic nerve is the first division of the fifth cranial nerve V, the trigeminal nerve. The maxillary nerve is the second division of the trigeminal nerve. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A.

There is relatively constant mesial movement of the molars to compensate for proximal abrasion. Relatively constant occlusal forces result in bone remodeling. A. Both statements are correct and related B. Both statements are correct but NOT related C. The first statement is correct, but the second is NOT D. The first statement is NOT correct, but the second is correct E. Both statement are incorrect and unrelated

A.

Which plane of dissection divides the body into anterior and posterior portions? A. Frontal B. Sagittal C. Horizontal D. Median

A. Sagittal= vertical left and right horizontal/ transverse= superior and inferior portions median/midsagittal= midline of the body and divides the body into equal left and right sides

The corrugator supercilii is a muscle of facial expression in which region? A. Eye B. Nose C. Mouth D. Scalp

A. pulls the eyebrow medially and is responsible for the vertical folds that develop between the eyebrows: furrow of eyebrows (look of confusion)

During periodontal surgery, a fenestration is exposed on tooth #6. A fenestration is a defect of which type of bone? A. Compact B. Cancellous C. Interdental D. Interradicular

A. A fenestration is an opening or window in the solid plate of compact (A) cortical bone on the facial surface over the root of a tooth. Cancellous (B) bone is located between the alveolar bone proper and the plates of cortical bone.

The cells responsible for the development of the periodontal ligament come from the: A. Dental sac B. Dental papilla C. Enamel organ D. Successional lamellae

A. The dental sac or follicle (A) consists of ectomesenchyme that surrounds the enamel organ and will produce not only the PDL but also cementum and alveolar bone. The dental papilla (B) has inner cells that will produce dentin. The enamel organ (C) will produce enamel. The successional lamellae (D) comprise the epithelial tissue that will give rise to succedaneous teeth.

Which period of prenatal development occurs during months 3 to 9? A. Fetal B. Embryonic C. Preimplantation D. A only E. Both A and B

A. The final period of development is the fetal period (A), which spans months 3 to 9 or delivery. After fertilization, the zygote travels along until it implants itself into the uterus. This period is knows as the preimplantation period (C), which occurs during week 1. The embryonic period (B) follows during weeks 2 through 8.

All of the following are foramina in the sphenoid bone EXCEPT the: A. Incisive foramen B. Superior orbital fissure C. Foramen ovale D. Foramen rotundum

A. The incisive foramen (A) is an opening to the incisive canal in the palatine process of the maxilla. The rest are located in the sphenoid bone and are exit points for cranial nerve V.

Which vein has NO valves, drains most of the head and neck region, and does NOT drain any of the dentition? A. Internal jugular B. External jugular C. Internal maxillary D. Inferior alveolar

A. The internal jugular vein (A) drains most of the head and neck, except the dentition. The external jugular vein (B) is the only vein of the head and neck with valves. The internal maxillary vein (C) drains the pterygoid plexus, whereas the inferior alveolar vein (D) drains the mandibular teeth and the periodontium.

Each is an anterior branch of the external carotid artery EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Occipital B. Superior thyroid C. Facial D. Lingual

A. The occipital artery (A) is a posterior branch of the external carotid artery.

Which spinal vertebrae fuse together to form a triangular mass? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Cervical D. Thoracic

A. The sacral (A) vertebrae of the spinal cord fuse together to form a circular mass, called the sacrum.

What is the purpose of the synovial membrane in a synovial joint? A. Secrete fluid into the joint cavity B. Surround the joint like a fibrous sleeve C. Innervate the muscles that move the joint D. Convey a sense of position and movement

A. The synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid to lubricate the synovial joint.

The earliest indication of a part or an organ during prenatal development is referred to as the: A. Primordium B. Stomodeum C. Zygote D. Nucleus

A. The stomodeum (B) is also known as the primitive mouth and begins as just a slight depression but subsequently will give rise to the oral cavity. A zygote (C) is a fertilized egg and a nucleus (D) is a large organelle found in most cells, responsible for the regulation of all cellular function.

Which statement is correct? (Select all that apply) A. Maxillary second premolars are bifurcated with a buccal and palatal root B. Mandibular molars are bifurcated with a mesial and distal root C. Maxillary molars are trifurcated with a MB, DB, and palatal root D. Maxillary first premolar are bifurcated with a buccal and palatal root

B, C, D.

Each is a paranasal sinus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Frontal B. Mandibular C. Maxillary D. Sphenoidal E. Ethmoidal

B.

The infraorbital foramen is located in which bone? A. Frontal B. Maxilla C. Zygomatic D. Sphenoid

B.

