NPTE Review Questions 6
A PT wants to test a pt for VBI but has limited cervical ROM, the most appropriate action to test for VBI is? -complete the VBI test with the head and neck positioned by ~ %50 of the available cervical ROM - complete the VBI test as far into the available cervical ROM as tolerated -avoid completing the VBI test until the pt has full cervical ROM -avoid all direct cervical treatment techniques until the VBI test can be assessed at the limits of normal cervical ROM
- complete the VBI test as far into the available cervical ROM as tolerated
Which of the following is not accurate in describing normal joint position at the end of terminal stance? -15 deg of hip hyperextension -0 deg of knee extension -0 deg of ankle DF -10 deg of MTP hyperextension
-10 deg of MTP hyperextension- the MTPs are in 30 deg of MTP hyperextension
During testing using the Glascow Coma Scale, the pt exhibited spontaneous eye opening, was able to follow selected motor commands, and was considered to be oriented based on verbal responses. The most likely score assigned would be? 6 12 15 18
-15, a score of 13-15 is highest attainable score -12, a score of 9-12 is indicative of a moderate head injury -6, a score of less than 8 is indicative of a severe head injury -18, a score of 18 is not possible on the GCS
Which individual would be expected to have the largest max O2 consumption? -23 year old male (weight: 240 lbs, height: 72 inches) -25 year old female (weight: 160 lbs, height: 66 inches) -53 year old male (weight: 210 lbs, height: 69 inches) -47 year old female (weight: 130 lbs, height: 62 inches)
-23 year old male (weight: 240 lbs, height: 72 inches)- max O2 consumption is higher in males and directly proportional to height and weight
Which pt profile would most be most consistent with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythmatosus? -29 year old female -67 year old female -27 year old male -61 year old male
-29 year old female- SLE is most common in females within 15-40 years old
Which pt would appear to be the most appropriate candidate for utilizing volumetric measurements? -38 year old female with Colles' fracture -27 year old male with bicipital tendonitis -48 year old male with rotator cuff tear -57 year old male with pulmonary edema
-38 year old female with Colles' fracture
Which ROM measurement at the hip would most likely associated with a foot progression angle of minus 10 degrees (in toeing)? -75 deg of hip medial rotation and 25 deg of hip lateral rotation -35 deg of hip medial rotation and 70 deg of hip lateral rotation -30 deg of hip medial rotation and 20 deg of hip lateral rotation -45 deg of hip medial rotation and 45 deg hip lateral rotation
-75 deg of hip medial rotation and 25 deg of hip lateral rotation
In the absence of other relevant findings what would thenar atrophy best be explained by? -C8 nerve root lesion -paralysis of the interossei -radial nerve lesion -ulnar lesion
-C8 nerve root lesion -paralysis of the interossei- hyperextension of the MTP joint -radial nerve lesion- wrist drop -ulnar lesion- atrophy of the hypothenar eminence and a clawed hand with flexion of the 4th and 5th digits
Utilizing a submaximal exercise protocol to determine a pt's maximum O2 uptake it is necessary to determine the relationship b/w? -HR and RPE -HR and workload -blood pressure and RPE -blood pressure and workload
-HR and workload
The desired response when a pt is instructed to reach for an object beyond their R arm's length? -L trunk elongation, L weight shifting, R hip hiking -R trunk elongation, R weight shifting, R hip hiking -L trunk elongation, L weight shifting, L hip hiking -R trunk elongation, R weight shifting, L hip hiking
-R trunk elongation, R weight shifting, L hip hiking
The results of a study with a correlation b/w variables is 0.87 regarding the Scholastic Aptitude Test as a predictor of GPA in a PT academic program. Which statement is most accurate based on the results of the study? -a high GPA in a PT program is caused by a high score on the Scholastic Aptitude test -Students in a PT program with high scores on the Scholastic Aptitude test tend to have high GPA -There is no relationship b/w GPA in a PT program and performance on the Scholastic Aptitude test -There is an inverse relationship b/w GPA in a PT program and performance on the Scholastic Aptitude Test
-Students in a PT program with high scores on the Scholastic Aptitude test tend to have high GPA
What type of wound would be most likely treated with a foam dressing impregnated with charcoal? -a dry wound that is infected -a dry wound that has a fetid odor -a heavily exuding wound that is infected -a heavily exuding wound that has a fetid odor
-a heavily exuding wound that has a fetid odor
Which scenario would result in the greatest likelihood of a successful surgical meniscus repair with associated ACL tear? -a tear involving the inner 1/3 of the meniscus with reconstruction of the ACL -a tear involving the inner 1/3 of the meniscus with conservative management of the ACL -a tear involving the outer 1/3 of the meniscus with reconstruction of the ACL -a tear involving the outer 1/3 of the meniscus with conservative management of the ACL
-a tear involving the outer 1/3 of the meniscus with reconstruction of the ACL, outer 1/3 is more vascular =conservative management of the ACL increases the failure rate of the surgically repaired meniscus
Which motions would you expect to weak and painful during muscle testing based on the dx of piriformis syndrome? -abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh -abduction and medial rotation of the thigh -adduction and lateral rotation of the thigh -adduction and medial rotation of the thigh
-abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh
Which finding is the best indicator that the pt is at minimal risk of acquiring a deep vein thrombosis? -ability to perform ankle pumps and muscle setting exercises -ability to ambulate on a frequent schedule -ability to achieve full hip ROM w/in the allowable limits -ability to utilize pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings
-ability to ambulate on a frequent schedule
Which condition would be most commonly associated with the shoulder pain during 170-180 degrees of abduction? -anterior glenohumeral instability -posterior glenohumeral instability -acromioclavicular arthritis -bicipital tendonitis
-acromioclavicular arthritis
In a patient with a known cardiovascular pathology and history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which activity would potentially be the most problematic for the patient? -performing diaphragmatic breathing exercises in a semi-fowler position -initiation a progressive ambulation program on a treadmill -administering percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes -assessing tactile fremitus while palpating the chest wall in sitting
-administering percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes- the patient is positioned in supine wiht the foot of the bed elevated 18 inches, this position would increase the likelihood of reflux
During a 6MWT a pt indicates that they would like to rest. What is the most appropriate PT action? -allow the pt to rest, however, stop the elapsed time during the rest period -allow the pt to rest, however, allow the elapsed time to continue -allow the pt to rest, however, d/c the test -offer encouragement to the pt in order to avoid or delay the rest period
-allow the pt to rest, however, allow the elapsed time to continue
Which of the following would be an example of an individual's right to autonomy being violated? -an older woman who refuses surgery -an older man coerced to have surgery -an infant whose parents elect for surgery -an athlete who seeks a second opinion
-an older man coerced to have surgery
Which statistical test would be used to compare the differences between three groups? t-test z-test chi-square test analysis of variance (ANOVA) test
-analysis of variance (ANOVA) test- used to compare 3 or more variables -t-test- used to compare the means of 2 different groups -z-test- similar to t-test in that it compares the mean of 2 different groups, however a z-test would be used in situations where the variance of the population being studied is known -chi-square test- used to compare nominal data, not ratio like in the question
