NAVLE BOVINE

e. IV fluids with added sodium bicarbonate This calf is typical of those suffering from non-specific calf diarrhea, most often associated with enteropathogenic E. coli, rotavirus, or cryptosporidium. The calf develops hypovolemia and metabolic acidosis and requires sodium-containing IV fluids which contain additional alkali, such as sodium bicarbonate. One can assess that the calf is severely acidotic given that it is lethargic and unable to stand. While oral fluids may also be useful, at this stage, the calf will require IV luids

A 10-day old commercial dairy calf has diarrhea that is white in color (see photo). The calf is dehydrated, hypovolemic, weak and unable to stand. T=100F, HR=100, and RR=20. No other abnormalities are found on physical examination. Based on these findings, what is the treatment of choice? a. Oral fluids containing sodium bicarbonate b. Oral fluids containing high levels of both sodium and chloride c. IV fluids containing only saline d. IV fluids containing 50 mEq?l of potassium e. IV fluids with added sodium bicarbonate

c. IV fluids with added sodium bicarbonate This calf is typical of those duffering from non-specific calf diarrhea, most often associated with enteropathogenic E. coli, rotavirus, or cryptosporidium. The calf develops hypovolemia and metabolic acidosis and requires sodium-containing IV fluids with contain additional alkali such as sodium bicarbonate. One can assess that the calf is severely acidotic given that it is lethargic and unable to stand. While oral fluids may also be useful, at this stage, the calf will require IV fluids

A 10-day-old commercial dairy calf has diarrhea that is white in color (see photo). The calf is dehydrated, hypovolemic, weak and unable tostand. T=100F (37.8C), HR=100, and RR=20. No other abnormalities are found on physical examination. Based on these findings, what is the treatment of choice? a. Oral fluids containing high levels of both sodium and chloride b. IV fluids containing only saline c. IV fluids with added sodium bicarbonate d. IV fluids containing 50 mEq/L of potassium e. Oral fluids containing sodium bicarbonate

d. Laminitis secondary to ruminal acidosis

A 100-cow dairy herd is being evaluated because of a 10% average decrease in daily milk production, a 60% incidence of loose stools, and a high incidence of reddened coronary bands and rear-leg shifting lameness. Two milking cows have died of unknown causes in the past two weeks. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Bovine virus diarrhea b. Dietary protein deficiency with associated decrease in milk production c. Hairy heel warts d. Laminitis secondary to ruminal acidosis e. Salmonellosis

e. Penicillin The diagnosis is Listeriosis. Listeria monocytogenes can effectively be treated in the early stages of the disease with penicillin, ampicillin, or tetracycline. Intramuscular procaine penicillin for example has a withrrawal of 10 days for slaughter (meat) and 48 hours for milk if the aminal is lactating. Other choices of approced antimicrobials would also likely be effective since L. monocytogenes is susceptible to most antimicrobials. For a list of approved animal drug see www.farad.org/vetgram. FARAD is the United States Food Animal Residue Avoidancce Databanck which gives withdrawal information as well as a list of prohibited drugs. The other drugs listed as choices here are prohibited and cannot be legally used in food animals in the USA

A 2 year-old non-lactating dairy cow in California has a sudden onset of head tilt and drooling. The owner also reports that she appears less active and less interested in feed than normal, and today is circling in one direction in the pen. You examine her and find T=105F (40.6C), HR=96, and RR=32. There is ptosis, drooped ear, and weakness of the lips on the affected side. You take a lumbosacral spinal tap (see photo), and submit the CSF to your lab. The results show elevated protein and WBCs, with the cell type being mainly monocytes. The lab reports seeing some gram positive bacteria in the monocytes of the CSF. Based on these findings, what is the best treatment for this condition? a. Metronidazole b. Chloramphenicol c. Metoclopramide d. Enrofloxacin e. Penicillin

a. Ruptured peroneus tertius The ability to extend the hock and flex the stifle at the same time is diagnostic. THIS IS NOT NORMAL!! A ruptured gastrocnemius will result in flexion of the hock with concurrent extension of the stifle. A ruptured serratus ventralis is incorrect because that muscle is on the front end of the cow. This muscle originates at the lateral thoracic wall and inserts on the medial surface of the scapula. If the serratus ventralis ruptures, you will see a diagnostic "flying scapula." A ruptured cruciate ligament would just produce a drawer movement at the level of the stifle. These are difficult to diagnose because it is difficult to perform a drawer test on cattle

A 2-year old Holstein cow presents for right hind limb lameness. On physical exam, you are able to extend the hock and concurrently flex the stifle. What is your diagnosis? a. Ruptured peroneus tertius b. Ruptured gastrocnemius c. Ruptured cranial cruciate ligament d. Ruptured serratus ventralis

a. A uterine infection with CLostridium tetani The clinical signs and history are all very characteristic for a cow with tetanus. The causative agent is Clostridium tetani. C. botulinum is responsible for a flaccid paralysis and rapid death, not the hyper-alert signs shown here C. difficile is notorious for bowel infections, especially in horses Systemic infection with C. septicum will result in massive necrosis of damaged tissues, but would not show the hyper-excitability seen in the cow in question A uterine infection with Truperella pyogenes would result in endometritis or at worst, pyometra, but would not cause any overt signs as seen in this question.

A 2-year-old Holstein bovine female calved 14 days ago with a difficult dystocia. Her ears are erect and she seems to over-react to external stimuli. In response to your clapping, her third eyelids partially cover her eyes, and then eventually retract. The signs in this patient are all compatible with which of the following? a. A uterine infection with CLostridium tetani b. A systemic infection with Clostridium difficile c. A uterine infection with Trueperella pyogenes d. A uterine infection with Clostridium botulinum e. A systemic infection with Clostridium septicum f. A uterine infection with Clostridium difficile

a. Culture of the mesenteric lymph nodes

A 3-week-old calf dies after a 10-day history of fever and bloody diarrhea. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of salmonellosis? a. Culture of the mesenteric lymph nodes b. Fecal enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Fecal flotation d. FLuorescent antibody testing of intestinal mucosa e. Hepatic histopathologic analysis

c. Intussusception The only choices likely to cause colic are intussusception, cecal dilation, and abomasal ulcer. Of those 3, only intussusception would cause scant, sticky, dark feces. The intussusception usually occurs in the jejunum or ileum, and results in a backed-up GI tract. This causes chloride to be sequestered in the abomasum, as well as internally vomited into the rume, resulting in hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis. A PCV of 30% is normal for a cow, so a bleeding ulcer is unlikely; the HR of 100/min in this case is likely due to pain rather than anemia

