Nsg 170 Fluid and electrolyte and glucose regulation

A client with pulmonary edema has been receiving diuretic therapy. The client has a prescription for additional furosemide in the amount of 40 mg intravenous push. Knowing that the client will also be started on digoxin, which laboratory result should the nurse review as the priority? 1. Sodium level 2. Digoxin level 3. Creatinine level 4. Potassium level

Annswer: 4 Diuretic therapy can cause hypokalemia. The serum potassium level is measured in the client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Heightened digoxin effect leading to digoxin toxicity can occur in the client with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia also predisposes the client to ventricular dysrhythmias.

A client has abnormal amounts of circulating thyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). While obtaining the health history, the nurse asks the client about dietary intake. Lack of which dietary element is most likely the cause? 1. Iodine 2. Calcium 3. Phosphorus 4. Magnesium

Answer: 1 Adequate dietary iodine is needed to produce T3 and T4. The other requirements for adequate T3 and T4 production are an intact thyroid gland and a functional hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid feedback system. The remaining options are not responsible for the abnormal amounts of circulating T3 and T4.

The nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if frequently exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if the blood glucose is not adequately managed? 1. Polyuria 2. Diaphoresis 3. Pedal edema 4. Decreased respiratory rate

Answer: 1 Chronic hyperglycemia, resulting from poor glycemic control, contributes to the microvascular and macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus. Classic symptoms of hyperglycemia include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. Diaphoresis may occur in hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus; however, it does not predispose a client to the chronic complications of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, option 2 can be eliminated because this finding is characteristic of hypoglycemia. Options 3 and 4 are not associated with diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is assessing a pregnant client with type 1 diabetes mellitus about her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy." 2. "My insulin dose will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters." 3. "Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months of pregnancy." 4. My insulin needs should return to prepregnant levels within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding."

Answer: 1 Insulin needs decrease in the first trimester of pregnancy because of increased insulin production by the pancreas and increased peripheral sensitivity to insulin. The statements in options 2, 3, and 4 are accurate and signify that the client understands control of her diabetes during pregnancy.

A client with an endocrine disorder has experienced recent weight loss and exhibits tachycardia. Based on the clinical manifestations, the nurse should suspect dysfunction of which endocrine gland? 1. Thyroid 2. Pituitary 3. Parathyroid 4. Adrenal cortex

Answer: 1 The thyroid gland is responsible for a number of metabolic functions in the body. Among these are metabolism of nutrients such as fats and carbohydrates. Increased metabolic function places a demand on the cardiovascular system for a higher cardiac output. A client with increased activity of the thyroid gland will experience weight loss from the higher metabolic rate and will have an increased pulse rate. The anterior pituitary gland produces growth hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormone. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Both ADH and oxytocin are synthesized by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. These hormones are released as needed into the bloodstream. Parathyroid hormone is responsible for maintaining serum calcium and phosphorus levels within normal range. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? Select all that apply. 1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). 3. Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. 4. Review the client's medications to determine whether any contain or retain potassium. 5. Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

Answer: 1,2,4, The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 7.0 is elevated. The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should notify the PHCP and also review medications to determine whether any contain potassium or are potassium retaining. The client does not need to be put on NPO status. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly.

A nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The nurse understands that which manifestations are associated with this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Polyuria 2. Polydipsia 3. Concentrated urine 4. Complaints of excessive thirst 5. Specific gravity lower than 1.005

Answer: 1,2,4,5 A triad of clinical symptoms-polyuria, polydipsia, and excessive thirst-often occurs suddenly in the client with diabetes insipidus. The urine is dilute, with a specific gravity lower than 1.005, and the urine osmolality is low (50 to 200 mOsm/L).

A client with diabetes mellitus is taking Humulin NPH insulin and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime. 2. The insulin dose should be decreased if illness occurs. 3. The insulin should be administered at room temperature. 4. The insulin vial needs to be shaken vigorously to break up the precipitates. 5. The NPH insulin should be drawn into the syringe first, then the regular insulin.

