Nightingale College Microbiology for the healthcare professional - All review questions
The correct hierarchic order for virus classification is:
Order, family, subfamily, genus, species
All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except the:
Peritoneum
The medium selective for the growth of Staphylococcus species is:
Phenylethyl alcohol agar
Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only, until the victim reaches another safety unit?
Personal eyewash
"Sleeping sickness" is caused by which type of microorganism?
Protozoan
Malaria is caused by a:
Protozoan
The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:
Protozoans
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which group of eukaryotic organisms?
Protozoans
The formation of a "fungus ball" within preexisting cavities is a common development in:
Pulmonary aspergillosis
The recombinant protein that is used to help dissolve blood clots such as occur in heart attacks and stroke is:
Tissue plasminogen activator
Describe the steps a pet owner should take to prevent the spread of rabies.
To prevent the spread of rabies, a pet owner should vaccinate their pet, avoid contact with wild animals, and report any animal bites or scratches to their healthcare provider.
The mold that produces penicillin is an example of:
Mutualism
Which type of symbiosis benefits both members?
Mutualism
Leprosy is caused by __________.
Mycobacterium leprae
The study of fungi is called __________.
Mycology
What anatomic features in women can increase the possibility of a UTI?
A shorter urethra, close proximity of the anus to the urethral opening
The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is:
Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, release
What are drug administration, absorption, distribution, and clearance collectively called?
Pharmacokinetics
What is the branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration called?
Pharmacokinetics
All of the following are structures of the lower respiratory system except:
Pharynx
All of the following are mechanisms of resistance used by microbes except:
Change in ribosome composition
List two reasons why postmenopausal women are at higher risk for UTIs.
Changes in vaginal pH and decreased estrogen levels can increase the risk of UTIs in postmenopausal women.
Name five pieces of information provided by the NIOSH Pocket Guide to Chemical Hazards.
Chemical identification, Physical data, Health hazards, Exposure limits, Personal protective equipment
Bacteria that use organic compounds for the source of both carbon and energy are referred to as:
Chemoheterotrophs
Chlamydia commonly occurring in young adults is a(n) __________ disease.
Chlamydia trachomatis
Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by:
Chlamydia trachomatis
Parrot fever is caused by __________.
Chlamydophila psittaci
The cell organelle found only in algae and plant cells is the:
Chloroplast
The organelle necessary for photosynthesis is a(n) __________.
Chloroplast
A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a _____ infection.
Chronic
Diatoms, major components of marine phytoplankton, belong to:
Chrysophyta
Which of the following cannot be and should not be treated with antibiotics?
Common cold
Describe the different types of warts according to shape and site affected.
Common warts (verruca vulgaris), plantar warts, flat warts (verruca plana), and genital warts (condyloma acuminatum).
A set of guilds is referred to as:
Community
A portion of DNA, such as a gene, that is synthesized from an RNA template is:
Complementary DNA
Describe complementary base pairing and compare DNA and RNA.
Complementary base pairing is the specific hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases in DNA or RNA. In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. In RNA, uracil pairs with adenine instead of thymine.
Bacterial endotoxins are:
Components of the gram-negative cell wall
The term zone of inhibition is used in which of the following procedures?
Disk-diffusion test
The correct descending order of the taxonomic categories is:
Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
Granuloma inguinale is also called __________.
Donovanosis
The STI caused by Klebsiella granulomatis is:
Donovanosis
Describe the different types of gangrene.
Dry gangrene, wet gangrene, and gas gangrene.
The urinary tract infection of the kidneys is called:
Pyelonephritis
What is a substance capable of raising the body temperature called?
Pyrogen
Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
Quinolone
Which of the following drugs is effective against Candida albicans?
Echinocandins
Agents associated with human disease, but generally not a serious health risk, are classified in which of the following risk groups?
RG1
Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the:
Epidermis
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by __________.
Epstein-Barr virus
Which of the following viruses belongs to the family Herpesviridae?
Epstein-Barr virus
Members of Picornaviridae are __________ viruses.
RNA
__________ and __________ are genera of organisms that are usually associated with UTIs related to sexual activity.
Escherichia and Klebsiella
Although normally caused by sexually transmitted organisms, pelvic inflammatory disease is sometimes caused by __________, which is a common part of the vaginal microflora.
Escherichia coli
The primary bacterium responsible for most UTIs is:
Escherichia coli
Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system include:
Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry?
Respiratory tract
The term endonuclease refers to:
Restriction enzymes
Group VI viruses according to the Baltimore classification system include the families Metaviridae, Pseudoviridae, and __________.
Retroviridae
Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Algae that contain agar in their cell walls belong to the:
Rhodophyta
Which of the following is a host-dependent bacterium?
Rickettsia
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by:
Rickettsia rickettsia
At which general site of action does the decrease in blood clotting by heparin occur?
Extracellular
Bypass fume hoods belong to the group of:
General-purpose hoods
Which of the following media are used to determine motility and growth patterns of bacteria?
Semisolid media
The toxic condition caused by the multiplication of bacteria in the blood is referred to as:
Septicemia
Which of the following organisms is commonly found in the normal flora of the upper respiratory system?
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for skin infections and toxic shock syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
The normal flora present in the healthy male reproductive system is best characterized as:
Sterile, no normal flora
All of the following are methods for food preservation except:
Sterilization
The destruction of all microorganisms and their endospores is referred to as:
Sterilization
Which of the following has not been shown to be a preventive against UTIs in women?
Taking a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin
Tuberculosis cannot be transmitted by:
Talking
Bacterial capsules are important in:
Survival
PASS stands for pull, aim, squeeze, and __________.
Sweep
Differentiate between genotype and phenotype.
Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual, while phenotype refers to the physical characteristics or traits that are expressed as a result of the genotype.
Herpes simplex infections on the lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by:
HSV-1
The physical location where organisms are found is called a(n) __________.
Habitat
The causative agent for chancroid is:
Haemophilus ducreyi
What is the antibody found in body secretions?
IgA
The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is:
IgG
A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?
IgM
Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by __________.
OSHA
Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
Obligate aerobes
All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except:
Leg swelling
A drug that kills pathogenic bacteria is referred to as __________.
bactericidal
The term used to describe an agent that causes microbial growth to come to a standstill is __________.
bacteriostatic
The cleanup of different industrial waste is referred to as __________.
bioremediation
Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce:
blunt ends.
Vaginal epithelial cells that can be examined to determine the presence of Gardnerella vaginalis are referred to as __________ __________.
clue cells
A gene library is a:
collection of cloned DNA fragments that represent the entire genome of an organism. It is useful for identifying and isolating specific genes of interest for genetic research.
Resistance to only one type of drug may allow resistance to a similar drug. This process is called __________.
cross-resistance
A common complication of necrosis, often related to wounds, is referred to as __________.
gangrene
Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as:
genetic engineering.
Agents that kill microbes are classified as __________.
germicides
A saucer-shaped liquefaction of gelatin stabs is said to have a(n) __________ appearance.
umbilicate
Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of __________.
untreated streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)
Microbial life on teeth was first observed by:
van Leeuwenhoek
Which of the following is not found in all bacterial cells?
Capsule
Chemically, agar is a:
Carbohydrate
The secondary stage of syphilis includes which of the following time periods after the primary stage?
