NSG 245 Ch 46- Management Gastric & Duodenal Disorders

A client sustained second- and third-degree burns over 30% of the body surface area approximately 72 hours ago. What type of ulcer should the nurse be alert for while caring for this client?

Curling's ulcer Curling's ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum. Peptic, esophageal, and Meckel's ulcers are not related to burn injuries.

Which of the following appears to be a significant factor in the development of gastric cancer?

Diet Diet seems to be a significant factor: a diet high in smoked, salted, or pickled foods and low in fruits and vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer. The typical patient with gastric cancer is between 50 and 70 years of age. Men have a higher incidence than women. Native Americans, Hispanic Americans, and African Americans are twice as likely as European Americans to develop gastric cancer.

A nurse practitioner prescribes drug therapy for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. Choose the drug that can be used for 4 weeks and has a 90% chance of healing the ulcer.

Omeprazole Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor that, if used according to the health care provider's directions, will result in healing in 90% of patients. The other drugs are H2 receptor antagonists that need to be used for 6 weeks.

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor?

Omeprazole Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction would the nurse give the client?

"Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." Tetracycline may cause a photosensitivity reaction in clients. The nurse should caution the client to use sunscreen when taking this drug. Dairy products can reduce the effectiveness of tetracycline, so the nurse should not advise him or her to take the medication with milk. GI upset is possible with tetracycline administration. Administration of tetracycline does not necessitate driving restrictions.

A nurse is teaching a client with gastritis about the need to avoid the intake of caffeinated beverages. The client asks why this is so important. Which explanation from the nurse would be most accurate?

"Caffeine stimulates the central nervous system and thus gastric activity and secretions, which need to be minimized to promote recovery." Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant that increases gastric activity and pepsin secretion. Caffeine is a diuretic that causes decreased fluid volume and potential dehydration. It does not lead to hemorrhage and does not interfere with absorption of vitamin B12.

The nurse determines that teaching for the client with peptic ulcer disease has been effective when the client makes which statement?

"I have learned some relaxation strategies that decrease my stress." The nurse assists the client to identify stressful or exhausting situations. A hectic lifestyle and an irregular schedule may aggravate symptoms and interfere with regular meals taken in relaxed settings along with the regular administration of medications. The client may benefit from regular rest periods during the day, at least during the acute phase of the disease. Biofeedback, hypnosis, behavior modification, massage, or acupuncture may be helpful.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

"It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—the person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate.

A client with gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori is prescribed metronidazole. Which client statement indicates to the nurse that teaching about this medication was effective?

"It might cause a metallic taste in my mouth." Metronidazole is a synthetic antibacterial and antiprotozoal agent that assists with eradicating H. pylori bacteria in the gastric mucosa when given with other antibiotics and proton pump inhibitors. This medication may cause a metallic taste in the mouth. It should not be taken with anticoagulants as it will increase the blood thinning effects of warfarin. Alcohol should be avoided while taking this medication. This medication may cause anorexia and not an increased appetite.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with gastritis. To promote fluid balance when treating gastritis, the nurse knows that what minimal daily intake of fluids is required?

1.5 L Daily fluid intake and output are monitored to detect early signs of dehydration (minimal fluid intake of 1.5 L/day, minimal output of 0.5 mL/kg/h).

A client with peptic ulcer disease must begin triple medication therapy. For how long will the client follow this regimen?

10 to 14 days Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (e.g., metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton pump inhibitor (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol).

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed?

A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum. A vagotomy severs the vagus nerve; a Billroth I procedure may be performed in conjunction with a vagotomy. If the remaining part of the stomach is anastomosed to the jejunum, the procedure is a Billroth II.

When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the initial appropriate action by the nurse?

Assess the client's abdomen and vital signs. Signs and symptoms of perforation includes sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm. The nurse should assess the vital signs and abdomen prior to notifying the physician. Irrigation of the NG tube should not be performed because the additional fluid may be spilled into the peritoneal cavity, and the client should be placed in a position of comfort, usually on the side with the head slightly elevated.

Which ulcer is associated with extensive burn injury?

Curling ulcer Curling ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum.

A client who had a Roux-en-Y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. After ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. After having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event?

