Network+ Guide to Networks 7th Edition: Chapter 1:5 - Review Questions
11. What are the four fundamental properties of an analog signal?
- Amplitude; measure of strength at given point in time - Frequency; number of times amplitude cycles over fixed time - Wavelength; distance between one peak and the next - Phase; progress of wave over time compared to a fixed point
18. Give three examples of routing metrics used by routers to determine the best of various available routing paths.
- Hop count - Theoretical bandwidth & actual throughput - Delay/Latency - Load/Traffic - MTU (Max Transmission Unit), largest IP packet size in bytes allowable - Routing cost - Reliability - Topology of a network
20. List three interior gateway protocols (IGPs).
- OSPF (Open Shortest Path First):- a link-state protocol used on interior or border routers - IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System):- designed for only interior routers only - RIP/RIPv2:- Distance-vector routing protocol, is the slowest and least secure routing protocol
23. What is the IPv4 loopback address? What is the IPv6 loopback address?
127.0.0.1/8; IPv4 ::1/128; IPv6
13. How many bits does an IPv6 address contain?
128; IPv6 addresses are written as eight blocks of hexadecimal numbers: 8x16
16. What is the fundamental distinction between a Layer 2 switch and a router?
A Layer 2 switch belongs only to its local network, and a router belongs to two or more; A switch relays data inside the network, whereas a router routes data outside of the network
18. What does a fiber cleaver do?
A cleaver is used to cut your fiber so you have two ends that will line up and can be welded together using a fusion splicer or they can be brought together in a mechanical splice
20. What is the difference between short circuits and open circuits?
A short circuit is an unwanted connection, such as when exposed wires touch each other. An open circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks.
2. What decimal number corresponds to the binary number 11111111? A. 255 B. 256 C. 127 D. 11111111
A. 255
3. What type of device does a computer turn to first when attempting to make contact with a host on another network? A. Default gateway B. DNS server C. Root server D. DHCP server
A. Default gateway
17. Why do APC ferrules create less back reflection than do UPC ferrules?
APC ferrules creates less back reflection than do UPC ferrules because the end faces are placed at an angle to each other
23. What is the primary protocol used at the Network layer?
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol); a communication protocol used for discovering the link layer address,
15. What does a loopback plug do?
Allows to test a NIC for a physical component test
29. A user complains that he cannot access a particular Web site, although he is able to access other Web sites. At which layer of the OSI model should you begin trouble- shooting the problem?
Application Layer (Layer 7); interface between two applications on separate computers, provides services to a user such as a browser and web server
14. What fiber is used in fiber-optic cabling to protect the inner core and prevent the cable from stretching?
Kevlar; polymeric fiber strands
19. How is latency measured and in what unit?
Latency is the delay from when the data leaves the source and from when it arrives. The unit of measurement for latency is RTT (Round Trip Time)
11. Why is it important to use a structured cabling standard when installing and managing cabling systems?
Maximize performance and minimize upkeep; TIA/EIA's joint 568 Commercial Building Wiring Standard describes the best way to install networking media
12. What does a modem do?
Modulates and demodulates electrical signals sent through phone lines, coaxial cables, or other types of wiring
16. Why is SMF more efficient over long distances than MMF?
SMF (Single mode fiber) is more efficient over long distance than MMF (Multi mode fiber) because signals traveling over multi-mode fiber experience greater attenuation (:loss of a signal's strength as it travels away from the source) than those traversing single-mode fiber.
