NAVLE Exotics and some bovine Vet Prep

Presence of dysphonia may indicate a lesion in ___ a. CN X b. CN V c. CN VII d. CN III

a. CN X clinical signs of lesions of the vagus nerve include dysphagia, abnormal vocalizing, inspiratory dyspnea, and megaesophagus. A lesion of CN VII (facial nerve) will result in asymmetry of facial expression. A lesion of CN V (trigeminal nerve) may result in atrophy of the masticatory muscles and an inability to close the mouth. Cranial nerve V is also involved in sensation of the face. CN III (oculomotor nerve) is involved in movement of the eye in horizontal and vertical planes; it has nothing to do with dysphonia

Which of the following is a common isolate in infectious stomatitis in turtles? a. aeromonas spp b. salmonella spp c. pasteurella spp d. citrobacter spp e. E coli

a. aeromonas spp Infectious stomatitis occurs commonly in lizards, turtles, and snakes. Aeromonas and Pseudomonas spp are commonly isolated from the lesions. Clinical signs include petechiation and caseous material build up within the mouth. Treatment is aimed at debridement and antibiotics.

Illness in young calves caused by Eimeria sp is best treated with which of the following? a. amprolium b. levamisole c. penicillin d. ivermectin e. tetracycline

a. amprolium a number of drugs can be used to treat or prevent coccidiosis. The treatment dosage is generally higher but for fewer days than the preventative dosage. Monensin-and sulfa- containing drugs are frequently used as treatments

The image shows an infarct in the liver discovered on post mortem exam of a mature beef cow, which died 1 hour before in a western mountain pasture, after being observed to appear normal one day earlier. There is also dark red urine in the bladder. The pasture contains native plants, some pine trees, and a marshy area with water plants. The cows are unvaccinated and were never wormed. Given this history and the lesion found, the most likely cause of death is __ a. bacillary hemoglobinuria b. blue-green algae toxicity c. death carmas toxicity d. pine needle poisoning e. viral hepatis

a. bacillary hemoglobinuria also known as redwater, bacillary hemoglobinuria is caused by germination of clostridium novyi type D spores in the liver after anaerobic damage by migrating liver fluke larvae. Cl. novyi was formerly called Cl hemolyticum. Vaccination can prevent this disease

Classic "Red leg syndrome" in frogs is a result of ___ a. bacterial septicemia b. environmental toxins c. fungal infection d. courtship

a. bacterial septicemia Aeromonas hydrophila is classically associated with red leg, but other organisms have been implicated as well. The condition occurs with poor husbandry, trauma, or immunocompromise.

An adult ferret presents for acute onset of ataxia, salivation, and lethargy. Which of these diagnostic tests would you perform first? a. blood glucose b. sex steroid levels c. radiographs d. ionized calcium

a. blood glucose The first rule out for a ferret with these signs is hypoglycemia. If hypoglycemia is confirmed, an insulin level should be submitted as a diagnostic test for insulinoma.

You examine a 4 year old holstein dairy cow which freshened 2 weeks ago. She has a history of abrupt cessation of lactation and loss of interest in feed. T=105F, HR=90, RR=30. The cow has an arched back and is treading and swishing her tail frequently. On rectal exam, you find an enlarged and painful left kidney. You catch urine in a cup after stimulating her to urinate. Which description of the urine best fits what you would expect to find in this cow? a. cloudy and bloody b. ketonuria c. crystals present d. amyloid casts e. hemoglobinuria

a. cloudy and bloody this cow is likely to have acute pyelonephritis. It is most commonly ascending and associated with E coli, other coliforms, or corynebacterium renale. You could also use ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis, but finding neutrophils, RBC's and bacteria with these signs is indicative of acute pyelonephritis

A full spectrum source of ultraviolet light is required for reptiles for which of the following reasons? a. conversion of inactive vit D to vitamin D3 in the skin b. proper absorption of calcium and magnesium in the gut c. proper absorption of vit D in the gut d. conversion of beta-carotene to vit A e. proper incorporation of iodine into thyroid hormone

a. conversion of inactive vit D to vitamin D3 in the skin Animals housed outside with access to direct sunlight usually have adequate amounts of vitamin D3. Vitamin D3 is required for proper calcium absorption and metabolism. Imbalances in calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D3 can lead to nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism, fibrous osteodystrophy, osteomalacia, cystic calculi, bone deformities, and rickets. Deficiencies in vitamin D3 can be corrected with parenteral administration of vitamin D3 every 4 weeks. Overdoses of vitamin D3 can lead to soft tissue mineralization.

A 6 month old Brown Swiss presents for respiratory distress of 1 day duration. She has a moist, painful cough and a loud inspiratory stridor. On PE, it is noticed that the head and neck are extended, there is a swelling around the larynx, and ozena. She also has a temp of 104.6F and episcleral injection. On palpation of the larynx, a cough is easily elicited along with pain and increased stridor. What is the most likely organism causing this and diagnosis? a. fusobacterium necrophorum, calf diphtheria b. trueperella pyogenes, abscess of throat c. papilloma virus, laryngeal warts d. actinomyces bovis, lumpy jaw

a. fusobacterium necrophorum, calf diphtheria (aka necrotic laryngitis). Clinical signs are seen between 3-18 months of age. The signs are usually acute, and the animals may die within the week if they are not treated. Actinomyces bovis is the cause of lumpy jaw. Trueperella pyogenes may cause laryngeal abscesses, however affected animals are not febrile and septic. Laryngeal papillomatosis is fairly common in feedlot cattle and is caused by a papovavirus. Clinical signs are usually stertorous respiration and a cough. Again, there are no systemic signs as they are with calf diphtheria

Which of the following is not a cause of metabolic bone disease in reptiles? a. high Ca:P ratio b. low calcium diet c. vitamin D deficiency d. lack of UV light

a. high Ca:P ratio This ratio would indicate there is an adequate amount of calcium and would not predispose to metabolic bone disease. Whenever there is not enough calcium either as a result of decreased calcium in the diet or not enough vitamin D, calcium is resorbed by osteoclastic resorption in order to maintain serum levels. This leads to weak, pliable bones which are susceptible to fracture.

Which of these is the most common cause of seizures in the adult ferret? a. hypoglycemia b. hypocalcemia c. idiopathic epilepsy d. hepatic encephalopathy e. intracranial neoplasia

a. hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia secondary to insulinoma is the most common cause of seizures in the adult ferret. Keep in mind, a prolonged seizure can actually cause hypoglycemia, so the finding of low blood glucose in a seizuring ferret does not necessarily confirm a diagnosis of insulinoma. Idiopathic epilepsy has not been reported in ferrets. Hypocalcemia and hepatic encephalopathy can cause seizures, but are not as commonly reported as hypoglycemia.

You have been called out to a hatchery to evaluate a group of fish that has begun to swim erratically and display white spots on the skin and gills. Given the history, what is the likely diagnosis? a. icthyophthirius multifiliis b. aeromonas salmonicida c. lymphocystis disease d. mycobacteriosis

a. icthyophthirius multifillis this is the largest protozoan parasite of the fish. Ich usually affects fish in an aquarium or hatchery-like environment

You have been asked to do an "animal welfare assessment" of a local humane society facility. This humane society is very small and does not have a full-time on-site veterinarian. The part-time consulting veterinarian is in full support of this voluntary assessment. During your walk-through, you notice that a chinchilla is in a small cage (2 feet x 2 feet) and is being given guinea pig pellets as food. What are your recommendations for this chinchilla? a. in your final report, state that chinchilla caging needs to be evaluated in terms of floor space and that it should be fed chinchilla pellets due to unique dietary requirements b. verbally communicate to the part time vet that the humane society should no longer care for small rodents due to their inability to house appropriately c. verbally instruct animal care staff to read on chinchilla husbandry

a. in your final report, state that chinchilla caging needs to be evaluated in terms of floor space and that it should be fed chinchilla pellets due to unique dietary requirements All findings and recommendations should be specific and documented in the final assessment report. Verbal corrections cannot be tracked over time.

A turtle is presented to you for diarrhea. You diagnose a nematode infection on fecal smear. Which of the following is not a treatment option for the turtle? a. ivermectin b. fenbendazole c. thiabendazole d. levamisole e. mebendazole

a. ivermectin Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and causes paresis, paralysis, and death at low doses. Ivermectin is not recommended in turtles despite its efficacy in treating nematode infections.