2 to 10 weeks
Describe the basic structure of cestodes (tapeworms) and their life cycle.
- Cestodes are flat, ribbon-like parasites that are made up of segments called proglottids. - They lack a digestive system and absorb nutrients through their body wall. - They have a scolex (head) at one end of their body, which has hooks or suckers to attach to the host's intestinal wall. - The proglottids contain male and female reproductive organs, and as the tapeworm grows, new proglottids are added to the end of the chain. - The life cycle of cestodes involves both a definitive host (where the adult worm lives) and an intermediate host (where the larval stage develops). - The definitive host is usually a vertebrate, while the intermediate host can be a variety of animals, such as insects or small mammals. - The tapeworm eggs are passed out of the definitive host in feces and are ingested by the intermediate host. - In the intermediate host, the eggs hatch and release oncospheres, which penetrate the gut wall and migrate to various tissues where they form cysts. - When the definitive host ingests the infected intermediate host, the cysts are digested, and the tapeworm larvae are released to develop into adult worms in the definitive host's intestines.9
Name and discuss the two organisms that cause hookworm infections in humans.
- Hookworm infections are transmitted through the skin, usually through contact with contaminated soil. -Symptoms of hookworm infections include anemia, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. -Treatment for hookworm infections typically involves antiparasitic medications such as albendazole or mebendazole.
What is the laboratory method used to study the various bacterial populations in a given soil sample?
- The laboratory method used to study the bacterial populations in a soil sample is called the culture-dependent method.
In correct order, describe the steps necessary in the Gram-staining procedure.
-Crystal violet application -Iodine treatment -Alcohol decolorization -Safranin counterstain
The steps used in PCR in correct sequence are:
-Denaturation of double-stranded DNA -Annealing of primers to the single-stranded DNA template -Extension of primers using DNA polymerase to produce new DNA strands
Discuss giardiasis; include causative agent, transmission, symptoms, and treatment.
-Giardiasis is a gastrointestinal infection caused by the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia. -Giardiasis is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated water or food. -Symptoms of giardiasis include diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss. -Treatment for giardiasis typically involves antibiotics such as metronidazole or tinidazole.
The steps and tools used in genetic engineering are:
-Isolation of DNA from the organism of interest -Cutting DNA using restriction enzymes -Ligation of DNA fragments into vectors such as plasmids -Transformation of the recombinant vectors into host cells -Selection of the transformed cells -Cloning and expression of the target gene
Various vectors used in biotechnology include plasmids, cosmids, bacteriophages, and artificial chromosomes. These vectors are used to carry foreign DNA into host cells for cloning and expression
-Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that replicate independently within bacterial cells and are commonly used as vectors. -Cosmids are hybrid vectors consisting of plasmids and bacteriophage DNA fragments. -Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria and can be used as vectors to introduce foreign DNA into bacterial cells. -Artificial chromosomes are engineered DNA molecules that replicate and segregate like natural chromosomes and can be used to carry large DNA fragments
Describe rotavirus infections; include prevalence, transmission, prevention, and treatment.
-Rotavirus infections are a common cause of severe gastroenteritis in infants and young children. -Rotavirus infections are prevalent worldwide, with an estimated 215,000 deaths each year. -Rotavirus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, primarily through contaminated food and water. -Rotavirus infections can be prevented through vaccination, good hygiene practices such as handwashing, and proper food and water handling. -Treatment for rotavirus infections typically involves supportive care such as rehydration and management of symptoms.
The biosafety level necessary in water-testing facilities is level:
1
Plasmodium is:
A protozoan
Dangerous and exotic agents need to be handled in a BSL-__________ environment.
3 or 4
Fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.
3.5 to 4
Cytomegalovirus infections are caused by the human herpesvirus:
4
There are __________ levels of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.
4
Cephalosporins have __________ generations of developed agents.
5
Boiling items in water for __________ minutes will kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses
5-6
Infectious diseases in the adult population are responsible for about one third of all deaths in individuals over the age of:
65 years
According to the United Nations, by the year 2050, what percentage of the world's population is estimated to live in urban areas?
69%
Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
8
The outermost shell of an atom can hold up to __________ electrons.
8
Cholera is considered a Category __________ disease.
A
The most virulent pathogen of the human flu virus is type:
A
When microorganisms enter the circulatory system through lymphatic drainage and cause an infection, the condition is called:
Bacteremia
Discuss congenital CMV infections and give three statistics about the infection in the United States.
A: Congenital CMV infection is the leading cause of congenital viral infection in the United States. Each year, approximately 30,000 babies are born with congenital CMV infection. Of these, about 10-15% will have symptoms at birth, and up to 15% of asymptomatic infected infants will develop long-term health problems, including hearing loss, vision loss, and developmental delay.
Describe the different symptoms of gonorrhea in males and females.
A: In males, symptoms may include painful urination, white, yellow, or green discharge from the penis, and swollen or painful testicles. In females, symptoms may include painful urination, abnormal vaginal discharge, and pelvic pain.
Discuss and differentiate between the prevalence and incidence of STIs in the United States.
A: Prevalence refers to the total number of people with a specific STI at a given time, while incidence refers to the number of new cases of an STI in a population over a specific time period.
Describe the measures the CDC has recommended to avoid congenital toxoplasmosis.
A: The CDC has recommended the following measures to avoid congenital toxoplasmosis: (1) Avoid undercooked or raw meat, (2) Wash hands and kitchen surfaces thoroughly after handling raw meat, (3) Wear gloves when gardening or handling soil, (4) Keep cats indoors and avoid cleaning litter boxes, (5) Wash hands after handling cats or their litter boxes, (6) Use caution when handling sandboxes, (7) Cook food to safe temperatures, (8) Wash fruits and vegetables thoroughly, and (9) Drink only pasteurized milk and juices.
Name the U.S. agency designated as lead agency in overall public health planning in response to bioterrorism and list the activities for which it is responsible.
A: The U.S. agency designated as the lead agency in overall public health planning in response to bioterrorism is the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The activities for which it is responsible include surveillance, investigation, and response to outbreaks of infectious diseases, including those resulting from bioterrorism.
What are the principles of the culture-dependent method?
A: The culture-dependent method involves taking a soil sample, diluting it, and then spreading the diluted sample onto a nutrient-rich agar plate. The plate is then incubated, and the colonies of bacteria that grow on the plate are counted and identified. This method relies on the ability of bacteria to grow under specific environmental conditions and may not detect all bacterial species present in the sample.
Describe the different stages of HIV infections and AIDS.
A: The first stage of HIV infection is acute HIV infection, which can cause flu-like symptoms. The second stage is clinical latency, during which the virus is still active but replicates at very low levels. AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection and is characterized by severely compromised immune function and the presence of opportunistic infections and cancers.
Name and describe the four vertical layers that can be found in lakes:
A: The four vertical layers that can be found in lakes are: a. Epilimnion - the warm, surface layer b. Metalimnion - the middle layer, also called the thermocline, where temperature and other physical properties change rapidly with depth c. Hypolimnion - the cold, deep layer d. Benthic zone - the bottom layer, which includes the sediment and organisms that live there.
Differentiate between the immune systems of the infant, young adult, and older individual.
A: The immune system of an infant is not fully developed, which makes them more susceptible to infections. The immune system of a young adult is generally fully developed, and they have a strong immune response to most infections. The immune system of an older individual undergoes immunosenescence, which means it becomes less effective over time, leading to increased susceptibility to infections and decreased vaccine response.
