NCCT Review - Patient Care (Part 3)
Which of the following actions by the medical assistant is appropriate when interacting with a patient who is visually impaired?
Explain where things are positioned by referencing a clock image. By providing general orientation to the environment, the visually impaired patient feels more comfortable. It is of utmost importance to maintain a visually impared patients dignity and independence in this type of setting. Guiding them physically takes away independence and could decrease their comfort level. Limiting communication or talking loudly is inappropriate.
After checking an unconscious patient's vitals, the adult patient has a heart rate of 75 BPM and no signs of breathing. Which of the following is the correct course of action?
Perform rescue breathing Since this patient has a pulse but is not breathing, rescue breathing would be the appropriate course of action. If CPR is indicated for an adult patient, there would be no pulse (no measurable heart rate) or signs of breathing. The presence of a heart beat eliminates the need for chest compressions or a defibrillator. Abdominal thrusts would be performed on a patient that is choking, which is not a factor in this case.
Which of the following instructions should the medical assistant give a patient prior to a scheduled spirometry PFT test?
Stop using bronchodilators for 24 hours. Medical assistants must instruct patient's preparations for the tests prior to the test being done. Spirometry (meaning the measuring of breath) is the most common of the pulmonary function tests (PFTs), measuring lung function, specifically the amount (volume) and/or speed (flow) of air that can be inhaled and exhaled. Since a PFT is a pulmonary function test to check breathing functions, we instruct the Patient to stop smoking, refrain from using bronchodilators or nebulizers for 24 hours prior to test (depending upon the drug in use, this could be 6 hours).
The physician orders the administration of oxygen to a patient. The medical assistant should document the oxygen flow rate as
liters per minute. Oxygen flow rate is measured in liters per minute.
The physician has ordered a nasal inhaler for a patient with seasonal allergies. The medical assistant is instructing the patient on proper use. Which of the following statements from the patient indicates proper understanding of the technique?
"I will shake the inhaler prior to use." When a physician orders a medication to be administered via an inhaler, the medication is intended to be delivered to the lungs. Since the inhaler in this case is a nasal inhaler (as opposed to a mouth inhaler like many of those used to treat asthma), the nose should be clear of obstruction and should not be blown immediately after administering the medication to refrain from inhibiting medication from reaching the lungs. Patients should shake an inhaler to thoroughly mix the contents, hold it upright, and breathe in the medication.
A patient calls the physician's office talking loudly, demanding to know why he was billed personally for his check-up last month. Which of the following statements is an appropriate response by the medical assistant in handling the angry caller?
"Let me pull up your record and see how I can help." Managing angry clients can be challenging. A professional and proactive approach is to stay calm and use the LAST model (Listen, Apologize, Solve and Thank). Listen to the caller's concern, apologize for the situation, solve the issue if possible (this may involve pulling the records to gather details), and thank the caller for working through this. Don't immediately sidestep the issue and send the caller to contact the insurance company (even though that may eventually be the only thing to do; try to assist the patient first). Don't dismiss the concern by telling them not to worry and you're sure insurance will cover it. Address the patient's concern during the call, it is not good practice to delay action by telling the caller to bring the bill to the next appointment.
The medical assistant is interviewing an apprehensive patient complaining of persistent lower back pain. Which question puts the patient at ease and encourages open communication?
"What has been going on with you since your last appointment?" The medical assistant should ask the apprehensive patient what has been going on since their last appointment. This approach requests the patient to describe their complaints beyond a yes/no answer in an open, non-defensive manner. This question will put the patient at ease and allow them to openly communicate about their problem and anything else that may be bothering them. Asking what medication they took to help with the pain and asking "why" questions don't encourage open communication.
When explaining a procedure to a pediatric patient, which of the following statements by the medical assistant puts the preschool child most at ease?
"You are going to go into a special room, and we are going to take a picture of your arm." The medical assistant should use a minimally threatening language and positive tone in order to reduce fears of the child. By telling the child that the arm is going to be squeezed, they're getting poked with a needle, or the medicine is going to sting will upset the child.