Answer: 1,3 Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 60 to 120 minutes, it peaks in 6 to 14 hours, and its duration of action is 16 to 24 hours. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin. Depending on the type, the onset of action is 30 to 60 minutes, it peaks in 1 to 5 hours, and its duration is 6 to 10 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. Insulin should be at room temperature when administered. Clients may need their insulin dosages increased during times of illness. Insulin vials should never be shaken vigorously. Regular insulin is always drawn up before NPH.

The nurse is monitoring a client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus and is being treated with NPH and regular insulin. Which manifestations would alert the nurse to the presence of a possible hypoglycemic reaction? Select all that apply 1. Tremors 2. Anorexia 3 Irritability 4. Nervousness 5. Hot, dry skin 6. Muscle cramps

Answer: 1,3,4 Decreased blood glucose levels produce autonomic nervous system symptoms, which are manifested classically as nervousness, irritability, and tremors. Option 5 is more likely to occur with hyperglycemia. Options 2 and 6 are unrelated to the manifestations of hypoglycemia. In hypoglycemia, usually the client feels hunger.

The nurse caring for a client with a diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism reviews the laboratory results of blood tests for this client and notes that the calcium level is extremely low. The nurse should expect to note which finding on assessment of the client? 1. Unresponsive pupils 2. Positive Trousseau's sign 3. Negative Chvostek's sign 4. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Answer: 2 Hypoparathyroidism is related to a lack of parathyroid hormone secretion or a decreased effectiveness of parathyroid hormone on target tissues. The end result of this disorder is hypocalcemia. When serum calcium levels are critically low, the client may exhibit Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs, which indicate potential tetany. The remaining options are not related to the presence of hypocalcemia.

A client has returned to the nursing unit after a thyroidectomy. The nurse notes that the client is complaining of tingling sensations around the mouth, fingers, and toes. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should next assess the results of which serum laboratory study? 1. Sodium 2. Calcium 3. Potassium 4. Magnesium

Answer: 2 After surgery on the thyroid gland, the client may experience a temporary calcium imbalance. This is due to transient malfunction of the parathyroid glands. The nurse also would assess for Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs. The correct treatment is administration of calcium gluconate or calcium lactate. The remaining options are unrelated to the client's complaints.

A client with hypovolemia experiences activation of the renin-angiotensin system to maintain blood pressure. The registered nurse determines that the new nurse understands that what substance is secreted if which statement is made? 1. "Cortisol will be secreted." 2. "Aldosterone will be secreted." 3. "Additional glucagon will be produced." 4. "Adrenocorticotropic hormone production will increase."

Answer: 2 Aldosterone is the primary mineralocorticoid that is produced and secreted in response to lowered blood volume. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid. Glucagon is produced by the pancreas and functions to oppose the action of insulin in regulating blood glucose levels. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

Spironolactone is prescribed for a client with heart failure. In providing dietary instructions to the client, the nurse identifies the need to avoid foods that are high in which electrolyte? 1. Calcium 2. Potassium 3. Magnesium 4. Phosphorus

Answer: 2 Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-retaining diuretic, and the client should avoid foods high in potassium. If the client does not avoid foods high in potassium, hyperkalemia could develop. The client does not need to avoid foods that contain calcium, magnesium, or phosphorus while taking this medication

The nurse is planning care for a newborn of a mother with diabetes mellitus. What is the priority nursing consideration for this newborn? 1. Developmental delays because of excessive size 2. Maintaining safety because of low blood glucose levels 3. Choking because of impaired suck and swallow reflexes 4. Elevated body temperature because of excess fat and glycogen

Answer: 2 The newborn of a diabetic mother is at risk for hypoglycemia, so maintaining safety because of low blood glucose levels would be a priority. The newborn would also be at risk for hyperbilirubinemia, respiratory distress, hypocalcemia, and congenital anomalies. Developmental delays, choking, and an elevated body temperature are not expected problems.