Which endocrine gland mature T-lymphocytes for the immune system and undergoes involution (reduces in size) after puberty? A.Thyroid B. Thymus C. Pancreas D. Parathyroid

B.

The incomplete developmental division of a tooth germ is called FUSION. Fusion takes place during the initiation stage of tooth development. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

B. Gemination

Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the cardiac muscles, thymus, and stomach? A. IV B. X C. XI D. XII

B. Cranial nerve X (B), the vagus nerve, sends parasympathetic fibers to many organs, including the thymus and the muscles of the heart and stomach. Cranial nerve IV (A), the trochlear nerve, serves as an efferent nerve muscle of the eye. Cranial nerve XI (C), the accessory nerve, serves as an efferent nerve for various muscles of the head and neck. Cranial nerve XII (D), the hypoglossal nerve, innervates intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

The fibrous connective tissue membrane covering the outside of bone is called the: A. Endosteum B. Periosteum C. Hyaline cartilage D. Articular cartilage

B. Periosteum (B) is the fibrous CT membrane covering the outside of bone except at the articular surfaces. Endosteum (A) is the CT membrane lining the marrow cavity of the bone. Hyaline cartilage (C) is a flexible and slightly elastic cartilage found in joints. Articular cartilage (D) is specialized, thin, smooth hyaline cartilage found on the joint surfaces of bones, for example, in a synovial joint.

Which teeth have wider crowns mesiodistally than faciolingually? A. #5 and #12 B. #7 and #10 C. #24 and #25 D. #23 and #26

B. Permanent maxillary incisors, teeth #7 and #10 (B), are wider MD than FL. Maxillary premolars (A) and mandibular incisors (C and D) are wider FL than MD.

Which is NOT characteristic feature of the primary dentition? A. Thin enamel B. Thin dentin C. Large pulp cavity D. Whiter in color than permanent dentition

B. Primary teeth are thicker in dentin than permanent teeth.

The clinical crown-to-root ratio is always the same. However, the anatomic crown-to-root ratio may change. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

B. The clinical crown-to-root ratio may change, depending on the location of alveolar bone and the gingiva. The anatomic crown-to-root ratio (the crown and root are covered with enamel and cementum, respectively) always remains the same.

Which lymph nodes drain both sides of the chin, the lower lip, the floor of mouth, the apex of tongue, and the mandibular incisors? A. Facial B. Submental C. Submandibular D. Retropharyngeal

B. The facial lymph nodes (A) are superficial nodes located along the length of the facial vein and are further categorized into four subgroups that drain the areas they are named for: malar, nasolabial, buccal, and mandibular. The submandibular nodes (C) drain the cheeks, the upper lip, the body of the tongue, the anterior hard palate, and all teeth except the mandibular incisors and the maxillary third molars. The retropharyngeal lymph nodes (D) drain the pharynx, the palate, the paranasal sinuses, and the nasal cavity.

Veins of teeth have alveolar branches and dental branches. Which branch type would drain the pulp tissue of teeth through the apical foramen? A. Alveolar branches B. Dental branches C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

B. The incisive artery branches off the inferior alveolar artery, remaining within the mandibular canal to divide into dental and alveolar branches. The dental branches (B) of the pulp drain the mandibular anterior teeth by way of each tooth's apical foramen. The alveolar branches (A) of the periodontium drain the mandibular teeth, including the gingiva.

Which paired muscle covers most of the lateral aspect of the ramus of the mandible? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid

B. The masseter (B) muscle is located on the lateral aspect of the ramus of the mandible. The temporalis (A) muscle is a large, fan-shaped muscle attached to the coronoid process of the mandible. The lateral pterygoid (C) has two heads and lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. The medial pterygoid (D) inserts on the medial surface of the mandibular ramus. All these muscles are muscles of mastication.

Teeth #3 and #14 are: A. Ipsilateral to each other B. Contralateral to each other C. Inferior to each other D. Superficial to each other

B. These teeth are on opposite arches, therefore they are contralateral. Ipsilateral (A) means same arch.

The following characteristics describe muscle tissue EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Each muscle has two ends B. Muscle cells are called sarcomeres C. Muscles are categorized according to their role in movement D. Muscle origin is attached to the least movable part E. The muscle insertion is attached to the most movable part

B. Muscle cells are called myocytes, whereas sacromers are the unit of contraction of the myofibrils of the muscle cell.

Each of the following is a period of prenatal development EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Fetal B. Ovulation C. Embryonic D. Preimplantation

B. Unfertilized eggs are not considered prenatal development, which occurs during ovulation.

Cellular metabolism occurs in the: A. Ribosomes B. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus E. Endoplasmic reticulum

C.