Which of the following should a patient do when using a Holter monitor? (Select the three (3) correct answers.)
-Eat meals on a regular schedule. -Resume a normal daily routine. -Keep a log of daily activities. When a patient has on a Holter monitor, he/she should continue on a regular schedule. The patient should keep the daily activity log book given to him/her so the medical professional can match up an activity to heart activity. Medication should not be stopped during this time.
Which of the following treatments are appropriate when initiating first aid to the patient with a second-degree burn? (Select the two (2) correct answers.)
-Run cool water over affected area of intact skin. -Protect the burn from pressure or injury. Cool water should be ran over the affected area of intact skin, and the burn should be protected from pressure injury. Oil or ointment application increases the risk of breaking blisters and increases the potential for infection. Intact skin is a first line of defense in preventing infection, therefore the blisters should not be broken or drained, and Epsom salt would not be used.
When instructing a patient on the proper way to perform a self-breast exam, which of the following statements is correct?
-The exam can be performed lying down or standing up. -The exam should be performed on a monthly basis, 7-10 days before the menstrual period begins. The medical assistant should instruct the patient that the exam can be performed lying down or standing up, and they should use the finger pads to feel the breast for any abnormalities. The exam should be performed consistently at the same time each month in order to identify any changes, and any unusual findings should be reported to a physician immediately.
Which of the following instructions should the medical assistant include in a teaching plan for correct use of crutches? (Select the four (4) correct answers.)
-Top of crutches should be 1-2 inches below the axilla when standing. -Use hands to support body weight rather than the axilla. -Hand grips should be even with the hip. -Take slow, small steps. Patients have varying skill levels when it comes to using crutches. It is important to teach patients how to properly adjust and use these mobility aids. The top of the crutches should be 1-2 inches below the axilla when patients are in the standing position. Patients should use their hands to support their body weight instead of the leaning on the axilla. The hand grips on the crutches should be even with the hips. Patients should take slow, small steps. The top of the crutches shouldn't fit snugly in the axillary space because this would irritate that area.
The medical assistant is caring for the patient in the clinic diagnosed with a right ankle sprain that occurred during a gymnastics tournament approximately three hours ago. Which of the following treatments are appropriate? (Select the four (4) correct answers.)
-protect and rest the affected ankle -apply an ice pack to the ankle -elevate the ankle at or above heart level -wrap the affected ankle with a compression bandage The PRICE method is commonly used in instances such as this. PRICE: Protect, Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation. The patient should protect (immobilize and refrain from putting pressure on) the ankle from further injury and rest it. Ice the affected area, taking care to protect the skin from direct ice exposure. Compress the injury with an ace bandage wrap or something similar (avoid wrapping too tightly, which may obstruct blood flow). Elevate the injury above the level of the heart. These steps help to decrease/relieve pain, limit swelling and promote healing.
When preparing the sterile tray for a laceration repair, the medical assistant should add which of the following items? (Select the two (2) correct answers.)
-sterile 4x4 gauze pads -sutures
The physician instructs the medical assistant to prepare for a simple laceration repair of a patient's superficial leg injury. Which of the following equipment does the medical assistant obtain to assist the physician with this procedure? (Select the four (4) correct answers.)
-sterile gloves -suture tray -Mayo stand -local anesthetic supplies A typical laceration repair setup includes: Mayo stand, sutures of specified type, brand, and size, waste container/plastic bag, adjustable stool, overhead light turned on, local anesthetic supplies of specified type, towel pack, 4x4 gauze sponge pack, forceps, two pairs of sterile gloves for physician in correct size, patient drape, needle pack, surgical/ suture tray including suture materials, sterile basin and normal saline/ irrigation supplies. Obtaining a set of blood cultures is not indicated.
Which of the following findings is most likely to be present at the site of a tick bite in a patient with suspected Lyme disease?