4. Which type of transmission is measured by baud rate? a. Analog b. Digital c. Baseband d. Broadband
a. Analog
9. Which routing protocol does an exterior router use to collect data to build its routing tables? a. RIPv2 b. BGP c. OSPF d. IS-IS
b. BGP
3. In which layer(s) of the OSI model do NICs operate? a. Layers 5, 6, and 7 b. Layers 1 and 2 c. Layer 4 d. Layers 2 and 3
b. Layers 1 and 2
3. Which kind of multiplexing assigns slots to nodes according to priority and need? a. WDM (wavelength division multiplexing) b. Statistical multiplexing c. TDM (time division multiplexing) d. CWDM (coarse wavelength division multiplexing)
b. Statistical multiplexing
9. What device can boost an analog signal? A digital signal? a. Toner probe, multimeter b. Repeater, certifier c. Amplifier, repeater d. TDR, multimeter
c. Amplifier, repeater
6. Which categories of twisted-pair cable can support Gigabit Ethernet? a. Cat 5 and lower b. Cat 5 and higher c. Cat 5e and higher d. Cat 6 and lower
c. Cat 5e and higher
7. What is the earliest twisted-pair cabling standard that meets the minimum requirements for 10GBase-T transmissions? a. Cat5 b. Cat 5e c. Cat6 c. Cat 6a
c. Cat 6a
1. Which of the following cabling types is not recognized by the TIA/EIA for horizontal wiring? a. UTP b. STP c. Coaxial d. Fiber-optic
c. Coaxial
7. When a router can't determine a path to a message's destination, where does it send the message? a. Default gateway b. Default route c. Gateway of last resort d. Routing table
c. Gateway of last resort; router that accepts all unroutable messages from other routers
1. In the client-server model, what is the primary protocol used for communication between a browser and Web server? a. FTP b. TCP c. HTTP d. SSL
c. HTTP
1. When an Ethernet NIC has been configured by the OS to use half-duplex, the transmit pair of the twisted-pair cable uses ________ transmissions, the receive pair in the cable uses ________ transmissions, and the twisted-pair cable uses ________ transmissions. a. Simplex, half-duplex, half-duplex b. Half-duplex, simplex, simplex c. Simplex, simplex, half-duplex d. Simplex, half-duplex, simplex
c. Simplex, simplex, half-duplex
8. Which type of cross-talk occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal? a. Alien cross-talk b. Tx/Rx reverse c. FEXT d. NEXT
d. NEXT (Near end cross-talk)
10. When messages to a remote Web server are being lost for no apparent reason and you suspect the problem might be a path MTU black hole, which TCP/IP utility can you use to diagnose the problem? a. netstat b. traceroute c. nbtstat d. ping
d. ping
20. While troubleshooting a network connection problem for a coworker, you discover the computer is querying a nonexistent DNS server. What command-line utility can you use to assign the correct DNS server IP address?
nslookup (in interactive mode); You can change DNS servers from within interactive mode with the server subcommand and specifying the IP address of the new DNS server
26. If you know that your colleague's TCP/IP host name is JSMITH, and you need to find out his IP address, what command should you type at your shell prompt or command prompt?
nslookup jsmith or ping jsmith
29. What version of the ping command do you use in Windows with IPv6 addresses? What version do you use on a Linux system?
ping -6; Windows ping6; Linux
21. Is TCP or UDP normally used when streaming live video? Why?
UDP (User Datagram Protocol); the difference between TCP and UDP is that TCP first guarantees delivery with the host by checking whether first first data packet was received, UDP does not and during live stream faster transmission is more important than guaranteed delievery
11. What three characteristics distinguish TCP from UDP?
Connection-oriented protocol; TCP ensures that a connection or session is established by using a three-step process called a three-way handshake Sequencing and checksums; TCP sends a character string called a checksum that is checked by the destination host along with a sequence number for each segment Flow control; gauges rate of transmission based on how quickly recipient can accept data
15. What characteristic of optical transmissions is primarily responsible for the distance limitations of fiber-optic cabling?