There is an appointment today for a work up on a lame cow. "playing the odds", what digits are most likely to be involved, because these are the digits most often affected in dairy cattle a. lateral rear digits b. medial rear digits c. medial front digits d. lateral front digits

a. lateral rear digits over 80% of foot disease involving the digits involves the rear digits. Approximately 85% of these involve the lateral aspect. This is because they bear the majority of their rear limb weight on the lateral claw in the hind. In the front, cattle put most of their weight on their medial claw.

A one year old rescued iguana presents for further evaluation as a result of poor growth. Survey radiographs show osteopenia and evidence of remodeling suggestive of a previous fracture. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. metabolic bone disease b. primary hypoparathyroidism c. hypovitaminosis C d. gout

a. metabolic bone disease Other things to look for are a pliable mandible and maxilla. Usually, you will see bowing of the long bones with rounding of the skull. The disease usually occurs as a result of secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism or hypovitaminosis D. Gout results from a primary overproduction of uric acid or an inability to excrete uric acid.

Which of these compounds must be given orally to cattle very carefully so as to avoid aspiration pneumonia? a. mineral oil b. water c. sodium chloride d. propylene glycol

a. mineral oil Because it is a tasteless substance and animals will commonly aspirate it. The result is horrible aspiration pneumonia. Propylene glycol is commonly given to cows that are ketotic, since propylene glycol is a glucose precursor and helps stop ketotic cycles. Sodium chloride is commonly given with water to help replace electrolyte loss.

A producer raising seahorses for the aquarium trade brings you several seahorse fish to examine and necropsy because they have concerns about mycobacteriosis problems in their facility. You ID granulomas in multiple organs via wet mount, and impression smears are acid fast positive. You advise the producer that seahorses are particularly susceptible to mycobacteriosis, and that there is no effective treatment. What else do you need to be sure to inform the producer of? a. mycobacteriosis is zoonotic and may cause fish handler's disease, a condition that presents as a chronic skin injury on the hands where water or fish was touched b. mycobacteriosis is easily prevented in seahorses with prophylactic antibiotic treatments and enhanced biosecurity, such as quarantining new seahorses and using separate nets for different tanks c. mycobacteriosis in fish is caused by the same species that causes respiratory disease in c

a. mycobacteriosis is zoonotic and may cause fish handler's disease, a condition that presents as a chronic skin injury on the hands where water or fish was touched

A 2 year old Holstein cow presents for right hind limb lameness. On PE, you are able to extend the hock and concurrently flex the stifle. What is your diagnosis? a. ruptured peroneus tertius b. ruptured serratus ventralis c ruptured gastrocnemius d. ruptured cranial cruciate ligament

a. ruptured peroneus tertius the ability to extend the hock and flex the stifle at the same time is diagnostic. This is not normal! a ruptured gastrocnemius will result in flexion of the hock with concurrent extension of the stifle. A ruptured serratus ventralis is incorrect because that muscle is on the front end of the cow. This muscle originates at the lateral thoracic wall and inserts on the medial surface of the scapula. If the serratus ventralis ruptures, you will see a diagnostic "flying scapula". A ruptured cruciate ligament would just produce a drawer movement at the level of the stifle. These are difficult to diagnose because it is difficult to perform a drawer test on cattle.

You receive a message from a koi owner who has been experiencing moderate mortality in their pond this summer. You arrive at midday and perform water quality testing, the results of which are provided. They report that many fish have severe skin lesions that are red and raised with deep ulcers exposing the underlying muscle. New fish were added to the pond this past fall. The owner was hesitant to call you at first, because they were worried they might need to depopulate their pond. You call them back and inform them that: a. the prognosis is good with antibiotic treatment b. the prognosis is guarded and depopulation is recommended c. the prognosis is excellent with no treatment required d. the prognosis is excellent with salt treatment e. the prognosis is grave and depopulation will be required

a. the prognosis is good with antibiotic treatment. The top differential diagnosis for this case is "Furnunculosis" caused by aeromonas salmonicida. The classic clinical sign is large, swollen skin lesions mistakenly referred to as "furuncles". Other clinical signs include hemorrhage, kidney and vent swelling, and ulcers.

How is cryptosporidiosis treated in reptiles? a. there is no effective treatment b. fenbendazole c. sulfa abx d. penicillin e. metronidazole

a. there is no effective treatment Clinical signs of cryptosporidiosis in reptiles include regurgitation, weight loss, and debilitation. The organism causes thickening of the gastrointestinal mucosa and loss of motility. Diagnosis is made by acid-fast staining of fresh feces or regurgitated food. Since there is no effective treatment euthanasia is often recommended.

A mouse presents for patchy alopecia on the head. You suspect a dermatophyte infection in the mouse. What is the most common dermatophyte responsible for ringworm in mice and rats? a. trichophyton mentagrophytes b. microsporum nanum c. microsporum canis d. trichophyton verrucosum e. microsporum gypseum

a. trichophyton mentagrophytes The correct answer is Trichophyton mentagrophytes. Microsporum gypseum can occasionally cause dermatophytosis in mice but less frequently than T. mentagrophytes. Approximately 98% of the cases of ringworm in cats are caused by M. canis. In dogs, most cases (approximately 70%) are caused by M. canis followed by M. gypseum and T. mentagrophytes. M. nanum typically affects pigs. T. verrucosum typically affects cattle and horses. T. mentagrophytes is characterized by patchy alopecia, crusting, and flaking on the head. Diagnosis is based on identification of the organism on infected hairs. Treatment is not usually necessary, since the disease is self-limiting, but griseofulvin is efficacious as an antifungal.

A 3 year old king snake presents for retained spectacles after shedding. Which of the following should not be advised to the client? a. use forceps to grasp the eyecaps and peel them off b. apply an ophthalmic ointment several times daily until the eyecaps soften and fall off c. consider searching for other underlying diseases d. increasing humidity in the environment for several days

a. use forceps to grasp the eyecaps and peel them off Dysecdysis or incomplete shedding is often due to low humidity, lack of abrasive substrates to rub against, or other stresses such as ectoparasitism, nutritional deficiencies, or other systemic disease. Retained spectacles should never be forcibly removed because of the possibility of corneal damage. Increasing moisture in the environment by increasing humidity or by applying ophthalmic ointments to the eyecaps can often help.

An Atlantic salmon net pen operator calls you with concerns about loss of fish during the seawater phase of rearing. They report that especially during warm temperatures, fish experience high mortality due to vibriosis. They are currently using florfenicol-medicated feed to treat these outbreaks. The net pen operator is concerned about the consequences of the repeated antibiotic treatments they are administering, and they are looking to you for alternative options for managing vibrosis. You inform them that: a. vaccines are excellent for managing vibriosis b. ampicillin is a superios antibiotic for vibriosis management c. net pens are a biosecure environment and should not have vibriosis d. antibiotics are the only option to manage vibriosis

a. vaccines are excellent for managing vibriosis vibriosis is a common disease of saltwater fish that is caused by gram-negative rods in the vibrio genus. Common clinical signs include hemorrhage, inflammation along the ventral and lateral body, ulcers, and petechiae on the fins, vent and mouth.

Which of the following clinical signs would you expect in a rabbit with a gastric trichobezoar? a. weight loss b. pruritis c. diarrhea d. vomiting

a. weight loss Trichobezoars (hair balls) get stuck in the stomach of rabbits and cause anorexia, weight loss, and scant stool production. Rabbits cannot vomit. Pruritus usually is not the predisposing factor to development of trichobezoars but rather, decreased gastrointestinal motility. Trichobezoars can be treated medically with supportive care and syringe feeding of a high-fiber food. Ideally, you want these to pass without surgery.

What organization is responsible for regulating the food safety of salmon in the US? a. FAO (food and agricultural organization) b. FDA (food and drug administration) c. EPA (environmental protection agency) d. USDA (united states department of ag)

b. FDA (food and drug admin)

Which of the following cows is most likely to develop fatty-liver syndrome if daily energy requirements were to increase? a. a cow with a BCS of 1.5/5 b. a cow with a BCS of 4.25/5 c. a cow with a BCS of 2.5/5 d. a cow with a BCS of 3/5

b. a cow with a BCS of 4.25/5 fat cows are more predisposed to fatty-liver syndrome when they encounter a negative energy balance. Shortly after postpartum, their energy needs increase dramatically with lactation and they mobilize fat stores in such a manner that the liver cannot keep up with the triglycerides coming in. The result is hepatic lipidosis.

