new quiz
Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include a. red blood cell casts in the urine. b. hematuria. c. bacteria in the urine. d. intermittent urinary colic.
b
Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing a. hydronephrosis. b. acute tubular necrosis. c. renal inflammation. d. nephrosis.
b
It is true that polycystic kidney disease is a. always rapidly fatal. b. genetically transmitted. c. associated with supernumerary kidney. d. caused by a streptococcal infection.
b
Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine. a. glucose b. protein c. sodium d. blood
b
Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by a. acute tubular necrosis. b. severe hypotension. c. bilateral kidney stones. d. glomerulonephritis.
b
Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of a. muscle tension. b. associated dermatomes. c. anxiety. d. associated infections. 0.125 points
b
Sexual impotence is rarely because of a. psychological factors. b. primary causes. c. vascular diseases. d. drug side effects.
b
The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is a. polycystic kidney disease. b. acute glomerulonephritis. c. renal insufficiency. d. cystitis.
b
The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as a. urethral fistula. b. epispadias. c. hypospadias. d. priapism.
b
The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is a. diuresis. b. oliguria. c. proteinuria. d. hematuria.
b
The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves a. making the glomeruli patent again. b. regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium. c. reconstruction of the basement membrane. d. blocking the tubule lumens by dead cells.
b
The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a. family history of bladder cancer. b. smoking. c. recurrent bladder infections. d. low fluid intake.
b
The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the a. man who has glomerulonephritis. b. man who has chronic urinary tract infections. c. woman who is paraplegic. d. woman who is pregnant.
b
The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury. a. interstitial b. tubular c. vascular d. glomerular
b
The most common type of renal stone is a. uric acid. b. calcium. c. struvite. d. cysteine.
b
The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is a. vitamin B12 deficiency secondary to deficient intrinsic factor. b. insufficient erythropoietin. c. iron deficiency. d. blood loss secondary to hematuria.
b
The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is a. Klebsiella. b. Escherichia coli. c. Streptococcus. d. Enterobacter.
b
The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called a. nephritic b. nephralgia c. nephrotic d. nephronitis
b
The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is a. an anaphylactic reaction. b. an immune complex reaction. c. bacterial invasion of the glomerulus. d. renal ischemia.
b
The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of a. neurogenic bladder. b. interstitial cystitis. c. ureteral stone. d. neuroses.
b
The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is a. acute glomerulonephritis. b. crescentic glomerulonephritis. c. post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. d. chronic glomerulonephritis.
b
What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence? a. Cervicitis b. Cystocele c. Rectocele d. Menopause
b
A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing a. menorrhagia. b. amenorrhea. c. dysmenorrhea. d. metrorrhagia.
c
A common component of renal calculi is a. creatinine. b. cholesterol. c. calcium. d. urobilirubin.
c
The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence a. occurs in women, whereas urge incontinence occurs in both men and women. b. occurs during sleep, whereas urge incontinence occurs during the waking hours. c. is caused by a detrusor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a neurologic problem. d. is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.
d
A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for a. epispadias. b. vascular abnormalities. c. female sex assignment. d. endocrine disorders.
d
A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is a. severe flank pain. b. pink-tinged urine. c. vomiting. d. chills and fever.
d
A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of a. prostatitis. b. urinary calculi. c. bladder carcinoma. d. prostatic enlargement.
d
Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by a. chronic loss of blood in the urine. b. poor appetite, with lack of iron intake. c. increased secretion of aldosterone. d. decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
d
In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is a. respiratory disease. b. nephrotic syndrome. c. glomerulonephritis. d. urinary retention and reflux.
d
The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves a. making the glomeruli patent again. b. reconstruction of the basement membrane. c. blocking the tubule lumens by dead cells. d. regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.
d
The major underlying factor leading to the edema associated with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome is a. glycosuria. b. bacteriuria. c. hematuria. d. proteinuria.
d
The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is a. cystography. b. KUB. c. cystogram. d. ultrasonography.