A 4-year-old Holstein dairy cow in mid-lactation has developed acute onset illness and is colicky (kicking at abdomen, switching her tail, repeatedly lying down and getting up). Her temperature is 102.0F (38.9C). HR is 100/min, her scant feces are sticky and dark blackberry jam-colored, her abdomen is distended, and there is no rumen motility. No pings are audible. Her PCV=30% (24-46%). A blood gas and electrolyte panel revelas Na=140mEq/L (135-144 mEq/L), K=2.5 mEq (3.6-4.9 mEq/L), Cl=80mEq (99-107 mEq/L), and HCO3=40mEq/L (20-30 mEq/L). Based on these clinical signs and lab values, which of the following is most likely to be the correct diagnosis? a. Salmonellosis b. Cecal dilation c. Intussusception d. LDA e. Abomasal ulcer

d. Rumen

A 5-year-old Holstein cow is being evaluated because of inappetence. On auscultation, there is pinging over the left nine and 10th intercostal spaces, on a line between the tuber coxae and the elbow. On paracentesis immediately ventral to the pinging area, there are a few drops of green fluid with a pH of 6.0. Which of the following is the most likely source of the fluid? a. Abomasum b. Cecum c. Omasum d. Rumen e. Spiral colon

b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) concentration

A 550-lb (249.2-kg) steer is standing alone and shifting its weight from one rear leg to the other. Physical examination shows spasms in the perineal area. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test? a. Analysis of fibrinogen b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) concentration c. Insertion of a urinary catheter d. Leukogram e. Rectal palpation

d. Treatment is unlikely to be successful and the cow should be culled This is a case of Actinomyces bovis or "lumpy jaw." The key to the diagnosis are the firm mass that is immobile over the mandible. The presence of "sulfur granules" in the discharge is also a characteristic finding with this disease. Unfortunately, simply making the diagnosis is not sufficient to answer this question correctly. All of the answer choices are potential treatments for lumpy jaw but this represents a moderate to severe case which is unlikely to respond to treatment due to difficulty in achieving the necessary antibiotic concentration over a sustained period. Therefore, the best answer choice in this case is to cull the cow

A 6-year-old Friesian cow presents to you with a mass on the left mandible (see image). The farmer reports that the mass has developed over the last several weeks and the cow has recently had some difficulty eating and lost weight. On examination, the mass is firm, immobile, and painful on manipulation. You note a thick discharge with small granular particles. Based on the most likely diagnosis, what should you tell the farmer? a. Treatment with sodium iodide intravenously is likely curative but the cow's milk and meat will not be suitable for human consumption for 120 days b. Intravenous penicillin are likely to be effective c. The most effective treatment is oral sodium iodide d. Treatment is unlikely to be successful and the cow should be culled

c. Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) BVD virus causes all these problems, as well as persistently infected neonatal calves when the fetus is infected with the NCO biotype of BVD at 2 to 5 months gestational age

A California dairy herd has been experiencing repeat breeders, several abortions, weak calves and some congenital defects including cerebellar hypoplasia, cataracts, and thymic hypoplasia. Which of the following disease agents should you investigate as the most likely cause of these problems? a. Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis b. Vesicular stomatitis virus c. Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) d. Malignant catarrhal fever virus e. Mycoplasma bovis

b. Vitamin E and selenium deficiency The correct answer is vitamin E and selenium deficiency (white muscle disease). The clinical signs are somewhat compatible with the other answers; however, the necropsy results are diagnostic for white muscle disease. There is both a cardiac form, in which animals die acutely, and a skeletal muscle form, in which animals don't die acutely but show clinical signs. In this particular question, the ranch was suffering from both forms. Remember that aleander and gossypol are both cardiotoxic and can acute death. Given the necropsy findings, clostridial myositis would be unlikely. Selenium is essential for glutathione peroxidase, deiodinase, and selenoprotein-P to work. Glutathione peroxidase breaks hydrogen peroxide and lipoperoxide into water or harmless alcohols.

A beef ranch has suffered 12 acute deaths of 2-4 month-old calves in the past six months. The owner of the ranch states that the animals appeared severely weak and depressed just before dying. On some of them, he noticed that they were having trouble breathing and had a frothy nasal discharge. You perform a necropsy on a calf that died yesterday. Findings included bilaterally symmetric muscular atrophy. The skeletal muscle appears pale and dry in appearance with white streak running along muscle bundles. You also notice that tehre are several calves in the ranch which are having trouble rising, and their musculature appears swollen, hard, and painful. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Oleander toxicity b. Vitamin E and selenium deficiency c. Clostridial myositis d. Gossypol toxicity e. Septicemia

a. Polioencephalomalacia The two most common causes of polioencephalomalacia (PEM) are: - low thiamine (due to thiaminase activity from plants like bracken fern or low thiamine diets) - high sulfur in the diet (which can come from a high molasses-urea diet, corn or sugar cane byproducts, water, or other plants, including alfalfa, Canada thistle (Cirsium arvense), kochia (kocchia scoparia), and lambsquarter (Chenopodium spp).

A bovine diet that is low in thiamine or high in sulfur can cause ------------. a. Polioencephalomalacia b. Pregnancy toxemia c. Paturient paresis d. Downer cows e. Pseudorabies

c. Ivermectin in early fall This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The species are H. bovis and H. lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclin lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, epinomectin, moxidectin) are effective

A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one srping day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when. a. Moxidectin now, in spring b. Ivermectin in February c. Ivermectin in early fall d. Thiabendazole in early fall e. Organophosphates in summer

b. Hydrops allantois (hydroallantois) is a disorder of the placenta and the prognosis for life of the fetus and fertility of the cow is poor. The clinical description is most consistent with hydroallantois because of the rapid accumulation of fluid and the clinical signs of the cow. Hydramnios is a reasonable differential although it more typically involves gradual accumulation of fluid and the cow is usually clinically unaffected. Hydroallantois is a disorder of the placenta (chorio-allantois) that results in rapid accumulation of 100-200 liters of watery, clear fluid during the last trimester. The cow develops a rounded appearance to the abdomen and it is usually not possible to palpate the fetus or placentomes. The cow often becomes sick with anorexia, decreased rumen motility, dehydration and weakness. She may go down or rupture the prepubic tendon. The prognosis for the fetus is guarded and even with treatment, the cow will likely be infertile. Induction of parturition or C-section are treatment options but the majority of calves are not viable and the dam rarely has normal colostrum. If the pregnancy is terminated, it is unlikely that the cow will have a productive milk cycle. Usually salvage for slaughter is the preferred option unless the fetus is considered valuable and the cow is near term. Hydramnios is a disorder of the fetus, and the placenta itself is normal. The condition is typically characterized by gradual accumulation of thick viscous fluid during the later part of gestation. The cow develops a pear shaped caudal view. The fetus and placentomes are usually palpable and the cow is usually clinically well. Pregnancy usually goes to term and a small, deformed fetus is delivered. The cow has a fair to good prognosis for life and fertility. The cow may be induced or allowed to go to term depending on her condition

A cow about one moth from term goes off feed and rapidly develops an enlarged, rounded, abdominal shape. She is now uncomfortable and reluctant to move. You examine the cow and note marked accumulation of watery fluid in the uterus. You perform a brief ultrasound and confirm the large volume of fluid in the uterus and a thickened placenta. What should you tell the farmer about this condition? a. Hydrops amnion (hydramnios) is a disorder of the fetus and although the fetus is unlikely to survive, the cow should be okay. b. Hydrops allantois (hydroallantois) is a disorder of the placenta and the prognosis for life of the fetus and fertility of the cow is poor. c. Hydrops amnion (hydramnios) is a disorder of the placenta and the fetus is likely to survive but the cow will likely be infertile d. Hydrops allantois (hydroallantois) is a disorder of the fetus and can be treated by induction of parturition or Caesarian section and in most cases if the fetus is close to term, the calf will survive and the cow will be fertile

a. High sulfur diet This is the cerebrocortical necrosis of polioencephalomalacia (PEM), basically a nutritional disease. The two most common causes are: -low thiamine (due to thiamine analogs such as amprolium or low thiamine diets) -high sulfur in the diet (which can come from a high molasses-urea diet, corn or sugar cane byproducts, water, or other plants, including alfalfa, Canada thistle (Cirsium arvense), kochia, (Kocchia scoparia), and lambsquarter (Chenopodium spp.) Dorsomedial stabisumus ("Stargrazin"), history and cerebrocotrical necrosis that lights up under UV light all suggest PEM. Central blindness is also a hallmark clinical sign. Thiaminase activity from plants like bracken hern cause polioencephalomalacia in horses