Discuss the most common fungal STIs.
A: The most common fungal STIs include candidiasis, which can affect both males and females and is caused by an overgrowth of Candida yeast, and tinea cruris, or "jock itch,"
Name and discuss the most common microbial infections that occur in the elderly population.
A: The most common microbial infections that occur in the elderly population include respiratory infections (pneumonia, influenza), urinary tract infections, skin and soft tissue infections, gastrointestinal infections, and bloodstream infections.
Name the most commonly occurring sexually transmitted infections on U.S. college campuses.
A: The most commonly occurring sexually transmitted infections on U.S. college campuses include chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and human papillomavirus (HPV).
Explain the different stages of syphilis
A: The primary stage is characterized by a painless sore or chancre, typically at the site of infection. The secondary stage is marked by a rash on the skin, mucous membranes, or both, as well as fever, swollen lymph nodes, and other symptoms. The latent stage has no symptoms but can last for years. The tertiary stage can cause severe damage to the body, including to the heart, brain, and nervous system.
Name and briefly describe the public health concerns regarding disease transmission after a flood.
A: The public health concerns regarding disease transmission after a flood include waterborne diseases, such as cholera and typhoid fever, that can be spread through contaminated water sources; vector-borne diseases, such as West Nile virus and dengue fever, that can be spread by mosquitoes
Describe the sulfur cycle.
A: The sulfur cycle involves the movement of sulfur between the atmosphere, lithosphere, and hydrosphere. Sulfur is released from rocks through weathering and volcanic activity, enters the atmosphere as sulfur dioxide, and is converted to sulfate by photochemical reactions. Sulfate is then taken up by plants and other organisms and used to form organic sulfur compounds. When these organisms die, the sulfur compounds are broken down by bacteria, releasing sulfur back into the environment as hydrogen sulfide or sulfate.
Which of the following zones is present only in oceans?
Abyssal zone
The compound that enters the Krebs cycle and combines with oxaloacetic acid is:
Acetyl-CoA
When does a subacute toxic effect occur?
After repeated exposure for days.
What type of agent is placed in group I of emerging and reemerging infectious diseases?
Agents that pose a high risk to national security due to their potential for mass casualties, ease of dissemination, and potential for public panic.
Viruses can infect:
All organisms
When an organ or tissue is transplanted between genetically different individuals from the same species, it is called a(n):
Allograft
Which of the following is an antiviral agent?
Amantadine
Describe anabolism and catabolism.
Anabolism: building up of complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy. Catabolism: breaking down of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy.
In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
Anaphase
Briefly describe the steps in the diagnosis of a UTI.
Answer: A urine sample is collected and tested for bacteria. If bacteria are present, the organism is identified and tested for antibiotic susceptibility.
Describe the general characteristics of algae and their possible life cycles.
Answer: Algae are photosynthetic organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular. They can reproduce sexually or asexually, and their life cycle can involve alternation of generations.
Describe how antibiotic effectiveness (efficacy) can be determined.
Answer: Antibiotic efficacy can be determined by measuring the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC), which is the smallest amount of antibiotic needed to prevent microbial growth. The MIC can be determined through various methods, including broth dilution and agar dilution.
As women age, discuss the role of changing pH within organs of the reproductive system and how this affects the potential for bacterial infections.
Answer: As women age, there is a gradual increase in the pH of the vagina due to a decrease in estrogen levels, which can lead to a decrease in the number of lactobacilli and an increase in the potential for bacterial infections.
Differentiate between bacterial infection and bacterial intoxication.
Answer: Bacterial infection refers to the invasion and growth of bacteria within the body, causing disease. Bacterial intoxication, on the other hand, is caused by the ingestion of pre-formed bacterial toxins in food or drink, which results in the development of symptoms.
Discuss the public safety measures that need to be taken before a drug is approved.
Answer: Before a drug is approved, it must undergo rigorous testing and evaluation to ensure its safety and efficacy. This includes preclinical testing in animals to establish safety and efficacy, followed by clinical trials in humans to assess safety and efficacy, determine dosing, and identify
Describe the fundamental difference between cellular and plasmodial slime molds.
Answer: Cellular slime molds exist as separate cells that come together under certain conditions to form a multicellular structure, while plasmodial slime molds exist as a large, multinucleated mass of protoplasm with no cell walls.
Describe the cause, transmission, symptoms, prevention, and treatment of cholera.
Answer: Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which is transmitted through contaminated water or food. Symptoms
Define decontamination.
Answer: Decontamination is the process of reducing or removing unwanted chemical or biological agents from a given area.
Compare and contrast differential and selective media
Answer: Differential media are used to distinguish different microorganisms based on their ability to perform certain biochemical reactions, whereas selective media are designed to selectively inhibit the growth of certain microorganisms while allowing others to grow.
Compare and contrast dose and time response.
Answer: Dose response refers to the relationship between the dose of a drug and its effect on the body, while time response refers to the relationship between the time a drug is administered and the onset, duration, and intensity of its effects. Dose response curves are used to graphically represent the relationship between drug dosage and response, whereas time response curves show the relationship between the duration of exposure to a drug and its effects on the body.
Discuss organisms that enter the human body via the respiratory tract and that can be a potential bioterrorism threat.
Answer: Examples of organisms that can be used as bioterrorism agents and enter the body via the respiratory tract include anthrax (Bacillus anthracis), smallpox (Variola virus), and plague (Yersinia pestis).
Describe the factors influencing the antimicrobial effectiveness of chemical agents.
Answer: Factors that influence the antimicrobial effectiveness of chemical agents include concentration, duration of exposure, temperature, pH, and the presence of organic matter.
Describe the classification of fungi with emphasis on the medically important species.
Answer: Fungi are classified based on their morphology and method of reproduction. Medically important fungi include dermatophytes, which cause skin and nail infections, and Candida, which causes thrush and other infections.
List some members of the normal microflora of the reproductive system and discuss the effect they have on bacterial infections of the reproductive system.
Answer: Lactobacillus species are a predominant member of the normal microflora of the female reproductive system, and they play a vital role in maintaining the acidic pH of the vagina, which inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
Name two organisms that are moderately resistant to antibiotics.
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are moderately resistant to antibiotics.
Compare and contrast nonspecific and specific treatments of suspected poisoning.
Answer: Nonspecific treatments of suspected poisoning involve the use of general measures to reduce drug absorption and promote excretion, such as inducing vomiting or administering activated charcoal. Specific treatments involve the use of antidotes or other drugs to counteract the specific effects of the toxic substance.
Name the two distinct forms of legionellosis.
Answer: Pontiac fever (a milder form of the disease with flu-like symptoms) and Legionnaires' disease (a severe form of pneumonia)
Discuss the possible side effects that can occur during or after treatment with antimicrobial drugs.
Answer: Possible side effects that can occur during or after treatment with antimicrobial drugs include allergic reactions, gastrointestinal disturbances, damage to organs such as the liver or kidneys, and the development of antibiotic resistance. Additionally, antimicrobial drugs may affect the normal microbiota of the body, leading to secondary infections or other complications.
Name and describe five different branches of pharmacology.