Each is a type of connective tissue EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Bone B. Blood C. Muscle D. Cartilage

C.

Enamel may be lost through attrition, abrasion, erosion, caries, or abfraction. Radiographically, enamel appears more radiolucent than dentin or pulp, both of which appear more radiopaque. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

C.

Incremental lines that stain brown in preparations of mature enamel are: A. Neonatal lines B. Enamel tufts C. Lines of Retzius D. Enamel spindles E. Enamel lamellae

C.

The articulation of the temporomandibular joint involves which two bone? A. Temporal bone, mental protuberance B. Sphenoid bone, coronoid process of mandible C. Temporal bone, mandibular condyles

C.

The facial artery is a direct branch of which main artery? A. Subclavian B. Internal carotid C. External carotid D. Brachiocephalic

C.

The muscles of facial expression are innervated by which nerve? A. IV B. V C. VII D. VIII

C.

Which gland is associated with dry eye syndrome, (DES), also known as keratoconjunctivitis sicca? (KCS)? A. Thyroid B. Thymus C. Lacrimal D. Parathyroid

C.

Which of the following is NOT innervated by the middle superior alveolar nerve? A. #4 B. #12 C. DB root of #2 D. MB root of #14

C.

Which of the following are the two main divisions or systems of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A. Brain, spinal cord B. Afferent impulse, efferent impulse C. Sympathetic system, parasympathetic system

C. Brain and spinal cord (A) are part of the central nervous system.

The inner cells of the dental papilla will develop into which structure? A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Pulp D. Enamel

C. Cementum (A) is produced by cementocytes that come from the dental sac. Dentin (B) is produced by the outer cells of the dental papilla. Enamel (D) is produced by ameloblasts cells that come from the enamel organ.

Down syndrome is a developmental disturbance that occurs during which period of prenatal development? A. Fetal B. Embryonic C. Preimplantation

C. Down syndrome is a developmental disturbance that occurs during meiosis. The final stages of meiosis occur just after fertilization, which takes place during the preimplantation period.

Eight bones compose the neurocranium, surrounding the brain. Fifteen bones compose the viscerocranium, or the bones of the face. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

C. Eight bones compose the neurocranium: the frontal, the sphenoid, the ethmoid, and the occipital bones, which are single bones. The paired temporal and parietal bones are also part of the neurocranium. The second statement is false. There are 14 bones, not 15, that make up the viscerocranium, including the single mandible and the vomer. The paired nasal, lacrimal, zygomatic, inferior nasal conchae, palatine, and maxillae are the remaining bones.

Which cells are responsible for producing dentin? A. Osteoblasts B. Ameloblasts C. Odontoblasts D. Cementoblasts

C. Osteoblasts (A) are bone-producing cells. Ameloblasts (B) produce enamel and cementoblasts (D) produce cementum.

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve contains both sensory and motor components? A. Opthalmic V1 B. Maxillary V2 C. Mandibular V3

C. The afferent component provides sensation to the teeth and tissues of the mandible and the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. The efferent component innervates the muscles of mastication, tensor tympani, and tensor veil palatini.

Which stage of tooth development occurs between the 11th and 12th weeks of prenatal development? A. Bud B. Cap C. Bell D. Initiation

C. The bell stage (C) occurs between week 11 and 12 of prenatal development. The initiation stage (D) occurs between weeks 6 and 7 of tooth development. The bud stage (A) occurs during week 8, whereas the cap stage (B) happens between weeks 9 and 10.

Which muscle originates from the alveolar process of the maxilla, the alveolar process of the mandible, and the pterygomandibular raphe? A. Masseter B. Risorius C. Buccinator D. Sternocleidomastoid

C. The buccinator (C) muscle is a thin, quadrilateral muscle originating from the three areas listed above. The masseter (A) originates from the zygomatic arch; the risorius (B) originates from a fascia superficial to the masseter muscle; and the sternocleidomastoid (D) originates from the clavicle.

Each of the following is a component of the tooth germ EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Enamel organ B. Dental sac C. Dental lamina D. Dental papilla E. Dental follicle

C. The dental lamina (C) is not part of the tooth germ, although the proliferation of ectodermal cells into specific sites is the first stage of odontogenesis. This thickened sheet of epithelium will give way to become the enamel organ.