A cow was found recumbent and blind, with dorsomedial strabismus, in tonic-clonic seizures that led to coma and death. On necropsy, lesions shown below light up under ultraviolet light. What caused this problem? a. High sulfur diet b. Rabies c. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy d. Urea toxicity e. THROMBOEMBOLIC MENINGOENCEPHALITIS (TEME)

a. Cryptosporidium spp

A group of 2-week-old dairy calves develop watery diarrhea that is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. A fecal sample contains round 2-50-4 cm bodies that are acid-fast-positive. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? a. Cryptosporidium spp b. Escherichia coli O157:H7 c. Mycobacterium spp d. Nocardia spp e. Salmonella spp

e. Gossypol Gossypol is a natural constituent of many types of cotton. It acts as an insecticide and protects the plant. The polyphenol binds to iron in cell constituents. It may cause kidney damage, inhibit dehydrogenase enzymes, and uncouple phosphorylation in the cell. Acute gossypol toxicity in calves can be severe.

A group of dairy calves were fed a home-made grain mix that had a high percentage of cottonseed (photo shows seed and oil). Cottonseed is a good source of protein. A few days after being started on this new grain mix, the calves began having problems including dyspnea, and weakness, followed by death in several calves. What is the toxic principle acting here? a. Nicotine b. Cyanide c. Tannins d. Cardiac glycosides e. Gossypol

b. Cull all cattle that test positive Johne's disease in cattle is caused by Mycobacterium avium sbsp paratuberculosis affecting the small and large intestine. Clinical signs include emaciation, wasting, and edema, with variable diarrhea. Diagnosis is by serology and identification of the acid fast bacteria. There is no effective treatment for the disease. Positive animals must be culled from the herd

A herdsman is concerned about Johne's disease affecting his herd. He comes to you and asks what the treatments of choice for the affected cattle are. What is your response? a. Treat with chloramphenicol b. Cull all cattle that test positive c. Treat with tetracycline d. Treat with penicillin e. Treat with rigampin

e. Right abomasal volvulus

A mature lactating dairy cow is being examined because of a sudden onset of anorexia, decreased milk production, decreased fecal production, and colic. On physical examination, the cow is dehydrated and alkalotic. There is an area of tympany, 15cm in diameter, centered over the middle of the right 12th rib. On rectal examination, there is a tense structure in the right abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Cecal volvulus b. Left abomasal displacement c. Pneumoperitoneum due to a perforated abomasal ulcer d. Right abomasal displacement without volvulus e. Right abomasal volvulus

d. Pyelonephritis This is the clinical picture of a cow with early signs of pyelonephritis. Onset is typically insidious. The first clinical sign may be passage of blood-stained urine (hematuria) in an otherwise normal animal. As infection (usually Corynebacterium spp. or E. coli) ascends up the ureters into the kidney, the cow may display frequent attempts to urinate, anorexia, a slight fever, loss of production, colic, restlessness, tail switching, polyuria, more hematuria or pyuria. Early in the disease, enlarged ureters and involvement of the kidney may not be detectable on rectal palpation. In chronic cases, the left kidney may be enlarged, with loss of lobulation and pain. The cow may show colic, diarrhea, polyuria, polydipsia, stranguria, and anemia. A nephrectomy can be performed in cases of unilateral pyelonephritis.

A multiparous cow that calved two months ago is presented with a history of blood-stained urine for the last week. Today, the cow is off-feed and colicky, switching her tail restlessly and urinating frequently. T=103.8, HR=70bpm, RR=32 bpm. A cowside dipstick test shows hematuria and proteinuria. The bladder, ureters and left kidney feel grossly normal on rectal exam. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? a. Leptospirosis b. Pyometra c. Polycystic kidney disease d. Pyelonephritis e. Dioctophyma renale

c. Epizootic bovine abortion (Foothill abortion) This is an important disease of heifers and newly introduced cows in Calidornia foothills. The lesions are consistent with this diagnosis. The etiologic agent of EBA has yet to be identified, however, we know that the vector is a tick, Ornithodoros coriaceus. T. foetus is involved with early embryonic death. Brucellosis abortions are pretty rare since it has virtually been eradicated from the US, but lesions include autolysis, placentitis, and bronchopneumonia. IBR causes rapid fetal death, therefore there is essentially no time for fetal response, so you are likely to see autolysis and focal necrosis of the organs.

A necropsy of an aborted bovine fetus shows enlarged lymph nodes and spleen, destructive lesions to the thymus, and evidence of chronic granulomatous infection. What is the most likely cause of this abortion? a. Brucellosis b. Tritrichomonas foetus c. Epizootic bovine abortion (Foothill abortion) d. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

b. Anaplasomosis This clinical picture of anemia, icterus and collapse is that of bovine anaplasmosis, a tick-borne obligate intraerythrocytic bacterium in the order Rickettsiales. Babesiosis has a similar distribution and presentation, but unlike anaplasmosis, has hemoglobinuria. Babesia look like little hoops, or "pear" inside red cells. Mycoplasma wenyoii, formerly known as Eperythrozoon wenyoii, is an epicellular hemotropic mycoplasma that is found attached to RBC or free in the plasma of infected cattle

A number of older cows in a Texas herd are losing condition rapidly with a corresponding drop in milk production. Two pregnant animals have aborted. Affected animals are off feed, uncoordinated and out of breath after exertion. On physical exam, affected cows have arapid bounding pulse and pale mucous membrane. One animal appears icteric with a temperature of 105F (40.6C). A blood smear looks like this in the picture. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Eperythrozoon spp. b. Anaplasomosis c. Leptospira incetrohaemorrhagiae d. Theileriosis e. Babesia bigemina

a. Left displaced abomasum LDAs occurs most commonly after parturition and should be considered. The ping described is classic for a left displaced abomasum. You can rule out a right displaced abomasum because the ping is described on the left side. Right displaced abomasum is much less common than LDA. There is no mention of stiff gait or xiphoid pain that would indicate a diagnosis of hardware disease. Free gas in the rumen is likely to be heard from the hip to the 8th rib and be a monotone ping

A recently freshened cow presents for decreased appetitie and milk production. On physical exam, a left sided variable pitch ping is heard using simultaneous auscultation and percussion from the last rib and the diagonally downward to the 8th rib. Which is the most likely differential? a. Left displaced abomasum b. Right displaced abomasum c. Free gas in the rumen d. Hardware disease

b. Left displaced abomasum LDAs occur most commonly after parturition and should always be considered. The other answer choices are not as common in ruminants, especially after parturition

A recently-freshened cow presents for decreased appetite and poor milk production. Her TPR is normal. She is gaunt but otherwise looks normal. Which is the best differential? a. Cecal impaction b. Left displaced abomasum c. Hypokalemia d. Salmonellosis

a. Congenital hyportichosis This calf has congenital hypotrichosis of Herefords, an autosomal recessive genetic problem. Hereditary hypotrichosis can be differentiated from the other disease choices because the dermis of the calf is normal in appearance. Baldy calf disease is an inherited problem of Holsteins. The calves may lose hair, have thickened skin and metabolic illnesses.

