NSG 330 Ch 69- Management Neurologic Infections, Autoimmune Disorders, Neuropathies

A patient with MS has developed dysphagia as a result of cranial nerve dysfunction. What nursing action should the nurse consequently perform?

Position the patient upright during feeding. Correct, upright positioning is necessary to prevent aspiration in the patient with dysphagia. There is no need for a low-residue diet and suctioning should not be performed unless there is an apparent need. Liquids do not need to be withheld during meals in order to prevent aspiration.

A patient with diabetes presents to the clinic and is diagnosed with a mononeuropathy. This patients nursing care should involve which of the following?

Protection of the affected limb from injury Nursing care involves protection of the affected limb or area from injury, as well as appropriate patient teaching about mononeuropathy and its treatment. Nursing care for this patient does not likely involve exercises or assistive devices, since these are unrelated to the etiology of the disease. Improvements to diabetes management may or may not be necessary

When providing discharge teaching for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should include which instruction?

"Avoid hot baths and showers." Explanation: The nurse should instruct a client with MS to avoid hot baths and showers because they may exacerbate the disease. The nurse should encourage daytime naps because fatigue is a common symptom of MS. A client with MS doesn't require food or fluid restrictions.

The nurse is caring for a client with tetraplegia following a motor vehicle accident. A family member of the client states, "I know there is grief associated with the loss of independence, but how do I help my loved one to move past that?" The nurse is most helpful to say which of the following?

"Grief is a normal process. Let's discuss offering support throughout the process." Explanation: The best response by the nurse is to confirm that what the client is experiencing is a normal process and opening conversation. The nurse is also helpful to identify the upcoming process that the client will be experiencing. Stating that there is nothing that the family member can do closes communication and is inaccurate. The other responses may be helpful but are not the best.

A patient with herpes simplex virus encephalitis (HSV) has been admitted to the ICU. What medication would the nurse expect the physician to order for the treatment of this disease process?

Acyclovir (Zovirax) Acyclovir (Zovirax) or ganciclovir (Cytovene), antiviral agents, are the medications of choice in the treatment of HSV. The mode of action is the inhibition of viral DNA replication. To prevent relapse, treatment would continue for up to 3 weeks. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant and antirheumatic. Cyclobenzaprine is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. Ampicillin, an antibiotic, is ineffective against viruses.

To alleviate pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia, a patient is taking Tegretol (carbamazepine). What health education should the nurse provide to the patient before initiating this treatment?

Blood levels of the drug must be monitored. Side effects of Tegretol include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. The patient must also be monitored for bone marrow depression during long-term therapy. Skin discoloration, insomnia, and tinnitus are not side effects of Tegretol.

A 33-year-old patient presents at the clinic with complaints of weakness, incoordination, dizziness, and loss of balance. The patient is hospitalized and diagnosed with MS. What sign or symptom, revealed during the initial assessment, is typical of MS?

Blurred vision, intention tremor, and urinary hesitancy Optic neuritis, leading to blurred vision, is a common early sign of MS, as is intention tremor (tremor when performing an activity). Nerve damage can cause urinary hesitancy. In MS, deep tendon reflexes are increased or hyperactive. A positive Babinskis reflex is found in MS. Abdominal reflexes are absent with MS.

A patient diagnosed with MS has been admitted to the medical unit for treatment of an MS exacerbation. Included in the admission orders is baclofen (Lioresal). What should the nurse identify as an expected outcome of this treatment?

Decreased muscle spasms in the lower extremities Baclofen, a g-aminobutyric acid (GABA) agonist, is the medication of choice in treating spasms. It can be administered orally or by intrathecal injection. Avonex and Betaseron reduce the appearance of new lesions on the MRI. Corticosteroids limit the severity and duration of exacerbations. Anticholinesterase agents increase muscle strength in the upper extremities.

The nurse is caring for a patient with MS who is having spasticity in the lower extremities that decreases physical mobility. What interventions can the nurse provide to assist with relieving the spasms? Select all that apply.

Demonstrate daily muscle stretching exercises. Apply warm compresses to the affected areas. Allow the patient adequate time to perform exercises Explanation: Warm packs may be beneficial for relieving spasms, but hot baths should be avoided because of risk of burn injury secondary to sensory loss and increasing symptoms that may occur with elevation of the body temperature. Daily exercises for muscle stretching are prescribed to minimize joint contractures. The patient should not be hurried in any of these activities, because this often increases spasticity.

A patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is being admitted to the unit. The nurse would expect what diagnostic test to be ordered for this patient?

EEG The EEG reveals a characteristic pattern over the duration of CJD. A CT scan may be used to rule out disorders that may mimic the symptoms of CJD. ABGs would not be necessary until the later stages of CJD; they would not be utilized as a diagnostic test. Cerebral angiography is not used to diagnose CJD.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client with suspected Bell's palsy. Which of the following findings would the nurse be most focused on related to this medical diagnosis?

Facial distortion and pain Explanation: Bell's palsy is manifested by facial distortion, increased tearing, and painful sensations in the face, behind the ear, and in the eye. Ptosis and diplopia are associated with myasthenia gravis. Hyporeflexia and weakness of the lower extremities are associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Fatigue and depression are associated with multiple sclerosis.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?

Facial paralysis Bells palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis. It does not result in diplopia, pain at the base of the tongue, or tinnitus

A client is experiencing muscle weakness and an ataxic gait. The client has a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). Based on these symptoms, the nurse formulates "Impaired physical mobility" as one of the nursing diagnoses applicable to the client. What nursing intervention should be most appropriate to address the nursing diagnosis?