Answer: Some branches of pharmacology include pharmacodynamics, pharmacokinetics, toxicology, pharmacogenomics, and clinical pharmacology. Pharmacodynamics deals with the drug effects and mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics focuses on the drug's movement and processing within the body, toxicology deals with the study of the harmful effects of drugs, pharmacogenomics investigates the impact of genetic factors on drug response, and clinical pharmacology involves the clinical use of drugs.
Explain and differentiate between sterilization and commercial sterilization.
Answer: Sterilization is the complete removal or destruction of all forms of microbial life, while commercial sterilization is a process that involves sufficient heat treatment to kill the most heat-resistant spores of the bacterium Clostridium botulinum in canned foods.
Discuss systemic mycoses.
Answer: Systemic mycoses are fungal infections that can affect multiple organ systems throughout the body. They are typically caused by dimorphic fungi that exist in both yeast and mold forms and can be acquired through inhalation of fungal spores.
Describe the five basic mechanisms of action that are targeted by antimicrobial drugs.
Answer: The five basic mechanisms of action targeted by antimicrobial drugs are inhibition of cell wall synthesis, inhibition of protein synthesis, inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis, inhibition of metabolic pathways, and disruption of cell membranes.
Name five common characteristics that are considered when selecting an antimicrobial drug.
Answer: The five common characteristics considered when selecting an antimicrobial drug are spectrum of activity, mode of action, pharmacokinetics, toxicity, and resistance.
Describe the four different types of leishmaniasis.
Answer: The four different types of leishmaniasis are cutaneous, mucocutaneous, diffuse cutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis typically causes skin lesions, while mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can also affect the mucous membranes of the nose and mouth. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis causes widespread skin lesions, and visceral leishmaniasis affects multiple organ systems, including the spleen and liver.
Describe the life cycle of the protozoan causing malaria.
Answer: The life cycle of the protozoan causing malaria involves both asexual and sexual reproduction stages. The parasite is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected mosquito. In the human host, the parasite undergoes asexual replication within the liver and red blood cells, leading to the destruction of these cells and the symptoms of the disease. The parasite can also undergo sexual reproduction within the mosquito, leading to the production of infectious sporozoites that can be transmitted to new hosts.
Describe the most common fungal respiratory infections.
Answer: The most common fungal respiratory infections include aspergillosis (caused by Aspergillus species), histoplasmosis (caused by Histoplasma capsulatum), coccidioidomycosis (caused by Coccidioides species), and blastomycosis (caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis). These infections typically affect individuals with compromised immune systems, and can cause
Discuss the features of the healthy reproductive system that contribute to the defense of the reproductive system from infections.
Answer: The mucous membranes lining the reproductive system produce mucus, which acts as a physical barrier to prevent bacteria from entering. The normal microflora of the reproductive system also competes with pathogenic bacteria for nutrients and space, which can prevent their growth.
Discuss the three types of activity (spectrum of activity) of antimicrobial drugs.
Answer: The three types of activity of antimicrobial drugs are narrow-spectrum, broad-spectrum, and extended-spectrum. Narrow-spectrum drugs are effective against only a limited range of microbes, while broad-spectrum drugs are effective against a wide range of microbes. Extended-spectrum drugs are similar to broad-spectrum drugs but are effective against additional microbes.
Describe the two different types of pasteurization.
Answer: The two different types of pasteurization are high-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization, which involves heating the product to 72°C for 15 seconds, and ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization, which involves heating the product
Name the typical antibiotic treatment regimen for UTIs.
Answer: The typical antibiotic treatment regimen for UTIs is a 3-7 day course of antibiotics such as amoxicillin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, or nitrofurantoin.
Discuss the reemergence of tuberculosis and MDR-TB.
Answer: Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It was once thought to be largely eradicated, but has reemerged in recent years, particularly in developing countries and in populations with compromised immune systems (such as HIV/AIDS patients). MDR-TB (multidrug-resistant tuberculosis) is a form of TB that is resistant to multiple antibiotics and is difficult to treat. It has become more prevalent due to inappropriate use of antibiotics and poor adherence to treatment regimens.
Outline the path of infection that begins as urethritis and eventually becomes pyelonephritis.
Answer: Urethritis is an infection of the urethra that can spread to the bladder causing cystitis. If left untreated, the infection can continue to spread to the kidneys causing pyelonephritis.
Describe five variables that influence drug response.
Answer: Variables that influence drug response include age, weight, gender, genetics, and health status. Age can affect drug metabolism and clearance, weight can affect dosing, gender can affect drug distribution and clearance, genetics can impact drug response and metabolism, and health status can affect drug absorption and distribution.
Describe the general principles of viral hemorrhagic fevers.
Answer: Viral hemorrhagic fevers are a group of diseases caused by RNA viruses that affect multiple organ systems, often causing hemorrhaging (bleeding) and other severe symptoms. They are typically spread through contact with infected bodily fluids or contaminated objects.
Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category?
Anthrax
What type of immunity are B cells responsible for?
Antibody-mediated immunity
What term describes small changes in the viral coat that happen over time?
Antigenic drift
What are substances that stimulate the production of antibodies called?
Antigens
What is the specific antidote to botulinum toxin?
Antitoxin
Which of the following geographic areas contains reservoirs for Coccidioides immitis?
Arizona
How does continuing urbanization play a role in the emerging/reemerging of infectious diseases?
As more people live in urban areas, there is increased contact between humans and animals, increased population density, and increased movement of people and goods. This can lead to the spread of infectious diseases and the emergence of new diseases.
Which of the following organisms produce aflatoxin, a carcinogenic substance?
Aspergillus flavus
Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include:
Avoidance of tight pants, wearing panties with cotton crotch, infrequent douching
The type of fire extinguisher used on fires from flammable liquids such as gasoline would be a type __________ extinguisher.
B
Vaccination is available for the sexually transmitted hepatitis __________ virus.
B
Ebola viruses need to be handled in which of the following biosafety levels?
BSL-4
Straight, rod-shaped bacteria, some of which are endospore forming, are referred to as:
Bacilli
Which of the following is a Category A agent?
Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus intoxication is caused by:
Bacillus cereus
Describe the nutritional requirement for bacterial growth with regard to carbon.
Bacteria require a source of carbon for growth, which can come from either organic or inorganic compounds. Bacteria that use organic compounds as a source of carbon are called heterotrophs, while bacteria that use inorganic compounds such as carbon dioxide are called autotrophs. The ability of bacteria to use a particular carbon source depends on the presence of specific enzymes to metabolize the compound.
Compare and contrast bacterial and viral meningitis.
Bacterial meningitis is typically more severe than viral meningitis and is often accompanied by fever, headache, stiff neck, and vomiting. Viral meningitis is usually less severe and may cause symptoms similar to the flu.
A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a(n) __________.
Bacteriophage
Describe and contrast the multiplication of bacteriophages versus animal viruses.
Bacteriophages multiply by attachment to specific receptors on the host cell surface, injection of their genetic material into the host cell, replication of their genetic material, assembly of new viral particles, and lysis of the host cell to release the new virions. Animal viruses multiply by attachment to specific receptors on the host cell surface, entry into the host cell by endocytosis or fusion, uncoating of the viral genetic material, replication of the genetic material, assembly of new viral particles, and release of the new virions by budding or lysis.
Molecules that can absorb hydrogen ions are __________.