Most likely affected vessel affected if the pt exhibits an ataxic gait, intention tremors and dysmetria? -anterior inferior cerebellar artery -anterior spinal artery -basilar artery -middle cerebral artery
-anterior inferior cerebellar artery- 1 of 3 vessels that supplies the cerebellum, which occlusion results in ataxia, nystagmus, dysmetria, incoordination, and balance defecits -anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior portion of the spinal cord and occlusion results in contralateral hemiplegia, deviation of the tongue toward the affected side, dysphagia and loss of the gag reflex -basilar artery is part of the posterior cerebral circulation arising from the confluence of the L and R vertebral arteries at the base of the pons, occlusion can result in contralateral hemiplegia, aphasia, and ipsilateral sensory loss of the face -middle cerebral artery is 1 of 3 major paired arteries that supplies blood to the cerebrum, occlusion can result in contralateral hemiplegia, aphasia, apraxia, and cognitive deficits
The denervation of the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus, and pronator quadratus mm would most likely be associated with? -anterior compartment syndrome -anterior interosseous syndrome -cubital tunnel syndrome -Erb's Palsy
-anterior interosseous syndrome- branch of the median nerve which can be pinched b/w the heads of the pronator teres mm
What is the most appropriate method to assess the vestibular component of balance would be? -assess cutaneous sensation -apply a perturbation to alter the body's center of gravity -examine proprioception in a WB posture -quantify visual acuity and depth perception
-apply a perturbation to alter the body's center of gravity
The most appropriate course of action for a male PT who is examining a female pt and needs to the pt change into a gown but the female pt appears uneasy about this? -continue with treatment as planned -attempt to treat the pt without using the gown -bring a female staff member into the treatment room and continue with the treatment -offer to transfer the pt to a female PT
-bring a female staff member into the treatment room and continue with the treatment
What is the most significant source of error when using a test- retest design for research? sampling error tendency to rate too strictly or leniently change in test forms due to sampling of items change in subject situation over time
-change in subject situation over time
A PT enters a private treatment area and observes a pt collapsed on the floor. The pt appears to be moving slightly, however, seems to be in need of medical assistance. The most immediate PT action is? -check for unresponsiveness -monitor airway, breathing, and circulation -position the pt -phone emergency medical services
-check for unresponsiveness
The most appropriate method to examine the effect high voltage galvanic electrical stimulation on edema s/p TKA is? -anthropometric measurements -circumferential measurements -goniometric measurements -volumetric measurements
-circumferential measurements
The most appropriate action for a PT who is working with a pt with cerebral palsy but lacks experience with this population? -inform the pt of your area of expertise -co-treat the pt with another more experienced therapist -treat the pt -refuse to treat the pt
-co-treat the pt with another more experienced therapist
The most appropriate PT action when the pt complains of general malaise and reports a slightly elevated body temp., the pt's shoulder also presents with edema and a small amount of yellow fluid is observed seeping from the incision? -send the pt to the ER -communicate the info to the referring physician -document the findings in the medical record -ask the pt to make an appointment with the referring physician
-communicate the info to the referring physician =signs of infection do not require visit to ER but do need to be discussed with physician
Which condition is most likely related to the prescription of Lasix? atrial flutter deep vein thrombosis hyperlipidemia congestive heart failure
-congestive heart failure= furosemide (Lasix)- is a loop diuretic often used in the treatment of edema or hypertension, increases the excretion of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, thereby increasing urination and decreasing the volume of fluid that is retained within the body -atrial flutter= Digoxin -deep vein thrombosis= Thrombolytic drugs -hyperlipidemia= Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
What does the use of repeated measures design ensure in a research report? -controls for differences b/w subjects -keeps the subjects blind to the identity of the treatment group -ensures that subjects with similar characteristics are assigned to different treatment groups -selects homogenous group of subjects
-controls for differences b/w subjects
Which type of pharmalogical agent would not be given to a pt who has rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes? -nonopioid analgesic agents -corticosteroid agents -biologic response modifiers -disease modifying antirheumatic agents
-corticosteroid agents- may cause an elevation of blood sugar
The most appropriate PT action for a pt who is 12 wks s/p ACL reconstruction and has no more covered visits? -offer to treat the pt pro bono -devise an affordable payment plan -request additional visits from the 3rd party payer -d/c the pt with a HEP
-d/c the pt with a HEP
Which adverse effect results from a w/c chair with a seat that is too wide? -d/f changing position w/in the w/c -insufficient trunk support -d/f propelling the w/c -increased pressure to the distal posterior thighs
-d/f propelling the w/c
What physiological change is most commonly associated with urinary incontinence in older adults? -reduced kidney filtration capacity -increased reservoir capacity of the bladder -spasm of the detrusor muscle -decrease urge sensation
-decrease urge sensation =bladder becomes full but due to a decreased bladder sensitivity the older adult my not recognize this
A patient has moved from stage 5 to stage 6 of Brunnstrom's Stages of Recovery. This is characterized by? -absence of associated reactions -disappearance of spasticity -voluntary movement begins outside of synergy patterns -normal motor function
-disappearance of spasticity
A pt experiences sever knee pain while performing a quadriceps setting exercise while lying supine on a mat table. The most appropriate PT action is? -have the pt perform the exercise in sidelying -have the pt flex the knee prior to initiating the exercise -place a pillow under the ankle -discontinue the exercise
-discontinue the exercise
Which of the following tasks would be most appropriate to test a patient's abstract ability? -orientation to time, person, and place -copy drawn figures of varying size and shape -discuss how two objects are similar -identify letters or numbers traced on the skin
-discuss how two objects are similar
The most appropriate PT action when a pt states that he voids small amounts of urine while performing resistive exercises? -refer the pt to a support group -instruct the pt in pelvic floor muscle strengthening exercises -d/c resistive exercises as part of the established plan of care -educate the pt about incontinence
-educate the pt about incontinence -instruct the pt in pelvic floor muscle strengthening exercises- it would be inappropriate to begin pelvic exercises w/out referral b/c you don't know the cause of the incontinence
During postural drainage of the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes the pt c/o dizziness and mild dyspnea. What is the most appropriate PT action? -reassure the pt that the response is normal -asses the pt's vital signs -elevate the pt's head -call for assistance
-elevate the pt's head- complaints of dizziness and mild dyspnea would exceed the normal response so the head should be elevated
Which type of prosthesis would be most appropriate for a pt who resides in a retirement community and is worried that the permanent prosthesis will look awful? -endoskeletal shank and single axis articulated foot ankle assembly -endoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot -exoskeletal shank and single axis articulated foot ankle assembly -exoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot
-endoskeletal shank and solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot
What type of behavior therapy is best described by refusing to acknowledge certain behaviors? -aversive conditioning -extinction -operant conditioning -rational emotive imagery
-extinction
Which general rule best determines the length of treatment when using ultrasound? -two minutes for an area that is two times the size of the transducer face -five minutes for an area that is two times the size of the transducer face -five minutes is the maximum treatment time regardless of the treatment area -ten minutes is the maximum treatment regardless of the treatment area
-five minutes for an area that is two times the size of the transducer face
A pt with ankylosing spondylitis will most likely have a typical standing posture of? -posterior thoracic rib hump -flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve -excessive lumbar curve, flattened thoracic curve -lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae
-flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve
When comparing sensory stimulation to motor stimulation, sensory stimulation requires? -greater phase duration -greater frequency -stronger amplitude -shorter treatment time
-greater frequency
What bony landmark best corresponds to the insertion of the supraspinatus muscle? -lesser tubercle of the humerus -greater tubercle of the humerus -supraspinous fossa of the scapula -deltoid tuberosity of the humerus
-greater tubercle of the humerus -lesser tubercle of the humerus- inserts on the lesser tubercle -supraspinous fossa of the scapula- supraspinatus originates here -deltoid tuberosity of the humerus- deltoid inserts here
In order to refocus a pt who becomes perseverate and achieve the desired therapeutic outcome a PT should? -focus on the topic of perseveration for a short period of time in order to appease the tp -guide the pt into an interesting new activity and reward successful completion of the task -take the pt back to his room for quiet time and attempt to resume therapy once he has stopped perseverating -continue with repetitive verbal cues to cease perseveration
-guide the pt into an interesting new activity and reward successful completion of the task =preservation is the continued repetition of a word, phrase or movement, initiating a new activity during therapy may allow the pt to redirect attention and subsequently receive positive reinforcement for attending to the selected task
The most effective strategy to control for the influence an observer has on a child's performance during selected gross motor activities? -provide initial and refresher observer training -increase observer awareness of the influence of their background -have an observer spend time with he children before direct observation -ask the children to ignore the presence of the observer
-have an observer spend time with he children before direct observation
Which description best explains the pathophysiology associated with Graves' disease? -inflammation of the lining of the digestive tract -insufficient insulin production from the pancreas -hypofunction of the adrenal cortex -hyperactivity of the thyroid gland
-hyperactivity of the thyroid gland- autoimmune disease in which stimulate certain antibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland -inflammation of the lining of the digestive tract- Crohn's disease s/s= abdominal pn, cramping, and diarrhea -insufficient insulin production from the pancreas- Type 1 diabetes s/s= polyphagia, weight loss, ketoacidosis, polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, dehydration, and fatigue -hypofunction of the adrenal cortex- Addison's disease, s/s= hypotension, weakness, anorexia and altered pigmentation
Which condition would most commonly be associated with an increased risk of cardiac arrest if left untreated? hypercalcemia hyperkalemia hypermagnesemia hypernatremia
-hyperkalemia-normal= 3.5-5.0 mEq/L, respiratory paralysis and cardiac arrest -hypercalcemia-normal= 8.4-10.2 mg/dL, hyperparathyroidism--> constipation, pain, nausea, vomiting -hypermagnesemia- normal= 1.5-2.0 mEq/L, caused by renal failure--> hypotension and respiratory depression -hypernatremia- normal= 135-145 mEq/L, caused by impaired thirst or restricted access to water--> thirst
The most effective method of applying phonophoresis and ensuring that a patient's current inflammation is not exacerbated? -utilize US with a frequency of 1 MHz -limit treatment time to 5 minutes -incorporate a pulsed 20% duty cycle -select an US intensity less than 1.5 W/cm^2
-incorporate a pulsed 20% duty cycle
A PT treats a pt in her home for 60 min sessions/ 3x a week. The PT has recently noticed that the pt becomes increasingly agitated with fatigue. The most appropriate treatment modification is? -reduce the treatment sessions to 30 min, 3x per week -reduce the treatment sessions to 2x a week -increase the rest periods during existing treatment sessions -increase the treatment sessions to 90 min, 2x per week
-increase the rest periods during existing treatment sessions
Which objective finding would be most essential for the child to progress to ring sitting? -increased strength of the trunk flexors -increased strength of the trunk extensors -integration of the symmetrical tonic neck reflex -integration of the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex
-increased strength of the trunk extensors, ring sitting refers to an independent sitting position
Which of the following activities would be least appropriate for a pt dx'd with C6 tetraplegia? -independent raises for skin protection -manual w/c propulsion -assisted to independent transfers with a sliding board -independent self range of motion of the LEs
-independent self range of motion of the LEs =activity is more appropriate for C7 tetraplegia
A study concludes that measurements can be highly reliable when taken by the a single therapist. This study demonstrates the use of? -interrater reliability -intrarater reliability -internal validity -external validity
-intrarater reliability
The most likely sensory alteration due to an injury to the superficial peroneal nerve would be? -sole of the foot -plantar surface of the toes -lateral aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot -triangular area b/w the 1st and 2nd toes
-lateral aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot -sole of the foot- medial and lateral plantar nerves -plantar surface of the toes- medial and plantar nerves -triangular area b/w the 1st and 2nd toes- deep peroneal nerve
Which of the following best explains the pts ability to reach full shoulder flexion while maintaining a posterior pelvic tilt? -capsular tightness -latissimus dorsi tightness -pectoralis minor tightness -quadratus lumborum tightness
-latissimus dorsi tightness
After taking the pt through the full median N ULTT testing with minimal symptoms on the R side. The most appropriate sensitizer to utilize would be? -right lateral flexion of the cervical spine -left lateral flexion of the cervical spine -right rotation of the cervical spine -left rotation of the cervical spine
-left lateral flexion of the cervical spine
Which effect would digitalis have on the pt's ECG? -sinus tachycardia -lengthened PR interval -lengthened QT interval -elevated ST segment
-lengthened PR interval- digitalis prolongs the PR interval on the ECG by increasing conduction time through the AV node -digitalis may decrease the QT interval
Which finding could be most related to the use of silver sulfadiazine? -leukopenia -peripheral edema -hypokalemia -altered pH balance
-leukopenia- silver sulfadiazine is a sulfa drug that can produce a decrease in the number of circulating WBCs, usually below 5,000 mm^3
A pt has normal strength and equal leg length and as the pt passes midstance he slightly vaults and exhibits early toe off. What is the most likely cause of this deviation? -weakness of the DFs -weakness of the hip abductors -limited plantar flexion -limited dorsiflexion
-limited dorsiflexion