Help the client perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 8 hours. Explanation: Helping the client perform ROM exercises every 8 hours helps in promoting joint flexibility and muscle tone in a client with muscle weakness. Measures such as using pressure-relieving devices or changing the body positions every 2 hours prevents skin breakdown. The nurse should use a footboard and trochanter rolls to promote a neutral body position that will keep the body in good alignment.

Which is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States?

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Explanation: HSV-1 ( herpes simplex virus) is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States. Fungal infections of the central nervous system occur rarely in healthy people. The Western equine encephalitis virus is one of four types of arboviral encephalitis that occur in North America is one of several fungi that may cause fungal encephalitis. Lyme disease leads to flu like symptoms and starts as a local infection which can systematically spread causing organ issues, however the incidence is rare, HIV leads to autoimmune disorders.

A client has been diagnosed with a frontal lobe brain abscess. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Initiate seizure precautions. Explanation: A frontal lobe brain abscess produces seizures, hemiparesis, and frontal headache; therefore, the nurse should anticipate the need for seizure precautions. Facial weakness and visual disturbances are associated with a temporal lobe abscess. The client may experience expressive aphasia related to the abscess, but that does not indicate the need to ensure the client takes in nothing by mouth.

A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a peripheral neuropathy. When making her plan of care, the nurse knows to include what in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

Inspect the lower extremities for skin breakdown Footwear needs to be accurately sized Assistive devices may be needed to reduce the risk of falls. The plan of care includes inspection of the lower extremities for skin breakdown. Footwear should be accurately sized. Assistive devices, such as a walker or cane, may decrease the risk of falls. Bath water temperature is checked to avoid thermal injury. Peripheral neuropathies do not have a genetic component and diet is unrelated.

The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is based on which test?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Explanation: The diagnosis of MS is based on the presence of multiple plaques in the central nervous system observed on MRI. Electrophoresis of CSF identifies the presence of oligoclonal banding. Evoked potential studies can help define the extent of the disease process and monitor changes. Neuropsychological testing may be indicated to assess cognitive impairment.

A male patient presents to the clinic complaining of a headache. The nurse notes that the patient is guarding his neck and tells the nurse that he has stiffness in the neck area. The nurse suspects the patient may have meningitis. What is another well-recognized sign of this infection?

Positive Kernigs sign Meningeal irritation results in a number of well-recognized signs commonly seen in meningitis, such as a positive Kernigs sign, a positive Brudzinskis sign, and photophobia. Hyperpatellar reflex and a sluggish pupil reaction are not commonly recognized signs of meningitis

A patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome has experienced a sharp decline in vital capacity. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Prepare to assist with intubation. For the patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome, mechanical ventilation is required if the vital capacity falls, making spontaneous breathing impossible and tissue oxygenation inadequate. Each of the other listed actions is likely insufficient to meet the patients oxygenation needs.

During the acute phase of a debilitating cerebrovascular accident, which nursing intervention is most helpful in promoting the rehabilitation of the client?

Prevention of joint contractures Explanation: A critical intervention during the acute phase of a stroke is to prevent joint contractures to avoid complications later in the client's rehabilitation. Joint contractures are prevented through correct body positioning and by putting affected extremities through a full range of motion four or five times a day. Promoting critical thinking ability and using adaptive equipment are not priorities during the acute phase. Creating a positive environment is helpful in motivating the client, but this is not as high a priority as the prevention of joint contractures.

Which client goal, established by the nurse, is most important as the nurse plans care for a seizure client in the home setting?

The client will remain free of injury if a seizure does occur. Explanation: All of the goals are appropriate, but the most important goal is the long-term goal to remain free of injury if a seizure occurs. Nursing interventions associated can include notifying someone of not feeling well, lowering self to a safe position, protecting head, turning on a side, etc. Also, the client may be at a risk for injury because, once a seizure begins, the client cannot implement self-protective behaviors. An established plan is important in the care of a seizure client. The other options are acceptable goals for nursing care.

A 48-year-old patient has been diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia following recent episodes of unilateral face pain. The nurse should recognize what implication of this diagnosis?

The patient needs to be assessed for MS. Patients that develop trigeminal neuralgia before age 50 should be evaluated for the coexistent of MS because trigeminal neuralgia occurs in approximately 5% of patients with MS. Treatment does not include anticholinergics and the disease is not self-limiting. Trigeminal neuralgia is not associated with an increased risk of myasthenia gravis.

A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?

The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. The anticonvulsant agents carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin) relieve pain in most patients diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia by reducing the transmission of impulses at certain nerve terminals. Side effects include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. Carbamazepine should be gradually increased until pain relief is obtained.

A client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which nursing assessment finding is most significant?

Uneven, labored respirations Explanation: A characteristic feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome is ascending weakness, which usually begins in the legs and progresses upward to the trunk, arms, and face. Respiratory muscle weakness, evidenced by uneven, labored respirations, is a particularly dangerous effect of this disease progression because it may lead to respiratory failure and death. Therefore, although warm, dry skin; urine output of 40 ml/hour; and a soft, nondistended abdomen are pertinent assessment data, those related to respiratory function and status are most significant.

The nurse is caring for a client with Bell's palsy. Which of the following teaching points is a priority in the management of symptoms for this client?