Cost and Optical Loss
13. What is twist ratio and why is it important?
Number of twists per meter is known as twist ratio; the more twists per meter the more resistant to cross talk
2. Which of the following is not an example of a broadband transmission? a. Cable TV b. Telephone signal c. Mobile voice d. Ethernet
a. Cable TV
5. What kind of cable uses BNC connectors? F-connectors? Which connector is likely to be used by cable TV? a. Coaxial cable, coaxial cable, F-connector b. Coaxial cable, UTP, BNC connector c. STP, UTP, F-connector d. SMF, MMF, BNC connector
a. Coaxial cable, coaxial cable, F-connector
5. Which email protocol allows an email client to read mail stored on the mail server? a. IMAP4 b. SMTP c. TCP d. POP3
a. IMAP4
8. What generator component converts DC power from the generator to AC power that the electrical infrastructure in a data center can use? a. Inverter b. Rectifier c. Transformer d. Voltage regulator
a. Inverter
2. What kind of networking device on today's racks does nothing to the data transmitted on a line other than pass it along through the connection? a. Patch panel b. Punch-down block c. 110 block d. Hub
a. Patch panel
10. Which part of a toner and probe kit emits a tone when it detects electrical activity on a wire pair? a. Probe b. Tone generator c. Toner probe d. Toner
a. Probe
25. What is a PDU called at the Link layer?
Frame; PDU (Protocol Data Unit) is the technical name for a group of bits as it moves from one layer to the next and from one LAN to the next
20. What is a wiring schematic?
Graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure; it shows every wire necessary to interconnect network devices
13. Which two protocols are essential to IPv4 networks, but whose functions are per- formed by ICMPv6 on IPv6 networks?
IGMP and ARP; ICMPv6 on IPv6 networks performs the functions of IGMP and ARP on IPv4 networks
24. At the Network layer, what type of address is used to identify the receiving host?
IP address; assigned to each node on a network, network layer uses it to uniquely identify each host
14. What are the three methods by which a NIC can interface with a computer's motherboard?
Integrated into the motherboard Installed in an expansion slot on the motherboard Installed as a peripheral device
19. What is the range of IP addresses that might be assigned by APIPA?
169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254; APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
25. You have decided to use SNAT and PAT on your small office network. At minimum, how many IP addresses must you obtain from your ISP for all five clients in your office to be able to access servers on the Internet?
1; the gateway assigns the same public IP address to a host each time it makes a request to access the Internet
21. FTP sometimes uses a random port for data transfer, but an FTP server always, unless programmed otherwise, listens to the same port for session requests from clients. What port is the FTP server listening on?
21; FTP communications use two TCP port number values: one for commands -- port 21 by default -- and one for data transfer
11. Suppose you want to change the default port for RDP as a security precaution. What port does RDP use by default, and from what range of numbers should you select a private port number?
3389; RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) the Remote Desktop feature on your computer "hears" the connection request through a defined listening port (3389 by default). 49152 to 65535:- Dynamic and private ports
14. On what port is an IPv6 client listening for DHCP messages?
546; IPv6 Clients listen for DHCP messages on UDP port 546
27. When determining whether a local network has any NetBIOS traffic, do you use the nslookup utility in interactive mode or a packet analyzer such as Wireshark?
A packet analyzer such as Wireshark
5. When your computer first joins an IPv6 network, what is the prefix of the IP address the computer first configures for itself? A. FE80::/10 B. FF00::/8 C. 2001::/64 D. 2001::/3
A. FE80::/10
8. If you are connected to a network that uses DHCP, and you need to terminate your Windows workstation's DHCP lease, which command would you use? A. ipconfig /release B. ipconfig /renew C. ifconfig /release D. ifconfig /new
A. ipconfig /release
13. What is the name of the domain controller database that Windows Server 2012 R2 uses to store data about user access and resources on the network?
AD (Active Directory); the centralized directory database that contains user account information and security for the entire group of computers within a client-server model
7. Suppose you send data to the 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 IP address on an Pv4 network. To which device(s) are you transmitting? A. All devices on the Internet B. All devices on your local network C. The one device with this given IP address D. Because no device can have this given IP address, no devices receive the transmission
B. All devices on your local network
9. What computers are the highest authorities in the Domain Name System hierarchy? A. Authoritative name servers B. Root servers C. Top-level domain servers D. Primary DNS server
B. Root servers
1. Which part of a MAC address is unique to each manufacturer? A. The network identifier B. The OUI C. The device identifier D. The physical address
B. The OUI
6. You have just brought online a new secondary DNS server and notice your monitoring software reports a significant increase in network traffic. Which two hosts on your network are likely to be causing the increased traffic and why? A. The caching and primary DNS servers, because the caching server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server B. The secondary and primary DNS servers, because the secondary server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server C. The root and primary DNS servers, because the primary server is requesting zone transfers from the root server. D. The Web server and primary DNS server, because the Web server is requesting zone transfers from the primary DNS server.