Dumping syndrome Dumping syndrome is an unpleasant set of vasomotor and GI symptoms that occur in up to 76% of patients who have had bariatric surgery. Early symptoms include a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. These symptoms resolve once the intestine has been evacuated (i.e., with defecation).

Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders?

Duodenal ulcers Familial tendency also may be a significant predisposing factor. People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than are those with blood type A, B, or AB. Blood type is not a predisposing factor for gastric cancer, esophageal varices, and diverticulitis.

The nursing student approaches his instructor to discuss the plan of care for his client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The student asks what is the most common site for peptic ulcer formation? The instructor would state which one of the following?

Duodenum Peptic ulcers occur mainly in the gastroduodenal mucosa because this tissue cannot withstand the digestive action of gastric acid (HCl) and pepsin.

Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist?

Famotidine Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). Metronidazole is an antibiotic.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. What nursing interventions should be included in the care plan? Select all that apply.

Frequently monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels Observing stools and vomitus for color, consistency, and volume Checking the blood pressure and pulse rate every 15 to 20 minutes The nurse assesses the patient for faintness or dizziness and nausea, which may precede or accompany bleeding. The nurse must monitor vital signs frequently and evaluate the patient for tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Other nursing interventions include monitoring the hemoglobin and hematocrit, testing the stool for gross or occult blood, and recording hourly urinary output to detect anuria or oliguria (absence of or decreased urine production).

The nurse is cautiously assessing a client admitted with peptic ulcer disease because the most common complication that occurs in 10% to 20% of clients is:

Hemorrhage Hemorrhage, the most common complication, occurs in 10% to 20% of clients with peptic ulcers. Bleeding may be manifested by hematemesis or melena. Perforation is erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning. Intractable ulcer refers to one that is hard to treat, relieve, or cure. Pyloric obstruction, also called gastric outlet obstruction (GOO), occurs when the area distal to the pyloric sphincter becomes scarred and stenosed from spasm or edema or from scar tissue that forms when an ulcer alternately heals and breaks down.

Review the following four examples of ideal body weight (IBW), actual weight, and body mass index (BMI). Using three criteria for each example, select the body weight that indicates morbid obesity.

IBW = 145 lbs; weight = 290 lbs; BMI = 31 kg/m2 The criteria for morbid obesity are a body weight that is twice IBW and a BMI that exceeds 30 kg/m2.

Rebleeding may occur from a peptic ulcer and often warrants surgical interventions. Signs of bleeding include which of the following?

Mental confusion Signs of bleeding include tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, mental confusion, thirst, and oliguria.

A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate?

Perforation of the peptic ulcer Signs and symptoms of perforation include the following: Sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity), which may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm; vomiting; collapse (fainting); extremely tender and rigid (board-like) abdomen; and hypotension and tachycardia, indicating shock.

The nurse is preparing a teaching tool about delayed release proton pump inhibitors used to treat duodenal ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. Which statement will the nurse include that would apply to most types of proton pump inhibitor prescribed to treat this condition?

The medication is to be swallowed whole and taken before meals There are several proton pump inhibitors used to treat duodenal ulcers caused by H. pylori. For most of these medications, they are a delayed-release capsule that is to be swallowed whole and taken before meals. Pantoprazole may cause diarrhea and hyperglycemia. Rabeprazole is the only proton pump inhibitor that interferes with the metabolism of digoxin, iron, and warfarin. Rabeprazole may cause abdominal pain. Pantoprazole may cause abnormal liver function tests.

A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:

alcohol abuse and smoking. The nurse should mention that risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of hemorrhoids aren't risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

drink liquids only between meals. A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in the prevention of rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing unintentional weight loss and occasional abdominal pain. Which additional symptoms will the nurse expect to assess if the client has a tumor In the small intestine? Select all that apply.

Fatigue Nausea Vomiting Weakness Tumors of the small intestine often present insidiously with vague, nonspecific symptoms. Most clients have sustained weight loss and may be malnourished at the time of diagnosis. Reports of pain are common. The client also frequently presents with fatigue, nausea, vomiting, and weakness. Jaundice is not a symptom of a tumor in the small intestine.

Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer?

Removal of the tumor There is no successful treatment for gastric carcinoma except removal of the tumor. If the tumor can be removed while it is still localized to the stomach, the patient may be cured. If the tumor has spread beyond the area that can be excised, cure is less likely.

The nurse recognizes that the client diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience

pain 2 to 3 hours after a meal. The client with a duodenal ulcer often awakens between 1 and 2 with pain, and ingestion of food brings relief. Vomiting is uncommon in the client with duodenal ulcer. Hemorrhage is less likely in the client with duodenal ulcer than in the client with gastric ulcer. The client with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

A client is newly diagnosed with a gastric outlet obstruction. Which topic will the nurse include in client education?

Management of constipation Peptic ulcer disease is the leading benign cause of gastric outlet obstruction. Gastric outlet obstruction occurs when the area distal to the pyloric sphincter becomes scarred and stenosed from spasm or edema or from scar tissue that forms when an ulcer alternately heals and breaks down. The client may have nausea and vomiting, constipation, epigastric fullness, anorexia, and, later, weight loss. In treating the client with gastric outlet obstruction, the first consideration is to insert an NG tube to decompress the stomach. Confirmation that obstruction is the cause of the discomfort is accomplished by assessing the amount of fluid aspirated from the NG tube. A residual of more than 400 mL suggests obstruction. Black tarry runny stools occur from bleeding somewhere in the GI tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds can occur with many health conditions. Right lower quadrant abdominal pain is associated with appendicitis.

A client with peptic ulcer disease has a blood pressure of 88/40 mm Hg, dizziness, and nausea. Which complication will the nurse suspect is occurring with this client?

Bleeding from the ulcer Bleeding peptic ulcers account for 27% to 40% of all upper GI bleeds and it may be manifested by hematemesis or melena. Faintness or dizziness and nausea may precede or accompany bleeding. A low blood pressure could indicate active bleeding. The client's symptoms do not indicate evidence of the ulcer healing. It is unlikely that the client's symptoms are adverse effects or allergic responses to the medications.

A health care provider suspects that a client has peptic ulcer disease. With which diagnostic procedure would the nurse most likely prepare to assist?

Endoscopy Barium study of the upper GI tract may show an ulcer; however, endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic procedure because it allows direct visualization of inflammatory changes, ulcers, and lesions. Through endoscopy, a biopsy of the gastric mucosa and of any suspicious lesions can be obtained. Endoscopy may reveal lesions that, because of their size or location, are not evident on x-ray studies. Less invasive diagnostic measures for detecting H. pylori include serologic testing for antibodies against the H. pylori antigen, stool antigen test, and urea breath test.

A client comes to the clinic after developing a headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccupping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. The client tells the nurse that the last food was buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which medical condition does the nurse find to be most consistent with the client's presenting problems?

Acute gastritis A client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccupping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. A client with a duodenal ulcer will present with heartburn, nausea, excessive gas and vomiting. A client with gastric cancer will have persistent symptoms of nausea and vomiting, not sudden symptoms. A client with a gastric ulcer will have bloating, nausea, and vomiting, but not necessarily hiccups.

The nurse visits the home of a client recovering from acute gastritis. Which observation indicates that teaching about the disorder was effective?

Medications placed in a pillbox The client with acute gastritis should be instructed on methods of keeping track of medications such as placing the doses into a pillbox. The client should also be instructed about foods and substances that may cause gastritis, including nicotine, spicy seasoned foods, and caffeine.

A nursing student is caring for a client with gastritis. Which of the following would the student recognize as a common cause of gastritis? Choose all that apply.

Ingestion of strong acids Irritating foods Overuse of aspirin Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate. A DASH diet is an acronym for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, which would not cause gastritis. Participation in competitive sports also would not cause gastritis.

Which is a true statement regarding gastric cancer?

Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Men have a higher incidence of gastric cancer. The prognosis is poor because the diagnosis is usually made late because most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage. Most cases of gastric cancer are discovered only after local invasion has advanced or metastases are present.

The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been prescribed misoprostol. What information from the nurse would be most accurate about misoprostol?