A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the emergency department. Which findings support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Increase in pH 2. Comatose state 3. Deep, rapid breathing 4. Decreased urine output 5. Elevated blood glucose level

Answer: 2,3,5 Because of the profound deficiency of insulin associated with DKA, glucose cannot be used for energy and the body breaks down fat as a secondary source of energy. Ketones, which are acid by-products of fat metabolism, build up, and the client experiences a metabolic ketoacidosis. High serum glucose contributes to an osmotic diuresis and the client becomes severely dehydrated. If untreated, the client will become comatose due to severe dehydration, acidosis, and electrolyte imbalance. Kussmaul's respirations, the deep rapid breathing associated with DKA, is a compensatory mechanism by the body. The body attempts to correct the acidotic state by blowing off carbon dioxide (CO2), which is an acid. In the absence of insulin, the client will experience severe hyperglycemia. Option 1 is incorrect, because in acidosis the pH would be low. Option 4 is incorrect because a high serum glucose will result in an osmotic diuresis and the client will experience polyuria.

Which laboratory test results may be associated with peaked or tall, tented T waves on a client's electrocardiogram (ECG)? 1. Chloride level of 98 mEq/L (98 mmol/L) 2. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L) 4. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L (0.8 mmol/L)

Answer: 3 Hyperkalemia can cause tall, peaked, or tented T waves on the ECG. Potassium levels of 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) or greater indicate hyperkalemia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are normal levels.

The emergency department nurse is preparing a plan for initial care of a client with a diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse recognizes that the hyperglycemia associated with this disorder results from which occurrence? 1. Increased use of glucose 2. Overproduction of insulin 3. Increased production of glucose 4. Increased osmotic movement of water

Answer: 3 Hyperglycemia results from decreased use and increased production of glucose. Increased use of glucose and overproduction of insulin would most likely cause hypoglycemia. Option 4 is incorrect.

A client is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state, and a diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is made. The nurse would immediately prepare to initiate which anticipated prescription? 1. Endotracheal intubation 2. 100 units of NPH insulin 3. Intravenous infusion of normal saline 4. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate

Answer: 3 The primary goal of treatment in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) is to rehydrate the client to restore fluid volume and to correct electrolyte deficiency. Intravenous (IV) fluid replacement is similar to that administered in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and begins with IV infusion of normal saline. Regular insulin, not NPH insulin, would be administered. The use of sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis is avoided because it can precipitate a further drop in serum potassium levels. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are not required to treat HHS.

The mother of a 6-year-old child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus calls a clinic nurse and tells the nurse that the child has been sick. The mother reports that she checked the child's urine and it was positive for ketones. The nurse should instruct the mother to take which action? 1. Hold the next dose of insulin. 2. Come to the clinic immediately. 3. Encourage the child to drink liquids. 4. Administer an additional dose of regular insulin.

Answer: 3 When the child is sick, the mother should test for urinary ketones with each voiding. If ketones are present, liquids are essential to aid in clearing the ketones. The child should be encouraged to drink liquids. Bringing the child to the clinic immediately is unnecessary. Insulin doses should not be adjusted or changed.

The nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Findings include a fasting blood glucose level of 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L). Which finding would be the priority concern to the nurse? 1. Pulse 2. Respiration 3. Temperature 4. Blood pressure

Answer: 3 Rationale: In the client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, an elevated temperature may indicate infection. Infection is a leading cause of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome in the client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The other findings are within normal limits.

An external insulin pump is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. When the client asks the nurse about the functioning of the pump, the nurse bases the response on which information about the pump? 1. It is timed to release programmed doses of either short-duration or NPH insulin into the bloodstream at specific intervals. 2. It continuously infuses small amounts of NPH insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose levels. 3. It is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into the pancreas. This releases insulin into the bloodstream. 4. It administers a small continuous dose of short-duration insulin subcutaneously. The client can self-administer an additional bolus dose from the pump before each meal.