What is the most common bacterial pathogen of fish worldwide? This organism is responsible for furunculosis of salmonids, goldfish ulcer disease, carp erythrodermatitis, and trout ulcer disease. a. salmonella salmincola b. aeromonas salmonicida c. yersinia ruckeri d. flexibacter columnaris

b. aeromonas salmonicida Yersinia ruckeri is the causative agent of enteric redmouth disease which is a benign disease with low mortality. Flexibacter columnaris is the causative agent of columnaris disease (aka peduncle disease, fin rot, black patch necrosis, cotton wool disease). Clinical signs include whitish plaques that may have a red peripheral zone which then become erosions/ulcers and lead to necrosis of the skin

An adult chameleon was purchased by an owner one year ago and presents to your clinic with signs of anorexia, decreased activity, and lameness of its left rear leg. The majority of the new owner's chameleon's diet is cat food with occasional insects. The chameleon's enclosure is temperature-regulated and has multiple features on which to climb and hide. Given the history and clinical presentation, which of the following answers is the correct diagnosis? a. salmonella b. articular gout c. hepatic lipidosis d. metabolic bone disease

b. articular gout The key to this question is to note the feeding of cat food. Cat food is too high in protein for reptiles. Reptiles have an inability to process large amounts of protein, thus uric acid may subsequently deposit in the joints. Furthermore, chameleons are primarily insectivorous so the diet is inappropriate. Therefore, this is the most reasonable answer for this presentation in a captive chameleon on a sub-optimal diet. Cat food would not be expected to cause metabolic bone disease or hepatic lipidosis.

You are consulting on a shipment of imported cattle that have arrived in Canada from South America. Ticks have been found on several cattle while they are in quarantine and yesterday one became ill with fever and hemolysis. Hemoglobinuria was observed. A blood smear from this animal is sent to you (see image). Given their origin, the ticks and hemoglobinuria observed, and what you see in the smear, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. bacillary hemoglobinuria b. babesiosis c. anaplasmosis d. transport stress induced hemolytic syndrome e. copper toxicity

b. babesiosis Babesia bigemina and babesia bovis are red cell parasites of cattle found in the america's and spread mainly by boophilus ticks. Other species of babesia can infect man and other animals and are found on most continents. The disease they cause is characterized by hemolyti anemia, hemoglobinuria (which differentiates it from anaplasmosis), icterus, and death. Bovine babesiosis is also called piroplasmosis, red water, texas fever, or tick fever. Eradication of boophilus ticks has been effective means of control in the USA

Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD) in turtles is most commonly caused by which pathogen? a. pseudomonas spp b. citrobacter freundii c. aeromonas spp d. clostridium novyi e. beneckea chitinovora

b. citrobacter freundii SCUD in turtles causes pitted scutes that slough with underlying purulent exudate. Petechia on the skin and liver necrosis also commonly occur. Prevention is aimed at good husbandry, and chloramphenicol is the treatment of choice.

Which antibiotic must you not give reptiles in the caudal half of the body? a. doxycycline b. gentamycin c. enrofloxacin d. ampicillin

b. gentamycin The correct answer is gentamicin. It is important to remember that reptiles have a renal-portal system in which blood from the caudal half of the body passes through the kidneys before returning to the heart. Therefore, administration of a potentially nephrotoxic drug, as are all aminoglycosides, would be contraindicated in the caudal half.

You are primarily a food animal veterinarian, and your client asks you to perform a necropsy on his son's lizard. You cautiously agree to perform a necropsy and identify white chalky nodules in multiple joints. Additionally, there are multiple pinpoint white foci in the kidneys. Given these findings, you recall your reptile lectures and come to a conclusion as to what happened to this lizard. What is your diagnosis? a. aspergillosis b. gout c. hypovitaminosis A d. metabolic bone disease

b. gout The key to this question is to realize that there is probable uric acid deposition in the joints, which would be indicative of gout. Gout occurs when there is an inability to excrete uric acid or an overproduction of uric acid. Metabolic bone disease would cause osteopenia and fibrous osteodystrophy. Aspergillosis can cause white plaques, but you would not expect them to be chalky and in the joints. Hypovitaminosis A does not affect joints.

Which of the following is not a predisposing factor to ulcerative dermatitis (scale rot) in lizards and snakes? a. humid environment b. inadequate UV light c. exposure to fecal degradation products d. skin lesions

b. inadequate UV light Predisposing factors to scale rot or ulcerative dermatitis in snakes and lizards include a humid environment, fecal contaminated bedding, dermal lesions, and poor hygiene. Clinical signs include erythema, necrosis and ulceration of the dermis, and an exudative discharge. Secondary infections often occur with Aeromonas spp and Pseudomonas spp. Secondary bacterial infections can often lead to septicemia and death. Treatment involves improving hygiene and supplying antibiotics.

Several cattle in a herd of 463 have a loud hacking cough, sneezing, fever, anorexia, open mouth breathing, mucopurulent discharge. On PE, white plaques are noticed on the conjunctiva and nasal epithelium. Additionally, their noses are very hyperemic. After obtaining a thorough history, it was determined that several abortions have occurred since the cattle started showing clinical signs. What is your top differential? a. bovine viral diarrhea b. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis c. bovine respiratory syncytial virus d. mannheimia hemolytica

b. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis clinical signs are very typical. IBR will cause these classic upper respiratory tract signs with white plaques. BRSV will lead to atypical pneumonia with a "honking" cough. BVD can lead to respiratory disease but you will observe ulceration of the mouth, not nasal plaques.

Which of the following drugs is toxic to tortoises and turtles but not necessarily other reptiles? a. ampicillin b. ivermectin c. doxycycline d. fluconazole

b. ivermectin Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and causes paresis, paralysis, and death at low doses due to an ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

A 4 year old dairy cow presents for circling to the right, poor appetite, and depressed attitude. On PE, the right side of the cow's face and the right ear are drooping (facial paralysis). What is the most likely causative agent for these signs? a. histophilus somni b. listeria monocytogenes c. pasteurella multocida d. mycoplasma bovis

b. listeria monocytogenes this is the most common CNS infection in adult ruminants. Infection is often associated with feeding of silage. It causes microabscesses in the brain resulting in unilateral cranial nerve signs. It is also a cause of abortions. Treatment is with tetracyclines or high levels of penicillin

You are discussing improving welfare with a rabbit meat producer. Which of the following should he be providing to his rabbits to ensure appropriate welfare? a. once weekly baths b. nest boxes prior to kindling c. dust bathing opportunities d. sunlight e. solid bottom caging

b. nest boxes prior to kindling Nest boxes are essential to the welfare of both does and kits in commercial production operations.

A breeder presents with 3 turtles, and despite your advice not to administer ivermectin, he convinces your technician to administer ivermectin to the turtles. What can you tell the owner to expect? a. ocular signs b. neurologic signs c. respiratory signs d. dermatologic signs e. GI signs

b. neurologic signs Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and causes paresis, paralysis, and death at low doses due to an ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

A 25-month old female rat presents to you for weakness. On exam, you note generalized ataxia, most pronounced in both forelimbs. There is mild left sided exophthalmia and you note the rat pressing its head against the side of its cage. The owner is not interested in diagnostic tests or treatment and feels the rat's quality of life is poor but you are both very interested in finding out the cause of the rat's signs. You perform a gross necropsy and see the abnormality shown in the image below. What is this condition? a. hydrocephalus b. pituitary adenoma c. cerebellar abiotrophy d. bacterial meningitis e. glioblastoma multiforme f. cerebellar hypoplasia

b. pituitary adenoma Pituitary tumors are most common in older female rats and can produce clinical signs from mechanical growth (as described in this question) or related to hormonal disturbances (such as lactation, decreased fertility, PU/PD). This is a macroadenoma which is usually defined as > 10 mm in diameter. Treatment options are usually limited to steroids to temporarily decrease swelling associated with the tumor and nursing care.

An owner arrives with a new bearded dragon for his first physical exam. Before manipulating the lizard, you notice its limbs appear bowed. What should you talk to this owner about? a. animal abuse b. proper nutrition c. euthanasia d. antibiotic therapy

b. proper nutrition Bowing of the long bones is a key sign for metabolic bone disease, which results from hypocalcemia or decreased vitamin D. Proper nutrition will halt the osteoclastic process which is occurring as an effort to maintain normal serum calcium levels.