The Waddell's signs are used to determine if a patient's low back pain is nonorganic in nature. Which of the following would be considered a positive Waddell's sign? -low back pain with a SLR test in both supine and sitting positions -sensory loss in a dermatomal pattern -low back pain with passive shoulder and pelvis rotation occurring simultaneously -localized tenerness in the low back with palpation
-low back pain with passive shoulder and pelvis rotation occurring simultaneously
A pt reports d/f seeing objects directly in front of them, this description is most consistent with the presence of? -cataracts -macular degeneration -presbyopia -glaucoma
-macular degeneration- loss of central vision due to degenerative changes of the eye, these pts can effectively see in their peripheral vision -cataracts-opacity to the lens of the eye which results in the pt seeing light streaks and glare from light sources -presbyopia- normal loss of lens elasticity that is experienced with aging, commonly know as farsightedness and can be managed with eyeglasses -glaucoma- increase in the intraocular pressure of the eye that can damage the optic nerve, early stages are characterized by loss of peripheral vision and sparing central vision
The most appropriate technique to encourage full expansion at the base of the lungs? -manual percussion over the posterior portion of the ribs with the patient in prone -manual contacts with pressure of the lateral borders of the ribs with the patient in supine -manual vibration over the lateral portion of the ribs with the patient in sidelying -manual cues over the epigastric area with the patient in supine
-manual contacts with pressure of the lateral borders of the ribs with the patient in supine
A PT determines that a pt has passive knee flexion of 0-135 and active knee flexion of 0-120. The most appropriate form of testing to help clarify the difference in the ROM value is? -passive joint motion testing -special tests isolating flexibility -manual muscle tests -diagnostic imaging
-manual muscle tests =muscle weakness would present with normal PROM and decreased AROM
Which condition, during pregnancy, would be least likely identified during genetic testing? -cystic fibrosis -meningitis -phenylketonuria -Tay-Sachs disease
-meningitis- inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord caused by a bacterial or viral infection -cystic fibrosis-exocrine glands overproducing thick mucus that causes subsequent obstruction -phenylketonuria- characterized by behavorial and cognitive issues secondary to an elevation of serum phenylalanine -Tay-Sachs disease- characterized by the absence of deficiency of hexosaminidase A. This produces an increase of gangliosides within the brain
Which phase of the gait cycle would be most problematic for a pt with a plantarflexion contracture? -heel strike to foot flat -foot flat to midstance -midstance to heel off -heel off to toe off
-midstance to heel off- midstance requires 10 deg of DF which progresses to 15 deg of DF at flat foot- a pt with a PF contracture would have the most d/f with this b/c it requires the most DF -heel strike to foot flat-heel strike requires 0 deg of DF which progresses to 15 deg of PF -foot flat to midstance-foot flat requires 15 of PF which progresses to 10 deg of DF at midstance -heel off to toe off- heel off requires 15 deg of DF which progresses to 20 degrees of PF at toe off
Which of the following exercises would be the most appropriate based on the patient's post op status of ACL reconstruction 8 days ago? -limited range isokinetics at 30 degrees per second -unilateral leg press -mini-squats in standing -active knee extension in short sitting
-mini-squats in standing
Which objective finding is not consistent with C5 involvement? -muscle weakness in the supinator and wrist extensors -diminished sensation in the deltoid area -muscle weakness in the deltoid and biceps -diminished biceps and brachioradialis reflexes
-muscle weakness in the supinator and wrist extensors
The most appropriate location to attach an electrode over the motor point of the peroneus longus? -along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa -on the anterolateral surface of the lower leg -proximal to the first MTP joint -immediately inferior to the lateral malleolus
-on the anterolateral surface of the lower leg
When measuring medial rotation of the shoulder when pt is in supine where should the PT position the fulcrum? -on the lateral midline of the humerus using the lateral epicondyle -perpendicular to the floor -along the midaxillary line of the thorax -over the olecranon process
-over the olecranon process
Which of the following clinical findings would not be expected with a C6 nerve root injury? -diminished sensation on the anterior arm and the index finger -weakness in the biceps and supinator -diminished brachioradialis reflex -paresthesias of the long and ring finger
-paresthesias of the long and ring finger
A PT positions a pt in prone to measure passive knee flexion. ROM may be limited in this position due to? -active insufficiency of the knee extensors -active insufficiency of the knee flexors -passive insufficiency of the knee extensors -passive insufficiency of the knee flexors
-passive insufficiency of the knee extensors
Which of the following is the best interpretation of a PT assigning a MMT of 4 to patient A and a MMT of 2 to patient B? -patients A and B have equal strength -patient A is stronger than patient B -patient A is 2x as strong as patient B -patient B is 2x as strong as patient A
-patient A is stronger than patient B
The components of a clinical question posed in order to search literature of info about the effectiveness of therapy include? -subjective, objective, assessment, plan (SOAP) -patient/ problem, intervention, comparison, outcome (PICO) -validity, reliability, applicability -diagnosis, prognosis, intervention
-patient/ problem, intervention, comparison, outcome (PICO)
Which treatment strategy would be most appropriate to address diplopia? -provide non-verbal instructions w/ in the pt's direct line of sight -place a patch over one of the pt's eyes -ask the pt to turn his head to one side when he experiences diplopia -instruct the pt to carefully focus on a single object
-place a patch over one of the pt's eyes
Which manual contact would be most appropriate to emphasize lingula expansion? -place the hands on the L side of the chest below the axilla -place the hands below the clavicle on the anterior chest wall -place the hands over the posterior aspect of the lower ribs -place the hands on the R side of the chest below the axilla
-place the hands on the L side of the chest below the axilla
A respiratory exam reveals decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus. This finding is most indicative of? pleural effusion pulmonary edema consolidation atelectasis
-pleural effusion -pulmonary edema- decreased breath sounds, increased fremitus -consolidation- decreased breath sounds, increased fremitus on the side of consolidation -atelectasis- decreased breath sounds, increased fremitus
A pt requires min assistance to maintain sitting posture and can't accept any additional challenge. The sitting balance should be documented as? normal good fair poor
-poor-unable to maintain balance without external support regardless of the amount -fair =maintain balance but accept to challenge -good =maintain balance and accept some challenge -normal =maintain balance and accept max challenge
Which portion of the shoulder capsule is responsible for a firm end feel during medial rotation with the shoulder at 90 deg abduction? -anterior joint capsule -posterior joint capsule -inferior joint capsule -superior joint capsule
-posterior joint capsule
Where is the most appropriate location to US the peroneus longus and brevis tendons? -inferior to the sustenaculum tali -over the tarsi tarsi -posterior to the lateral malleolus -anterior to the lateral malleolus
-posterior to the lateral malleolus -inferior to the sustenaculum tali- horizontal eminence arising from the medial surface of the calcaneus, serves as the attachments for several ligaments including the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament (spring ligament) -over the sinus tarsi- small osseous canal which runs into the ankle under the talus bone, same ~ level as the lateral malleolus -anterior to the lateral malleolus- this is where the extensor digitorum can be paplpated