Use ophthalmic lubricant and protect the eye. Explanation: The VII cranial nerve supplies muscles to the face. In Bell's palsy, the eye can be affected which results in incomplete closure and risk for injury. The eye can become dry and irritated unless eye moisturizing drops and ophthalmic ointment is applied. Avoiding stimuli that can trigger pain is specific to tic douloureux (cranial nerve V disorder). Encouraging dental exams is a part of care but not the priority. Antibiotics are not used in the treatment of Bell's palsy because it is thought to be caused by a virus.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for this patient?

Using the incentive spirometer as prescribed Respiratory function can be maximized with incentive spirometry and chest physiotherapy. Nursing interventions toward enhancing physical mobility should be utilized. Nursing interventions are aimed at preventing a deep vein thrombosis. Guillain-Barr syndrome does not affect cognitive function or vision.

The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barr syndrome is planning care with regard to the clinical manifestations associated this syndrome. The nurses communication with the patient should reflect the possibility of what sign or symptom of the disease?

Vocal paralysis Guillain-Barr syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve. Clinical manifestations include vocal paralysis, dysphagia, and voice changes (temporary or permanent hoarseness). Hearing deficits, tinnitus, and tongue enlargement are not associated with the disease.

A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?

Whistling Facial exercises, such as wrinkling the forehead, blowing out the cheeks, and whistling, may be performed with the aid of a mirror to prevent muscle atrophy. Blowing up balloons, frowning, and smiling are not considered facial exercises.

The initial symptoms of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) include

sensory disturbance, limb pain, and behavioral changes. Explanation: Sensory disturbance, limb pain, and behavioral changes are the initial symptoms of vCJD. Muscle rigidity, memory impairment, and cognitive impairment occur late in the course of vCJD. The other symptoms listed may happen in the later stages of vCJD.

Vagus nerve demyelinization, which may occur in Guillain-Barré syndrome, would not be manifested by which of the following?

20/20 vision Explanation: Cranial nerve demyelination can result in a variety of clinical manifestations. Optic nerve demyelination may result in blindness. Bulbar muscle weakness related to demyelination of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves results in the inability to swallow or clear secretions. Vagus nerve demyelination results in autonomic dysfunction, manifested by instability of the cardiovascular system. The presentation is variable and may include tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, or orthostatic hypotension.

The nurse is volunteering for a Red Cross blood drive and is taking the history of potential donors. Which volunteer would the nurse know will not be allowed to donate blood?

A donor who was in college in England for 1 year Explanation: The prion exists in lymphoid tissue and blood in both Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (vCJD) and Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD). Both prion diseases are believed to be bloodborne. No method is available to screen blood for infectivity. For this reason, the American Red Cross will not accept blood donation from anyone who has traveled to the United Kingdom or Europe for more than 3 to 6 months (Benjamin, 2010).

The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury?

Avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side of the face. If the surgery results in sensory deficits to the affected side of the face, the patient is instructed not to rub the eye because the pain of a resulting injury will not be detected. There is no need to limit TV viewing or to rinse the eye daily. Antibiotics may or may not be prescribed, and these would not reduce the risk of injury

The nurse is assessing a male client with multiple sclerosis (MS). What education would the nurse provide to assist the client in managing this disease? Select all that apply.

Avoidance of hot temperatures Treatment of any episodes of depression Effective treatment of anemia Participation in occupational therapy Explanation: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an immune-mediated, progressive demyelinating disease of the central nervous system (CNS). Fatigue affects most people with MS and is often the most disabling symptom. Heat, depression, anemia, deconditioning, and medication may contribute to fatigue. Avoiding high temperatures, effective treatment of depression and anemia, a change in medication, as well as occupational and physical therapy may help manage fatigue. Pain is another common symptom of MS. Bone mineral testing is recommended for women with MS who are perimenopausal. This group of clients are likely to have pain related to osteoporosis.

A nurse is assisting with a neurological examination of a client who reports a headache in the occipital area and shows signs of ataxia and nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is the most likely reason for the client's problems?

Cerebellar abscess Explanation: Indicators of a cerebellar abscess include occipital headache, ataxia, and nystagmus.

The nurse is assessing a client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following signs would the nurse most likely observe?

Diplopia and ptosis Explanation: The initial manifestation of myasthenia gravis involves the ocular muscles, such as diplopia and ptosis. The remaining choices relate to multiple sclerosis.

The nurse is preparing the client for an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor test to rule out myasthenia gravis. Which is the priority nursing action?

Ensure atropine is readily available. Explanation: Atropine should be ready before administration of edrophonium chloride so it is available if needed to control the side effects of the medication. Assessing facial weakness and documenting the results occur after the administration of edrophonium chloride; therefore, they are not the priority interventions.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of MS. To ensure the patients safety, what nursing action should be performed?

Ensure that suction apparatus is set up at the bedside. Because of the patients risk of aspiration, it is important to have a suction apparatus at hand. Bed rest should be generally be minimized, not maximized, and there is no need to pad the patients bed rails or to provide multiple small meals

A patient with MS has been admitted to the hospital following an acute exacerbation. When planning the patients care, the nurse addresses the need to enhance the patients bladder control. What aspect of nursing care is most likely to meet this goal?

Establish a timed voiding schedule A timed voiding schedule addresses many of the challenges with urinary continence that face the patient with MS. Interventions should be implemented to prevent the need for catheterization and anticholinergics are not normally used.