B. The secondary and primary DNS servers, because the secondary server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server.
10. What version of SMB can be used across Windows, UNIX, and other operating systems? A. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) B. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) C. CIFS (Common Internet File System) D. MGCP (Media Gateway Control Protocol)
C. CIFS (Common Internet File System)
10. Which Session layer protocol is a streaming live video teleconference likely to use on the network? A. UDP B. SMTP C. RTP D. TCP
C. RTP
12. In Question 11, suppose one computer is upgraded from Windows 7 Professional to Windows Server 2012 R2. Which networking model can the network now support that it could not support without the upgrade?
Client-Server model; resources are managed by 1 network OS, clients don't share their resources directly with each other instead access is controlled by entries in the centralized domain database
15. What four functions do all routers perform?
Connect dissimilar networks (LANs and WANs) Interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing Determine the best path for data to follow from point A to point B Reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but another path is available
9. List three types of services a network might support that are considered part of unified communications or convergence. A. File transfers, print services, and conversational voice B. User authentication, streaming live audio and video, and print services C. Web services, email services, and file services D. Conversational voice, streaming live audio and voice, and streaming stored audio and voice
D. Conversational voice, streaming live audio and voice, and streaming stored audio and voice
4. Which statement actually describes SMTP? A. SMTP is a connectionless protocol that uses UDP B. SMTP is a connection-based protocol that uses UDP C. SMTP is a connectionless protocol that uses TCP D. SMTP is a connection-based protocol that uses TCP
D. SMTP is a connection-based protocol that uses TCP
15. The second 64 bits of an autoconfigured IPv6 address may either be random or generated from the computer's MAC address, which contains 48 bits. What standard defines the conversion of the MAC address to the IPv6 64-bit device ID?
EUI-64; Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), allows a host to assign itself a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64)
18. You are the network manager for a computer training center that allows clients to bring their own laptops to class for learning and taking notes. Clients need to access to the Internet, so you have configured your network's DHCP server to issue IP addresses automatically. What DHCP option should you modify to make sure you are not wasting addresses that were used by clients who have left for the day?
Lease duration; The DHCP lease time represents the period of time between when your computer or device obtained its IP address from the router and the time when it expires
19. What kind of Web site allows you to remotely collect network routing information back to your actual location?
Looking Glass Site; A Looking Glass server is accessed remotely for the purpose of viewing routing information. Essentially, the server acts as a limited, read-only portal to routers of whatever organization is running the LG server.
26. At the Link layer, which type of network address is used to identify the receiving node?
MAC (Media Access Control):- hardware address of the source and destination NICs (Network Interface Card:- network port used to attach a device to a network)
18. What is the fundamental distinction between a MAN and a WAN?
MAN (Metropolitan Area Network):- Group of LANs in the same geographical area WAN (Wide Area Network):- Group of LANs that spread over a wide geographical area
12. What is the first point of interconnection between an organization's LAN or WAN and a service provider's facility, and what components are generally included at this location?
MDF (Main Distribution Frame); which may contain the demarc and other connectivity devices, such as switches and routers, and media, such as fiber-optic cable.
12. Which type of DNS record identifies a mail server?
MX (Mail Exchanger) record:- identifies a mail server and is used for email traffic
17. What is the fundamental distinction between a node and a host?
NODE:- a physical network node is an active electronic device that is attached to a network and is capable of creating, receiving, or transmitting information over a communications channel. A node is also a broader term that includes anything connected to a network HOST:- Hosts typically do not include intermediary network devices like switches and routers. A host requires an IP address. In other words, all hosts are nodes, but network nodes are not hosts unless they require an IP address to function.
17. What protocol does a network gateway use to keep track of which internal client is talking to which external Web server?
PAT (Port Address Translation):- Process of assigning a TCP port number to each ongoing session between a local host and internet host
16. You issue a transmission from your workstation to the following socket on your LAN: 10.1.1.145:110. Assuming your network uses standard port designations, what Application layer protocol are you using?