Which of the following is the best treatment for thelazia in cattle as shown in this image? a. thiabendazole b. remove manually c. piperazine d. fluconazole

b. remove manually after removal, it is recommended to treat with 10% levamisole drops. This is actually a photo of thelazia in a canine, but the appearance is very similar in cattle. The eye-worm can also be treated with ivermectin

It is winter, and you are called to examine a herd of camels that have developed a severe skin condition over the last 2 weeks. The farmer noticed that the camels were losing hair around their head and neck and has now spread down the entire body. On exam, some areas appear swollen and there is hairloss and wrinkling of the skin. The camels are rubbing up against each other and against fences and trees due to intense pruritus. You tell the farmer that the camels most likely have which condition? a. zinc deficiency b. sarcoptic mange c. dermatophytosis d. selenium deficiency e. warbles

b. sarcoptic mange Infection with Sarcoptes scabiei var. cameli is most likely and is the only type of mange to infect camels. It is most common in the winter when the camels huddle together for warmth, thus increasing direct contact with each other. The mange typically starts around the head and neck and then spreads to the rest of the body.

A farmer brings a cow to you with the complaint that the cow is losing weight and not appearing to eat well. On PE you find that the tongue is hard and swollen, as shown in the image. How would you treat this cow? a. ceftiofur b. sodium iodine c. euthanasia, and notify state officials d. banamine e. penicillin

b. sodium iodine The tongue is the area most frequently infected with woody or wooden tongue, although other soft tissues can be infected. The infection is introduced by breaks in the mucosa, allowing the normal rumen inhabitant, actinobacillus lignieresii, to invade and cause painful granulomas. The disease can be successfully treated with IV sodium iodine, although other systemic antibiotics, including tetracyclines can be used. The sodium iodine is given IV once and repeated again in 7-10 days. It is given at a concentration ranging from 5-20%. Ceftiofur cannot be used extra label.

You visit a fish hatchery and need to perform anesthesia on a fish to remove a foreign body. Which of these agents is approved for use in fish and what additional rules apply to its use? a. halothane - must be used in a vacuum system to collect volatile gas b. tricaine methanesulfonate (MS 222) - there is a 21 day withdrawal period before the fish can be consumed by humans c. chloral hydrate - there is a 14 day withdrawal period before the fish can be consumed by humans d. benzocaine hydrochloride - a mask and eye protection should always be worn when handling this agent e. clove oil (Eugenol) - this can only be used in animals that will not be consumed by humans

b. tricaine methanesulfonate (MS 222) - there is a 21 day withdrawal period before the fish can be consumed by humans Also known as Finquel, tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222) is the only FDA approved agent for fish anesthesia. The other agents listed have been used for fish anesthesia but are not FDA approved.

What is the main lesion associated with polioencephalomalacia in cattle? a. herniation of the cerebellum b. bacterial infiltration of the gyri c. necrosis of cortical gray matter d. normocytic, normochromic anemia

c. necrosis of cortical gray matter a normocytic, normochromic anemia is considered an anemia of chronic disease and is not really a lesion. Herniation of the cerebellum through the foramen magnum or the occipital cortex under the tentorium cerebelli may occur, however, only in severe cases, and is associated more with severe swelling of the brain as in salt poisoning. Polio results from thiamine deficiency and has nothing to do with bacterial invasion in the brain

What is the best method to prevent a retained spectacle in snakes? a. apply cyclosporine drops to the eyes b. apply prophylactic triple antibiotic ointment c. provide proper husbandry d. provide a dry environment at time of shedding

c. provide proper husbandry The correct answer is provide proper husbandry. Retained spectacle usually results from improper shedding (dysecdysis) at the level of the eye due to dry conditions. You never want to pull on these "spectacles" as you will damage the eye. Provide adequate moisture and they will resolve on their own.

An iguana presents to your clinic on an emergency basis because the owner noticed the iguana's tongue is very dark red in color. What is your next step? a. begin aggressive broad spectrum abx therapy b. screen the iguana for metabolic bone disease c. tell the owner this is normal for iguanas d. evaluate the iguana for resp distress

c. tell the owner this is normal for iguanas It is of common occurrence that owners suddenly pay attention to their iguana's tongue and note that they are darkly pigmented. If the owner is not properly educated they will likely mistake it for a sign of disease or distress.

A juvenile tortoise presents for difficulty eating due to an overgrown beak. You trim the mouth parts to make a more normal conformation. What do you tell the owner regarding management of the tortoise? a. will require beak trimmings until it reaches full size b. calcium supplementation will prevent requiring future beak trimmings c. the condition usually recurs from primary malocclusion and will likely need long term maintenance d. the condition usually does not recur after the first trimming

c. the condition usually recurs from primary malocclusion and will likely need long term maintenance Abnormal beak growth in turtles is often associated with hypocalcemia causing distortion of the skull as the animal grows. Supplemental calcium is unlikely to affect the skull's formation once distortion has already occurred.

You are called to examine a herd of camels which are having diarrhea and exhibiting signs of weight loss and poor body condition. They are on appropriate feed and supplements and their environment appears suitable. The owner says she deworms them once monthy with Ivermectin. You explain that despite her de-worming efforts, there is a good chance they may have an infection of which intestinal parasite? a. tapeworm b. giardia c. whipworm d. hookworm

c. whipworm Camels are highly susceptible to whipworm infection. Whipworm is suspected to be the most common cause of diarrhea in adult camels in the US. Ivermectin, which is so commonly used, is not typically effective against whipworms which have developed a resistance over time. Panacur is the most effective and safe dewormer for whipworms in camels.

Mycobacterium avium spp paratuberculosis is most commonly recognized in cattle at which age? a. 6 months to 2 years of age b. greater than 5 years of age c. 6 weeks to 6 months of age d. 2-5 years of age e. less than 6 weeks of age

d. 2-5 years of age although younger and older animals can develop Johne's disease. Mycobacterium avium spp paratuberculosis is the causative agent of johne's disease in cattle. It causes wasting, diarrhea, and decreased production. The disease is economically devastating. There is no recommended treatment for the disease. Animals testing positive should be culled

You are called out to examine a 4-year old dromedary who was castrated 10-days ago and is now not eating. The groin and prepucial area are extremely swollen. The camel is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms? a. methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus b. trypanosoma evansi c. rabies virus d. clostridium tetani

d. clostridium tetani This camel is showing signs of tetanus. The organism was likely introduced into the body through the castration wound. It is recommended that camels are vaccinated against tetanus prior to castration. Reference: Trop Anim Health Prod. 2004 Apr;36(3):217-24. While rabies may cause paralysis of the tongue and difficulty swallowing, the recent history of castration in this camel makes tetanus most likely. Trypanosoma evansi is transmitted via biting flies and causes a slow wasting disease in camels.

When visiting a herd of beef cows, you not several of them with achromotricia. What may be causing this condition? a. lead toxicity b. vitamin C deficiency c. dermatophilus congolensis d. copper deficiency e. cheyletiella

d. copper deficiency achromotrichia means an absence of pigment in the hair, so a black animal would develop reddish hair. Other clinical signs of copper deficiency can include diarrhea, poor body condition, lameness, anemia, and infertility. Dermatophilus congolensis results in crusty lesions, usually along the spine, which are due to and exacerbated by damp conditions. Cheyletiella, also called "walking dandruff" is caused by a mite and is usually seen in dogs and cats. Vitamin C deficiency is very rare in ruminants and may cause crusting, alopecia, and pruritis. Lead toxicity will lead to neurological clinical signs

A beef steer in a feedlot has moderate chronic bloat, and is eating poorly and losing weight. He was treated a month ago for BRD complex with antimicrobials given for 3 days. You examine him and find a temp of 104F (100-102.6), HR = 95/min (60-70), RR=64/min (37-36), and the rumen is gas-filled and has only weak motility. When you pass a stomach tube, the gas is readily removed from the rumen. The lung sounds are harsh ventrally on inspiration and expiration, with some crackles and wheezes also auscultable. On percussion, the ventral thorax is full. The steer coughs several times while being examined. What is your diagnosis? a. acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema b. bovine respiratory-syncytial virus pneumonia c. type 2 vagal indigestion d. free gas bloat secondary to chronic bronchopneumonia e. frothy bloat

d. free gas bloat secondary to chronic bronchopneumonia

An iguana is presenting for a change in behavior described as hyperactivity and irritability. The iguana has also recently stopped eating and seems to have an enlarged abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. FB ingestion b. volvulous c. neoplasia d. gravid female

d. gravid female The clinical signs described are typical for a gravid female. They are most likely to present from November to June. On physical exam you can typically feel the lumps in the abdomen which are the large eggs. Intervention in the form of an ovariohysterectomy is performed if attempts at inducing oviposition fail.