The nurse is teaching a patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome about the disease. The patient asks how he can ever recover if demyelination of his nerves is occurring. What would be the nurses best response?

Guillain-Barr spares the Schwann cell, which allows for remyelination in the recovery phase of the disease. Myelin is a complex substance that covers nerves, providing insulation and speeding the conduction of impulses from the cell body to the dendrites. The cell that produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system is the Schwann cell. In Guillain-Barr syndrome, the Schwann cell is spared, allowing for remyelination in the recovery phase of the disease. The nurse should avoid downplaying the patients concerns by wholly deferring to the physician.

The nurse is assessing a client with meningitis. Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to observe?

Headache and nuchal rigidity Explanation: Headache and fever are the initial symptoms of meningitis. Nuchal rigidity can be an early sign. Photophobia is also a well-recognized sign in meningitis. Ptosis and diplopia are usually seen with myasthenia gravis. Hyporeflexia in the legs is seen with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

The nurse is working with a patient who is newly diagnosed with MS. What basic information should the nurse provide to the patient?

MS is a progressive demyelinating disease of the nervous system. MS is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system, characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. The cause of MS is not known, and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

The most common cause of cholinergic crisis includes which of the following?

Overmedication Explanation: A cholinergic crisis, which is essentially a problem of overmedication, results in severe generalized muscle weakness, respiratory impairment, and excessive pulmonary secretion that may result in respiratory failure. Myasthenic crisis is a sudden, temporary exacerbation of MG symptoms. A common precipitating event for myasthenic crisis is infection. It can result from undermedication.

A neurologic deficit is best defined as a deficit of the:

central and peripheral nervous systems with decreased, impaired, or absent functioning. Explanation: A client with a neurologic deficit may have decreased, impaired, or absent functioning of the central and peripheral systems.

The client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir. The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for

renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Explanation: Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. To prevent relapse, treatment with acyclovir should continue for up to 3 weeks.

The nurse has been educating a client newly diagnosed with MS. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the education?

"I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist." Explanation: A stretching routine should be established. Stretching can help prevent contractures and muscle spasticity. Hot baths are discouraged because of the risk of injury. Clients have sensory loss that may contribute to the risk of burns. In addition, hot temperatures may cause an increase in symptoms. Warm packs should be encouraged to provide relief. Progressive weight-bearing exercises are effective in managing muscle spasms. Clients should not hurry through the exercise activity because it may increase muscle spasticity.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond?

"The paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." Explanation: The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.

A nurse is planning the care of a 28-year-old woman hospitalized with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What approach would be most appropriate for the care and scheduling of diagnostic procedures for this patient?

In the morning, with frequent rest periods Procedures should be spaced to allow for rest in between. Procedures should be avoided before meals, or the patient may be too exhausted to eat. Procedures should be avoided near bedtime if possible

You are the clinic nurse caring for a patient with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The patient has begun treatment with pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon). What change in status would most clearly suggest a therapeutic benefit of this medication?

Increased muscle strength The goal of treatment using pyridostigmine bromide is improvement of muscle strength and control of fatigue. The drug is not intended to treat pain, or cognitive or GI functions.

Which is the primary vector of arthropod-borne viral encephalitis in North America?

Mosquitoes Explanation: The primary vector in North America related to anthropoid-borne virus encephalitis is a mosquito. Birds are associated with the West Nile virus. Spiders and ticks are not vectors for arthropod-borne virus encephalitis.

In myasthenia gravis (MG), there is a decrease in the number of receptor sites of which neurotransmitter?

Acetylcholine Explanation: In MG, there is a reduction in the number of acetylcholine receptor sites because antibodies directed at the acetylcholine receptor sites impair transmission of impulses across the neuromuscular junction. There are no decreased receptor sites of epinephrine, norepinephrine, or dopamine implicated in MG.

A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome cannot swallow and has a paralytic ileus; the nurse is administering parenteral nutrition intravenously. The nurse is careful to assess which of the following related to intake of nutrients?

Gag reflex and bowel sounds Explanation: Paralytic ileus may result from insufficient parasympathetic activity. The nurse may administer parenteral nutrition and IV fluids. The nurse carefully assesses for the return of the gag reflex and bowel sounds before resuming oral nutrition. The other three choices are important assessment items, but not necessarily related to the intake of nutrients.

Which of the following is considered a central nervous system (CNS) disorder?

Multiple sclerosis Explanation: Multiple sclerosis is an immune-mediated, progressive demyelinating disease of the CNS. Guillain-Barré, myasthenia gravis, and Bell's palsy are peripheral nervous system disorders.

The nurse is assisting with administering a Tensilon test to a patient with ptosis. If the test is positive for myasthenia gravis, what outcome does the nurse know will occur?

Thirty seconds after administration, the facial weakness and ptosis will be relieved for approximately 5 minutes. Explanation: Thirty seconds after injection, facial muscle weakness and ptosis should resolve for about 5 minutes (Hickey, 2009). Immediate improvement in muscle strength after administration of this agent represents a positive test and usually confirms the diagnosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with an onset of pain related to trigeminal neuralgia. What subjective data stated by the patient does the nurse determine triggered the paroxysms of pain?

"I was brushing my teeth." Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition of the fifth cranial nerve that is characterized by paroxysms of sudden pain in the area innervated by any of the three branches of the nerve. Paroxysms can occur with any stimulation of the terminals of the affected nerve branches, such as washing the face, shaving, brushing the teeth, eating, and drinking.