Prevents ulceration in clients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic prostaglandin that protects the gastric mucosa against ulceration and is used in clients who take NSAIDs. Misoprostol should be taken with food. It does not improve emptying of the stomach, and it increases (not decreases) mucus production.

A client with severe peptic ulcer disease has undergone surgery and is several hours postoperative. During assessment, the nurse notes that the client has developed cool skin, tachycardia, labored breathing, and appears to be confused. Which complication has the client most likely developed?

Hemorrhage Signs of hemorrhage following surgery include cool skin, confusion, increased heart rate, labored breathing, and blood in the stool. Signs of penetration and perforation are severe abdominal pain, rigid and tender abdomen, vomiting, elevated temperature, and increased heart rate. Indicators of pyloric obstruction are nausea, vomiting, distended abdomen, and abdominal pain.

A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake?

Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals After the return of bowel sounds and removal of the nasogastric tube, the nurse may give fluids, followed by food in small portions. Foods are gradually added until the client can eat six small meals a day and drink 120 mL of fluid between meals.

A client is preparing for discharge to home following a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy. Which is the best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal?

Slows gastric emptying Dumping syndrome is a common complication following subtotal gastrectomy. To avoid the rapid emptying of stomach contents, resting after meals can be helpful. Promoting rest after a major surgery is helpful in recovery but not the reason for resting after meals. Following this type of surgery, clients will have a need for vitamin B12 supplementation due to absence of production of intrinsic factor in the stomach. Resting does not increase absorption of B12 or remove tension on suture line.

A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin. Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

"The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton-pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (e.g., metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton-pump inhibitor (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton-pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol). Research is being conducted to develop a vaccine against H. pylori.

A nurse is caring for a client who has had extensive abdominal surgery and is in critical condition. The nurse notes that the complete blood count shows an 8 G/dL hemoglobin and a 30% hematocrit. Dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution is infusing through a triple lumen central catheter at 125 mL/hr. The physician orders include the following:Gentamicin 80 mg IV piggyback in 50 mL D5W over 30 minutesZantac 50 mg IV piggyback in 50 mL D5W over 30 minutesOne unit of 250 mL of PRBCs (packed red blood cells) over 3 hoursFlush the nasogastric tube with 30 mL normal saline every 2 hours.How many milliliters should the nurse record as the intake for the 8-hour shift? Enter the correct number ONLY.

1470 mL Regular IV at 125 mL x 8 hours = 1000 mL. Gentamicin = 50 mL. Zantac = 50 mL. PRBCs = 250 mL. NG flushes 30 mL x 4 = 120 mL. TOTAL = 1470 mL.

A client weighing 165 lb. (75 kg) is being treated for acute gastritis. Which amount of urine output for 4 hours would indicate an adequate fluid balance if the output should be 1 mL/kg/hour?

300 mL To determine the client's weight in kg, divide the weight in lb. by 2.2 or 165 / 2.2 = 75 kg. Fluid balance for this client would be 75 mL/hr. For four hours, the client's output would need to be 300 mL as an indication of fluid balance.

The nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. The nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage?

Hematemesis The nurse interprets hematemesis as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage from the ulcer. Other signs that can indicate hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria/anuria.

A client is prescribed a histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist. The nurse understands that this might include which medication(s)? Select all that apply.

Nizatidine Famotidine Cimetidine H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton-pump inhibitors (Lansoprazole, Esomeprazole)

The nurse advises the patient who has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis to:

Refrain from food until the GI symptoms subside. It usually takes 24 to 48 hours for the stomach to recover from an attack. Refraining from food until symptoms subside is recommended, but liquids should be taken in moderation. Emetics and vomiting can cause damage to the esophagus.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic gastritis. Which interventions will the nurse add to this client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Remind to avoid alcohol intake. Review actions to reduce stress. Provide omeprazole as prescribed. Instruct to avoid foods that aggravate the condition. Chronic gastritis is managed by recommending avoidance of alcohol, reducing stress, providing medications to include proton pump inhibitors, and modifying the diet by avoiding foods that aggravate the condition. Over-the-counter NSAIDs should be avoided as this can aggravate the condition.