This New Caledonian Giant Gecko (Rhacodactylus leachianus) is suffering from dysecdysis. What is the major cause of this abnormality in captivity? a. excessive vitamin A supplementation b. excessive dietary phosphorus supplementation c. improper UVB lighting d. improper humidity

d. improper humidity Especially in climates with very low ambient humidity, reptiles kept in an improper humidity range will often have difficulties with normal ecdysis. Owners may need to provide a "humidity box" to give these animals an area with increased humidity to help with shedding. Excessive dietary phosphorus supplementation may sometimes cause bone resorption, but rarely is a direct cause of dysecdysis. Improper UVB lighting may affect normal calcium metabolism but does not directly relate to normal shedding. Signs of hypervitaminosis A include epidermal necrosis and sloughing. Generally, there are other skin lesions present in addition to dysecdysis (if present).

A boa constrictor presents with a history of regurgitation over the past two weeks and now an inability to right itself. What is your top differential as to the causative agent of the clinical signs? a. dysecdysis b. ruptured urinary bladder c. ophionyssus natricus infection d. inclusion body disease

d. inclusion body disease The exact cause of inclusion body disease is not known, but a retrovirus is strongly suspected. Additionally, it seems as though the snake mite, Ophionyssus natricus is associated with the transmission. Dysecdysis is the term for abnormal shedding. A ruptured urinary bladder is impossible as snakes don't have bladders.

A 3 1/2 year old castrated male ferret presents for episodes of lethargy. He has also been intermittently dragging the pelvic limbs. Which of these choices is a likely cause of these signs in this ferret? a. adrenal tumor b. renal carcinoma c. diabetes mellitus d. insulinoma

d. insulinoma This condition is common in ferrets and would cause bouts of lethargy. Intermittent pelvic limb weakness is another manifestation of systemic weakness secondary to hypoglycemia. Renal carcinoma is not common in ferrets. Adrenal tumors and diabetes mellitus usually are accompanied by different clinical signs.

A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when. a. thiabendazole in early fall b. ivermectin in February c. moxidectin now, in spring d. ivermectin in early fall e. organophosphates in summer

d. ivermectin in early fall This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The 2 species are H bovis and H lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin, or moxidectin) are effective.

A turtle presents with a history of lethargy, anorexia, and swelling of the ears. What is the treatment of choice? a. euthanasia b. no treatment, condition is self limiting c. corticosteroids d. lance tympanic membranes to drain material and begin supplementation of vitamin A

d. lance tympanic membranes to drain material and begin supplementation of vitamin A Accumulations in the ear due to squamous metaplasia and secondary infection can result from vitamin A deficiency. The best thing to do is start systemic antibiotics, drain the ears, and provide appropriate nutrition.

Which of the following animals has oval erythrocytes that do NOT have nuclei? a. chicken b. elephants c. frogs d. llama e. mouse

d. llama Camelids have ovoid anucleated erythrocytes. Mice and elephants have round erythrocytes. Frogs and chickens have nucleated erythrocytes.

An 8-month old iguana presents for further evaluation of a lack of thriving. On physical exam, a pliable mandible and maxilla are palpated. What is your diagnosis? a. coccidioidomycosis b. osteomyelitis c. this is a normal finding d. metabolic bone disease

d. metabolic bone disease Usually, you will see bowing of the long bones with rounding of the skull in addition to the clinical findings mentioned. The disease usually occurs as a result of secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism. When there is inadequate calcium absorbed from the diet, the parathyroid glands become hyperactive, causing release of calcium stores in the bones, leading to fibrous and pliable bones. Adequate nutrition is key to preventing this disease

Which of the following is not a clinical sign of hypovitaminosis A in box turtles? a. respiratory disease b. palpebral edema c. squamous metaplasia of epithelium d. posterior paresis e. renal disease

d. posterior paresis Hypovitaminosis A most commonly affects box turtles that are fed imbalanced diets of fruit and insects that have little vitamin A. Clinical signs include edema of the eyelids, chronic respiratory disease, renal disease (due to the squamous metaplasia of renal tubules blocking collecting ducts), squamous metaplasia of epithelium, and secondary infections of the eyes, skin, and respiratory system. Treatment includes oral or parenteral vitamin A supplementation.

A cow presents with a hard bony mass lesion at the ventral mandible. Which treatment is known as being effective but is not recommended in pregnant animals as a result of concerns about it causing abortion and not for use in lactating dairy animals as a result of food safety issues? a. oxytetracycline b. corticosteroids c. ceftiofur d. penicillins e. IV sodium iodine

e. IV sodium iodine it is commercially available as a 20% solution at a dose of 15 mL/100 lbs (66 mg/kg). The clinical signs are suggestice of lumpy jaw, which is caused by actinomyces bovis. The prognosis is poor, so most animals should be culled. Penicillins are reportably successful at arresting the lesion in very early cases. However, there may be a better chance with IV 20% sodium iodine. That being said, due to concerns that iodine may cause abortion and because of food safety concerns, the label warns not to use sodium iodine in pregnant or lactating cattle. Ceftiofur may not be used in this extralabel fashion

Which of the following is not a feature of tetralogy of fallot? a. right ventricular hypertrophy b. pulmonic valve stenosis c. dextropositioned aorta d. ventricular septal defect e. aortic valve stenosis

e. aortic valve stenosis the 4 features of tetralogy of fallot are right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, dextropositioned aorta (over-riding aorta), and pulmonic valve stenosis. Clinical signs include a bilateral basilar murmur, right sided heart failure, cyanosis, and secondary bacterial endocarditis

One 3 week old calf in a group of young calves being fed milk replacer has been depressed, growing poorly and appears unthrift with a rough hair coat. She recently began kicking at her flank, teeth grinding, and vocalizing with an arched back. She has developed white, putty-like feces and is dehydrated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the problem? a. intussusception of the small intestine b. atresia coli c. congenital rumen stasis d. excessive carbohydrate in the milk replacer e. dysfunction of the esophageal groove

e. dysfunction of the esophageal groove This is a typical description of esophageal groove dysfunction in a calf resulting in rumen acidosis. The esophageal groove (also known as reticular groove) is a specialized part of the ruminant stomach that closes in response to drinking milk, directing it directly to the abomasum. When dysfunctional, milk goes to the rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. The resulting rumen acidosis leads to the clinical signs described. This is sometimes referred to as rumen drinking

A boa constrictor presents to you for weight loss, vomiting, hemorrhagic diarrhea, and anorexia. The snake is housed with herbivorous turtles, which all seem to be healthy. What pathogen should you be suspicious of? a. plasmodium spp b. aspergillus spp c. salmonella spp d. citrobacter spp e. entamoeba spp

e. entamoeba spp Entamoeba invadens is a protozoal organism that causes severe gastrointestinal signs and death in snakes. Turtles act as carriers for the protozoa but are clinically unaffected. Diagnosis is based on identification of trophozoites or cysts in fecal smears or histologic sections. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice. Turtles and snakes should not be housed together.

An adult male iguana, fed a poor diet high in protein and low in vitamins, presents with a history of lethargy, inappetance and abdominal straining with the voiding of small amounts of red-tinged urates. You palpate a firm mass in the caudal abdomen which is confirmed with radiographs. At this time what is your best diagnosis and therapeutic response? a. cystic calculi and surgical removal b. renal tumor caused by inclusion disease virus, start corticosteroids for immediate immunosuppression c. gastric RB, promote regurgitation by providing a cathartic such as psyllium or ipecac d. hepatomegaly caused by iguana septicemia virus (ISV), begin abx and monitor regression of liver size with monthly rads

a. cystic calculi and surgical removal Iguanas are predisposed to developing large cystic calculi if they are fed an imbalanced/improper diet. Radiographs contribute to the diagnosis, which show classic round cystic calculi within the bladder. If the calculi are large such that they will not pass, surgery may be indicated. In order to promote proper healing and to decrease the chance of calculi recurrence, a balanced diet appropriate for iguanas must be provided.