An apparent bullseye rash, with a large area of redness and clear center. A typical skin reaction that occurs when bacteria is passed from an affected tick to humans is an apparent bull's-eye rash (centered around the bite), with a large area of redness and clear center. Signs and symptoms of Lyme disease include fever, chills, fatigue, and joint pain. There are many types of rashes and they can be difficult to tie to one particular disease or reason for manifestation. A butterfly rash is generally seen in people with the autoimmune condition Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE). Silvery scales are often associated with Psoriasis. Small clear vesicles can be a sign of chicken pox.
The patient experiencing a nose bleed presents to the reception area in the medical office. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?
Apply direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes. Applying direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes will generally stop the bleeding and allow clotting to take place. None of the other options listed in this scenario allow the blood to clot, therefore the patient would keep losing blood.
The medical assistant is preparing a patient to have cryosurgery for lesions on the cervix. Which of the following should the medical assistant include in post-op instructions?
Be prepared for mild cramping and bleeding. Cryosurgery is done by freezing off the lesions of the cervix. Therefore, the medical assistant should tell the patient to expect mild cramping and bleeding while the dead tissue is leaving the body. The procedure is typically done in a clinic and should only take about 15 minutes. The patient should not have to be on bed rest after the procedure and should be able to return to work right away. Normal eating habits can also resume after the procedure.
The physician orders a nebulized breathing treatment for a patient with asthma. The medical assistant will use which of the following types of medication when administering this treatment?
Bronchodilator A bronchodilator is used to decrease the work of breathing by relaxing smooth muscles and opening large and small airways. A mucolytic is designed to help loosen and clear the mucus from the airways by breaking up the sputum. An antihypotensive agent, also known as a vasopressor agent, is any medication that tends to raise reduced blood pressure. An expectorant is a medication that helps bring up mucus and other material from the lungs, bronchi, and trachea.
Which of the following describes the correct technique for cleansing a patient's minor wound?
Cleanse from the inside of the wound toward the outside. To clean an open wound, wipe using circular motions from the center of the wound outward. Be sure to clean at least 1" beyond the wound margins. This is to prevent infection and promote healing. Never clean from the outside towards the inside. Depris and contaminants can be carried into the wound and lead to infection. Once the wound itself has been dealt with, cleansing in the areas around the wound would then be appropriate to check for possible further injury.
Which of the following are outside of an entry level medical assistant's scope of practice?
Collect ABG specimens. Medical Assistants are allowed to remove surgical staples, perform peak flow testing, and test specimens for occult blood, but it is not in their entry level scope of practice to collect ABG specimens (this is an arterial blood draw). ABG specimens are typically collected by specially trained personnel.
The medical assistant discovers that one end of an unopened, disposable sterile laceration tray was placed in a small area of water by the sink. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?
Discard the package as it has been contaminated. The medical assistant should discard the package, because moisture provides a medium for bacteria growth, therefore the package is no longer considered sterile. Even though the tray wasn't opened, it's still considered contaminated since it was in the water. All contaminated objects need to be discarded to prevent any infections from occurring.
Which of the following interventions by the medical assistant is appropriate in preparing the patient for cervical cryosurgery?
Encourage the patient to take slow, deep breaths to promote muscle relaxation. Cryosurgery is a procedure that is used to kill cancerous cells in the cervix by freezing them off. It is a quick procedure done in the doctor's office. The medical assistant should encourage the patient to take slow, deep breaths to minimize stress and promote relaxation of the patient's pelvic muscles. Cramping is common during the procedure, so it is important that the patient take slow, deep breaths. Monitoring the heart rate isn't necessary during the procedure, and the patient should be in the lithotomy position with the feet up in stirrups. A sterile skin prep in the lumbar region isn't necessary, because the procedure is done entirely in the cervix.
A pediatric patient with no known seizure history presents to the physician's office with a high fever. While sitting in the waiting room, the child goes unconscious and begins to experience tonic/clonic movements that do not stop after several minutes. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?