Answer: 4 An insulin pump provides a small continuous dose of short-duration (rapid- or short-acting) insulin subcutaneously throughout the day and night. The client can self-administer an additional bolus dose from the pump before each meal as needed. Short-duration insulin is used in an insulin pump. An external pump is not attached surgically to the pancreas.

A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. Given the client's history of diabetes mellitus, which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Edema of the residual limb 3. Slight redness of the incision 4. Separation of the wound edges

Answer: 4 Clients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to wound infection, wound separation, and delayed wound healing because of the disease. Postoperative hemorrhage and edema of the residual limb are complications in the immediate postoperative period that apply to any client with an amputation. Slight redness of the incision is considered normal, as long as the incision is dry and intact.

A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion? 1. Potassium infusion 2. NPH insulin infusion 3. 5% dextrose infusion 4. Normal saline infusion

Answer: 4 Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of diabetes mellitus that develops when a severe insulin deficiency occurs. Hyperglycemia occurs with diabetic ketoacidosis. Rehydration is the initial step in resolving diabetic ketoacidosis. Normal saline is the initial IV rehydration fluid. NPH insulin is never administered by the IV route. Dextrose solutions are added to the treatment when the blood glucose level decreases to an acceptable level. Intravenously administered potassium may be required, depending on the potassium level, but would not be part of the initial treatment.

An adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to note? 1. Sweating and tremors 2. Hunger and hypertension 3. Cold, clammy skin and irritability 4. Fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness

Answer: 4 Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of diabetes mellitus that develops when a severe insulin deficiency occurs. Hyperglycemia occurs with diabetic ketoacidosis. Signs of hyperglycemia include fruity breath odor and a decreasing level of consciousness. Hunger can be a sign of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, but hypertension is not a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis. Hypotension occurs because of a decrease in blood volume related to the dehydrated state that occurs during diabetic ketoacidosis. Cold clammy skin, irritability, sweating, and tremors all are signs of hypoglycemia.

The nurse provides instructions to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse recognizes accurate understanding of measures to prevent diabetic ketoacidosis when the client makes which statement? 1. "I will stop taking my insulin if I'm too sick to eat." 2. "I will decrease my insulin dose during times of illness." 3. "I will adjust my insulin dose according to the level of glucose in my urine." 4. "I will notify my primary health care provider (PHCP) if my blood glucose level is higher than 300 mmol/L."

Answer: 4 During illness, the client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis, due to hyperglycemia associated with the stress response and due to a typically decreased caloric intake. As part of sick day management, the client with diabetes should monitor blood glucose levels and should notify the PHCP if the level is higher than 300 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L). Insulin should never be stopped. In fact, insulin may need to be increased during times of illness. Doses should not be adjusted without the PHCP's advice and are usually adjusted on the basis of blood glucose levels, not urinary glucose readings.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In the acute phase, the nurse plans for which priority intervention? 1. Correct the acidosis. 2. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously. 3. Apply a monitor for an electrocardiogram. 4. Administer short-duration insulin intravenously.

Answer: 4 Lack of insulin (absolute or relative) is the primary cause of DKA. Treatment consists of insulin administration (short- or rapid-acting), intravenous fluid administration (normal saline initially, not 5% dextrose), and potassium replacement, followed by correcting acidosis. Cardiac monitoring is important due to alterations in potassium levels associated with DKA and its treatment, but applying an electrocardiogram monitor is not the priority action.

A school-age child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has soccer practice and the school nurse provides instructions regarding how to prevent hypoglycemia during practice. Which should the school nurse tell the child to do? 1. Eat twice the amount normally eaten at lunchtime. 2. Take half the amount of prescribed insulin on practice days. 3. Take the prescribed insulin at noontime rather than in the morning. 4. Eat a small box of raisins or drink a cup of orange juice before soccer practice.