A recent entry indicated that an exercise stress test ordered by the physician was positive in a pt that has recurrent angina. The most accurate interpretation of this finding is? -presence of balanced O2 demand and supply -presence of ischemia -presence of normal vital signs -presence of cardiac arrhythmias
-presence of ischemia
Which muscle would most likely contribute to entrapment of the median nerve? -abductor pollicis longus -flexor digiti minimi -flexor digitorum profundus -pronator teres
-pronator teres
Which finding would most likely contribute to a potential false negative of a lachman's of a suspected ACL injury? -moderate effusion of the knee joint capsule -12 millimeters of anterior translation of the tibia on the femur -protective muscle guarding of the hamstring muscles -previous injury involving the ACL
-protective muscle guarding of the hamstring muscles
Assuming normal progression of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which of the following would first occur? -distal muscle weakness -proximal muscle weakness -impaired respiratory function -inability to perform ADLs
-proximal muscle weakness
What is the most likely static hand position of a pt with rheumatoid arthritis? -radial deviation of the radiocarpal joint and radial deviation of the fingers -radial deviation of the radiocarpal joint and ulnar deviation of the fingers -ulnar deviation of the radiocarpal joint and radial deviation of the fingers -ulnar deviation of the radiocarpal joint and ulnar deviation of the fingers
-radial deviation of the radiocarpal joint and ulnar deviation of the fingers
The most beneficial action to address the pain and tenderness in the area of the great toe due to hallux valgus in a pt with RA would be? -recommend a shoe with a wide toe box -improve alignment of the great toe by using a metatarsal bar -increase flexion ROM of the great toe -use a heel cup to redistribute forces
-recommend a shoe with a wide toe box
Which exercise would be the most appropriate to strengthen the lumbricals on a pt with a low metatarsal arch? -resisted extension of the MTP joint -resisted flexion of the MTP joint -resisted abduction of the MTP joint -resisted adduction of the MTP joint
-resisted flexion of the MTP joint
Which muscle would be essential to for an infant to maintain a high guard position when in a sitting position? -pectoralis major -rhomboids -serratus anterior -lower trapezius
-rhomboids =high guard position requires adduction of the scapulae
Most appropriate action for a PT who is attempting to schedule a pt but the pt states they can only came in at 4:30 on weds and the PT already has 2 pts booked at that time? -schedule the pt on Weds at 4:30 -attempt to move one the pts scheduled on Weds at 4:30 to a different time -schedule the pt with another PT at 4:30 on Weds -inform the referring physician the pt will only be seen once this week in PT
-schedule the pt with another PT at 4:30 on Weds
Which step would be the most appropriate to maximize pt compliance with an HEP? -limit the exercise program to 10 min -select a maximum of 5 different exercises -select exercises consistent with the pt's rehab goals -avoid physically demanding exercises
-select exercises consistent with the pt's rehab goals
What is the most likely cause of redness over the patella in a pt with a patellar tendon bearing prosthesis? -settling due to limb shrinkage -socket not properly aligned -excessive withdrawal in sitting -excessive number of residual limb socks
-settling due to limb shrinkage
Which description is most accurate when describing the unaffected extremity while walking on a painful limb? -shorter swing phase and shorter step length -shorter swing phase and longer step length -longer swing phase and shorter step length -longer swing phase and longer step length
-shorter swing phase and shorter step length
What is the most appropriate position to test the reflex of the triceps? -shoulder extension and elbow flexion -shoulder flexion and elbow extension -shoulder extension and elbow extension -shoulder flexion and elbow flexion
-shoulder extension and elbow flexion
Which of the following situations would most warrant immediate medical attention in a pt with diabetes? -signs of confusion and lethargy -systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg during exercise -lack of significant clinical findings following the examination -discovery of significant past medical history unknown to the physician
-signs of confusion and lethargy- these are signs of hypoglycemia and needs to be treated immediately
Which body position would place the most pressure on the lumbar spine? -standing in the anatomical position -standing with 45 deg of hip flexion -sitting in a chair slouching forward -sitting in a chair with reduced lumbar lordosis
-sitting in a chair slouching forward
Which treatment technique would not be beneficial in decreasing the level of sympathetic activity? -connective tissue massage -rotating the lower trunk in hooklying -slower reversal hold of the quads and hams -gentle manual pressure to the abdomen
-slower reversal hold of the quads and hams
If the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) test is negative for airway obstruction in 99% of individuals without lung disease, then the measurement of FEV1 is? -sensitive -specific -reliable -valid
-specificity is the probability of obtaining a negative test among individuals without the disease (who should test negative). Since 99 out of 100 individuals without lung disease had a negative FEV1 test for airway obstruction, the test is highly specific -sensitivity is the probability of obtaining a positive test among individuals who have the disease. In this example, neither condition was met: the test result for airway obstruction and the individuals tested did not have lung disease
A child has significant d/f flexing the neck while in a supine position. Failure to integrate which reflex could explain the child's d/f? -symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex -moro reflex -asymmetrical tonic neck reflex -symmetrical tonic reflex
-symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex
Which of the following vital sign recordings would exceed the typical limits of a phase 1 program? -HR elevated 18 bpm above resting level -respiration rate of 18 breaths per minute -systolic blood pressure decreased by 25 mm Hg from resting level -diastolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg
-systolic blood pressure decreased by 25 mm Hg from resting level -HR elevated 18 bpm above resting level- most guidelines state that the HR should not exceed 130 or over 20 post MI pts or over 30 post surgical pts in phase 1 -respiration rate of 18 breaths per minute- dyspnea is a reason to terminate exercise but not a RR of 18 -diastolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg- a DBP over 110 is considered the upper limits of a phase 1 rehab program
Which of the following does not contribute to a firm end feel during testing of the plantar flexion ROM? -tension in the anterior joint capsule -tension in the tibialis anterior -tension in the anterior talofibular ligament -tension in the calcaneofibular ligament
-tension in the calcaneofibular ligament- often associated with the normal end feel of dorsiflexion
By selecting a simple random sampling to draw from a population the PT ensures? -the data collected from the sample will be normally distributed -the sample size will be large -the sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population -that every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen
-that every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen
What would be the primary limitation of cold water immersion for a lateral ankle sprain? -decreased cell metabolism -excessive vasoconstriction of blood vessels -the involved extremity cannot be elevated -decreased nerve conduction velocity
-the involved extremity cannot be elevated
Which characteristic of atrial flutter best differentiates this condition from atrial fibrillation? -the regularity of the atrial rhythm -the irregulatrity of the atrial rhythm -the rapid rate of atrial depolarization -the slow rate of atrial depolarization