Ensure immediate patient and environment safety and activate EMS. The medical assistant should make sure that the area is safe and then activate EMS. Emergency care is indicated, because the patient's condition is or could potentially become life threatening and/or cause injury. Putting a cool wash cloth on the child is not the priority intervention, because it doesn't protect the child from the seizure they're experiencing, and placing a tongue blade in the mouth could cause injury. Obtaining a full set of vitals wouldn't be appropriate, because the patient is having a seizure and wouldn't be able to cooperate with the medical assistant.
Which of the following foods should the medical assistant recommend to a patient inquiring about ways to increase their dietary intake of folic acid?
Green leafy vegetables, fruits, organ meats, and dried yeast. Folic acid is an essential B vitamin contributing to neurologic health and brain development. Foods that are high in folic acid are green leafy vegetables, fruits, organ meats (from the organs- liver, heart, etc.), dried yeast, and beans. Dairy and eggs contain amino acids, vegetable seed and oils contain essential fatty acids (like omega 3 and omega 6) and whole grains & legumes contain abundant in essential fatty acids, vitamin E, B-group vitamins, minerals and phytonutrients.
The medical assistant is preparing a 68-year-old male for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following explains why the patient must keep the knees drawn up to the abdomen?
It reduces trauma to the spinal cord and widens the spaces between the lumbar vertebrae. When a lumbar puncture is performed, the technician must puncture the dura, the membrane that contains the brain and spinal cord, as well as the cerebrospinal fluid that they are suspended in. If a patient is lying flat but knees are not bent, the subarachnoid space is not opened. Up to 25 percent of people who have undergone a lumbar puncture develop a headache afterward due to a leak of fluid into nearby tissues. The headache typically starts several hours up to two days after the procedure and may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting and dizziness. The headaches are usually present when sitting or standing and resolve after lying down.
After receiving the MMR vaccine, a 12-month old begins coughing, wheezing, and breathing appears labored. The patient is most likely experiencing
a systemic allergic reaction to the vaccine. These symptoms are likely a systemic allergic reaction to the MMR vaccine. A shot check should always be performed and documented 20 min following an immunization injection to assess for s/sx of an allergic reaction. A localized allergic reaction to the vaccine would cause a reaction where the vaccine was inserted, but a systemic reaction would cause a reaction all over the body. An apneic episode is when breathing stops, and seasonal influenza would have other symptoms, such as a fever or body aches.
At which of the following times should the medical assistant instruct the patient to perform a post-prandial blood glucose test?
after a meal The term post means after, and prandial means meal, therefore a post-prandial blood glucose test should be measured two hours following a meal. A pre-prandial glucose test should be measured before a meal.
Which of the following information should the medical assistant expect to present to the physician from a pulmonary function test?
air flow and volume rates Pulmonary function tests are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs take in and release air and how well they move gases such as oxygen from the atmosphere into the body's circulation. It will record the lung capacity (volume) and function of air flow. MAs perform spirometry tests and pulse OX; this will diagnosis the extent of lung disease. If a patient has an acid-base imbalance, the doctor may order blood gas tests, which measure the pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in an arterial blood sample, to help evaluate the severity of the imbalance and monitor its response to treatment. Diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO), is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood. Commonly, it refers to the test used to determine this parameter. Pulse oximetry is a method used to measure the concentration of oxygen in the blood.
During a mole excision, the medical assistant is asked to assist the physician. Prior to handing the physician medical supplies from the sterile field per his request, the medical assistant should
apply sterile gloves. When assisting the physician, the medical assistant should apply sterile gloves in order to maintain the sterile field. If the medical assistant only applied clean gloves, the sterile field would not be maintained, and the supplies would become contaminated. A second sterile field and getting further assistance may be necessary at some point in the procedure, but the priority action the medical assistant should take is applying sterile gloves in order to keep the patient safe.