The nurse caring for a patient with bacterial meningitis is administering dexamethasone (Decadron) that has been ordered as an adjunct to antibiotic therapy. When does the nurse know is the appropriate time to administer this medication?

15 to 20 minutes before the first dose of antibiotic and every 6 hours for the next 4 days Explanation: Dexamethasone (Decadron) has been shown to be beneficial as adjunct therapy in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis and in pneumococcal meningitis if it is administered 15 to 20 minutes before the first dose of antibiotic and every 6 hours for the next 4 days. Research suggests that dexamethasone improves the outcome in adults and does not increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding (Bader & Littlejohns, 2010).

A client has a neurological defect and will be transferred to a nursing home because family members are unable to care for the client at home. While receiving a bed bath, the client yells at the nurse, "You don't know what you are doing!" What is the best reaction by the nurse?

Accept the patient's behavior and do not take it personally. Explanation: Anger is a defense or response to loss; the nurse should consider that the client is using displacement to deal with emotional pain. Having another nurse care for the patient might send a message to the client that may precipitate feelings of guilt or imply to the client that the nurse no longer wants to provide care. Discontinuing the bath abandons the client and would not encourage expression of feelings. Explaining that the client is getting good care is a defensive response that focuses on the nurse rather than the client.

During a Tensilon test to determine if a patient has myasthenia gravis, the patient complains of cramping and becomes diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 130/78, HR 42, and respiration 18. What intervention should the nurse prepare to do?

Administer atropine to control the side effects of edrophonium. Explanation: Atropine should be available to control the side effects of edrophonium, which include bradycardia, sweating, and cramping.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome. His spouse asks about recovery rates. The nurse can correctly relate which of the following?

Approximately 60% to 75% of clients recover completely. Explanation: Results of studies on Guillain-Barre syndrome indicate that 60% to 75% of clients recover completely.

A patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis has been hospitalized to receive plasmapheresis for a myasthenic exacerbation. The nurse knows that the course of treatment for plasmapheresis in a patient with myasthenia gravis is what?

Determined by the patients response The typical course of plasmapheresis consists of daily or alternate-day treatment, and the number of treatments is determined by the patients response

A middle-aged woman has sought care from her primary care provider and undergone diagnostic testing that has resulted in a diagnosis of MS. What sign or symptom is most likely to have prompted the woman to seek care?

Difficulty in coordination The primary symptoms of MS most commonly reported are fatigue, depression, weakness, numbness, difficulty in coordination, loss of balance, spasticity, and pain. Cognitive changes and contractures usually occur later in the disease

Bell's palsy is a paralysis of which of the following cranial nerves?

Facial Explanation: Bell's palsy (facial paralysis) is caused by unilateral inflammation of the seventh cranial nerve, which results in weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on the ipsilateral, or same side, of the affected facial nerve. Trigeminal neuralgia is a paralysis of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). The optic nerve (cranial nerve II) functions in vision. The vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) functions in hearing.

While performing an initial nursing assessment on a client admitted with suspected tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia), for which of the following would the nurse expect to observe?

Facial pain in the areas of the fifth cranial nerve Explanation: Tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia) is manifested by pain in the areas of the fifth (trigeminal) cranial nerve. Ptosis and diplopia are associated with myasthenia gravis. Hyporeflexia and weakness of the lower extremities are associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Fatigue and depression are associated with multiple sclerosis.

A 69-year-old patient is brought to the ED by ambulance because a family member found him lying on the floor disoriented and lethargic. The physician suspects bacterial meningitis and admits the patient to the ICU. The nurse knows that risk factors for an unfavorable outcome include what? Select all that apply

Heart rate greater than 120 bpm Older age Low Glasgow Coma Scale Risks for an unfavorable outcome of meningitis include older age, a heart rate greater than 120 beats/minute, low Glasgow Coma Scale score, cranial nerve palsies, and a positive Gram stain 1 hour after presentation to the hospital. A BP greater than 140/90 mm Hg is indicative of hypertension, but is not necessarily related to poor outcomes related to meningitis. Immunizations are not normally relevant to the course of the disease.

A client has been brought to the ED with altered LOC, high fever, and a purpura rash on the lower extremities. The family states the client was reporting neck stiffness earlier in the day. What action should the nurse do first?

Initiate isolation precautions. Explanation: The signs and symptoms are consistent with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should protect self, other health care workers, and other clients against the spread of the bacteria. Clients should receive the prescribed antibiotics within 30 minutes of arrival, but the nurse can administer the antibiotics after applying the isolation precautions. The nurse can use a cooling blanket to help with the elevated temperature, but this should be done after applying isolation precautions. Prophylaxis antibiotic therapy should be given to people who were in close contact with the patient, but this is not the highest priority nursing intervention.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient who has a recent diagnosis of MS. Which of the following should the nurse include in the patients care plan?

Instruct the patient on daily muscle stretching A patient diagnosed with MS should be encouraged to increase the fiber in his or her diet and void 30 minutes after drinking to help train the bladder. The patient should participate in daily muscle stretching to help alleviate and relax muscle spasms.

A 73-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and loss of sensation in his feet and legs. Assessment of the patient shows decreased reflexes bilaterally. Why would it be a challenge to diagnose a peripheral neuropathy in this patient?