A registered Hereford cow on pasture gave birth to this calf with a very short, curly, frosted-looking pale coat and normal-appearing skin. By two weeks of age, some of the hair is falling out. Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation for its appearance? a. Congenital hyportichosis b. Ichthyosis c. Baldy calf syndrome d. Zinc deficiency e. Normal appearance until 21 days of age

d. Ivermectin Avermectins (macrocyclic lactones), such as ivermectin, are the most consistently effective of these choices against all stages, including hypobiotic larvae, of Ostertagia, the parasite in this calf's gastrointestinal tract. An abomasum with a cobblestone or "Moroccan leather" appearance is pathognomonic for Ostertagia, one of the three stomach worms of cattle. In order to minimize the development of anthelmintic resistance, current recommendations for parasite control include not only appropriate deworming, but adequate nutrition and rotation of treated stock to "clean" pastures. Some experts recommend deworming of only the most severely affected animals in a group (targeted treatment). The idea is to slow development of drug-resistant populations by allowing some worms to survive (these are called "refugia"). Amprolium is your treatment of choices for calves and cows with coccidiosis

A tow-year-old heifer is presented who died the night before. She was stunted compared to her herdmates, and had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, diarrhea. Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules 1-2 in diameter (Cobblestone or "Moroccan leather" appearance). Several other younger cows in this Spring-calving herd look unthrifty and have diarrhea, too. Which one of the following options is the most consistently effective against all stages of this parasite? a. Amprolium b. Thiabendazole c. Levamisole d. Ivermectin e. Morantel

d. Ivermectin Avermectins (macrocylic lactones), such as ivermectin, are the most consistently effective of these choices against all stages, including hypobiotic larvae, of Ostertagia, the parasite in this calf's gastrointestinal tract. Ab abomasum with a cobblestone or "Moroccan leather" appearance is pathognomonic for Ostertagia, one of the three stomach worms of cattle. In order to minimize the development of anthelmintic resistance, current recommendations for parasite control include not only appropriate deworming, but adequate nutrition and rotation of treated stock to "clean" pastures. Some experts recommend deworming of only the most severely affected animals in a group (targeted treatment). The idea is to slow development of drug-resistant populations by allowing some worms to survive (these are called "refugia). If some worms survive that are susceptible to antiparasitic drugs, it DECREASES population pressure to develop drug resistance. Amprolium is your treatment of choices for calves and cows with coccidiosis.

A two-year-old heifer is presented who died the night before. She was stunted compared to her herdmates, and had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, diarrhea. Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules 1-2mm in diameter (cobblestone or "Moroccan leather" appearance). Several other younger cows in this Spring-calving herd look unthrifty and have diarrhea too. Which one of the following option is the most consistently effective against all stages of this parasite? a. Amprolium b. Thiabendazole c. Levamisole d. Ivermectin e. Morantel

a. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus The key to being able to make this your top differential is noting that the calf has a "honking" cough, dyspnea, and tachypnea, that the calf is not septic. Pulmonary lesions include severe edema and emphysema. Treatment is usually supportive and antibiotics are given to protect from secondary bacterial infection. Mannheimia hemolytica is the main culprit in shipping fever, and Haemophilus pleuropneumoniae is an occasional cause of shipping fever in cattle. Pasteurella multocida can be a secondary invader in any bovine penumonia. P. multocida also causes the most economic loss in swine with atrophic rhinitis

An 8-week-old Beefmaster calf presents with a 2 day history of rapid and labored respiration, depression, salivation, nasal and ocular discharge, and a "honking" cough. On physical exam, there are no signs of sepsis, but the calf is tachypneic, dyspneic, and febrile. Crackles are audible throughout the lung fields. What is your top differential? a. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus b. Haemophilus pleuropneumoniae c. Mannheimia hemolytica d. Pasteurella multocida

b. Poor calving percentage The correct answer is that they are usually asymptomatic, but by the time calving occurs there is likely to be a poor calving percentage. Neither the cow nor bull appear to be remarkably clinically affected. Rarely, one may see a very mild discharge from the cow after early embryonic death, and if there is a pyometra at the time of pregnancy check one could be suspicious. Abortion is not the correct answer because cows don't really abort anything, they just return to heat at an extended interval after being bred.

An owner suspects that he has trichomoniasis in his cattle herd. What clinical signs can you tell him to look for? a. The bulls will have a thick preputial discharge b. Poor calving percentage c. Cows will have metritis d. Abortion

d. 3.5 to 4 years The 4th incisors are actually canine teeth. Full eruption of a new tooth may take another 6 months. REMEMBER, reminants don't have upper incisors but instead have a dental pad.

At what age do a cow's permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible? a. Cows don't have 4th incisors b. 2 to 2.5 years c. 3 years d. 3.5 to 4 years e. 5-6 yars

b. Fetus infected before 125 days of gestation The correct answer is fetus infected before 125 days of gestation, with most of those occurring before 100 days. A fetus infected with BVD at any time during gestation can be aborted or be a stillbirth. Most congenital defects associated with BVD occur when a fetus is infected between days 90-150 of gestation. Persistent infection of fetuses is seen when they are infected before 125 days of gestation. This is of importance because they have a potential to affect many other herdmates since they shed virus but may show no clinical signs. About half of the persistently infected calves will die during their first year of life. Clinical signs in BVD carriers vary greatly. They may range from an asymptomatic animal to one that has diarrhea, fever, pneumonia, and oral ulcerations. Additionally, you may have infected animals that are just repeat breeders. You may also see abortions, stillbirth, and congenital anomalies. The most common congenital anomaly associated with BVD is cerebellar hypoplasia, but there are many others.

At what age during gestation is a fetus most likely to become persistently infected with the non-cytopathic form of bovine viral diarrhea? a. Fetus infected between 200-270 days of gestation b. Fetus infected before 125 days of gestation c. Fetus infected at 320 days of gestation d. Fetus infected between 150-200 days of gestation

a. 48 hrs Parturition may occur anytime between 2 and 7 days but on average it occurs on the second day. A dose of 25-30 mg IM is sufficient

How soon after administration of a dose of dexamethasone for induction of parturition in a cow do you expect parturition? a. 48 hrs b. 12 hrs c. 8 days d. 24 hrs

a. PGF2-alpha and dexamethasone This is because at this point (5-8 months), both the CL and the fetus are involved in maintaining the pregnancy

If trying to abort a cow between 5-8 months of gestation, what will work best? a. PGF2-alpha and dexamethasone b. GnRH c. PGF2-alpha d. Dexamethasone

c. Amprolium A number of drugs can be used to treat or prevent coccidiosis. The treatment dosage is generally higher but for few days than the preventive dosage. Monensin- and sulfa- containing drugs are also frequently used as treatment