A patient's activity order following surgery is: up ad lib. The medical assistant should inform the patient they may ambulate
as tolerated The abbreviation ad lib means to do as desired or tolerated. Four times per day is abbreviated as qid, three times per day is abbreviated as tid, and assistance x2 means the patient needs more than one person helping them do certain tasks.
A pediatric patient with a recent history of chicken pox presents to the clinic with Reye's Syndrome. When reviewing the patient's chart, which of the following is the most likely contributor to the Reye's Syndrome?
aspirin The cause of Reye's syndrome is unknown, but has been linked to aspirin and generally presents in children who are recovering from a viral infection. The Varicella vaccination would not have caused this syndrome. It is a vaccination for chicken pox and the child in this scenario is recovering from chicken pox. Calamine lotion could have been used to relieve the chicken pox and has not been linked to this syndrome. Acetaminophen is an active ingredient in Tylenol and other NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) and has not been linked to Reye's Syndrome.
An abnormally slow respiratory rate is described as
bradypnea The prefix brady means slow, therefore bradypnea is an abnormally slow respiratory rate. Dyspnea means difficulty breathing, orthopnea means difficulty breathing while lying down, and eupnea means normal breathing.
The medical assistant is preparing the exam room for the next patient who will require urinary catheterization. The primary purpose for this procedure is to
collect a sterile urine specimen A small, sterile tube is passed through the urethra to the bladder to obtain a specimen, free of contaminants, which will be collected in a sterile container. Urinary catheterization may also be ordered to test for urine residuals, or empty the bladder for a patient who is unable to void or incontinent.
A medical assistant is providing information about the BRAT diet to a patient. The BRAT diet is indicated for what condition?
diarrhea BRAT=Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast. Recommended to act as a binder to ease digestion. Diet restriction is usually not necessary. Milk, carbonated drinks, caffeine, fruit juices containing sugar, and/or spicy foods should be avoided during the acute phase to prevent bloating, pain, or worsening diarrhea.
Which communication approach describes the ability to see things from another person's point of view?
empathy Identifying with or being sensitive to another person's feelings or problems is an essential component of therapeutic communication. Sympathy or "feeling sorry" for the patient requires emotional involvement that oversteps the professional boundary, and does not encourage expression of feelings.
Which of the following drugs is expected to be stocked in medical office emergency code cart inventory?
epinephrine Most important drug kept in the crash cart - used in emergent conditions such as cardiac arrest (increases b/p and hr) or anaphylaxis (potent bronchodilator, reducing bronchospasm). Epinephrine works to increase cardiac output by increasing peripheral resistance through vasoconstriction.
The patient exhibits signs of anaphylaxis following an allergy injection in the medical office. The medical assistant should anticipate administration of
epinephrine Anaphylaxis is a potentially fatal systemic (whole body) allergic reaction that can cause a multitude of symptoms, including shock, anxiety, sudden hypotension, narrowing airways, nausea, vomiting, itching and hives. Treatment for anaphylaxis involves an epinephrine injection, which can immediately reverse the life-threatening symptoms.
Which of the following blood cells are formed in the bone marrow and transport oxygen?
erythrocytes Erythrocytes - a red blood cell that (in humans) is typically a biconcave disc without a nucleus containing the pigment hemoglobin, which imparts the red color to blood, and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the tissues. Thrombocytes - also known as platelets and are crucial to normal blood clotting. Leukocytes - or leucocytes, are the cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting the body against both infectious disease and foreign invaders. Monocytes - a type of white blood cells (leukocytes) which are the largest of all leukocytes and are part of the innate immune system.
The medical assistant smells smoke at the work station. Upon investigation, he discovers a small fire in the trash receptacle by the desk. He should first
evacuate the immediate area. Using the RACE acronym -- RESCUE is the first thing the medical assistant should do, which includes evacuating the immediate area and making sure everyone is safely away from the fire. The next thing to do is to raise an ALARM by either pulling the fire alarm or calling 911 if the fire is not under control. Third, the fire needs to be CONTAINED; close all doors and windows that can be safely reached to make sure the fire does not spread. Lastly, EXTINGUISH the fire.