Many symptoms can be the result of normal aging process. The diagnosis of peripheral neuropathy in the geriatric population is challenging because many symptoms, such as decreased reflexes, can be associated with the normal aging process. In this scenario, the patient has come to the clinic seeking help for his problem; this does not indicate a desire on the part of the patient to withhold information from the health care giver. The normal aging process does not include a diminishing number of peripheral nerves.

The nurse is performing an initial nursing assessment on a client with possible Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities Explanation: Guillain-Barre syndrome typically begins with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes of the lower extremities. Fever, skin rash, cough, and ptosis are not signs/symptoms associated with Guillain-Barre.

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client with a diagnosis of meningitis. On assessment, the nurse expects to find which of the following?

Positive Kernig's sign Explanation: A positive Kernig's sign is a common finding in the client with meningitis. When the client is lying with the thigh flexed on the abdomen, the leg cannot be completely extended. A positive Brudzinski's sign is usual with meningitis. The Romberg sign would not be tested in this client. The client will develop lethargy as the illness progresses, not hyper-alertness.

Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune attack on the peripheral myelin sheath. Which of the following is an action of myelin?

Speeds nerve impulse transmission Explanation: Myelin is a complex substance that covers nerves, providing insulation and speeding the conduction of impulses from the cell body to the dendrites. The axon carries the message to the next nerve cell. The neuron is the building block of the nervous system. A neurotransmitter is a chemical messenger.

The nurse is evaluating the progression of a client in the home setting. Which activity of the hemiplegic client best indicates that the client is assuming independence?

The client grasps the affected arm at the wrist and raises it. Explanation: The best evidence that the client is assuming independence is providing range of motions exercises to the affected arm by grasping the arm at the wrist and raising it. The other options require assistance.

The nurse is planning discharge education for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. The nurse knows to include information about factors that precipitate an attack. What would the nurse be correct in teaching the patient to avoid?

Washing his face Washing the face should be avoided if possible because this activity can trigger an attack of pain in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. Using artificial tears would be an appropriate behavior. Exposing the skin to sunlight would not be harmful to this patient. Temperature extremes in beverages should be avoided.

A patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis at a community living home. When should prophylactic therapy begin for those who have had close contact with the patient?

Within 24 hours after exposure Explanation: People in close contact with patients with meningococcal meningitis should be treated with antimicrobial chemoprophylaxis using rifampin (Rifadin), ciprofloxacin hydrochloride (Cipro), or ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin). Therapy should be started within 24 hours after exposure because a delay in the initiation of therapy limits the effectiveness of the prophylaxis.

A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted with an exacerbation. The nurse is educating the client about plasmapheresis and explains this in which of the following statements?

Antibodies are removed from the plasma. Explanation: Plasmapheresis is a technique in which antibodies are removed from plasma and the plasma is returned to the client. The other three choices are appropriate treatments for myasthenia gravis, but are not related to plasmapheresis.

A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is being cared for on an outpatient basis. During health education, the nurse should promote which of the following actions?

Applying a protective eye shield at night Corneal irritation and ulceration may occur if the eye is unprotected. While paralysis lasts, the involved eye must be protected. The patient should be encouraged to eat on the unaffected side, due to swallowing difficulties. Analgesics are used to control the facial pain. The patient should continue to provide self-care including oral hygiene.

The nurse caring for a patient in ICU diagnosed with Guillain-Barr syndrome should prioritize monitoring for what potential complication?

Autonomic dysfunction Based on the assessment data, potential complications that may develop include respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Skin breakdown, decreased cognition, and hemorrhage are not complications of Guillain-Barr syndrome.

A patient is being admitted to the neurologic ICU with suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis. What nursing action best addresses the patients complaints of headache?

Dimming the lights and reducing stimulation Comfort measures to reduce headache include dimming the lights, limiting noise and visitors, grouping nursing interventions, and administering analgesic agents. Opioid analgesic medications may mask neurologic symptoms; therefore, they are used cautiously. Non-opioid analgesics may be preferred. Distraction is unlikely to be effective, and may exacerbate the patients pain.

A nurse is assessing a newly admitted client with meningitis. Which of the following findings in this client is most likely?

Positive Brudzinski's sign Explanation: A positive Brudzinski's sign is a common finding in the client with meningitis. When the client's neck is flexed, flexion of the knees and hips is produced. A positive Kernig's sign is usual with meningitis. The client will develop lethargy as the illness progresses, not increased intake or hyper-alertness.

Which is a component of the nursing management of the client with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)?

Providing supportive care Explanation: vCJD is a progressive fatal disease, and no treatment is available. Because of the fatal outcome of vCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive and palliative. Prevention of disease transmission is an important part of providing nursing care. Although client isolation is not necessary, use of standard precautions is important. Institutional protocols are followed for blood and body fluid exposure and decontamination of equipment. Organ donation is not an option because of the risk for disease transmission. Amphotericin B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for vCJD.

A patient with Bell's palsy says to the nurse, "It doesn't hurt anymore to touch my face. How am I going to get muscle tone back so I don't look like this anymore?" What interventions can the nurse suggest to the patient?

Suggest massaging the face several times daily, using a gentle upward motion, to maintain muscle tone. Explanation: After the sensitivity of the nerve to touch decreases and the patient can tolerate touching the face, the nurse can suggest massaging the face several times daily, using a gentle upward motion, to maintain muscle tone. Facial exercises, such as wrinkling the forehead, blowing out the cheeks, and whistling, may be performed with the aid of a mirror to prevent muscle atrophy. Exposure of the face to cold and drafts is avoided.

The nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse should know that the signs and symptoms of the disease are the result of what?

A lower motor neuron lesion Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a weakness of muscles, especially in the face and throat, caused by a lower neuron lesion at the myoneural junction. It is not a genetic disorder. A combined upper and lower neuron lesion generally occurs as a result of spinal injuries. A lesion involving cranial nerves and their axons in the spinal cord would cause decreased conduction of impulses at an upper motor neuron.

A client with respiratory complications of multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client's bedside?

Suction machine with catheters Explanation: MS weakens the respiratory muscles and impairs swallowing, putting the client at risk for aspiration. To ensure a patent oral airway, the nurse should keep a suction machine and suction catheters at the bedside. A sphygmomanometer is no more important for this client than for any other. A padded tongue blade is an appropriate seizure precaution but shouldn't be used in this client because its large size could cause oral airway obstruction. A nasal cannula and oxygen would be ineffective to ensure adequate oxygen delivery; this client requires a mechanical ventilator.

Which of the following tests confirms the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (MG)?

Tensilon test Explanation: Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that stops the breakdown of acetylcholine. The drug is used because it has a rapid onset of 30 seconds and a short duration of 5 minutes. Immediate improvement in muscle strength after administration of this agent represents a positive test and usually confirms the diagnosis. The presence of acetylcholine receptor antibodies is identified in serum. Repetitive nerve stimulation demonstrates a decrease in successive action potentials. The thymus gland may be enlarged in MG, and a T scan of the mediastinum is performed to detect thymoma or hyperplasia of the thymus.

A client is suspected to have bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Administer prescribed antibiotics. Explanation: A client with suspected bacterial meningitis should receive antibiotic therapy within 30 minutes of arrival. Outcomes are usually better with early administration of antibiotics. Although the nurse should assess the CSF laboratory test results, antibiotic therapy should not be delayed waiting for the results. Encouraging oral fluids and preparing for a CT scan are appropriate interventions depending on the client, but the priority intervention is the early administration of antibiotics.

A client who recently experienced a stroke tells the nurse that he has double vision. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours. Explanation: Patching one eye at a time relieves diplopia (double vision). Closing the eyes and making the room dark aren't the most appropriate options because they deprive the client of sensory input. Artificial tears relieve eye dryness but don't treat diplopia.

Which nursing intervention is the priority for a client in myasthenic crisis?

Assessing respiratory effort Explanation: A client in myasthenic crisis has severe muscle weakness, including the muscles needed to support respiratory effort. Myasthenic crisis can lead to respiratory failure and death if not recognized early. Administering IVIG, preparing for plasmapheresis, and ensuring adequate nutritional support are important and appropriate interventions, but maintaining adequate respiratory status or support is the priority during the crisis.

Which drug should be available to counteract the effect of edrophonium chloride?

Atropine Explanation: Atropine should be available to control the side effects of edrophonium chloride. Prednisone, azathioprine, and pyridostigmine bromide are not used to counteract these effects. Edrophonium chloride prevents breakdown of acetylcholine and is used to test for myasthenia gravis. ACh is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system.

A patient is admitted through the ED with suspected St. Louis encephalitis. The unique clinical feature of St. Louis encephalitis will make what nursing action a priority?

Close monitoring of fluid balance A unique clinical feature of St. Louis encephalitis is SIADH with hyponatremia. As such, it is important to monitor the patients intake and output closely.

Which is the primary medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis?

Controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure Explanation: There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis; therefore symptom management is key. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Which condition is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain?

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Explanation: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia.

The nurse is planning care of a client admitted to the neurologic rehabilitation unit following a cerebrovascular accident. Which nursing intervention would be of highest priority?

Include client in planning of care and setting of goals. Explanation: The client in a rehabilitation setting has moved to the recovery phase. The highest priority is to include the client in the rehabilitation plan. Tailoring the rehabilitation plan to meet the needs of the client can promote optimal participation by the client in the rehabilitative process. The other options are appropriate in certain situations but not the highest priority.

The critical care nurse is caring for 25-year-old man admitted to the ICU with a brain abscess. What is a priority nursing responsibility in the care of this patient?

Monitoring neurologic status closely Vigilant neurologic monitoring is a key aspect of caring for a patient who has a brain abscess. This supersedes education, ADLs, and mobility, even though these are all valid and important aspects of nursing care.

A patient with possible bacterial meningitis is admitted to the ICU. What assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with this diagnosis?

Neck flexion produces flexion of knees and hips Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis include a positive Brudzinskis sign. Neck flexion producing flexion of knees and hips correlates with a positive Brudzinskis sign. Positive Homans sign (pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot) and negative Rombergs sign (inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended) are not expected assessment findings for the patient with bacterial meningitis. Peripheral neuropathy manifests as numbness and tingling in the lower extremities. Again, this would not be an initial assessment to rule out bacterial meningitis

The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS). The patient tells the nurse the hardest thing to deal with is the fatigue. When teaching the patient how to reduce fatigue, what action should the nurse suggest?

Resting in an air-conditioned room whenever possible Fatigue is a common symptom of patients with MS. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air- conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, prescribed to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Planning for frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the patient with MS include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.

Which well-recognized sign of meningitis is exhibited when the client's neck is flexed and flexion of the knees and hips is produced?