Bases
Which cell is a granulocyte?
Basophil
Describe the necessary steps a microbe must take before it can cause infection and disease.
Before a microbe can cause infection and disease, it must first gain entry to the host, attach to host cells, evade the host's immune system, colonize the host, and produce toxins or other virulence factors.
Most marine microorganisms are present in the:
Benthic zone
The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is the __________.
Bergey's Manual
Complex communities of microorganisms on surfaces are called:
Biofilms
A vector that transmits pathogens and also serves as host for a part of the pathogen's life cycle is a(n) __________ vector.
Biological
A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is referred to as __________.
Biosphere
What is the body's metabolism of drugs called?
Biotransformation.
Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
Blood
Which of the following media is not a differential medium based on fermentation?
Blood agar
Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission?
Bodily fluid
Whooping cough is caused by:
Bordetella pertussis
Discuss botulism, the different types of toxins, and the geographic prevalence.
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by botulinum toxin, which is produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. There are seven types of botulinum toxin, with types A, B, and E being the most common. Botulism is found worldwide, but it is most prevalent in areas with soil contaminated with the bacterium.
Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as __________ disease.
Bright's
One type of microscope capable of observing living microorganisms is the:
Bright-field microscope
For a drug to have an almost immediate systemic effect, it is usually applied how?
By inhalation.
"Thrush" is caused by __________.
Candida albicans
Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by:
Candida albicans
The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:
Candida albicans
Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called:
Capsids
Which category do protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to?
Category III
A positively charged ion is a(n) __________.
Cation
What is the lead federal agency responsible for protecting the people of the United States from infectious diseases?
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
American trypanosomiasis is also referred to as:
Chagas disease.
All of the following are cytopathic effects as a result of a viral infection except:
Change in antigens
The method of collecting urine in which the patient washes the genital area and collects a midstream sample in a sterile container is called the __________ __________ procedure.
Clean-catch
Name five factors that play a role in the emerging of infectious disease.
Climate change, globalization, urbanization, microbial adaptation, and human behavior
All of the following are free-living, nitrogen-fixing bacteria except:
Clostridium
Botulism is caused by __________.
Clostridium botulinum
Bacteria whose overall shape is spherical or nearly spherical are referred to as __________.
Cocci
Diagnosis of a UTI is a two-stage process that involves:
Collecting a urine sample and testing for antibiotic susceptibility of the organism
A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for another is called:
Commensalism
The symbiotic relationship in which one of the organisms benefits and the other is not harmed or helped is referred to as __________.
Commensalism
The transfer of genetic material during cell-to-cell contact is __________.
Conjugation
SARS is a respiratory illness caused by:
Coronavirus
Which of the following is a vector created by the combination of viral DNA fragments and fragments from a plasmid?
Cosmid vector
Which of the following is the causative agent for fungal meningitis, mostly in immunocompromised patients?
Cryptococcus neoformans
The urinary tract infection involving infection of the urinary bladder is called:
Cystitis
__________ is a UTI that occurs in the urinary bladder.
Cystitis
Congenital CMV infections are caused by:
Cytomegalovirus
The most common virus transmitted during pregnancy is:
Cytomegalovirus
Fires from flammable metals require type __________ fire extinguishers.
D
The process by which the number of microbes on the human skin is reduced by scrubbing is called:
Degermination
The process by which nitrate is reduced to nitrogen is called:
Denitrification
Fungal infections of the skin are referred to as __________.
Dermatophytosis
The papillary layer of the skin is part of the:
Dermis
Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?
Direct flaming
A growth that appears separate or semiconfluent is referred to as:
Effuse
What is the term for the establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population?
Emergence
What is the definition of emerging and reemerging infectious diseases?
Emerging infectious diseases are those that are newly identified in a population or have existed previously but are rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range. Reemerging infectious diseases are those that previously existed but are on the rise again after a decline in incidence or control.
An inflammation of the brain is called:
Encephalitis
A disease that is generally present in a given population is:
Endemic
Media that contain complex organic substances such as blood for the growth of specific bacteria are referred to as:
Enriched media
Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
Enterobius vermicularis
Discuss the regulation of enzyme activity.
Enzyme activity can be regulated through factors such as temperature, pH, substrate concentration, and the presence of activators or inhibitors.
The allosteric site is present in __________.
Enzymes
Describe the different eyewash and safety showers found in laboratories.
Eyewash station - a unit that delivers a controlled flow of water to rinse contaminants from the eyes. Safety shower - a unit that delivers a flow of water to rinse contaminants from the body.
The organism causing West Nile encephalitis belongs to which of the following?
Flaviviruses
When a pathogen spreads from the original site to other tissues or organs it is called a(n) ___________ infection.
Focal
Describe how foodborne diseases can be prevented.
Foodborne diseases can be prevented by proper handling, storage, and preparation of food. This includes washing hands and surfaces, cooking food thoroughly, storing food at the correct temperature, avoiding cross-contamination, and following expiration dates
There are __________ known forms of gastroenteritis caused by E. coli.
Four
"Rabbit fever" is a zoonotic disease caused by:
Francisella tularensis
Name and describe the functions of proteins.
Functions of proteins include structural support, enzymatic activity, transportation of molecules, and immune defense.
Which of the following organisms has higher resistance to most physical control methods than the others?
Fungal spores
The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by:
Fungi
The term "stomach flu" really refers to __________.
Gastroenteritis
A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called __________.
Gingivitis
Name the types of personal protective equipment/gear.
Gloves, Gowns, Masks, Eye protection, Face shields, Respirators
Sucrose is composed of:
Glucose and fructose
The cell organelles responsible for the packaging of proteins are the:
Golgi complexes
The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the:
Gram stain
Legionella and Neisseria are examples of:
Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
Describe the cell wall of gram-positive and gram-negative cells.
Gram-positive cells have a thick peptidoglycan layer outside of the plasma membrane, while gram-negative cells have a thin peptidoglycan layer sandwiched between two plasma membranes.
Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of:
Gram-positive cocci
Which group category does Francisella tularensis belong to?
Group I
What group category does Acanthamebiasis belong to as an emerging/reemerging infectious disease?
Group III
Chlorine belongs to which of the following chemical groups?
Halogens
Which of the following infectious diseases is considered a newly emerging disease?
Hantavirus
Discuss healthcare-associated (nosocomial) infections (HAIs).
Healthcare-associated infections are infections that are acquired in a healthcare setting, such as hospitals, nursing homes, and clinics. These infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, and are often the result of poor infection control practices, such as improper hand hygiene, inadequate disinfection of surfaces, and overuse of antibiotics.
Many peptic ulcers are due to:
Helicobacter pylori
A scolex is a structure found in:
Helminths
All of the following are bloodborne pathogens in the healthcare setting except:
Hepatitis A
Name the different bloodborne pathogens that can be a hazard in healthcare settings.
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV
Fungi are free-living __________ organisms.
Heterotrophic
The sterol-like molecules in bacterial plasma membranes are __________.
Hopanoids
HIV is the abbreviation for __________.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Warts are commonly caused by:
Human papillomavirus
What causes "Fifth disease"?
Human parvovirus B19
Which of the following is the sixth most abundant element in the universe?
Hydrogen
The bond between water molecules is a(n):
Hydrogen bond
The unique cell organelle found among the Archaezoa, which appears to be a remnant of mitochondria, is called a(n) __________.