Illness in young calves caused by Elimeria sp. is best treated with which of the following? a. Levamisole b. Ivermectin c. Amprolium d. Tetracycline e. Penicillin

e. Prostaglandin F2 alpha

In a cow at 35 days' gestation, elective abortion is most likely to succeed with administration of which of the following? a. Dexamethasone b. Isoxsuprine hydrochloride c. Oxytocin d. Progesterone e. Prostaglandin F2 alpha

b. Cerebellar hypoplasia

Infection of pregnant cows with bovine viral diarrhea virus may cause which of the following neurologic abnormalities in the newborn calf? a. Anencephaly b. Cerebellar hypoplasia c. Hydranencephaly d. Hydrovephalus e. Syringomyelia

c. Winter dysentery Winter dysentery is an epidemic disorder of housed cattle, usually occurring in cold months and affecting 10-90% of adult cows. If fever occurs at all, it usually precedes the diarrhea phase. The disease is thought to be caused by coronavirus, and lesions involve the colon. In typical outbreaks, the disease runs its course in weeks and the herd becomes immune and recovers, although milk production may not recover to previous levels. With Salmonella typhimurium, the cows would be sicker, febrile, have abnormalities in the CBC compatible with endotocemia (neutropenia or neutrophilia), and an increased plasma fibrinogen. In a severe Salmonella typhimurium outbreak, some cows would likely die. The scenario described is not compatible with a diagnosis of Johne's disease. Although a few individual animals in a herd might develop type 2 Ostertagia, a herd outbreak would be highly unlikely, especially involving older cows. With Clostridium perfringens type A, there is a low morbidity and high mortality; signs of small intestinal obstruction develop, and if feces are passed they are very dark and bloody

Just after Christmas, a dairy herd of 200 cows in the northeastern US has experienced an outbreak of diarrhea in 40% of the adult cows, with a resultant drop in appetite and milk production. The animals go to pasture in the spring, summer and fall, but in winter they are housed in a barn. The 2-year-old cows seem most severely affected. You examine two affected animals and find brownish fetid liquid feces full of bubbles. There are clots of blood in the feces of one of the animals. Temperature are normal, but HR=90 (60-70 beats/min), and they appear to be slightly dehydrated. Rumen motility is weak and the rume is relatively empty. No other obvious abnormalities are noted. Yesterday, the dairyman, at your instruction, submitted a CBC and feces to the diagnostic lab. They report that the CBC is normal in both animals, and both are negative for parasite ova. Given the history, age group affected, clinical signs and lab results, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Clostridium perfringens type A hemorrhagic bowel syndrome b. Johene's disease c. Winter dysentery d. Type 2 Ostertagia infestation e. Salmonella typhimurium

e. A 5-month-old calf which was persistently infected as a fetus with a non-cytopathic (non-CPE) biotype of BVD cirus is superinfected with a cytopathic (CPE) biotype of BVD due to rearranging of the parent non-CPE viral RNA A 5-month-old calf is infected with CPE biotype of BVD virus and then superinfected with a non-CPE biotype of BVD is incorrect because it does not say that there was persistent fetal infection; also, the order of the superinfection is the reverse of what causes mucosal disease or chronic BVD A 5-month-old calf which was persistently infected with the non-CPE biotype of BVD virus as a fetus forms antigen-antibody complexes which cause a fatal immune-mediated disorder is incorrect because this is not the mechanism by which mucosal disease or chronic BVD occur All other answer choices are incorrect because they each describe one of the acute clinical syndromes from primary infection, rather than either mucosal disease or chronic BVD

Mucosal disease, or alternatively, chronic Bovine Virus Diarrhea (BVD) occurs in cattle when: a. A 5-month-old calf is infected with CPE biotype of BVD virus and the superinfected with a non-CPE biotype of BVD virus b. A 5-month-old calf is persistently infected with a strain of BVD virus which coats platelets; platelets are then removed by the RE system resulting in a bleeding diathesis c. A 5-month-old calf which was persistently infected with the non-CPE biotype of BVD virus as a fetus forms antigen-antibody complexes which cause a fatal-immune-mediated disorder d. BVD type 2 infects 5-month-old calf e. A 5-month-old calf which was persistently infected as a fetus with a non-cytopathic (non-CPE) biotype of BVD cirus is superinfected with a cytopathic (CPE) biotype of BVD due to rearranging of the parent non-CPE viral RNA

c. Dysfunction of the esophageal groove This is a typical description of esophageal groove dysfunction in a calf resulting in rumen acidosis. To review normal physiology, esophageal groove (also known as reticular groove) is a specialized part of the ruminant stomach that closes in response to drinking milk, directing it directly to the abomasum. When dysfunctional, milk goes to the rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. The resulting rumen acidosis leads to the clinical signs described in this case. For this reason, this phenomenon is sometimes referred to as rumen drinking.

One 3-week-old calf in a group of young calves being fed milk replacer has been depressed, growing poorly and appears unthrift with a rough hair coat. She recently began kicking at her flank, teeth grinding, and vocalizing with an arched back. She has developed white, putty-like feces and is dehydrated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the problem? a. Atresia coli b. Excessive carbohydrate in the milk replacer c. Dysfunction of the esophageal groove d. Intussusception of the small intestine e. Congenital rumen stasis

a. Day 50-150 At 50 to 150 days gestation, the fetal immune system does not recognize the BVD virus as foreign and becomes persistently infected

Persistent infection of a bovine fetus with Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) virus is most likely to occur when the non-immune dam is viremic with a non-cytopathic biotype of BVD at what stage of gestation? a. Day 50-150 b. Any stage has an equal chance c. Never, as only the cytopathic biotype can cause persistent infection d. Day 151 to 280 e. Day 0 to 40

a. Mycobacterium bovis A century ago, Mycobacterium bovis (bovine tuberculosis) used to be a common zoonotic health threat, transmitted through milk to children through their emerging teeth at the gums. Today, human cases of M. bovis are emerging more in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products (like fresh queso). Temperature of pasteurization is set by the toughest, most heat-resistant organism, which is Coxiella burnetii, the cause of Q fever. If the temperature is high enough, for long enough to cill coxiella, it will also kill the other organisms. Brucella and Listeria can also be transmitted in milk E. coli is typically a contaminant from unsanitary milking condtions

Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to prevent transmission of one organism to people. Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products. What is the organism? a. Mycobacterium bovis b. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7 c. Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis e. Mycobacterium avium

c. Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis (Johne's disease) This disease is known to affect cattle, goats, and sheep as well as many species of exotic hoofstock. Infection usually occurs when they are young, but clinical signs do not show up until the animals are stressed. Clinical signs are essentially diarrhea and weight loss due to hypoalbuminemia. The other choices are poor in that they don't result in a herd problem of weight loss and diarrhea in adult cattle

Several 2- to 4-year-old cows in a herd have been losing weight and suffering with chronic watery diarrhea for the past eight months. Which of the following is a good differential? a. Arcanobacterium pyogenes b. Pasteurella multocida c. Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis d. Rotavirus e. Enteropathogenic E. coli

e. Cecal displacement or torsion The 3 most common causes of colic are intussusception, cecal dilation with or without torsion, and abomasal volvulus. You can quickly rule out the torsion of the omasum and abomasum and the RDA, as the ping would be lower on the right and in front of the last rib, plus you would not have palpated the "loaf of bread" rectally. Cattle with intussusception usually have scant dark blackberry-jam-colored feces and on rectal exam, sometimes have palpable hard and painful mass on the right

Tag 10169, a 2.5-year-old Guernsey, presents for clinical signs of colic. There is a history of very little feces being passed over the last 24 hours. On rectal exam, a distended structure can be palpated just cranial to the pelvis. The structure feels like a loaf of bread. Additionally, there is a right sided ping heard from the last rib to the pelvis, high up. The rest of the physical was unremarkable. What is your top differential? a. Cecal tear b. Torsion of the omasum and abomasum c. Right displaced abomasum d. Intussusception e. Cecal displacement or torsion

c. Bovine viral diarrhea virus In utero infection with BVD is a common cause of cerebellar hypoplasia in cattle. Other causes are bluetongue, Akabane, or Wesselsbron viruses. Caudal occipital malformation syndrome is a disorder seen mainly in Cavalier King Charles Spaniels. The malformed occipital bone causes crowding at the caudal fossa and cerebellar herniation at the foramen magnum