A 4 year old Holstein dairy cow in mid-lactation has developed acute onset illness and is colicky (kicking at abdomen, switching her tail, repeatedly lying down and getting up). Her temp is 102.0F, HR=100/min, her scant feces are sticky and dark blackberry jam colored, her abdomen is distended and there is no rumen motility. No pings are audible. Her PCV=30% (24-46%). A blood gas and electrolyte panel reveals Na=140 (136-144), K=2.5 (3.6-4.9), Cl=80 (99-107), and HCO3=40 (20-30). Based on these clinical signs and lab values, which of the following is most likely to be the correct diagnosis? a. salmonellosis b. cecal dilation c. abomasal ulcer d. LDA e. intussusception

e. intussuception The only choices likely to cause colic are intussusception, cecal dilation, and abomasal ulcer. Of those 3, only intussusception would cause scant, sticky, dark feces. The intussusception usually occurs in the jejunum or ileum, and results in a backed up GIT. This causes chloride to be sequestered in the abomasum, as well as internally vomited into the rumen, resulting in hypochloremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. A PCV of 30% is normal for a cow so a bleeding ulcer is unlikely; the HR of 100/min in this case is likely due to pain rather than anemia

You examine a holstein steer with the complaint of poor appetite, depressed attitude, and ventral swelling. You note a normal TPR, but he has a large ventral swelling that pits on palpation (see image). On rectal, a small bladder is palpable. What is the correct diagnosis? a. ruptured bladder b. umbilical hernia c. penile hematoma d. corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection e. ruptured urethra

e. ruptured urethra in the bovine, urolithiasis often results in rupture of the urethra. Urine then leaks into all the ventral tissues and causes this massive ventral edema, which progresses to necrosis and sometimes to gangrene

It is halfway through the spawning season at a spring chinook hatchery, and the pre-spawning mortality is approaching 10%. the hatchery manager reports that fish are flashing, piping at the surface, and generally lethargic. You examine a number of spawned fish and mortalities and observe the lesion displayed on the majority of the fish. The skin scrape and gill biopsy you perform reveal many large, rolling ciliates. How will you determine the frequency of your treatment? a. decrease treatment frequency at low dissolved oxygen levels b. decrease treatment frequency at low salinities c. increase treatment frequency at high temperatures d. only a single treatment is required e. increase treatment frequency at high pH

c. increase treatment frequency at high temperatures

An outbreak of psoroptic mange is ID'd in a herd of cattle. What is the treatment of choice? a. levamisole b. pyrethrin c. ivermectin d. albendazole

c. ivermectin albendazole and levamisole are used to treat worms. Ivermectin is more effective than pyrethrin

Which of the following is a causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis as shown in this image? a. E coli b. histophilus somni c. moraxella bovis d. thelazia

c. moraxella bovis Thelazia is the eye worm. Histophilus somni is a cause of many syndromes, but is rarely found in the eye. E coli is not an ocular pathogen

Post-milking teat dips are not effective at preventing this type of mastitis in cows a. mycoplasma bovis b. streptococcus agalactiae c. corynebacterium bovis d. staphylococcus aureus e. escherichia coli

e. Escherichia coli this is an environmental contaminant and not a contagious organism. Pre-milking teat dips are useful for preventing such noncontagious diseases as E coli, enterococcus, and streptococcus sp other that S agalactiae. Post-milking teat dips help prevent the spread of contagious pathogens such as strep agalactiae from the skin into the streak canal and gland

A dairyman is trying out a new feeding protocol to help increase milk production. Since he instituted the change a week ago, several of his best cows have become mildly depressed, dropped in milk production, and several have developed diarrhea. A needle aspirate from the rumen 2 hours after feeding reveals an average pH of 5.2 among these cows. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. left DA b. hardware disease (TRP) c. grain overload d. vagal indigestion

c. grain overload also known as rumen acidosis or lactic acidosis. The change in feeding protocol coupled with the fact that rumen pH is below 5.5 in the most productive cows make this the answer

A rancher raises purebred animals and is always concerned about reputation and selling only healthy animals. He calls you to examine a cow that has been out in a back pasture unobserved for over 2 months, and you suspect bovine leukosis (BLV, bovine lymphosarcoma) based upon the fact that she has multiple large lymph nodes. You aspirate a node and it contains only lymphocytes, further enhancing your suspicions. What test can you now use to confirm that this individual has BLV and also utilize to examine the 200 individuals in his herd for BLV? a. perform blood lymphocyte counts in all animals b. biopsy one lymph node in each animal and submit sample for PCR c. ELISA to detect antibodies to BLV d. PCR to detect BL virus in blood of all animals e. AGID to detect antibodies to BLV

c. ELISA to detect antibodies to BLV ELISA to detect antibodies has been found to have the best sensitivity and specificity of all tests on a herd basis. If the individual with multiple enlarged lymph nodes is also ELISA positive, a necropsy should be performed. PCR can be negative in infected animals with low numbers of circulating infected lymphocytes, even when they are ELISA antibody-positive. Few infected cows that are still asymptomatic have elevated blood lymphocyte counts. Performing biopsies on 200 cows is not practical

A state fish and wildlife agency calls you looking for advice about how to anesthetize lake trout brookstock for a tagging procedure. They have historically used clove oil but recently discovered that it is not FDA-approved and therefore illegal to use in food fish. They are concerned about fish welfare during the tagging procedure and are hoping that you can refer them to a product that they can use to legally anesthetize food fish. You advise them that: a. clove oil is legal with a veterinary prescription b. eugenol is legal with a 10 day withdrawal c. MS-222 is legal with a 21 day withdrawal d. alfaxalone is legal with no withdrawal e. metomidate is legal as an Investigational new animal drug

c. MS-222 is legal with a 21 day withdrawal. It is extremely acidic and should be buffered by weight with baking soda to prevent fish from developing skin and eye lesions.

6 month old bull calf is not eating all his feed today and has d+. He has just purchased this registered bull calf from a neighboring state, and was shipped a week ago during some very cold weather. T=104F, HR=90, and RR=35 with poor rumen motility. several ulcers on dental pad and d+ is foul smelling and contains flecks of blood. The calf is hemorrhaging from small scleral blood vessels (photo). You quickly take a blood sample and have assistant run it to the lab, which calls you less than an hour later to say that the thrombocyte count is 5000 (norm is 100,000-800,000) You tell owner that calf appears to have BVD infection with thrombocytopenia. What should be your first line of therapy be if you are to save this calf. a. IVF to treat dehydration b. antiviral drug therapy c. fresh whole blood transfusion d. immunostimulant drugs IV e. high doses of IV ceftiofur

c. blood transfusion with fresh whole blood The thrombocytopenia is caused by BVD virus adhering to thrombocytes which are then removed by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system. Once the number gets this low, fatal hemorrhage is possible at any moment. Although not usual, this form of BVD has been described. The other forms of therapy may be needed as well. If the calf survives, you will also need to determine whether or not he remains persistently infected with BVD... if he does, he should not be retained

A 1-month old female alpaca presents to you for difficulty breathing and difficulty nursing. On your physical exam, you note that the cria is open mouth breathing. You also note that it has extra digits. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. congenital hepatic lipidosis b. gutteral pouch empyema c. choanal atresia d. parelaphostrongylus tenuis (meningeal worm) e. gutteral pouch emphysema f. nasopharyngeal polyp

c. choanal atresia There may be a few questions on camelids on your board exam. There are a few diseases that are specific to them that are worth knowing a little bit about for your exam including choanal atresia and meningeal worm infections. Choanal atresia is one of the most common congenital defects in alpacas. It occurs when the normal opening between the nasal and pharyngeal areas is blocked by membranous tissue and/or bone. Signs of this condition are labored breathing, prolonged and difficult expiration, open-mouthed breathing, choking and gagging while nursing, cyanosis, weakness, lack of weight gain, and aerophagia. Euthanasia is typically recommended, as the prognosis is poor even with surgical correction. These animals frequently have additional congenital abnormalities such as polydactyly, cardiac, renal or reproductive organ defects.