When observing a patient's range of motion of the right ankle, which term describes the ability to point their toes?
extension The range of motion (ROM) of a joint from full extension to full flexion (bending) measured in degrees like a circle. Abduction is the movement of an extremity on a transverse plane away from the axis or midline, where the axis lies on the frontal and sagittal planes, Adduction is the movement of a limb or other body part, usually on a transverse plane, toward the axis or midline—medial plane—of the body and Flexion is the act of bending a joint or limb in the body by the action of flexors.
Increasing which of the following nutrients in the diet is recommended to treat constipation?
fiber Fiber-rich foods keep bowel movements regular and decrease intestinal inflammation. The bulk and soft texture of fiber helps to prevent dry, hard stools. Fruits, vegetables, and whole grains are healthy sources of dietary fiber, and will help treat constipation. Protein, fat, and calcium do not have the ability to relieve constipation the way fiber does.
Which of the following indicators is considered a positive skin reaction to scratch allergy testing?
formation of a red wheal Hives, which are small, round raised areas on the skin (a.k.a. wheals; often red or white in color), are triggered by the body's inflammatory response (a.k.a. reaction). Itching may also be present. The purpose of allergy testing is to determine specific substances that cause an allergic reaction. Excessive bleeding and/or bruising (hemangioma formation) can indicate issues outside the immune response.
The medical assistant measures the patient's blood pressure in the office. The reading is 220/88 mmHg. This indicates
hypertension Normal Blood Pressure ranges for an adult: 100/60 to 119/79. Any readings above these would indicate hypertension (high blood pressure). Hypotension indicates low blood pressure. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, whereas tachycardia is a fast heart rate.
The medical assistant measures a patient's b/p in the left upper arm at 188/110 mm Hg. This reading is consistent with
hypertension This patient's blood pressure is above the normal reading, and this is referred to as hypertension. Hyperplasia is the increased cell production, tachycardia is increased heart rate, and hyperthermia is increased body temperature.
Bowel sounds with reduced volume, tone, or regularity upon auscultation are described as
hypoactive The prefix hypo means slow, therefore hypoactive refers to a reduced volume, tone, or regularity of bowel sounds upon auscultation. When bowel sounds are absent, it means there are none heard, when they're hyperactive it means the sounds are increased. Normoactive bowel sounds means the sounds are regular and normal.
A patient presents with frostbite of the phalanges. This indicates which of the following?
hypothermia Frostbite occurs when a person is exposed to extremely cold conditions and experiences hypothermia. Hypothermia involves the body temperature dropping very low. When the body is exposed to these cold conditions, skin and tissue damage is possible. This is known as frostbite. Hyperthermia refers to the body reaching very high temperatures and anaphylaxis is a serious allergic reaction. Vasovagal syncope refers to fainting when the body reacts excessively to something.
Which of the following conditions describes poor oxygenation?
hypoxia The prefix hypo means low or below the normal level, and the suffix oxia refers to oxygen, therefore the condition hypoxia describes poor oxygenation. Jaundice refers to a yellow coloring of the skin or eyes, hypothermia is a term used to describe an extremely low body temperature, and erythema is when the skin or mucous membranes have a reddish color.
A patient teaching plan to prevent osteoporosis includes
increasing dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D. Adequate calcium, vitamin D, and regular exercise are important for protecting bone health and strength. Too much caffeine and/or phosphorous intake (contained in carbonated beverages), can cause a decreased absorption of calcium in the body. Short chain fatty acids (a type of saturated fat) have shown to have anti-inflammatory properties and can inhibit the growth of colon cancer cells. Proper exercise including some weight bearing exercise can strengthen the bones, improve balance, and reduce risk of fracture. Not all fiber is good for vitamin D absorption. Insoluble fiber: the type of fiber, such as the kind in wheat bran, reduces calcium absorption.