-the regularity of the atrial rhythm- flutter is fast but regular rhythm compared to atrial fibrillation which also has a high rate but is irregular
Which lung volume is most likely ~ 10% of a pt's total lung capacity? -tidal volume -inspiratory reserve volume -residual volume -functional residual capacity
-tidal volume
Failure to stabilize the scapula while measuring GH abduction will result in? -downward rotation and elevation of the scapula -downward rotation and depression of the scapula -upward rotation and elevation of the scapula -upward rotation and depression of the scapula
-upward rotation and elevation of the scapula
The most appropriate PT action when the PT observes clear drainage from a distal pin site s/p femur fracture with external rotation? -d/c the exercise session and contact the referring physician -use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and notify nursing -use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and continue with the exercise session -document the finding and d/c the exercise session
-use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and continue with the exercise session
A pt is required to lift 35 boxes to an elevated at his job but can't prevent hyperextension of his spine while he lifts them. What is the most appropriate PT action? -implement a pelvic stabilization program -design an abdominal strengthening program -review proper body mechanics -use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt
-use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt
Which of the following recommendations would be least effective to minimize electrode resistance? -keep the sponge well moistened -use small electrodes -maintain even, firm , contact with the skin -remove hair from the skin
-use small electrodes- this will increase resistance
Which maximum MET level would you expect a 36 yr old female to have who is recreationally active? 3 METs 6 10 15
10 METs- maximal aerobic capacity for average men and women is b/w 8-12 METs highly trained individuals can have an aerobic capacity of 15-20 METs
What percentage of interstitial fluid is collected by a normally functioning lymphatic system? 15% 35% 55% 75%
15% =lymphatic system is responsible for collecting 10-20% of the interstitial fluid whereas the venous system collects the other 80-90%
According to the rule of 9s what percentage would be covered if there were burns over the anterior surface of the R UE, anterior surface of the trunk? 13.5 % 22.5 27.0 36.0
22.5%
What is the minimum width required for a pt using a w/c to safely traverse through a doorway? 24 inches 30 32 36
32 inches
After one round of serial casting what would be the most likely expected increase in ROM if the patient was lacking 40 degrees of elbow extension? 5 degrees 15 degrees 25 degrees 35 degrees
5 degrees
When preparing a hot pack for the low back a PT should utilize how many towel layers? 2-4 4-6 6-8 8-10
6-8
What is the minimum space required to turn 180 degrees in a standard w/c? 32 inches 48 60 72
60 inches
A supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving: Anterior Interossous nerve Radial Nerve ulnar nerve Axillary nerve
Anterior Interossous nerve Radial Nerve- mid shaft ulnar nerve- medial epicondyle Axillary nerve-surgical neck
Which myotome is being testing during resisted shoulder abduction? C4 C5 C6 C7
C5
Which is the highest spinal cord injury level at which independent transfers with a sliding board would be feasible? C4 C6 T1 T3
C6
Which group would have the highest risk for developing osteoporosis? Caucasian females over the age of 60 African American females over the age of 60 Caucasian females under the age of 40 African American females under the age of 40
Caucasian females over the age of 60
A subjective finding of tenderness and sensitivity over the medial palmar portion of the hand is most consistent with? carpal tunnel syndrome Dupuytren's contracture de Quervain's disease ulnar nerve entrapment
Dupuytren's contracture = contracture of the palmar fascia of the hand and results in a flexion deformity of the involved MCP and PIP joints
Which special test would be least beneficial in diagnosing a vascular compression in the shoulder region? Adson maneuver Halstead maneuver Froment's sign Wright's test
Froment's sign-paralysis of the adductor pollicis longus Halstead maneuver- pulse is paplated on the radial side as downward traction is applied to the affected arm
Which pediatric reflex would a PT expect to be integrated at the youngest age? plantar grasp reflex Moro reflex Landau reflex Galant reflex
Galant reflex- 30 wks gestation to 2 mo plantar grasp reflex- 28 wks gestation to 9 mo Moro reflex- 28 wks gestation to 5 mo Landau reflex- 3 mo to 2 yrs
Which condition would least likely to result in the external auditory meatus being anterior to the plumb line during a postural plumb line assessment? ankylosing spondylitis Graves' disease osteoporosis Parkinson's disease
Graves' disease
Which of the following reflexes would not be integrated on a 7 mo old infant? -ATNR -Moro reflex -Landau reflex -STNR
Landau- 3 mo to 2 yrs ATNR- birth to 6 mo Moro- 28 wks of gestation to 5 mo STNR- 6 to 8 mo
What heart sound is associated with the mitral and tricuspid valves closing? S1 S2 S3 S4
S1 S2- aortic and pulmonary valves closing S3- occurs in early diastole while the ventricle is rapidly filling, loss of ventricular compliance, may be pathological or normal in children and young adults S4- late in diastole just before S1, atrial contraction and increased resistance to ventricular filling
Thenar atrophy
Suggests median nerve disorder - eg., carpal tunnel syndrome
Which medical diagnosis would result in a pt being most susceptible to autonomic dysreflexia? T4 paraplegia T12 paraplegia cauda equina injury posterior cord syndrome
T4 paraplegia
Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication to intermittent compression? venous stasis ulcer acute pulmonary edema intermittent claudication lymphedema
acute pulmonary edema
Which potential complication of a myocardial infarction is a pt most susceptible to? heart failure arrhythmias thrombus heart structural damage
arrhythmias- occur in 90% of pts with MIs
Which cognitive function does a task of counting from 1-25 by increments of 3 most likely assess? attention constructional ability abstract ability orientation
attention
Which medical condition is most often associated with Legg-Calve-Perthes? avascular necrosis congenital hip dysplasia osteomyelitis septic arthritis
avascular necrosis
Which method would likely result in the lowest obtained temperature value? tympanic membrane temperature rectal temperature oral temperature axillary temperature
axillary temperature
Which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate to address the muscle shortening associated with equinus gait pattern? side stepping backward stepping activities in single leg stance toe walking
backward stepping
A PT begins wound management by drying the wound with a towel, applies meds with a gauze pad and then applies a series of dressings that are secured with a bandage, which step in wound management would not warrant the use of sterile technique? bandage dressings medication towel
bandage- doesn't require sterile technique b/c it does not come into contact with the wound
Which medication would most likely contribute to an increased risk of falling? nonopioid analgesics benzodiazepines thrombolytics antidiarrheals
benzodiazepines- promote sleep through increasing inhibitory effects on the CNS synapses where GABA is found is found
Which of the following muscles would a pt with a C5 SCI be able to utilize? brachioradialis pronator teres extensor carpi radialis brevis latissimus dorsi
brachioradialis (radial N C5-6) pronator teres (median N C6-7) extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial N C6-8) latissimus dorsi (thoracodorsal N C6-8)
Which medical condition can be confirmed by x-rays? bicipital tendonitis calcific tendonitis supraspinatus impingement subacromial bursitis
calcific tendonitis
Which of the following PT treatments would be most beneficial for a pt with BPPV? Dix hallpike maneuver canalith repositioning maneuvers singular neurectomy gaze stability exercises
canalith repositioning maneuvers Dix hallpike is the test not treatment