Hydrogenosome
The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones in the presence of water is called __________.
Hydrolysis
RNA viruses belong to which of the following groups according to the Baltimore classification system?
II, IV, V
Infections that may result from the use of catheters are classified as:
Iatrogenic infections
What is the body's decreased ability to fight infections called?
Immunodeficiency
Describe the main function of the various immunoglobulins.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by B cells that bind to specific antigens. There are five classes of immunoglobulins: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE. Each class has a unique function, but they all play a role in defending the body against pathogens.
The decline in the functioning of the immune system during aging is referred to as __________.
Immunosenescence
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is most common in:
Infants
The presence of microbes in or on the body is a(n):
Infection
Name and describe the steps of inflammation.
Inflammation is a complex process that involves four main steps: (1) dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels, (2) migration of phagocytes to the site of infection, (3) phagocytosis of invading microorganisms, and (4) tissue repair.
Which of the following is not a microorganism?
Insect
All of the following are general metabolic or structural targets for antimicrobial drugs except:
Interference with cell wall synthesis
The synthetic interferon that is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis is:
Interferon beta-1a
Which of the following provide defense against viral infections?
Interferons
The bond between sodium and chlorine atoms in sodium chloride is a(n):
Ionic bond
An atom with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons is called a(n) __________.
Isotope
Which of the following is a true statement about recombinant DNA technology?
It involves the modification of an organism's genome.
A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called "__________."
Jock itch
The __________ are the central organs of the urinary system and are responsible for filtering wastes from the blood.
Kidneys
The main organs/structures of the urinary system are:
Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
Discuss Koch's postulates and their limitations.
Koch's postulates are a set of guidelines that must be followed to prove that a specific microbe causes a specific disease. However, their limitations include the fact that not all diseases are caused by a single pathogen, some pathogens cannot be grown in a laboratory setting, and some diseases are caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.
Describe Koch's postulates.
Koch's postulates are a set of guidelines used to determine if a specific microorganism is the cause of a specific disease. These postulates require that the microorganism must be present in every individual with the disease, the microorganism must be isolated and grown in culture, the cultured microorganism must cause the disease when introduced into a healthy individual, and the microorganism must be reisolated from the diseased individual.
Hansen's disease is also called:
Leprosy
Which of the following is an enzyme?
Ligase
Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?
Louis Pasteur
The technique that combines freezing and drying to preserve microbes and other cells is:
Lyophilization
A cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes is a(n) __________.
Lysosome
What are enzymes that attack the peptidoglycan layer of bacteria and are present in perspiration, nasal secretion, saliva, and tears called?
Lysozymes
Microorganisms that show optimal growth at moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40° C) are called:
Mesophiles
Bacteria that use oxygen, but only at low concentration, are classified as:
Microaerophiles
Describe how microbes of a normal flora in the human body can become opportunistic pathogens.
Microbes of a normal flora can become opportunistic pathogens when the body's immune system is weakened, creating an opportunity for the microbes to overgrow and cause infection.
List five specific areas for which clinical laboratories are responsible.
Microbiology, Hematology, Chemistry, Blood Bank, Pathology
Describe the role of microorganisms in food production.
Microorganisms play a crucial role in various food production processes, including fermentation, preservation, and flavor development. Some examples of microorganisms used in food production include yeast for bread and beer production, bacteria for yogurt and cheese production, and molds for the production of various fermented foods and beverages. During fermentation, microorganisms break down carbohydrates and produce organic acids, alcohols, and gases that alter the flavor, texture, and nutritional properties of the food. Preservation methods such as pickling and canning rely on microorganisms to create an acidic environment that inhibits the growth of harmful bacteria. In addition to their direct role in food production, microorganisms are also used in the production of food additives such as enzymes and vitamins. Overall, the use of microorganisms in food production has greatly expanded the variety and availability of safe and nutritious foods.
Methods typically used to diagnose bacterial infections of the reproductive system include:
Microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ and microscopic examination of urine for organisms
Glucose and fructose are examples of:
Monosaccharides
The unit molecules (monomers) of carbohydrates are:
Monosaccharides
What is immunity that results from an actual infection called?
Naturally acquired active immunity
Which of the following is a type of acute infection generally caused by group A Streptococcus?
Necrotizing fasciitis
Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called __________ infections.
Necrotizing infections
Nigrosin is a stain used in:
Negative staining
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea?
Neisseria
Meningococcal meningitis is caused by:
Neisseria meningitidis
Routine vaccination against meningitis in the United States is provided against:
Neisseria meningitidis
Rhizobium is involved in the __________ cycle.
Nitrogen cycle
Neutrons are particles with a(n) __________ charge.
No charge
The term bacteriostatic means that bacteria:
No longer can multiply
NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Non-gonococcal urethritis
A chemical bond in which electrons are equally shared is a(n):
Nonpolar covalent bond
What is used in the determination of a drug dose response?
Normal frequency distribution.
Describe some of the functions of a normal healthy body that help prevent the occurrence of UTIs.
Normal urine flow, urine acidity, and presence of normal flora help prevent UTIs.
A group of (+) ssRNA viruses that have been isolated from birds, cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, cows, and humans, and are a major cause of gastroenteritis, are:
Noroviruses
Which of the following is not a common characteristic used in the selection of an antimicrobial drug?
Not causing an allergic reaction
Which of the following is a phase I reaction in biotransformation?
Oxidation
Which of the following tools of genetic engineering is used to make multiple copies of DNA?
PCR
The following are typical symptoms of a UTI:
Painful urination, cloudy urine
Symptoms of prostatitis include:
Painful urination, fever and chills, weak urine flow
A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n) __________ disease.
Pandemic
A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n) __________.
Pathogen
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
Peptic ulcer
The bond between amino acids is a(n):
Peptide bond
When the drug receptors are maximally activated, what is this referred to as?
Peak effect.
__________ is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Which of the following is not found in the atmosphere?
Phosphorus
Eutrophication is a term associated with the:
Phosphorus cycle
The conversion of CO2 to organic molecules is called __________.
Photosynthesis
Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called __________.
Phototrophs
Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus belonging to the family:
Picornaviridae
Which of the following is an active transport mechanism?
Pinocytosis
The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the:
Placenta
Which cell type is responsible for antibody production?
Plasma cell
Nonchromosomal DNA molecules in bacteria are __________.
Plasmids
Small loops of DNA found in the cytoplasm of bacteria are:
Plasmids
Masses of protoplasm containing thousands of nuclei are a characteristic of __________.
Plasmodial slime molds
Name and describe three protozoans that are human parasites.
Plasmodium: causes malaria and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Giardia: causes giardiasis, a diarrheal illness spread through contaminated water. Trypanosoma: causes sleeping sickness and is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
The intracellular fluid has a high concentration of:
Potassium
The atomic number equals the number of:
Protons
CDC stands for the Centers for Disease Control and __________.
Prevention
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are caused by:
Prions
Cells without a nucleus are __________ cells.
Prokaryotic
Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells are smaller and simpler in structure than eukaryotic cells. They lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotic cells are generally larger and more complex. They have a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus.
Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, while eukaryotic cells have both a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
A phage in a repressed stage is referred to as a(n):
Prophage
Acne is caused by:
Propionibacterium acnes
The most common bacterial nonsexually transmitted infection of the male reproductive system is:
Prostatitis
What is an antibody?