The calf shown below was presented with ataxia, intention tremors, and hypermetria; all signs were present since birth. The second image show a normal bovine calf brain on the left and the brain from this calf on the right. Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of the disorder in this calf? a. Organophosphate toxicity b. Border disease c. Bovine viral diarrhea virus d. Copper deficiency e. Caudal occipital malformation syndrome

a. Bacillary hemoglobinuria Also known as redwater, bacillary hemoglobinuria is caused by germination of Clostridium Novyi type D spores in the liver after anaerobic damage by migrating liver fluke larvae. Cl. Novyi was formerly called Cl. hemolyticum. Vaccination can prevent this disease

The image shows an infarct in the liver discovered on post mortem exam of a mature beef cow which died one hour before in a western mountain pasture, after being observed to appear normal one day earlier. There is also dark red urine in the bladder. The pasture contains native plants, some pine trees, and a marshy area with water plants. The cows are unvaccinated and were never wormed. Give this history and the lesion found, the most likely cause of death is ________. a. Bacillary hemoglobinuria b. Pine needle poisoning c. Blue-green algae toxicity d. Viral hepatitis e. Death camas toxicity

d. traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP) The fluid is obviously inflammatory in origin, as judged by the presence of a large amount of fibrin. Other possibilities would be trauma to another part of the GI tract or the reproductive tract.

The ultrasound image of the abdomen of a three-year old dairy cow with fever, inappetence, scant but normal-appearing feces, and decreased rumen motility shows the presence of abdominal fluid and fibrin. Analysis also shows the fluid to have 5 gm/dL protein, and a WBC count of 200,000/uL, most of which are neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Ruptured bladder due to urolithiasis b. Mesothelioma c. Hepatic fibrosis and ascites d. traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP) e. Hypoproteinemia of urinary tract origin

. d. Moraxella bovis In cattle, Moraxella bovis is the most commonly recognized cause of infectious keratoconjunctivitis, ("Pinkeye"). The severity of infection with Moraxella bovis may increase with infection with IBR or other bacteria, such as Mycoplasma bovoculi and Mycoplasma bovis. Other risk factors include heavy fly infestations, solar radiation, and mechanical trauma from plant awns. Chlamydophila pecorum is the most common cause of pinkeye in sheep.

This is a corneal abscess secondary to infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pineye). What is the most commonly recognized organism that causes pinkeye in cows? a. Colesiota conjunctivae b. Chlamydophila pecorum c. Mycoplasma spp. d. Moraxella bovis e. Neisseria spp.

d. Moracella bovis In cattle, Moraxella bovis is the most commonly recognized cause of infectious keratoconjunctivitis. ("pinkeye"). The severity of infection with Moraxella bovis may increase with infection with IBR or other bacteria, such as Mycoplasma bovoculi and Mycoplasma bovis. Other risk factors include heavy fly infestations, solar radiation, and mechanical trauma from plant awns. Chlamydophila pecorum is the most common cause of pinkeye in sheep

This is a corneal abscess secondary to infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye). What is the most commonly recognized organism that causes pinkeye in cows? a. Colesiota conjunctivae b. Chlamydophila pecorum c. Mycoplasma spp. d. Moracella bovis e. Neisseria spp.

c. IV fluids, NSAIDs, frequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic Fever, diarrhea and sudden death in 8-week-old valces is highly suggestive of septicemia due to salmonellosis. Isolate sick calves. Use of antibiotics is controversial as they may prolong recovery and shedding and yield a carrier calf. However, if an animal is septic, it needs perenteral antibiotics. According to Pasquini's, prognosis is poor with neonatal salmonella and deaths can approach 100% in affected calves. In adults, antibiotics may yield a clinical cure, but Salmonellae can establish in biliary system and intermittently shed into GI system, leading to environmental contamination. Prevention is dependent on which species of Salmonella is causing the problems-host adapted or environmental

Two calves aged eight weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak. They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood. One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all. They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6F (40.7-40.9C) [N=101.5-103.5F, N=37.8-39.7C], respectively. Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan? a. Immunize well and sick calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine, antibiotics for sick calves b. NSAIDs, antibiotics in feed and water c. IV fluids, NSAIDs, frequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic d. Cull sick calves, disinfect feeding areas, prophylactic antibiotics and NSAIDs for well animals e. Isolate sick calves, immunize, antibiotics, cull those that do not respond to treatment

a. Metabolic alkalosis Think of hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due to hydrochloric acid (HCI) sequestration in the abomasum of a cow with a displaced abomasum Abomasal hypomotility, ongoing HCl secretion into the abomasum, and partial abomasal outflow obstruction all contribute. Metabolic alkalosis can also be due to HCl loss in monogastric animals who vomit In a similar way, metabolic acidosis can be due to HCO3 loss in saliva if animal cannot swallow, or from diarrhea

What acid-base abnormality would be most likely in a dairy cow with a displaced abomasum? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidocic c. Depends on severity of displacement d. Respiratory alkalosis e. Respiratory acidosis

a. Metabolic alkalosis Think of hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due to hydrochloric acid (HCl) sequestration in the abomasum of a cow with a displaced abomasum. Abomasal hypomotility, ongoing HCl secretion into the abomasum, and partial abomasal outflow obstruction all contribute. Metabolic alkalosis can also be due to HCl loss in monogastric animals who vomit. In a similar way, metabolic acidosis can be due to HCO3 loss in saliva if animal cannot swallow, or from diarrhea.

What acid-base abnormality would be most likely in a dairy cow with a displaced abomasum? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Depends on severity of displacement d. Respiratory alkalosis e. Respiratory acidosis

d. 120-150 days An experienced practitioner can reliably feel fremitus (vibration in uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn) between 120 and 150 days. Remember that fremitus in the uterine artery is a supportive sign of pregnancy but NOT conclusive evidence of pregnancy. An experienced practitioner can reliably feel the membrane slip of chorioallantonic membranes rectally at 30-35 days and can feel placentomes around 70-75 days. Placentomes and membrane slip ARE cardian lsigns of pregnancy. One way to remember there is that the EARLIEST occurs in REVERS alphabetical order ir: -Slip 30-35 days -Placentomes 70-75 days -Fremitus 120-150 days

What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably rectally palpate fremitus in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow? a. 60-75 days b. 45-60 days c. 70-80 days d. 120-150 days e. 90-120 days

c. There is no effect That is the problem with using PGF2-alpha to synchronize estrus cycle in cows. A mature corpus luteum is needed so that PGF2-alpha can lyse it; the cow goes back into estrus in about 2-5 days

What is the effect of PGF2-alpha during anestrus in cattle? a. Induces an LH surge b. Causes the lysis of the corpus luteum c. There is no effect d. Induces FSH release

b. Milk culture This continues to be the gold standard for the accurate diagnosis and treatment of mastitis pathogens.