Answer: 4 Rationale: Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL (4 mmol/L) and results from too much insulin, not enough food, or excessive activity. An extra snack of 15 to 30 g of carbohydrates eaten before activities such as soccer practice would prevent hypoglycemia. A small box of raisins or a cup of orange juice provides 15 to 30 g of carbohydrates. The child or parents should not be instructed to adjust the amount or time of insulin administration. Meal amounts should not be doubled.

A client has a tumor that is interfering with the function of the hypothalamus. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms related to which imbalance? 1. Melatonin excess or deficit 2. Glucocorticoid excess or deficit 3. Mineralocorticoid excess or deficit 4. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) excess or deficit

Answer: 4 Rationale: The hypothalamus exerts an influence on both the anterior and the posterior pituitary gland. Abnormalities can result in excess or deficit of substances normally mediated by the pituitary. ADH could be affected by disease of the hypothalamus because the hypothalamus produces ADH and stores it in the posterior pituitary gland. The pineal gland is responsible for melatonin production. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has lost a significant amount of blood because of complications during a surgical procedure. Which assessment finding would be indicative of further fluid volume deficit? 1. 4+ edema noted in lower extremities 2. Crackles auscultated from lung bases to apices 3. Blood pressure rises from 116/68 to 118/74 mm Hg 4. Pulse rate increases from 100 beats/min to 136 beats/min

Answer: 4 The cardiac output is determined by the volume of the circulating blood, the pumping action of the heart, and the tone of the vascular bed. An increase in the pulse rate compensates for decreases in fluid volume. Options 1 and 2 may be noted in fluid overload. A low blood pressure is expected in a postoperative client who lost a significant amount of blood.

The nurse has provided instructions for measuring blood glucose levels to a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who will be taking insulin. The client demonstrates understanding of the instructions by identifying which method as the best method for monitoring blood glucose levels? 1. "I will check my blood glucose level every day at 5:00 p.m." 2. "I will check my blood glucose level 1 hour after each meal." 3. "I will check my blood glucose level 2 hours after each meal." 4. "I will check my blood glucose level before each meal and at bedtime."

Answer: 4 The most effective and accurate measure for testing blood glucose is to test the level before each meal and at bedtime. If possible and feasible, testing should be done during the nighttime hours. Checking the level after the meal will provide an inaccurate assessment of diabetes control. Checking the level once daily will not provide enough data to control the diabetes mellitus.

The nurse identifies that a client is having occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which result would be consistent with the observation? 1. Serum chloride level of 98 mEq/L (98 mmol/L) 2. Serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 3. Serum calcium level of 10.5 mg/dL (2.75 mmol/L) 4. Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L)

Answer: 4 The nurse should check the client's serum laboratory study results for hypokalemia. The client may experience PVCs in the presence of hypokalemia because this electrolyte imbalance increases the electrical instability of the heart. The values noted in the remaining options are normal.

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding. In developing the plan of care, which priority problem should the nurse assign to this client? 1. Deficient fluid volume related to acute blood loss 2. Risk for aspiration related to acute bleeding in the GI tract 3. Risk for infection related to acute disease process and medications 4. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to lack of nutrients and increased metabolism

Answer:1 The priority problem for the client with acute gastrointestinal bleeding among these options is deficient fluid volume related to acute blood less. This state can result in decreased cardiac output and hypovolemic shock. Although nutrition is a problem, fluid volume deficit is more of a priority. The client is at risk for aspiration and infection, but these are not actual problems at this point in time.

The nurse implements a teaching plan for a pregnant client who is newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should stay on the diabetic diet." 2. "I should perform glucose monitoring at home." 3. "I should avoid exercise because of the negative effects on insulin production." 4. "I should be aware of any infections and report signs of infection immediately to my obstetrician."

Answer:3 Exercise is safe for a client with gestational diabetes mellitus and is helpful in lowering the blood glucose level. Dietary modifications are the mainstay of treatment, and the client is placed on a standard diabetic diet. Many clients are taught to perform blood glucose monitoring. If the client is not performing the blood glucose monitoring at home, it is performed at the clinic or obstetrician's office. Signs of infection need to be reported to the obstetrician.