An adult 3 year old suffolk ewe presents to the hospital with an acute onset of depression, icterus, pallor, and cold extremities. The 10 sheep have been housed in a small corral for the last several years, and are regularly vaccinated against common clostridial diseases (last vaccines given 6 months previously). The owner has been supplementing his sheep's grass hay with grain formulated for his steers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

c. copper toxicity think about the clinical signs and the fact that steer feed contains too much copper to be safely fed to sheep. As a result of eating feed too high in copper (sheep being the most susceptible species) the liver copper levels build up until suddenly released, causing massive hemolysis and resulting icterus. This is often fatal. Copper toxicity causes hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, and renal failure. Carbon monoxide toxicity is unlikely in outdoor animals and will not cause all of the clinical signs mentioned. Onion poisoning can cause hemolytic anemia but these sheep are confined and were not known to be exposed to onions. There has been no possible exposure to liver flukes (wet areas with snails). C perfringens types C and D vaccines were given (no type A vaccines are sold in the US), and yellow lamb disease is highly unlikely in a 3 year old sheep

You have diagnosed interdigital necrobacillosis (infectious footrot) in a herd of 300 female beef cattle. it is a rainy summer and the animals have been confined for AI in muddy conditions. In addition to treating the obviously lame cattle with oxytetracycline, which of the following recommendations should be made to effectively aid in controlling and preventing the spread of this problem? a. test all animals and remove fusobacterium necrophorum carriers b. vaccinate herd against dichelobacter nodosus c. either disperse the group or provide a dry area on which to stand d. put several tons of crushed stones in one area for the cattle to stand on e. spray the entire pasture with 2% copper sulfate to eradicate the organism

c. either disperse the group or provide a dry area on which to stand the high density of animals, wet muddy conditions, combined with interdigital trauma from rocks, can be major culprits. Break that cycle if possible

You are presented with a 10 day old Holstein dairy calf weighing 40 kg that is cold (temp is 97 degrees F) and nonresponsive. Her eyes appear sunken as in this photo. In addition to placing the calf on a warming pad, what is the best treatment? a. gentamycin IV at the label dosage b. 4 liters fluid containing equal amounts of sodium and chloride c. 1 liter of subQ fluids containing glucose, sodium, bicarbonate, chloride, and lesser amounts of potassium d. 4 liters of IV fluids containing glucose, sodium, bicarbonate, chloride, and lesser amounts of potassium

d. 4 liters of IV fluids containing glucose, sodium, bicarbonate, chloride, and lesser amounts of potassium the calf is in metabolic acidosis (base deficit of about 15) and needs sodium containing fluids IV that contain bicarbonate or other base. 4 liters IV is a more appropriate fluid volume for a dehydrated 10 day old calf, calculated as 10% of the 40 kg body weight). The sunken eye, as seen in the photo, is an important indicator of marked dehydration. To treat metabolic acidosis caused by loss of sodium containing fluids you need to give more sodium than chloride, so sodium bicarbonate is the fluid of choice. Neonates such as this one tend to develop severe metabolic acidosis as they dehydrate due to absorption of acids from the gut and due to the loss of renal compensatory mechanisms due to poor renal perfusion. The calf is also likely to be hypoglycemia, so adding glucose is essential. As you rehydrate and bring up blood glucose, the serum potassium will be driven back into cells and needs to be replaced with some potassium in the fluids.

If trying to abort a cow between 5-8 months of gestation, what will work best? a. GnRH b. dexamethasone c. PGF2-alpha d. PGF2-alpha and dexamethasone

d. PGF2-alpha and dexamethasone At this point (5 to 8 months) both the CL and the fetus are involved in maintaining the pregnancy

A dairy cow that freshened 3 weeks ago presents to you with little rumen motility, protrusion of the 3rd eyelid and a stiff stilted gait. You suspect that she has been affected by tetanus. The most likely source of the infection is __ a. a migrating foreign body b. rumen atony allowing for an anaerobic environment c. a nail imbedded in her hoof d. a recent metritis / uterine infection

d. a recent metritis/uterine infection cows presenting with clinical signs suggestive of tetanus infection often have had a recent uterine infection. Cattle tend to develop tetanus less commonly than horses, sheep, or goats, as they are less sensitive to the toxin. Calving or surgical castration are common in the history. Tetanus may develop from hoof wounds, as occurs in horses, but this is rare in cattle. The tetanus toxin moves retrograde up the peripheral neuron into the spinal cord, where it prevents release of inhibitory neurotransmitters such as GABA. This inactivation of inhibitory neurotransmission causes spastic paralysis. It is possible to develop tetanus from hoof wounds, as is common in horses, but this is very uncommon in cattle

Which of the following statements about rabbit teeth is correct? a. only the rabbits canine teeth are open-rooted and continuously growing b. all of the rabbit's teeth are open-rooted but only the incisors are continuously growing c. only the rabbit's incisors are open-rooted and continuously growing d. all of the rabbit's teeth are open-rooted and continuously growing

d. all of the rabbit's teeth are open-rooted and continuously growing Rabbits do not have canine teeth but have a diastema between the incisors and premolars. Because their teeth continually grow, dental malocclusion necessitates teeth trimming since the teeth do not wear down and grow continuously.

Which of the following is not a cause of teat lesions? a. herpes mammilitis b. pseudocowpox c. vesicular stomatitis d. anaplasmosis e. bluetongue virus

d. anaplasmosis this is a cause of extravascular hemolysis. Pseudocowpox is a parapox virus and results in proliferative teat lesions. Vesicular stomatitis is a reportable disease caused by a rhabdovirus. It is reportable because it is similar in presentation to foot and mouth disease. Clinical signs include ulceration of the teats and mouth. Bluetongue and herpes mammillitis also result in ulcerative lesions

The image demonstrates a sole abscess on the left rear medial claw of a commercial dairy cow which freshened one month previously. You plan to pare out the abscess and drain it. What additional step is most effective (and cost effective) to keep this cow in production while this problem resolves? a. soak the foot twice daily in hot epsom salts and water for one hour b. give long acting tetracycline injection IM c. apply wooden hoof block to affected left rear medial claw d. apply wooden hoof block to left rear lateral claw e. give IM penicillin for 5 days

d. apply wooden hoof block to left rear lateral claw

This adult Caiman is housed singly in a 100-gallon aquarium with a bark substrate, soaking area and several large logs as cage furniture with a ceramic heat bulb as well as a complete UV light source. This animal is fed primarily a fish diet. The owner does not monitor the temperature gradient in the enclosure. What is the most likely cause of scars, like these, seen along the dorsum? a. prey wounds b. mites c. chemical exposure d. burns

d. burns Owners will very often place heat-emitting bulbs over an enclosure in an attempt to increase the temperature. If it is too close, reptiles may stay in one place and suffer burns. Chemical exposure generally only occurs if owners do not thoroughly rinse an enclosure after cleaning with a caustic agent. However, these are more commonly seen along the ventrum. Prey wounds occur with some frequency in animals fed live prey (usually rats or mice) if the prey is not consumed quickly, or if the reptile is anorexic. However, this caiman is not fed animals that can inflict wounds if not consumed. Ectoparasites are relatively uncommon in reptiles, and mite infestations usually result in scale loss or erythema, not overt scarring.

Which of the following is a common means by which Bovine virus Diarrhea (BVD) virus is maintained in a "closed" beef herd? a. by ingestion of the L-3 to L-4 stages of intermediate host, roundworms b. transmission by a fly vector c. by commingling of cattle and dogs d. by birth of calves persistently infected with BVD due to early-gestation in utero infection with specific types of BVD virus e. by ingestion of virus-containing animal neural tissue in concentrate mixes f. by direct infection/re-infection of vaccinated cattle from outside sources

d. by birth of calves persistently infected with BVD due to early-gestation in utero infection with specific types of BVD virus bovine fetuses infected with so-called "non-CPE" BVD virus early in gestation can survive to term and beyond birth as persistently infected (PI) calves. They are thus a source of infection for the remainder of the herd. By definition, a "closed herd: would have little opportunity for exposure to "outside sources of BVD. Ingestion of feed contaminated with bovine neural tissue is a likely means of spreading bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), but is not known to be a means of transmitting BVD. No role for roundworms as intermediate hosts for BVD has been shown. Co-mingling of dogs and cattle has been shown to transmit neosprum caninum, but not BVD

The snake in the image below is being irradiated with a Strontium-90 probe. Strontium-90 radioactively decays and emits beta particles which allow delivery of very high doses of radiation to a small superficial area. All of the following are considered important principles of radiation protection for personnel (radiation workers) that should be followed EXCEPT for which of the following? a. plexiglass shielding should be used to decrease radiation exposure to personnel b. all personnel should stand as far away from the strontium probe as reasonably achievable c. all personnel should hold to strontium probe for the minimum amount of time that is necessary d. pregnant women should not handle a strontium probe

d. pregnant women should not handle a strontium probe Significant knowledge about Strontium is not necessary to answer this question correctly. The principle of ALARA (as low as is reasonably achievable) should always be followed when dealing with radiation, regardless of the type of radiation. This means that you should always take reasonable steps to keep radiation dose to personnel as low as you reasonably can. The 3 main ways to decrease radiation dose are to increase the distance of personnel from the radiation source, to decrease the time of exposure of personnel to radiation, and to use appropriate shielding to decrease radiation to personnel. The same principle holds true for pregnant women. There are acceptable exposure limits for pregnant women (the most commonly used is <0.5 milliSieverts per month during pregnancy). If steps are taken to keep exposure as low as reasonably achievable, pregnant woman would be able to handle the Strontium probe and keep the dose well below these limits.