What is the most accurate and detailed method for diagnosis of mammary gland infection in cows? a. Blood culture b. Milk culture c. Immunohistochemical staining d. Fluorescent antibody test for suspected organism e. CMT

a. Cochliomyia hominivorax This is screwworm myiasis caused by Cochliomyia hominivorax in the New World (North, Central, South America) and Chrysomya bezziana in the Old World (Asia, Africa). Adult screwwrom flies lay eggs on host and the larvae enter via small skin wounds or mucous membranes. Note the tusk-like mandibles on the larva. REPORTABLE. Screwworm has been eliminated in North America - it is still found in South America nad Caribbean countries. Occasional cases are sometimes detected as animals enter the US through airports or border areas, like this 2016 report of screwworm in Florida deer. Cuterebra spp. fly larvae also cause myiasis, but look very different than the larva pictured above.

What organism is depicted in the images below? a. Cochliomyia hominivorax b. Dermatobia hominis c. Onchocerca cervicalis d. Cuterebra spp. e. Coenurus cerebralis

e. DCAD = (Na+K) - (Cl+S) DCAD stands for Dietary Cation Anion Difference. There are the 4 most important strong ions to be considered. When the diet is optimal the urine pH of the Holstein cows should range between 6.2 and 6.8 for cows on the ration

When formulating late gestation anionic diets for dairy cows to help prevent hypocalcemia in the last 2 to 3 weeks prior to calving, what formula is used? a. DCAD = (Na - K) + (P-S) b. DCAD = (Na+S) - (K+Cl) c. DCAD = (Na + Cl) - (K+S) d. DCAD = (Na-Cl) + (K-S) e. DCAD = (Na+K) - (Cl+S)

a. Elbow The hock is actually the most common site

Which is the least common site of osteochondrosis in large animals? a. Elbow b. Stifle c. Shoulder d. Hock

c. Semimembranosus When performing a spread eagle, it is the adductor muscles that are commonly injured. So, gracillis, pectineus, and adductor magnus et brevis are all possible choices. The semimembranosus muscle is the only choice left and it is not involved in adducting

Which muscle group is not likely to be damaged when a cow perform a spread eagle as a result of a slippery surface? a. Pectineus b. Gracilis c. Semimembranosus d. Adductor magnus et brevis

b. Bovine viral diarrhea BVD is currently not considered zoonotic. Pseudocowpox, contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats, and papular stomatitis are all parapox viruses that can cause lesions in humans

Which of the following agents of disease in cattle is not a potential cause of papular lesions in humans? a. Contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats b. Bovine viral diarrhea c. Bovine papular stomatitis d. Pseudocowpox

c. Fecal float Larvated effs may be seen on a tracheal wash. Baermann fecal analysis and necropsy can also be rearding. The eggs are too heavy to float on a fecal float.

Which of the following is least likely to yield a diagnosis of lung worms in cattle? a. Tracheal wash b. Necropsy c. Fecal float d. Baermann fecal analysis

c. Magnesium oxide Magnesium oxide becomes MgOH in the rumen. You may also use magnesium hydroxide or magnesium carbonate. Vinegar will acidification of the rumen and is therefore a poor choice. Propylene glycol and bismus subsalicylate will not affect rumen pH significantly

Which of the following is most appropriate for increasing the rumen pH of a cow with rumen acidosis to the optimum range? a. Bismuth subsalicylate b. Vinegar c. Magnesium oxide d. Propylene glycol

d. Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 A proximal paravertebral block is performed via placement of local anesthetic just off the midline and caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 vertebrae. With a distal paravertebral block, local is placed above and below the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 vertebrae. The spinal nerves, T13, L1, L2 are targeted by a paravertebral block to completely desensitize the flank of a cow. Note the difference: proximal at T13, L1, and L2, distal at L1, L2, and L4, but the same nerves are affected because they gradually course caudally after exiting their spinal foramen. Proper placement results in warming of the skin from vasodilation, anesthesia of the skin and body wall, and a curvature of the spine in some cows. The latter is caused by relaxation of the epaxial musculature on the affected side; the spine curves towards the opposite side.

Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow? a. In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L4 b. Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 c. Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, L3 d. Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 e. At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4

e. Cattle are affected with oral and foot lesions and horses are unaffected Only cloven-hoofed animals are affected by FMD. Therefore, sheep and pigs are susceptible and horses remain unaffected. If lesions are observed in swine, it is important to differentiate FMD from swine vesicular disease. In cattle, it is important to differentiate FMD from vesicular stomatitis, bovine papular stomatitis, pseudocowpox, and bluetongue. Another point is that sheep will not be affected by vesicular stomatitis

Which of the following situation is most consistent with a diagnosis of Foot-and-Mouth disease? a. Horses are affected by foot lesions while cattle are affected with oral and foot lesions b. Horses and pigs will not be affected by the disease c. Both cattle and horses are equally affected with oral and foot lesions d. Sheep are not affected by the disease e. Cattle are affected with oral and foot lesions and horses are unaffected

b. Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPEE) is associated with Fall onset, occurring 5-10 days after changing cattle from poorer to better, often lush, pasture. Toxicity occurs because rumen micro-organisms convert L-tryptophan in lush pasture grasses to penumotoxic 3-methylindole, which damages respiratory epithelial cells. Moldy sweet potato and Purple mint can cause a clinicopathologic syndrome that is indistinguishable from ABPEE. The toxic compounds are respectively, 4-Ipomeanol (Moldy Sweet Potato) and Perilla ketones (Purple Mint Toxicity)

Which one of the following conditions occurs in the Fall in temperate climates, among cattle moved from poor pasture to lush pasture? a. Rumenal hyperkeratosis b. Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema c. Vena caval thrombosis and metastatic pneumonia d. Verminous bronchitis (Husk) e. Vagal indigestion

e. Fetopelvic disproportion Fetopelvic disproportion, where the fetus is too large to pass through the maternal pelvic canal, is the most common cause of dystocia in cattle. It is a significant cause of calf losses, especially in first-calf heifers. Fetopelvic disproportion may occur in small heifers with normal sized calves or in cows with large fetuses. Dystocia occurs on average in ~10-15% of first-calf heifers and in 3-5% of mature cattle. The incidence of dystocia in heifers increases as the the age and size of replacement heifers decreases. The size of the sire and other factors also contribute to the incidence of dystocia. Close monitoring of heifers and early intervention are necessary to prevent calf loss

Which one of the following is the most common cause of dystocia in cattle? a. Uterine inertia b. Fetal monsters c. Maternal birth canal abnormalities d. Abnormal fetal presentation, position, and/or posture e. Fetopelvic disproportion

a. Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed Cows are predisposed to post-parturient bovine metritis by many things, including: -Dystocia - Overfeeding in dry period -Ca-P imbalance in feed Cows are also predisposed to metritis by: - Retained placenta - Contaminated calving environment - Abortion In cattle, the causative bacterial organisms isolated most often are Truperella pyogenes alone or with Fusobacterium necrophorum or other gram-negative anaerobes. Note the name changes: Truperella pyogenes used to be called Arcanobacterium pyogenes and before that it was classified as Corynebacterium pyogenes. Specific diseases associated with bovine metritis or endometritis include brucellosis, leptospirosis, trichomoniasis, and bovine campylobacter.