Positive Brudzinski sign Explanation: A positive Brudzinski sign occurs when the client's neck is flexed (after ruling out cervical trauma or injury) and flexion of the knees and hips is produced. Photophobia is sensitivity to light. A positive Kerning sign occurs when the client is lying with the thigh flexed on the abdomen and the leg cannot be completely extended. Nuchal rigidity is neck stiffness.

The parents of a client intubated due to the progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome ask whether their child will die. What is the best response by the nurse?

"There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive." Explanation: The survival rate of Guillain-Barré syndrome is approximately 90%. The client may make a full recovery or suffer from some residual deficits. Telling the parents not to worry dismisses their feelings and does not address their concerns. Progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome to the diaphragm does not significantly decrease the survival rate, but it does increase the chance of residual deficits. The family should be given information about Guillain-Barré syndrome and the generally favorable prognosis. With no prognosis offered, the parents are not having their concerns addressed.

Which of the following is the first-line therapy for myasthenia gravis (MG)?

Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) Explanation: Mestinon, an anticholinesterase medication, is the first-line therapy in MG. It provides symptomatic relief by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine and increasing the relative concentration of available acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. If Mestinon does not improve muscle strength and control fatigue, the next agents used are immunosuppressant agents. Imuran is an immunosuppressive agent that inhibits T lymphocytes and reduces acetylcholine receptor antibody levels. Baclofen is used in the treatment of spasticity in MG.

A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis (MS). When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to:

rest in an air-conditioned room. Explanation: Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with MS. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, ordered to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the client with MS include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy-conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.

Which is a component of the nursing management of the client with variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)?

Providing palliative care Explanation: vCJD is a progressive fatal disease; no treatment is available. Because of the fatal outcome of vCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive and palliative. Prevention of disease transmission is an important part of providing nursing care. Although client isolation is not necessary, use of standard precautions is important. Institutional protocols are followed for blood and body fluid exposure and decontamination of equipment. Organ donation is not an option because of the risk for disease transmission. Amphotericin B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for vCJD.

A client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir. To ensure early intervention, the nurse monitors laboratory values and urine output for which type of adverse reactions?

Renal Explanation: Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Complications with the integumentary system will can be observed by the nurse; it is not necessary to review laboratory results or urine output for integumentary reactions. Urine output is not monitored for musculoskeletal or hepatic adverse reactions.

Which is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord?

Multiple sclerosis Explanation: The cause of MS is not known, and the disease affects twice as many women as men. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine caused by destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

A patient presents at the clinic complaining of pain and weakness in her hands. On assessment, the nurse notes diminished reflexes in the upper extremities bilaterally and bilateral loss of sensation. The nurse knows that these findings are indicative of what?

Peripheral nerve disorder= The major symptoms of peripheral nerve disorders are loss of sensation, muscle atrophy, weakness, diminished reflexes, pain, and paresthesia (numbness, tingling) of the extremities. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition of the fifth cranial nerve that is characterized by paroxysms of pain in the area innervated by any of the three branches, but most commonly the second and third branches of the trigeminal nerve. Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder affecting the myoneural junction, is characterized by varying degrees of weakness of the voluntary muscles. Guillain-Barr syndrome is an autoimmune attack on the peripheral nerve myelin.

The nurse is caring for a 77-year-old woman with MS. She states that she is very concerned about the progress of her disease and what the future holds. The nurse should know that elderly patients with MS are known to be particularly concerned about what variables? Select all that apply.

Possible nursing home placement Increasing disability Becoming a burden on the family Elderly patients with MS are particularly concerned about increasing disability, family burden, marital concern, and the possible future need for nursing home care. Older adults with MS are not noted to have particular concerns regarding the pain of therapy or loss of appetite.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client admitted with a possible brain abscess. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find?

Headache that is worse in the morning Explanation: The most prevailing symptom of a brain abscess is headache, which is usually worse in the early morning. Ptosis and diplopia are seen in clients with myasthenia gravis. Nuchal rigidity is seen in clients with meningitis.

The critical care nurse is admitting a patient in myasthenic crisis to the ICU. The nurse should prioritize what nursing action in the immediate care of this patient?

Providing ventilatory assistance Providing ventilatory assistance takes precedence in the immediate management of the patient with myasthenic crisis. It may be necessary to suction secretions and/or provide tube feedings, but they are not the priority for this patient. ABG analysis will be done, but this is not the priority

A client arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness after minimal effort. The physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which drug will be used to test for this disease?

Edrophonium (Tensilon) Explanation: Edrophonium temporarily blocks the breakdown of acetylcholine, thus increasing acetylcholine level in the blood, and relieves weakness. Because of its short duration of action, edrophonium is the drug of choice for diagnosing myasthenia gravis. It's also used to differentiate myasthenia gravis from cholinergic toxicity. Ambenonium is used as an antimyasthenic. Pyridostigmine serves primarily as an adjunct in treating severe anticholinergic toxicity; it's also an antiglaucoma agent and a miotic. Carbachol reduces intraocular pressure during ophthalmologic procedures; topical carbachol is used to treat open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma.

A client with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B reports fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms

may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine and acetaminophen approximately 30 minutes before administration of the amphotericin. Explanation: Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills, and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine and acetaminophen approximately 30 minutes before the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects. Renal toxicity due to amphotericin B is dose limiting. Monitoring serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels may alert the nurse to the development of renal insufficiency and the need to address the clients' renal status. Vascular changes are associated with C. immitis and Aspergillus. Manifestations of vascular change may include arteritis or cerebral infarction. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.