Applying a warm, moist pack to a soft tissue injury promotes healing by
increasing vascular circulation. Warm packs (heat sources) can help increase vascular circulation and are usually applied for short intervals. The warmth from a warm, moist pack improves mobility and relaxes muscles. The use of ice would constrict the blood vessels and is used on an injury with the potential to swell. Increasing skin elasticity or decreasing the flow of lymphatic fluid (associated with Edema) is not needed with this type of injury.
A pediatric patient presents to the clinic with a barking cough and high-pitched breathing. These signs indicate to the medical assistant that which of the following anatomical structures is obstructed?
larynx Stridor (barky, seal-like cough) is heard on inspiration and is due to the blockage of the larynx. These abnormal breath sounds are often associated with Croup, which primarily affects the pediatric population. The obstruction of the bronchioles occurs in asthma, and sleep apnea occurs when the soft palate is collapsed. An obstruction of the trachea would not cause the barking cough or the high-pitched breathing, because the vocal cords that are causing the abnormal sounds are in the larynx and not the trachea.
Which of the following procedures involves the process of cleaning out the contents of the stomach through a nasogastric tube?
lavage Lavage is the irrigation of the stomach through a nasogastric tube. Gavage is the input of food into the body through a tube, a cleansing enema is used to clean out the rectum and relieve constipation, and a lumbar puncture is also known as a spinal tap and is when a needle is inserted into the back to remove fluid.
When setting up the room for a gynecological exam, the medical assistant will position the stirrups in which of the following ways?
level with the exam table and pulled out approximately 1 foot from the edge of the table To properly assist the patient into the lithotomy position, which is the position of choice for this exam, the stirrups need to be level with the exam table and pulled out approximately 1 foot from the edge of the table. This allows the patient to be as close as possible to the gynecologist.
The patient experiencing dyspnea is placed on oxygen via nasal cannula. The medical assistant should document the flow rate as
liters per minute. The usual oxygen flow meter is between 0-15 liters per minute. The flow should be adjusted per physician's order, typically initiated for an adult between 2-6 LPM via nasal cannula.
The older adult patient who is observed talking in the clinic waiting area begins to choke on a piece of hard candy and cannot speak. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take immediately?
perform abdominal thrusts Since the patient is not experiencing heart issues, utilizing an Automated External Defibrillator and administering chest compressions are not warranted. Baseline vitals are not the primary concern, as the immediate need is clearance of the airway. A choking person might need intervention to assist in dislodging the blockage. Abdominal thrusts (a.k.a. the Heimlich Maneuver) are an effective way to assist in this situation. To administer abdominal thrusts, stand behind the patient while wrapping arms around the torso directly above the navel. Make a fist (thumb in) with one hand, cover it with the other, and thrust upward and inward with force sufficient enough to briefly lift the patient off his or her feet.
The patient with a penetrating wound to the chest cavity is acutely at risk for which of the following complications?
pneumothorax A pneumothorax, also referred to as a "collapsed lung" is a build-up of air or gas that separates the lung from the chest wall and decreases lung expansion. When a wound penetrates the chest cavity, air can enter the area between the lung and the chest wall. Epistaxis is another word for a nose bleed, pneumonia is an infection of the lungs, and emphysema occurs when the little sacs in the lungs, known as alveoli, are damaged, which makes it difficult to breathe.
Providing high-quality chest compressions while performing CPR
pumps blood from the heart. Chest compressions are essential while administering CPR, doing the work of the heart muscle to generate blood flow to vital organs during cardiopulmonary arrest. When available, an automated external defibrillator (AED) can help restore normal heart rhythms in a patient experiencing cardiac arrest. To maintain open airway alignment, keep the patient in the supine position on a hard flat surface with the head tilted back and mouth open, head and neck aligned. Patients can aspirate gastric contents if the larynx is not functioning in an unconscious state.