Protein produced by plasma cells
The human pinworm Enterobius vermicularis lives in the __________ of humans.
Rectum
Decontamination is defined as the:
Reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents
An effective method for treating a UTI is:
Regimen of the antibiotic amoxicillin
Identify measures that can be taken to prevent the recurrence of toxic shock syndrome originating in the reproductive organs.
Removal of the foreign body causing the infection, antibiotic treatment, and avoidance of tampon use
Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against mycobacteria?
Rifampin
The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is by:
Rotaviruses
The common name for nematodes is __________.
Roundworms
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a biosafety level 2 facility?
Salmonella
The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls in the category of:
Sanitation
Compare and contrast saturated and unsaturated fats.
Saturated fats have single bonds between carbon atoms and are solid at room temperature, while unsaturated fats have double bonds between carbon atoms and are liquid at room temperature.
One type of microscope that provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen is the:
Scanning electron microscope
The process by which the nucleus of protozoans undergoes multiple divisions before the cell divides is called:
Schizogony
Which of the following organisms can cause sexually transmitted toxic shock syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillary dysentery is also called:
Shigellosis
Discuss the occurrence of smallpox and smallpox vaccination.
Smallpox was a highly contagious viral disease that caused severe illness and death. The disease was eradicated in 1980 through a global vaccination campaign. The smallpox vaccine was made from a related virus called vaccinia and was given to people to prevent smallpox infection.
Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi belong to the group of:
Spirochetes
All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except:
Spleen
Describe the most common staphylococcal skin infections.
Staphylococcal skin infections can range from minor boils and impetigo to more severe infections such as cellulitis, scalded skin syndrome, and toxic shock syndrome. They are commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and often require treatment with antibiotics.
Impetigo neonatorum is caused by __________.
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus __________.
Staphylococcus aureus
The bacterium most frequently responsible for toxic shock syndrome that originates in the reproductive system is __________.
Staphylococcus aureus
Describe the three different techniques that can be used to obtain organisms to produce pure cultures.
Streak plate method - a technique where a loopful of a mixed culture is streak
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease and rare complication due to:
Strep throat
All the following infections may recur during pregnancy except:
Streptococcal infections
Beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis are called:
Streptococci
Otitis media is commonly caused by which microorganism?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by __________.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Scarlet fever is caused by:
Streptococcus pyogenes
The organism often called "flesh-eating bacteria" is:
Streptococcus pyogenes
Describe the different types of respiratory infections caused by streptococcal species.
Streptococcus pyogenes can cause pharyngitis (strep throat), scarlet fever, tonsillitis, sinusitis, and pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause pneumonia, sinusitis, and otitis media.
Describe the different types of subcutaneous mycoses.
Subcutaneous mycoses are fungal infections that affect the subcutaneous tissue. There are several types of subcutaneous mycoses, including sporotrichosis, chromoblastomycosis, mycetoma, and phaeohyphomycosis. These infections are usually acquired through contact with contaminated soil or vegetation.
Explain and discuss the structure and pathogenicity of subviral agents.
Subviral agents are infectious agents that are smaller than viruses, such as prions, viroids, and virusoids. Prions are misfolded proteins that cause neurode
When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect, the phenomenon is referred to as:
Synergism
A red-brown rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is typical for:
Syphilis
Gummas are characteristic lesions of:
Syphilis
Which of the following STIs is also referred to as the "great imitator"?
Syphilis
What is delayed hypersensitivity a result of?
T cell-mediated immune response
Which of the following agents can be used in the treatment of balanitis?
Tetracycline
The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a(n) __________.
Thallus
What federal agency approves the use of a specific drug?
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
Describe the different stages of the bacterial population growth curve.
The bacterial population growth curve consists of four distinct phases: lag phase, exponential (log) phase, stationary phase, and death phase. During the lag phase, the bacteria adapt to their new environment and do not increase in number. In the exponential phase, the bacteria grow and divide at an exponential rate, which leads to a rapid increase in the number of bacteria. In the stationary phase, the growth rate slows down, and the number of new bacteria produced equals the number of bacteria that die. Finally, in the death phase, the number of bacteria that die exceeds the number of new bacteria produced, leading to a decline in the population.
Describe the cell cycle and the phases of mitosis.
The cell cycle is the process by which cells grow and divide. The phases of mitosis include prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase, during which the genetic material is condensed, lined up, separated, and reorganized to produce two new identical cells.
Name and describe the different morphological types of viruses.
The different morphological types of viruses include helical, icosahedral, complex, and enveloped. Helical viruses have a helical symmetry and a rod-like shape. Icosahedral viruses have a spherical shape and a 20-sided symmetry. Complex viruses have a combination of helical and icosahedral components. Enveloped viruses have a lipid envelope surrounding their nucleocapsid.
What is the ED50 a measure of?
The effective dose for 50% of the population.
Describe and explain the three lines of host immune defense.
The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers, such as skin and mucus. The second line of defense includes non-specific defenses, such as inflammation and phagocytosis. The third line of defense involves the immune system's specific response to a particular pathogen.
Elaborate on the four clinically different types of tetanus.
The four clinically different types of tetanus are generalized tetanus, neonatal tetanus, local tetanus, and cephalic tetanus.
Describe the most common streptococcal skin infections.
The most common streptococcal skin infections are impetigo, erysipelas, and cellulitis. Group A Streptococcus is the most common cause of these infections.
What does the generic name of a drug refer to?
The nonproprietary or chemical name of a drug.
Discuss the influence of the pH on bacterial growth.
The pH of the environment can have a significant influence on bacterial growth. Most bacteria grow best within a narrow pH range, typically between pH 6.5 and 7.5.
Name and describe the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration.
The pathways of aerobic cellular respiration include glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain. Glycolysis breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, which then enter the Krebs cycle to produce ATP. The electron transport chain then produces even more ATP using the energy released from electron transport.
Name and briefly describe the six priority areas dealing with global infectious disease.
The six priority areas are emerging infectious diseases, antimicrobial resistance, HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria, and neglected tropical diseases. These areas are targeted for global health initiatives and funding to improve prevention, treatment, and control.
"Athlete's foot" is caused by:
Tinea pedis
Describe the three basic approaches used by epidemiologists to study the dynamics of a disease in a population.
The three basic approaches used by epidemiologists to study the dynamics of a disease in a population are descriptive, analytical, and experimental.
What are the three different categories of agents that could be involved in bioterrorism?
The three categories of bioterrorism agents are Category A, Category B, and Category C - Category A agents are considered the highest priority because they pose the greatest threat to public health and safety. Examples include anthrax, smallpox, and botulism. - Category B agents are the second-highest priority and are easier to disseminate than Category A agents. Examples include Q fever, ricin toxin, and staphylococcal enterotoxin B. - Category C agents are emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future. Examples include Nipah virus, hantavirus, and tick-borne encephalitis virus.
How is the Hendra virus transmitted?
Through contact with bodily fluids of infected horses or fruit bats
How was the Marburg virus originally spread?
Through green monkeys
What is the study of the body's response to poisons and their harmful effect referred to as?
Toxicology
Which of the following is a disease caused by a protozoan?