Which artery supplies the mandibular teeth and surrounding tissues with blood? A. Facial B. Lingual C. Inferior alveolar D. Pterygoid plexus

C. The facial artery (A) is also known as the external maxillary artery and extends to the mid-face region to supply the oral, buccal, zygomatic, nasal, infraorbital, and orbital regions. The lingual artery (B) is an anterior branch from the external carotid after and supplies the tissues superior to hyoid bone, including the suprahyoid muscles and the floor of the mouth. The pterygoid plexus (D) supplies the deep facial areas and the posterosuperior alveolar vein and the inferior alveolar vein.

Which muscle involved in facial expression does not have a bony attachment, shapes and controls the size of the mouth opening, and helps create lip positions and movements during speech? A. Risorius B. Zygomaticus major C. Orbicularis oris D. Levator anguli oris

C. The risorius muscle (A) stretches the lips laterally, retracting the labial commissure and widening the mouth to produce a grimace. The zygomaticus major muscle (B) elevates the labial commissure of the upper lip and pulls it laterally, thus helping create a smile. The legator anguli oris muscle (D) elevates the labial commissure, as when a person smiles

During facial development, the two structures forming the major facial structures are the frontonasal process and the pharyngeal (branchial) arch I. This process begins during week 6 in utero. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

C. The second statement is false because this process begins week 3 in embryologic development.

The first branchial arch is also called the mandibular arch. The cartilage forming within the mandibular arch is known as Reichert cartilage. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

C. There are six branchial arches. The first branchial arch is considered the mandibular arch, and the second branchial arch is known as the hyoid arch. The cartilage that forms within the mandibular arch is Meckel cartilage, not Reichert cartilage, which forms in the second branchial arch.

The abducents (VI), trochlear (IV), and oculomotor (III) nerves all provide innervation to the muscles of the eye. These nerves provide sensory innervation. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

C. They provide motor innervation only.

Which muscle elevates the mandible? A. Risorius B. Buccinator C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid

C. Upon contraction, the medial pterygoid (C) elevates the mandible. The risorius (A) stretches the lips by pulling on each labial commissure laterally. The buccinator (B) compresses the cheeks during chewing by retracting the labial commissure. The lateral pterygoid (D) depresses, protrudes, and deviates the mandible laterally.

Which primordial structure differentiates into the ameloblasts that produce enamel? A. Outer enamel epithelium B. Stellate reticulum C. Inner enamel epithelium D. Stratum intermedium

C. Inner enamel epithelium (IEE) (C) comprises the columnar cells of the enamel organ that differentiate into ameloblasts. The outer enamel epithelium (OEE) (A) comprises cuboidal cells that protect the outer portion of the enamel organ. Between the IEE and OEE is the stellate reticulum (B), composed of star-shaped cells, and the stratum intermedium (D), composed of flat to cube-shaped cells; both support the production of enamel.

Which muscle retracts the tongue? A. Genioglossus B. Hyloglossus C. Styloglossus P. Palatoglossus

C. When the styloglossus (C) muscle contracts, the tongue retracts. In contrast, the hyloglossus (B) will depress the tongue upon contraction, and the genioglossus (A) will protrude the tongue and depress portions. The palatoglossus (D) elevates the base of the tongue, and depresses the soft palate.

Anatomically, the inferior alveolar artery supplies which structure? A. Soft floor of mouth B. Tongue muscles C. Sublingual gland D. Mandibular teeth

D.

Cervical lymph nodes run along which muscle? A. Trapezius B. Buccinator C. Epicranial D. Sternocleidomastoid

D.

Each of the following is a suprahyoid muscle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Mylohyoid B. Geniohyoid C. Stylohyoid D. Sternohyoid

D.

How many permanent anterior teeth are present in an adult mouth? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

D.

Which arteries are the terminal branches of the external carotid artery? A. Superior thyroid, lingual B. Facial, ascending pharyngeal C. Posterior auricular and occipital D. Maxillary, superficial temporal

D.

Which developmental disturbance appears as a "tooth within a tooth" on radiologic examination? A. Fusion B. Tubercles C. Gemination D. Dens in dente

D.

Which injections technique would be used to achieve anesthesia of teeth #15 and #16? A. NP B. ASA C. MSA D. PSA

D.

Which major artery supplies the brain with blood and is palpated during emergency situations? A. Aorta B. Subclavian C. Internal carotid D. Common carotid

D.

Which acronym defines the correct sequence of words to describe a tooth? A. D-T-A-Q B. D-A-C-T C. C-A-D-Q D. D-A-Q-T

D. D= dentition A= arch Q= quadrant T= tooth type For example, a dental professional may refer to a permanent (D) mandibular (A) left (Q) premolar (T)

Which component of a nerve conducts impulses toward the cell body? A. Axon B. Soma C. Neuron D. Dendrite

D. Dendrites (D) are branching cellular extensions of a nerve that conduct impulses toward the cell. An axon (A) is a cellular extension of a nerve that conducts impulses away from the cell. The soma (B) is the body of the cell containing the nucleus and a neuron (C) is the basic functional unit of the nervous system.