Which one of the following sets of conditions predispose a cow to metritis? a. Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed b. Agalactia, milk fever, bovine vibriosis c. Strep. agalactiae mastitis, retained placenta, laminitis d. Milk fever, malnutrition, excess dietary zinc e. Contaminated calving environment, abortion, hypomagnesemia

a. at least 7 months Placentomes will be palpable starting between 75-90 days of gestation. The fetus itself will be palpable beginning at approximately 60 days gestation, but may be out of reach between months 4-7 of gestation. Uterine artery fremitus will be evident on the ipsilateral pregnant horn at about 120 days of gestation. From 7 months on, the fremitus can be felt bilaterally

While performing a routine pregnancy exam on a cow, it is noted that placentomes and bilateral uterine artery fremitus are present. At what point in gestation is the fetus? a. at least 7 months b. Approximately 1 month c. Approximately 4 months d. Approximately 6 months

b. You suggest surgical removal and sexual rest for 2-3 weeks Penile warts in young bulls are quite common and are caused by bovine papilloma virus-I (BPV-1) which can also cause warts on the nose or teats. Warts are very contagious and primarily spread by contamination of facility equipment but also spread directly from bull to bull. BPV-1 infection is not associated with other health probelms. The treatment of choice for penile warts is surgical removal. Surgical damage to the warts frequently stimulates an immune response against BPV-1. Healing is usually complete within 2-3 weeks. Autogenous vaccines have been used to treatpenile warts but this is rarely practiced now due to cost and risk of severe reactions and relatively little benefit compared to surgical removal. It is not necessary to wait 6 months before breeding. Bulls typically reach puberty at 9-11 months of age depending on breed. Scrotal circumference of a 1 year-old bull also varies by breed but >30cm is typically recommended for breeding at this age

You are asked to evaluate the breeding soundness of a 1-year-old, 675 lbs Brown Swiss bull. VItal parameters and your general physical examination are unremarkable. You collect semen via electro-ejaculation and note an acceptable semen quantity and quality. Scrotal circumference is 33cm. You note 2 small penile warts near the tip of the penis that have a broad head and narrow stalk. There are no warts detected elsewhere on the bull and no other abnormalities associated with the penis. What should you recommend to the owner? a. You suggest vaccination with an autogenous vaccine b. You suggest surgical removal and sexual rest for 2-3 weeks c. Warts are not contagious but the the bull has a very small scrotal circumference and is not considered a good breeding animal d. The bull should not be bred until at least 6 months after regression of all warts e. The bull should not be bred because he has not yet reached puberty. Warts should be re-evaluated when the bull reaches puberty

d. Serologic testing for Brucellosis You should be most suspicious of Brucellosis based on the assortment of signs (abortions, retained placenta, metritis and lack of signs in younger animals), the timing of abortions (last half of pregnancy), and the relatively normal appearance of the examined fetuses. Plus, the cattle are not tattooed as they should be if they were given calfhood brucella vaccine. Tritrichomonas fetus abortions usually occur in the first half of gestation but do have placentitis and pneumonia in the fetus as does Brucella. Campylobacter fetus sbsp venerealis usually causes early embryonic death. Neospora abortions are usually mid gestation and cause necrosis of the cotyledons, with fetal lesions including myocarditis, hepatitis, myositis and encephalitis

You are called out to a dairy herd that has recently been experiencing reproductive problems. The cows were all acquired 1 year ago from an unknown source and have no known vaccination or tattoos. The dairyman reports that several cows have had late abortions (6-7 months gestation) and weak or stillborn calves in the past year and he's never had this problem before. Several of the cows that had abortions developed placental retention and/or metritis. None of the younger pre-pubescent heifers are displaying any clinical signs. You perform a necropsy on two recently aborted fetuses and find lung consolidation in one but no other obsvious abnormalities. Which of the following should you recommend? a. Test for Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis b. Serologic testing for Neospora c. Test for Trichomoniasis d. Serologic testing for Brucellosis

a. Malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) MCF is caused by a herpes virus carried by sheep in North America and called ovine herpesvirus type 2. The virus affects lymphocytes and allows the animal`s own killer cells to attack blood vessels, resulting in arteritis. Arteritis results in multisystemic signs, high fever, and enlarged lymph nodes. The acute severe form such as described here is usually fatal. While a small number of cattle with BVD may develop corneal opacity, they do not usually have the enlarged lymph nodes and the combination of other signs seen with MCF.

You are called to a small beef and sheep ranch where the owner is concerned about a 1-year old steer which has cloudy eyes, mucoid nasal discharge, thickened and cracked skin, and diarrhea. You examine the animal and find T=107F or 41.7 C, HR=105, RR=40, corneal opacity and thick white nasal discharge (see photo), thick cracked skin all over the animal, enlarged prescapular lymph nodes, and diarrhea with small amounts of blood in it. There are also some oral erosions. Based on the PE you tentatively diagnose this condition. a. Malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) b. Gossypol toxicity c. Vesicular stomatitis d. Bovine papular stomatitis e. Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

a. Pneumothorax Since there is free air in the chest, the lung has lost its vacuum and is collapsed. The free air moves dorsally and you are unable to hear any lung sounds. Fibrinous pleuropneumonia will have lung sounds associated with it. Aspiration pneumonia is usually cranioventral in location. Pulmonary contusion is a differential, but given the location, a pneumothorax is more likely.

You are in the process of auscultating a cow that presented for respiratory distress and you hear no breath sounds in the dorsal chest. What is your tentative diagnosis? a. Pneumothorax b. Aspiration pneumonia c. Pulmonary contusion d. Fibrinous pleuropneumonia

b. Euthanasia Meat from cattle affected with lymphoma cannot be used. Treatment for the disease is economically inadvisable for beef cattle. Enucleation is not likely to cure the disease as it is likely systemic

You diagnose an Angus beef cow with ocular lymphoma. What should you recommend to the owners? a. Corticosteroid therapy b. Euthanasia c. Injectable chemotherapy d. Exenteration of the eye e. Enucleation of the eye

c. Anthrax Anthrax is caused by Baccilus anthracis. The black blood from the orifices, incomplete rigor mortis, and acute death is very characteristic of the disease in cattle. Lesions occur in the reticuloendothelial system and vasculature. DO NOT per form a necropsy on the animals as you would potentially release spores into the environment. You should notify the authorities if you suspect the disease

You go a ranch to evaluate the sudden death of a bull. THere is black, bloody discharge from all oriffices. There is incomplete rigor mortis despite being dead for a day. What is your most likely diagnosis? a. Botulism b. Tetanus c. Anthrax d. Moldy sweet clover toxicity e. Grass staggers

b. Methylene blue Nitrate toxicosis causes methemoglobinemia, in which the blood appears chocolate brown. As a result, the oxygen carrying capacity and delivery is greatly reduced and the animal may die. Methylene blue is usually administered IV as a 1-4% solution, with a total dose of 4 to 15mg/kg body weight to cattle, for treating nitrate toxicosis. Nitrates are found in high levels in many plants and some water sources. The nitrate is converted in the rumen to nitrite and then absorbed into the blood, which causes oxidation of the heme iron to the +3 ferrous state (called methemoglobin). Methylene blue restores the iron in hemoglobin to its normal (reduced) oxygen-carrying state. This is achieved by providing an artifical electron acceptor for NADPH methemoglobin reductase (RBCs usually don't have one; the presence of methylene blue allows the enzyme to function at 5A normal levels). The NADPH is generated via hexose monophosphate shunt

You have diagnosed nitrate poisoning in a group of yearling cattle which were grazing Suadn grass (see photo). Which of the following is the most effective treatment? a. Sodium thiosulfate b. Methylene blue c. Digitalis d. Calcium gluconate e. Vitamin B12