d
In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease? a. Greater than 50% nephron loss b. Greater than 15% c. Greater than 90% nephron loss d. Greater than 25% nephron loss
d
Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis. a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Pseudomonas d. Candida albicans
d
Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by a. severe hypotension. b. acute tubular necrosis. c. glomerulonephritis. d. bilateral kidney stones.
d
Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include a. anuria. b. red blood cell casts in the urine. c. foul-smelling urine. d. proteinuria.
d
The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age. a. 7 b. 10 c. 8 d. 9
d
A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because a. GFR declines. b. the basement membrane becomes increasingly permeable. c. filtration exceeds secretory and reabsorptive capacity. d. excessive solute and water are lost in the urine.
A
If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience a. polyuria and sodium wasting. b. oliguria and sodium retention. c. magnesium and phosphorus loss in urine. d. infections and sepsis.
A
The risk for contrast media-induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in a. a 70-year-old patient with heart failure. b. a 30-year-old patient with appendicitis. c. a 50-year-old patient post gallbladder surgery. d. a 12-year-old patient with recurrent bladder infections.
A
Which condition is caused by a genetic defect? a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Hydroureter c. Acute pyelonephritis d. Incontinence
A
One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is a. hypertension. b. glomerulonephritis. c. polycystic kidney disease. d. chronic pyelonephritis.
a
Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of a. hyperparathyroidism. b. excess active vitamin D. c. phosphorous deficiency. d. hypercalcemia.
a
Sexual impotence is rarely because of a. primary causes. b. psychological factors. c. vascular diseases. d. drug side effects.
a
The direct cause of stress incontinence is a. pelvic muscle weakness. b. detrusor muscle overactivity. c. the effect of aging. d. neurologic conditions.
a
The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is a. contrast media. b. recreational drugs. c. antibiotics. d. cancer chemotherapy.
a
The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is a. pain. b. vomiting. c. hematuria. d. oliguria.
a
The most common types of uterine tumors are known as a. leiomyomas. b. ovarian cysts. c. hydatidiform moles. d. endometriomas.
a
The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by a. fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance. b. magnesium and phosphorous loss in the urine. c. fever and diminishing cognition. d. sodium retention and potassium loss in the urine.
a
Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called a. overflow incontinence. b. mixed incontinence. c. stress incontinence. d. enuresis.
a
Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease. t f
f
The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma. a. True b. False
false
A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating
his renal tubes are recovering
The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves. a. False b. True
t
The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease. a. False b. True
t
Infection can lead to bladder stone formation. a. False b. True
true
The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is a. blood urea nitrogen. b. mental status changes. c. serum creatinine. d. serum potassium.
C
Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause a. hematuria. b. proteinuria. c. generalized edema. d. hyperlipidemia.
a
A patient injured severely in a motor vehicle accident is hospitalized with acute kidney injury as well as multiple broken bones and lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term 'prerenal,' the nurse responds
Your husbands kidney did not start
A patient who reported a very painful sore throat 3 weeks ago is now diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. When asked, "Why is my urine the color of coffee?", the nurse responds
Your immune system was activated by your sore throat
A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely a. carcinoma. b. fibroadenoma. c. papilloma. d. fibrocystic breast disease.
a
A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is a. dehydration. b. drinking alcohol. c. smoking. d. positive family history.
a
A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be a. uric acid crystals. b. cysteine. c. potassium oxalate. d. struvite.
a
A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes a. early menarche and late first pregnancy. b. a history of fibrocystic breast disease. c. malnourishment. d. more than three pregnancies prior to age 35.
a
A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is a. increased serum creatinine. b. decreased serum sodium. c. decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN). d. metabolic alkalosis.
a
A ureterocele is a. a cystic dilation of a ureter. b. an abnormally placed ureter. c. fusion of both ureters at the bladder junction. d. an additional ureter.
a
Absence of menstruation is called a. amenorrhea. b. menorrhagia. c. dysmenorrhea. d. metrorrhagia.