POP3
22. At the Network layer, what is a message called?
Packet; a basic unit of data that's grouped together and transferred over a computer network
11. A network consists of 10 computers, all running Windows 7 Professional. One computer acts as a file server and serves up data to other computers on the network. Which networking model does the network use?
Peer-to-Peer (P2P) model; the OS of each machine on the network is responsible for controlling access to its own resources, they may share the resources or prevent others from accessing them
28. A computer is unable to access the network. When you check the LED lights near the computer's network port, you discover the lights are not lit. Which layer of the OSI model are you using to troubleshoot this problem? At which two layers does the net- work adapter work?
Physical Layer (Layer 1); simplest layer and is responsible for sending bits via a wired or wireless transmission Physical Layer and Data Link Layers (Layers 1 & 2); Layers 1 & 2 are responsible for interfacing with the physical hardware on the local network
18. What are some elements that are typically included in network diagrams?
Physical layout, logical topology, IP addresses reserves, names of major network devices, and types of transmission media
13. Why is it important to use plenum-rated cabling in the area above the ceiling tile?
Plenum-rated cable is coated with a flame-resistant jacket that produces less smoke; than regular cable coated with polyvinyl chloride (PVC). In the event of a fire, smoke produced by plenum cabling is less toxic than that produced by PVC cabling.
30. When running a scan on your computer, you find that a session has been established with a host at the address 208.85.40.44:80. Which protocol is in use for this session? What command-line utility might you use to find out who the host is?
Port 80 indicates this is an HTTP session. And nslookup can identify the domain name of the host at that IP address.
20. Which type of address is used at the Transport layer to identify the receiving application?
Port Number; The transport layer header addresses the receiving application by a number called a port number
16. What is the unit of measurement that defines the space available in a rack? How tall are standard racks?
RU (Rack Unit) or U 42RU/6 ft
17. Manually modifying a routing table can cause messages to get stuck hopping between a limited number of routers. What is this problem called?
Routing loop; A routing loop is a common problem with various types of networks, particularly computer networks. They are formed when an error occurs in the operation of the routing algorithm, and as a result, in a group of nodes, the path to a particular destination forms a loop
16. What database does a router consult before determining the most efficient path for delivering a message?
Routing table; a database that maintains information about where hosts are located and the most efficient way to reach them
28. List three signaling protocols discussed in the chapter that are used for communicating multimedia data.
SIP, H.323, and MGCP
30. A user complains that Skype drops her videoconference calls and she must reconnect. At which layer of the OSI model should you begin troubleshooting? Which OSI layer is responsible for not dropping the Skype connection?
Session Layer (Layer 5); how data between application is synched and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application Application Layer (Layer 7); application layer protocols are used by programs that provide services to the system, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol: an Internet Standard protocol for collecting and organizing information about managed devices on IP networks and for modifying that information to change device behaviour) that monitor and gather information about traffic analysis
17. What are the two general categories of UPSs?
Standby UPS:- provides continuous voltage to a device by switching to its battery when a loss of power from a wall outlet is detected Online UPS:- uses AC power to continuously charge its battery while providing power from the battery
14. A network consists of seven computers and a network printer all connected directly to one switch. Which network topology does this network use?
Star Topology; all devices connect to one central device (usually a switch)
15. In Question 14, suppose a new switch is connected to the first switch by way of a net- work cable and three computers are connected to the new switch. Which network topology is now used?
Star-bus Topology; switches daisy chained each with their own star topology
19. What is a message called that is delivered by TCP? What is a message called that is delivered by UDP? At which layer do the two protocols work?
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol):- Segments; if a message is too large, TCP divides it into smaller messages called segments UDP (User Datagram Protocol):- Datagram Layer 4: Transport Layer
12. What process is used to establish a TCP connection?
Three-way handshake;
27. Why is it important to wear an ESD strap when installing a server in a rack?
To Ground Yourself; Sensitive electronic components can be damaged by electrostatic discharge. Static electricity can cause 2 types of damage: - Catastrophic failure: destroyed beyond use - Upset failure: shorten the life of a component
19. What is the GUI version of Nmap for Windows?
Zenmap:- is the official graphical user interface (GUI) for the Nmap Security Scanner.