A large 5 year old iguana presents on emergency for an acute onset of not doing right. On physical exam, there is episcleral injection, swelling of the pharyngeal region, and pain on palpation of the abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. FB ingestion b. hypersensitivity reaction c. gravid female d. renal failure

d. renal failure The clinical signs described are typical of an iguana in renal failure. Typically, these iguanas are large and on a high protein diet. The episcleral injection and pharyngeal edema is thought to be as a result of hypertension due to the renal failure and is not a hypersensitivity reaction. The abdomen is usually painful with large soft palpable kidneys.

This is a radiograph of a valuable 3 week old dairy calf which is very lame. What is the correct diagnosis? a. arthritis b. osteosarcoma c. fractured distal third metacarpal d. septic arthritis and osteomyelitis e. fescue foot

d. septic arthritis and osteomyelitis the destructive lesions in both joint and bone in an animal this age means infectious process. This needs to be cultured, vigorously lavaged or surgically opened and flushed, followed by aggressive systemic antimicrobial drug therapy with appropriate drugs.

In copper deficiency, animals may suffer from achromotrichosis (pale hair coat) as a result of this enzyme not working properly. What is the enzyme? a. glutathione peroxidase b. myophosphorylase c. lysyl oxidase d. tyrosinase

d. tyrosinase this enzyme converts L-tyrosine to melanin. Lysyl oxidase is involved with synthesis of collagen in connective tissue and it is also dependent on adequate copper levels. Glutathione peroxidase is involved in free radical protection and selenium is necessary to keep this enzyme going. Myophosphorylase is a muscle enzyme that is associated with a genetic disease of charolais cattle.

A 5-year old female intact New Zealand White rabbit presents for hematuria, anorexia, and weight loss. What is the most likely differential? a. rabbit syphilis b. pregnancy c. porphyrinuria d. uterine adenocarcinoma e. normal estrous

d. uterine adenocarcinoma Uterine adenocarcinoma is the most common neoplasia of female rabbits, with up to 80% incidence among intact females of certain species. Because of this, all female rabbits that are not breeders should be spayed. The most common signs of uterine ACA are hematuria, anorexia, depression, dysuria, and milk production. Pregnancy would be unlikely to cause hematuria. Rabbits are induced ovulators and do not exhibit estrous. Hematuria must be distinguished from porphyrinuria, which is a normal red or orange pigment in the urine of some rabbits. However, porphyrinuria does not cause anorexia and weight loss. Rabbit syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Treponema paraluis cuniculi. It causes perineal lesions but does not cause hematuria.

This 3.5 month old calf presents for weakness and failure to thrive. On PE, you find normal temp but rapid HR and RR. A loud holosystolic murmur is heard on both sides of the thorax with maximal intensity in the region of the tricuspid valve. It is also clearly heard on the left side with maximal intensity near the pulmonic valve (far forward). What is the most likely diagnosis? a. patent foramen ovale b. patent ductus arteriosus c. traumatic reticulopericarditis d. ventricular septal defect e. endocarditits

d. ventricular septal defect In order to answer this question, you need to "play the odds" and know that VSD's are the most common congenital heart defect in cattle and they usually present at about 2-3 months of age because they are failing to thrive and/or are developing pulmonary edema and secondary pneumonia. This defect results in oxygenated blood being pushed back into the right atrium and ventricle. In addition, you will see right ventricular dilation and hypertrophy. The increased flow through the right side creates a relative pulmonic stenosis, and thus the murmur is also heard on the left side in the area of the pulmonic valve. VSD is the most common congenital defect in cattle.

During routine surveillance of a rainbow trout hatchery, the younger fish are noted to be swimming in an erratic pattern. On closer evaluation, the fish seem to be deformed around the head and spine. One of these fish is sacrificed for necropsy and diffuse necrosis of the cartilage and spores in the cartilage area are observed. What is your diagnosis? a. gill rot b. ich (ichthyophthirius multifiliis) c. hole in the head disease d. whirling disease

d. whirling disease causative agent is myxobolus cerebralis. Rainbow trout are most commonly affected and the parasite can cause deformation of the head and spine resulting in the inability to swim properly

A dairy farmer in California calls you in distress. He has just found 16 dead yearling holstein heifers in a pasture near his home. All 16 were observed yesterday and appeared normal. You perform a postmortem on 2 animals and find the plant pictured in the rumen. You walk out to look at his pasture and note that this plant is growing in the cemetery adjacent to his pasture and you find a pile of clippings containing grass and the plant near the fence. What is the plant? a. lupine b. skunk cabbage c. locoweed d. yew e. oleander

d. yew Both japanese yew (taxus cupsidata) and english yew (T baccata) contain alkaloids called taxines that are highly toxic and depress myocardial conduction by blocking sodium movement through membranes. Collapse and sudden death are commonly seen when this plant is ingested, often when clippings are consumed by livestock. Oleander causes similar clinical scenarios

A client brings you a box turtle that he recently purchased and has been caring for. On exam, you see that the turtle's eyelids are markedly swollen due to palpebral edema and nasal discharge. Which of the following questions would be most helpful in determining the cause of the turtle's clinical signs? a. what do you use for a light source and how many hours per day is it on? b. are there other animals in the turtle's enclosure? c. what is the temperature in the turtle's habitat? d. what area of the country did the turtle come from? e. what is the turtle's diet?

e. what is the turtle's diet? The signs described are characteristic of Vitamin A deficiency (hypovitaminosis A). Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that acts as an antioxidant and helps growth and repair of tissues. It is important for proper function of the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes. Squamous metaplasia occurs in vitamin A deficiency and most commonly causes changes to the tear ducts. The cause of hypovitaminosis A is an inadequate diet; therefore, finding out about the turtle's diet would be the most helpful information. Turtles fed iceberg lettuce, an all meat diet, or a poor quality commercial diet are prone to developing a vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is present in high quantities in green leafy vegetables (especially dandelion greens), yellow and orange vegetables such as carrots and yellow squash, whole fish, and liver.

A 3-year old llama presents to you with ataxia and hindlimb paresis that began in the hind limbs and progressed to the front limbs over the course of 2 months. Bloodwork is unremarkable, and vertebral radiography is within normal limits. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows eosinophilia. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. tick paralysis b. bacterial meningitis c. cervical spondylopathy d. taenia saginata e. listeriosis f. paralaphostrongylus tenuis

f. parelaphostrongylus tenuis The meningeal worm (Parelaphostrongylus tenuis), also known as the deer worm or meningeal deer worm, frequently infects llamas and alpacas. The definitive host is the white-tailed deer, but llamas and alpacas are aberrant hosts and typically display neurologic signs that may include hypermetria, ataxia, stiffness, muscle weakness, posterior paresis, paralysis, arching neck, and circling. Clinical signs generally begin in the hind limbs and progress to the front limbs. The course of disease is variable. The key to answering this question is recognizing the eosinophilia in the CSF fluid which suggests a parasitic infection. Taenia saginata is a beef tapeworm which can infect humans. The other choices are less likely in this case due to the CSF findings. There may be a few questions on camelids on your board exam. There are a few diseases that are specific to them that are worth knowing a little bit about for your exam including choanal atresia and meningeal worm infections.