Toxoplasmosis
The genetic recombination process that occurs when bacteria acquire fragments of DNA from the local environment and then express the encoded proteins is called:
Transformation
A flora found in the same location as the resident flora, but which remains only for a given amount of time, is called a(n) __________ flora.
Transient
All of the following are steps in the polymerase chain reaction except:
Translation
The only STI transmitted by a protozoan is __________.
Trichomoniasis
African trypanosomiasis is caused by:
Trypanosoma brucei.
Chagas' disease is caused by __________.
Trypanosoma cruzi
Which of the following is not a way the kidney can use to achieve urine formation and drug clearance?
Tubular filtration.
All of the following are considered to be zoonotic diseases except:
Tularemia
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by a tick?
Tularemia
Name and describe two autoimmune diseases.
Two examples of autoimmune diseases are rheumatoid arthritis and multiple sclerosis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the joints, while multiple sclerosis is a disease of the central nervous system that causes inflammation and damage to the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers.
Describe two prion-associated diseases of humans.
Two prion-associated diseases of humans are Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD). CJD is a rare, degenerative, and fatal brain disorder that affects about one in every one million people worldwide. vCJD is a variant of CJD that is believed to be caused by eating meat from cattle infected with bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), also known as mad cow disease.
The most virulent of all botulinum toxins is considered to be:
Type A
Discuss type I hypersensitivity reactions.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions that occur within minutes of exposure to an allergen. These reactions are characterized by the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators, which can cause symptoms such as hives, itching, and difficulty breathing.
Ionizing radiation involves all of the following except:
UV light
OSHA is a division of the:
U.S. Department of Labor
The RNA nucleotide base that pairs with adenine of DNA is:
Uracil
Factors that can increase the chances of vaginitis are:
Use of antibiotics, pregnancy, menopause
The female reproductive system includes the following organs/structures:
Uterus, ovaries, vagina, fallopian tubes
Bacterial infections of the female reproductive system include:
Vaginitis, toxic shock syndrome, endometritis, salpingitis
Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
Varicella-zoster virus
A bacterial or viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her child before or during birth is called a(n) __________ infection.
Vertical
Describe host cell damage resulting from viral infections.
Viral infections can cause damage to host cells through cytopathic effects such as lysis, altered shape, membrane fusion, and altered antigen expression. They can also cause immunopathological effects such as inflammation and autoimmune responses.
A fully assembled virus is called a(n) __________.
Virion
Which of the following infectious diseases is considered to be a reemerging disease?
West Nile virus
The group most susceptible to recurring UTIs is:
Women
Category B agents include:
Yersinia pestis
Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among:
Young adults
Infectious mononucleosis most often occurs in:
Young adults
When a single bacterium can produce millions of identical cells, the population is called:
a clone.
Name and describe the action of five commonly used disinfectants.
a. Bleach - a liquid that destroys microorganisms by oxidizing their cellular components. b. Alcohol - a liquid that destroys microorganisms by denaturing their proteins and dissolving their lipid membranes. c. Quaternary ammonium compounds - liquids that destroy microorganisms by disrupting their cell membranes and denaturing their proteins. d. Hydrogen peroxide - a liquid that destroys microorganisms by releasing oxygen free radicals, which damage the cell membrane and other cellular components. e. Phenol - a liquid that destroys microorganisms by denaturing their proteins and disrupting their cell membranes.
Name and briefly describe the different types of microscopes.
a. Bright-field microscope - produces a dark image of a specimen against a bright background. b. Phase-contrast microscope - enhances contrast between cell parts having slight differences in refractive indices. c. Fluorescence microscope - uses fluorescent dyes to visualize specimens. d. Transmission electron microscope - uses electrons to visualize specimens that are very thin. e. Scanning electron microscope - produces a 3D image of the surface of a specimen
Which of the following industries use(s) microorganisms?
a. Chemical b. Wine c. Cheese
Name and describe the action of three chemicals used for sterilization.
a. Ethylene oxide - a gas that destroys microorganisms by denaturing their proteins and nucleic acids. b. Hydrogen peroxide - a liquid that destroys microorganisms by releasing oxygen free radicals, which damage the cell membrane and other cellular components. c. Formaldehyde - a gas that destroys microorganisms by cross-linking their proteins and nucleic acids, causing them to become insoluble and inactive.
From the strongest to weakest, name and describe the different types of chemical bonds.
a. Ionic bond: electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another. b. Covalent bond: electrons are shared between atoms. c. Hydrogen bond: a weak bond between a hydrogen atom and an electronegative atom.
Discuss four methods to measure bacterial growth.
a. Plate counts: This method involves diluting a sample of bacteria and then plating it on agar. The colonies that form are counted to estimate the number of viable bacteria in the original sample. b. Turbidity: This method involves measuring the optical density of a bacterial culture using a spectrophotometer. As the bacterial population increases, the culture becomes more turbid, and the optical density increases. c. Dry weight: This method involves weighing a sample of bacteria before and after it has been dried. The difference in weight is used to estimate the biomass of the bacteria. d. Metabolic activity: This method involves measuring the metabolic activity of the bacteria by measuring the amount of CO2 or O2 produced or consumed by the culture.
Antimicrobial agents that are specifically designed to be used on living tissues are referred to as __________.
antiseptics
When bacteria are found in the blood the condition is referred to as __________.
bacteremia
The destruction of vegetative organisms by chemical or physical methods is called __________.
disinfection
The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
disk diffusion
The effectiveness of a drug against a microbe is also referred to as the drug's __________.
efficacy
Cells that contain a nucleus are __________ cells.
eukaryotic
A disinfectant is designed to be used only on __________ surfaces.
inanimate
Synthetic proteins that can be used in the treatment of hepatitis C are:
interferons.
Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
lungs (pneumonia)
Enzymes such as __________, found in cervical mucus and semen, are instrumental in providing a chemical defense against bacterial infections of the reproductive organs.
lysozyme
When both the brain and the meninges are inflamed, the condition is referred to as:
meningoencephalitis.
Chemically, prions are:
misfolded proteins.
Bacteria that appear red after Gram staining are said to be gram __________.
negative
Which of the following is not part of the second line of defense?
pH of the skin
Transgenic plants are:
plants that have been genetically modified to express desirable traits such as disease resistance, improved nutritional content, and increased yield. In agriculture, transgenic plants can reduce pesticide use, increase food security, and improve the economic viability of farming. However, there are concerns about the environmental impact and potential health risks associated with the use of transgenic crops.
Bacteria that show variation in size and shape as a result of environmental conditions or age of the organisms are referred to as __________ bacteria.
pleomorphic
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram __________ bacterium.
positive
The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are __________.
prions
All bacteria are __________ cells based on presence or absence of cellular structures.
prokaryotic
A culture that contains a single species of an organism is a(n) __________ culture.
pure
Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are:
restriction enzymes.
Hantaviruses, which can cause disease in humans, are carried by __________.
rodents (specifically, some species of mice and rats)
The toxic condition caused by the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from the site of infection is called __________.
sepsis
The range of pathogen type against which a given drug is effective is referred to as the drug's __________.
spectrum of activity
The anticodons are located in:
tRNA
The lowest temperature at which all microorganisms in a particular liquid will be killed within 10 minutes is the __________.
thermal death point
Any infectious disease or infection that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans is classified as __________.
zoonotic