8. What service provided by Windows Server 2012 R2 allows a computer to serve up applications to other computers on the network? A. Remote Desktop Services B. Windows 8.1 C. File Transfer Protocol D. Active Directory
a. Remote Desktop Services
6. Which client-server application allows an administrator to control a remote computer, but does not encrypt or secure the communication between client and server? a. Telnet b. Remote Desktop c. FTP d. SSH
a. Telnet
3. Apache is a popular example of what type of networking software? a. Web server b. Browser c. Email server d. Email client
a. Web server
9. Which type of Ethernet frames do today's networks use? a. Jumbo frame b. Ethernet II frame c. 802.3 frame d. CSMA/CD frame
b. Ethernet II frame
5. Which OSI layer is responsible for directing data from one LAN to another? a. Transport layer b. Network layer c. Data Link layer d. Physical layer
b. Network layer
7. Which application embedded in Windows operating systems allows remote control of a computer and uses the RDP secure protocol for transmissions? A. Telnet B. Remote Desktop C. FTP D. SSH
b. Remote Desktop
2. Which two encryption protocols might be used to provide secure transmissions for browser and Web server communications? a. HTTP and HTTPS b. SSL and TLS c. SSL and HTTP b. TCP and UDP
b. SSL and TLS
6. What kind of route is created when a network administrator configures a router to use a specific path between nodes? a. Trace route b. Static route c. Default route d. Best path
b. Static route
6. What device protects computer equipment from a momentary increase in voltage due to lightning strikes, solar flares, or electrical problems? a. NAS b. Surge protector c. Generator d. Power converter
b. Surge Protector
1. Which protocol's header would a Layer 4 device read and process? a. IP b. TCP c. ARP d. HTTP
b. TCP
7. Providing a backup power source is called __________________. a. power conversion b. power redundancy c. power inversion d. line conditioning
b. power redundancy
4. What are the two primary standard widths for rack systems? a. 3 feet and 6 feet b. 18U and 42U c. 19 inches and 23 inches d. 1U and 4U
c. 19 inches and 23 inches, racks are measured in rack unites (RU or U)
4. At which OSI layer does IP operate? a. Application layer b. Transport layer c. Network layer d. Data Link layer
c. Network layer
2. What number does a host use to identify the application involved in a transmission? a. IP address b. MAC address c. Port number d. Sequence number
c. Port number
10. What is the very beginning of an Ethernet frame called? a. Header b. Data c. Preamble d. Trailer
c. Preamble
24. You have just set up a new wireless network in your house, and you want to determine whether your Linux laptop has connected to it and obtained a valid IP address. What command will give you the information you need?
ifconfig -a; Displays TCP/IP information associated with every interface on a Linux device
8. A routing protocol's reliability and priority are rated by what measurement? a. Routing table b. MTU c. Latency d. AD
d. AD; Administrative distance (AD) - a number indicating the protocol's reliability
3. What field in a TCP segment is used to determine if an arriving data unit exactly matches the data unit sent by the source? a. Source port b. Acknowledgment number c. Data d. Checksum
d. Checksum
5. What device provides a central control portal for all devices on a rack? a. Server rails b. Rack ears c. Rack-monitoring system d. KVM switch
d. KVM switch
4. Which email protocol allows an email client to download email messages to the local computer? a. IMAP4 b. SMTP c. TCP d. POP3
d. POP3
14. What is the difference between dynamic ARP table entries and static ARP table entries?
dynamic:- created when a client makes an ARP request that could not be satisfied by data already in the ARP table static:- those someone entered manually using the ARP utility (arp command)
22. While troubleshooting a network connection problem for a coworker, you discover that the computer has a static IP address and is giving a duplicate IP address error. What command-line utility can you use to find out what other device may already be using that IP address?
ping or nslookup; ping sends out a signal called an echo request to another device, nslookup allows you to query the DNS database from any computer on a network