A pt is referred to PT following a modified radical mastectomy for treatment of associated soft tissue restrictions and pain. During the examination the PT becomes concerned since the surgical site is extremely warm to touch, tender and discolored. Given the pt's recent history, the most likely etiology is? dermatitis cellulitis mastitis erysipelas
cellulitis-tends to develop in areas where the skin's protective barrier and lymphatic flow have been disrupted, cellulitis is a common post operative complication of surgical breast cancer treatment dermatitis- not warm to touch or consistent with post mastectomy mastitis- infection of the fatty breast tissue typically associated with breast feeding, may present like cellulitis but is further characterized by painful lumps within the breast tissue Erysipelas- specific form of cellulitis caused by sptreptococcal bacteria, characterized by raised, sharp demarcation of borders with an unmistakable bright red discoloration
Which side effect would most likely be present due to the chronic use of levodopa? bradykinesia choreoathetosis shuffling gait rigidity
choreoathetosis-type of dyskinesia characterized by uncontrolled, involuntary movements. The onset of dyskinesias can occur as soon as three months after receiving levodopa therapy
What color would the exudate of a wound be, if it was classified as serous? clear pink red yellow
clear pink- serosanguineous red- sanguineous yellow- purulent
choreoathetosis
combination of chorea and athetoid movements
The most appropriate profile to monitor on a daily basis in order to ensure that a pt with a hematological disorder is safe during PT? hemoglobin complete blood count arterial blood gas blood glucose
complete blood count
A PT attempts to examine the relationship b/w scores on a functional independence measure and another measurement whose validity is known. This type of example best describes? face validity predictive validity concurrent validity content validity
concurrent validity- refers to the relationship b/w test scores and either criterion states or measurements whose validity is known face validity- does the test "look valid" predictive validity- form that is demonstrated when a score is helpful in predicting a specific future outcome content validity- refers to the extent to which a measure represents all facets of a given concept or construct
metatarsus adductus
congenital foot deformity in which distal part of foot curves medially and proximal part is normal
The most likely associated finding with an iliopsoas release on a pt with spastic diplegia is? crouched gait lower limb scissoring equinovarus deformity knee flexion contracture
crouched gait
Which finding is not typically associated with left sided heart failure? pulmonary edema persistent cough dependent edema muscle weakness
dependent edema- right sided heart failure
Which action would be first when performing the radial N ULTT? depression of the shoulder girdle lateral rotation of the shoulder extension of the elbow flexion of the wrist
depression of the shoulder girdle
A pt presents with LLQ pn, loss of appetite and nausea. This clinical presentation is most consistent with? diverticulitis appendicitis peptic ulcer pancreatitis
diverticulitis
The incorporation of phonetics for speech and language deficits would be essential for a pt diagnosed with? Broca's aphasia dysarthria verbal apraxia dysphagia
dysarthria
When evaluating a pt with a cerebellar stroke, which of the following would you most likely expect? dysarthria chorea hemiballismus hypertonia
dysarthria-pathology of the cerebellum chorea-lesion of the basal ganglia hemiballismus-characterized by large amplitude movements, sudden, violent, flailing motions of the arm and leg on one side of the body and is caused by a lesion of the basal ganglia hypertonia-damage to upper motor neurons
Which active movement would be most resisted by buoyancy with the pt in a pool starting with the arm positioned at the side and the elbow in 90 degrees of flexion? elbow flexion elbow extension shoulder abduction shoulder medial rotation
elbow extension
A pt is described to have an enlarged thorax with flaring costal margins and widening of the costochondral anlgle. What is the most likely pulmonary disease the pt has? asthma bronchiectasis chronic bronchitis emphysema
emphysema
Which of the following is a form of selective debridement? whirlpool wet to dry dressings enzymatic debridement wound irrigation
enzymatic debridement
A PT utilizes a manual assisted cough technique on a patient with a mid thoracic spinal cord injury. When completing this technique with the patient in supine, the most appropriate location for the therapist's hand placement is? manubrium epigastric area xiphoid process umbilical region
epigastric area
Which movement would most likely by unaffected by a tibial nerve injury? plantar flexion of the ankle extension of the great toe flexion of the great toe flexion of toes 2-5
extension of the great toe- =performed by the extensor hallucis longus and brevis which is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve
calcaneovalgus
foot and ankle laxity --> can dorsiflex foot up to tibia
A chart review reveals that a pt is positive for the Helicobacter pylori bacterium. The PT would anticipate the pt present with? meningitis pneumonia gastric ulcer disease tetanus
gastric ulcer disease- caused by the gram negative bacterium Helicobacter pylori that is found in the upper GI tract
What diagnosis would a be most likely if a PT recommended footwear that includes a high and wide toe box, small to no heel, medial arch support, and a contoured posterior counter? sesamoiditis hallux valgus pes cavus metatarsalgia
hallux valgus- shoe prescription for hallux valgus would include a high and wide toe box to reduce friction and pressure to the first MTP joint, medial support is required to decrease pronation while recuced heel height decreases forefoot pressure, a contoured posterior counter of the shoe better controls the subtalar joint
Which potential complication of exercise is most relevant for a pt with a BMI of 34.5? heat intolerance asthma gastroesophageal reflux orthostatic hypotension
heat intolerance- excessive adipose tissue acts as an extra layer of insulation in pts with high BMI
The most appropriate modification to address a pt whose feet fall off of wheelchair foot rests? hydraulic reclining unit elevating legrests heel loops and/ toe loops detachable swing away leg rests
heel loops and/ toe loops
Which of the following motions would be most restricted in a child fitted with a Pavlik harness to treat hip dysplasia? hip flexion and abduction hip flexion and adduction hip extension and abduction hip extension and adduction
hip extension and adduction
What would the FABER position be most useful in stretching? hip abductors hip flexors hip external rotators hip internal rotators
hip internal rotators
Which of the following would be least indicative of anorexia? hypertension cardiac arrhythmias hypokalemia osteopenia
hypertension =hypotension is more likely ins response to the decreased basal metabolic rate that accompanies anorexia
A finding of crackles during both inspiration and expiration is most representative of? pleural effusion pulmonary fibrosis impaired secretion clearance localized stenosis
impaired secretion clearance =crackles or rales are indicative of this -pleural effusion =breath sounds are diminished but may hear a pleural rub -pulmonary fibrosis =decreased breath sounds -localized stenosis =not a term used associated with breath sounds
Which breathing technique would be the most beneficial to prevent alveolar collapse? inspiratory muscle trainer mechanical percussors incentive spirometry flutter valve
incentive spirometry
Which of the following findings would be most predictable based on the pt's burn injuries w/ in 24 hrs that range from superficial partial thickness to deep partial thickness and encompass ~35% of the pt's total body surface area? increased O2 consumption hypernatremia increased intravascular fluid decreased core temperature
increased O2 consumption =acute burn produces hypermetabolism that results in increased O2 consumption, increased minute ventilation, and increased core temperature. Intravascular, interstitial and intracellular fluids are all diminished.