a
Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause a. bladder relaxation. b. urine reflux. c. bladder contraction. d. sphincter contraction.
a
Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by a. decreased secretion of erythropoietin. b. increased secretion of aldosterone. c. poor appetite, with lack of iron intake. d. chronic loss of blood in the urine.
a
At his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub. Appropriate therapy at this time would include a. initiation of dialysis. b. antibiotics. c. phlebotomy. d. fluid restriction.
a
Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of a. botulinum toxin. b. alpha-receptor agonists. c. cholinergic agents. d. nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
a
Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because a. hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids. b. muscles stop burning triglycerides for energy. c. body fats are catabolized. d. lipids are not excreted in the urine.
a
A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a a. modified radical mastectomy. b. radical mastectomy. c. mastectomy. d. lumpectomy.
b
A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine, but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is a. mixed. b. overflow. c. stress. d. urge.
b
Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes a. potassium supplementation. b. erythropoietin administration. c. a high-protein diet. d. a high-phosphate diet.
b
Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test. a. vaginal pH b. Papanicolaou c. human papillomavirus d. gonorrhoeae
b
Cryptorchidism is a. a consequence of gonorrhea. b. associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer. c. rarely treated. d. an extremely uncommon disorder.
b
Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes a. fluid restriction. b. protein restriction. c. fluid administration. d. potassium supplementation.
c
Endometriosis is a condition in which a. the endometrium sloughs continuously. b. an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic. c. ectopic endometrial tissue is present. d. the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
c
Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include a. red blood cell casts in the urine. b. intermittent urinary colic. c. hematuria. d. bacteria in the urine.
c
Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because a. muscles stop burning triglycerides for energy. b. lipids are not excreted in the urine. c. hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids. d. body fats are catabolized.
c
In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include a. postrenal renal failure. b. proteinuria. c. hematuria. d. urinary urgency.
c
Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because a. urea causes demineralization of bone. b. erythropoietin secretion is impaired. c. they are deficient in active vitamin D. d. excess potassium leaches calcium from bone.
c
Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by a. inability to achieve erection. b. sustained, painful erection. c. inability to retract the foreskin. d. malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
c
Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of a. prostatitis. b. testicular cancer. c. testicular torsion. d. epididymitis.
c
The disorder characterized by a neurologic lesion that affects bladder control is a. detrusor inactivity. b. cystitis. c. neurogenic bladder. d. bladder prolapse.
c
The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is a. surgical removal of uterine contents. b. seizure prophylaxis. c. intravenous therapy. d. immediate cesarean section.
c
The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage? a. Stage IV b. Stage III c. Stage II d. Stage I
c
The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is a. renal ischemia. b. bacterial invasion of the glomerulus. c. an immune complex reaction. d. an anaphylactic reaction.
c
The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n) a. middle-aged woman with bladder infection. b. young child with reflux at the ureterovesical junction. c. elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate. d. patient who has both hypertension and diabetes.
c
The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of a. casts. b. bacteria. c. nitrites. d. WBCs and RBCs.
c
Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the a. abdominal organs. b. vaginal musculature. c. cardinal ligaments. d. cervix.
c
Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with a. polycystic renal disease. b. increased serum creatinine. c. recurrent cystitis. d. proteinuria.
c
Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection? a. Infants and children b. Patients taking diuretics c. Sexually active women d. Adult males
c
The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is a. insufficient filtration of bicarbonate ions at the glomerulus. b. hypoventilation secondary to uremic central nervous system depression. c. excessive production of respiratory and metabolic acids. d. insufficient metabolic acid excretion resulting from nephron loss.
d
The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is a. 250 to 300 mL. b. none of these; no normal residual volume is identified. c. 150 to 200 mL. d. less than 100 mL.
d
The urea-splitting bacteria contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones. a. cystine b. uric acid c. calcium oxalate d. struvite
d
What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease? a. Hematuria b. Hypokalemia c. Polyuria and nocturia d. Uremia
d
Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease? a. Insulin b. Calcium supplementation c. Erythropoietin d. ACE inhibitors
d