Division of a cell into two daughter cells occurs during which phase of mitosis? A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Telophase

D. Telophase (D) is the last phase in which the individual cell divides into two daughter cells. During prophase (A), the DNA in the form of chromatin condenses into chromosomes. During metaphase (C), the chromosomes move and align themselves in the middle of the cell. Next is anaphase (B), during which the chromosomes separate and migrate to opposite poles of the cell.

A hematoma that results from the administration of a PSA nerve block is caused by bleeding from which arteries or veins? 1. PSA artery 2. Pterygoid plexus of veins 3. Temporal artery 4. Facial artery 5. Maxillary vein 6. Posterior retromandibular vein A. 1, 2, 5 B. 2, 3, 4 C. 3, 4, 6 D. 1, 2, 4

D. The PSA artery (1), the pterygoid plexus of veins (2) and the facial artery (4) are located in the infratemporal fossa. This location may contain a high volume of blood if a hematoma occurs.

The cervical loop is responsible for development of: A. Dentin B. Pulp C. Enamel D. Root

D. The cervical loop is responsible for root (D) development. Dentin (A) is developed from odontoblasts. Pulp (B) develops from the inner cells of the dental papilla. The enamel of the crown of the tooth (C) is formed from ameloblasts.

The face and its related tissues begin to form during week 6 of prenatal development, within the fetal period. Facial development is completed by week 12. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

D. The face and its related tissues begin to form at the beginning of week 4 in the embryonic period, not during week 6 in the fetal period.

Each of the following is an afferent cranial nerve EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Optic B. Vagus C. Olfactory D. Hypoglossal

D. The hypoglossal nerve (D) is an efferent (motor) cranial nerve for both intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

Which of the following arteries supplies maxillary anterior teeth with blood? A. Incisive B. Mylohyoid C. Greater palatine D. Anterior superior alveolar

D. The incisive artery (A) supplies the periodontium of the mandibular teeth, including the associated gingiva. the mylohyoid artery (B) supplies the floor of the mouth and the mylohyoid muscle. The greater palatine artery (C) supplies the hard and soft palates.

Which artery is the source of the opthalmic artery, has NO branches, and is located deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Aorta B. Subclavian C. External carotid D. Internal carotid

D. The internal carotid (D) is a branchless division of the common carotid artery. The aorta (A), a major artery that is a portion of the heart itself that gives rise to the common carotid and the subclavian artery (B) on the left side of the heart and the brachiocephalic artery on the right side of the heart. The external carotid (C) travels superiorly to the internal carotid artery and has four sets of branches.

Which part of the brain regulates homeostasis? A. Medulla B. Thalamus C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus

D. The medulla (A) is part of the brain stem and is involved in regulating components of the ANS. The thalamus (B) plays a major role in relaying nerve impulses. The cerebellum (C) is responsible for coordination of voluntary movements and maintaing posture and balance.

Which vein receives blood flow from the superficial temporal vein and the facial vein and drains into the external jugular vein? A. Maxillary B. Opthalmic C. Inferior alveolar D. Retromandibular

D. The retromandibular (D) vein receives blood flow from the superficial temporal vein and the facial vein and drains into the external jugular vein. It is situated immediately posterior to the angle of the mandible. The maxillary vein (A) receives blood flow from the pterygoid plexus and drains into the retromandibular vein. The ophthalmic vein (B) drains the tissue of the orbit and proceeds into the facial vein. The inferior alveolar vein (C) forms from the merging of the dental, alveolar, and mental branches and drains into the pterygoid plexus.

The functions of the lymphatic system include all EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Filter fluids B. Fight infection C. Produce lymphocytes D. Produce thrombocytes E. Return plasma to venous bloodstream

D. Thrombocytes are produced in bone marrow and now in the lymphatic system.

The sphenoid bone is composed of the: A. Palatine process B. Temporal fossa C. Superior orbital fissure of the orbit D. Base of skull anterior to occipital bone E. B, C, and D

E.

Which is the most common cell found in the lamina propria of the oral mucosa? A. Epiblast B. Odontoblast C. Osteoblast D. Osteoclast E. Fibroblast

E.

The division of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations*Fight or flight a. Sympathetic nervous systemterm-21 b. Parasympathetic nervous system

a. Sympathetic nervous system Epinephrine/norepinephrine

The division of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body, conserving its energy *Rest and digest a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system

b. Parasympathetic nervous system Acetylcholine