The most common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids is? palpitations arrhythmias increased blood pressure tachycardia
increased blood pressure
Which form of administration ensures that a medication will be 100% bioavailable when administered an hour before PT session? intravenous injection oral inhalation sublingual
intravenous injection- only form that doesn't pass through some sort of membrane
To facilitate palpation of the of the tibialis posterior the pt should? invert and PF the foot evert and DF the foot invert and DF the foot passively evert and PF the foot
invert and PF the foot
What type of protective equipment would be necessary prior to entering a pt's room who is no droplet precautions? gloves mask gloves and mask gloves, gown and mask
mask
What related structure is most consistent with a cramping, dull and aching pain description? -nerve root -muscle -bone -vascular
muscle
Which of the two NSAID types, Cox-1 or Cox-2 are safe to use in patients who are predisposed to gastric or kidney malfunction Cox 1 inhibitors Cox 2 inhibitors neither both
neither- Cox 1 (aspirin) should not be given to patients with kidney malfunction Cox 2 (NSAIDs) should not be given to patients with gastric malfunction
A pt's LBP isn't diminished with positioning in flexion and extension, however, is diminished with rest. This scenario is most consistent with? facet joint irritation spinal stenosis disk herniation neurogenic claudication
neurogenic claudication- the condition is characterized by weakness, cramping and pain in the legs that is often exacerbated by activity
Which of the following is an example of enteral administration? inhalation injection topical oral
oral
Hyperfunction of the parathyroid glands due to a tumor would most likely contribute to the development of? cardiac arrhythmias osteopenia muscle spasms obestity
osteopenia-hyperparathyroidism results in the demineralization of bones due to the increased secretion of PTH and subsequent loss of bone density and strength
Which of the following assessment procedures would be the most appropriate when using the Modified Ashworth Scale? strength testing deep tendon relfex testing active range of motion passive range of motion
passive range of motion 0= no spasticity, 4= rigidity
A PT determines that the L and R patellar reflex and the L achilles tendon reflex are 2+ but R achilles reflex is absent. The clinical condition that could best explain this finding? cerebral palsy multiple sclerosis peripheral neuropathy intermittent claudication
peripheral neuropathy
Which condition would be most commonly associated with excessive supination during gait? tarsal tunnel syndrome peroneal tenosynovitis plantar fasciitis posterior tibial tenosynovitis
peroneal tenosynovitis
Which cell component would have been the 1st to arrive at the injury site of an acute wound? endothelial cells fibroblasts leukocytes platelets
platelets
Which injury would most likely be associated with a reverse Hill-Sachs fracture? anterior glenohumeral dislocation posterior glenohumeral dislocation rotator cuff dislocation biceps tendon rupture
posterior glenohumeral dislocation
A note indicates that a pt is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms including tardive dyskinesia. Which condition would be treated with medicaiton most likely to produce tardive dyskinesia? -endometriosis -rheumatoid arthritis -hypertension -psychotic disorder
psychotic disorder- tradition antipsychotic agents (such as Haldol and Thorazine) produce extrapyramidal side effects (EPSE) such as tardive dyskinesia, pseudoparkinsonism, constipation, and dry mouth
In order to MMT the hip adductors the pt should be positioned in? prone sidelying standing supine
sidelying
Which type of colostomy would allow a pt to produce solid stool on a fairly regular schedule? ascending colostomy descending colostomy sigmoid colostomy transverse colostomy
sigmoid colostomy
Which pt position would be most appropriate to initiate a productive cough post thoracic surgery? standing sitting sidelying hooklying
sitting
athetosis
slow, writhing involuntary movements
Which portion of the the leg is being stretched if a pt is sitting with knees bent and a strap pulling on the top of the foot toward the pt? rectus femoris biceps femoris gastrocnemius soleus
soleus rectus femoris-O=AIIS, I=tibial tuberosity biceps femoris-O= ischial tuberosity, I=fibular head and lateral tibia gastrocnemius-O=femoral condyles, I=calcaneus
Which medical condition is most often associated with the use of a RGO? cerebral palsy Down Syndrome Legg-Calve- Perthes disease spina bifida
spina bifida
What is the most likely diagnosis if the L5 vertebrae has slipped anteriorly relative to the sacrum? spondylitis spondylolysis spondylolisthesis spondyloptosis
spondylolisthesis
An ulcer is characterized by full thickness skin loss that involves damage or necrosis of sub Q tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer presents clinically as a deep crater with or without undermining adjacent tissue. What stage is this ulcer? stage 1 stage 2 stage 3 stage 4
stage 3
Which of the following pieces of data would provide a therapist with the most valuable information when establishing the plan of care for a patient with CA? premorbid lifestyle staging of CA past medical history motivation level
staging of CA
The most appropriate location to elicit the brachioradialis reflex is the? radial tuberosity antecubital fossa biceps tendon styloid process of the radius
styloid process of the radius
chorea
sudden, rapid, jerky, purposeless movement involving limbs, trunk, or face
Most likely burn classification of a scald burn that is moist and red with several areas of blister formation? superficial superficial partial thickness deep partial thickness full thickness
superficial partial thickness- characterized by blisters
Which reflex would interfere with an infants ability to maintain a quadruped position? Galant reflex symmetrical tonic neck reflex plantar grasp reflex positive support reflex
symmetrical tonic neck reflex
A PT notes that a newborn has extremely limited dorsiflexion. Which positional foot deformity would be most likely based on the ROM limitation? calcaneovalgus metatarsus adductus syndactyly talipes equinovarus
talipes equinovarus
benzodiazepines
the most common group of antianxiety drugs, which includes Valium and Xanax drugs that lower anxiety and reduce stress
Which treatment parameter associated with mechanical lumbar traction would be most influenced by the use of a split traction table? patient position type of stabilizing belt traction force traction duration
traction force
The cranial nerve most likely assessed when a pt conducts a sensory assessment on numerous areas of a pt's face? facial nerve oculomotor nerve trigeminal nerve trochlear nerve
trigeminal nerve
Which action would be most likely to facilitate elbow extension in a pt with hemiplegia? turn the head to the affected side turn the head to the unaffected side extend the lower extremities flex the lower extremities
turn the head to the affected side =this mimics the ATNR
Which symptom is most commonly associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia? epigastric pain painful urination painful ejaculation urge to urinate frequently
urge to urinate frequently
In addition to ventricular fibrillation, what condition is capable of being identified and treated with an AED? atrial fibrillation premature atrial contractions ventricular tachycardia first degree ventricular heart block
ventricular tachycardia
If a pt expires maximally after taking a maximal inspiration, this can be used to measure a pt's? expiratory reserve volume inspiratory reserve volume total lung capacity vital capacity
vital capacity
An example of an activity requiring 3-4 METs would be? level waling at 1 mph jogging at 5 mph cycling at 10 mph walking on a treadmill at 3 mph
walking on a treadmill at 3 mph level waling at 1 mph- 1-2 METs jogging at 5 mph- 7-8 METs cycling at 10 mph- 5-6 METs
syndactyly
webbed fingers or toes
Which piece of equipment would be the most useful to address a child's dyspraxia? swing weighted vest sit and spin rocking chair
weighted vest- provides proprioceptive input and can be worn by a child with a sensory processing disorder dyspraxia- refers to d/f planning a new motor activity and is often caused by d/f interpreting and modulating tactile input
Which of the following diagnostic tools would be the most appropriate in the immediate medical management of a pt with the preliminary dx of a grade II ACL injury? bone scan computed tomography magnetic resonance imaging x-ray
x-ray =often utilized in the immediate medical management to rule out the possibility of an associated fracture
Which ion would best be used to promote tissue healing? acetate magnesium lidocaine zinc
zinc acetate-calcific deposits magnesium- muscle relaxer and vasodilator lidocaine- treat pain and inflammation associated with acute inflammatory conditions