The patient presents to the clinic with right great toe pain and soreness due to Gout. Which of the following types of dietary nutrients is most likely to worsen these symptoms?
purine-rich foods Purine-rich foods (dairy and protein) and beverages containing caffeinate or alcohol worsen symptoms and should be avoided. Fruits and vegetables (cherries, blueberries, and cabbage) contain substances that decrease uric acid levels causing inflammation. Foods rich in fiber also protect against gout symptoms.
While changing a patient's dressing, the medical assistant notices thick, yellow drainage with a foul odor coming from the wound. The wound exudate noted should be documented as
purulent Purulent describes a thick drainage containing pus with a yellowish color to it, and is not a normal finding in a wound. Serous drainage is thin and clear in appearance, sanguineous drainage is fresh blood, and serosanguinous drainage is a pinkish color.
The patient is scheduled for an abdominal CT scan to evaluate for appendicitis. The medical assistant instructs the patient to take which of the following precautions prior to the test?
remove jewelry CT or CAT= Computerized (axial) Tomography. A CT is a non-invasive test that provides detailed, cross-section views of all tissue types. Metal objects may interfere with image results, so the patient should remove all jewelry before the test. The patient does not need to wear a mask, avoid caffeine, or remove contact lenses, because none of these would interfere with the test.
Reminding patients to refrain from talking and moving, and keeping them warm during the ECG procedure are important to help eliminate
somatic tremor artifact. Movement (shivering, blatant movements, talking) during an ECG procedure can cause somatic tremor artifact. A wandering baseline would be seen if a lead fell off, whereas electrical interference could cause the 60-cycle interference.
Which of the following types of fractures is caused by the break winding around the bone?
spiral A spiral fracture is caused by a twisting force, thus leading to a break that winds/twists/spirals around the bone. Buckle fractures (a.k.a. torus fractures and greenstick fractures), common in children, are incomplete fractures that essentially bend but don't fully break. Compound fractures are injuries that actually break through the skin.
The medical term meaning immediately is
stat The medical term meaning immediately is stat. Ad lib means to do as desired, prn is a medical term meaning as needed, and asap means as soon as possible.
An abnormally rapid heart rate is described as
tachycardia The prefix tachy- means fast, and the suffix -cardia refers to the heart, therefore tachycardia means an abnormally rapid heart rate. Hypertension is a term referring to high blood pressure, tachypnea means abnormally rapid respiratory rate, and hyperplasia is a term referring to increased cell production.
The medical assistant finds an unconscious patient in the office building hallway and determines CPR needs to be initiated. Which of the following allows the medical assistant to begin CPR?
the Good Samaritan Law If an emergency treatment is given in good faith, and care is administered without gross negligence, then this is considered under the Good Samaritan Law. The Patient is passed out and cannot imply consent or actively consent to anything. Implied Consent is a legally enforceable agreement that arises from assumed intentions, (i.e. putting an arm out for a venipuncture implies consent for that procedure).
What is the importance of encouraging a patient diagnosed with bronchitis to maintain adequate fluid intake?
thin secretions Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, which are in charge of taking air to the lungs. When they get inflamed, thick secretions build up in the bronchial tubes. Patients with bronchitis need to maintain adequate fluid intake in order to thin the secretions they have. Adequate fluid intake will also replace insensible losses and will help to prevent dehydration. By increasing fluid intake and thinning the secretions, the airways will be clearer and there will be less fatigue. Antibiotics are typically prescribed to decrease the inflammation.
Which of the following vitamins is most important to bone health?
vitamin D Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption, and enables adequate bone growth and development. Also prevents Rickets in children. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that acts as an antioxidant and may help reduce the risk of cancer. Vitamin C, also known as L-ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in some foods and is required for the biosynthesis of collagen and certain neurotransmitters. Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays important role in blood clotting and building strong bones.
Abnormally dry skin is described as
xerosis Abnormally dry skin is described as xerosis. Vitiligo is a skin condition where there is a loss of pigment from certain areas, excoriation is a scratch or injury to the skin, and ecchymosis refers to the brusing of the skin.
