nu102 f&e
A nurse is caring for a client with acute renal failure and hypernatremia. In this case, which action can be delegated to the nursing assistant?
Correct response: Provide oral care every 2-3 hours. Explanation: Providing oral care for the client every 2-3 hours is within the scope of practice of a nursing assistant. The other actions should be completed by the registered nurse.
A patient's serum sodium concentration is within the normal range. What should the nurse estimate the serum osmolality to be?
In healthy adults, normal serum osmolality is 270 to 300 mOsm/kg (Crawford & Harris, 2011c).
Which condition might occur with respiratory acidosis?
Increased intracranial pressure Explanation: If respiratory acidosis is severe, intracranial pressure may increase, resulting in papilledema and dilated conjunctival blood vessels. Increased blood pressure, increased pulse, and decreased mental alertness occur with respiratory acidosis.
A client in the emergency department reports that he has been vomiting excessively for the past 2 days. His arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.50, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 43 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 75 mm Hg, and bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 42 mEq/L. Based on these findings, the nurse documents that the client is experiencing which type of acid-base imbalance?
Metabolic alkalosis Explanation: A pH over 7.45 with a HCO3- level over 26 mEq/L indicates metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is always secondary to an underlying cause and is marked by decreased amounts of acid or increased amounts of base HCO3-. The client isn't experiencing respiratory alkalosis because the PaCO2 is normal. The client isn't experiencing respiratory or metabolic acidosis because the pH is greater than 7.35.
A nurse correctly identifies a urine specimen with a pH of 4.3 as being which type of solution?
Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8.0; a value of 4.3 reveals acidic urine pH. A pH above 7.0 is considered an alkaline or basic solution. A pH of 7.0 is considered neutral.
A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas (ABG) values of a client admitted with pneumonia: pH, 7.51; PaCO2, 28 mm Hg; PaO2, 70 mm Hg; and HCO3--, 24 mEq/L. What do these values indicate?
Respiratory alkalosis Explanation: A client with pneumonia may hyperventilate in an effort to increase oxygen intake. Hyperventilation leads to excess carbon dioxide (CO2) loss, which causes alkalosis — indicated by this client's elevated pH value. With respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys' bicarbonate (HCO3-) response is delayed, so the client's HCO3- level remains normal. The below-normal value for the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) indicates CO2 loss and signals a respiratory component. Because the HCO3- level is normal, this imbalance has no metabolic component. Therefore, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe diarrhea. The nurse recognizes that the client is at risk for developing which acid-base imbalance?
The client is at risk for developing metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is caused by diarrhea, lower intestinal fistulas, ureterostomies, and use of diuretics; early renal insufficiency; excessive administration of chloride; and the administration of parenteral nutrition without bicarbonate or bicarbonate-producing solutes (e.g., lactate).
What clinical indication of hyperphosphatemia does the nurse assess in a patient?
You Selected: Bone pain Correct response: Tetany Explanation: Tetany is a symptom of hyperphosphatemia. Bone pain, peresthesia, and seizures are associated with hypophosphatemia.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse anticipate for a client with a 3-day history of vomiting?
You Selected: pH: 7.45, PaCO2: 32 mm Hg, HCO3-: 21 Correct response: pH: 7.55, PaCO2: 60 mm Hg, HCO3-: 28 Explanation: The client's ABG would likely demonstrate metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a high pH (decreased H+ concentration) and a high plasma bicarbonate concentration. It can be produced by a gain of bicarbonate or a loss of H+. A common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis, where only gastric fluid is lost. The other results do not represent metabolic alkalosis.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and experiencing respiratory acidosis. The client asks what is making the acidotic state. The nurse is most correct to identify which result of the disease process that causes the fall in pH?
orrect response: The lungs are not able to blow off carbon dioxide. Explanation: In clients with chronic respiratory acidosis, the client is unable to blow off carbon dioxide leaving in increased amount of hydrogen in the system. The increase in hydrogen ions leads to acidosis. In COPD, the client is able to breathe in oxygen and gas exchange can occur, it is the lungs ability to remove the carbon dioxide from the system. Although individuals with COPD frequently have a history of smoking, cilia is not the cause of the acidosis.
A 64-year-old client is brought in to the clinic with thirsty, dry, sticky mucous membranes, decreased urine output, fever, a rough tongue, and lethargy. Serum sodium level is above 145 mEq/L. Should the nurse start salt tablets when caring for this client?
• No, sodium intake should be restricted. Explanation: The symptoms and the high level of serum sodium suggest hypernatremia, (excess of sodium). It is necessary to restrict sodium intake. Salt tablets and sodium chloride IV can only worsen this condition but may be required in hyponatremia (sodium deficit). Hypotonic solution IV may be a part of the treatment but not along with the salt tablets
The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical unit. The nurse is most correct to review which client's laboratory reports first for an electrolyte imbalance?
A 52-year-old with diarrhea Explanation: Electrolytes are in both intracellular and extracellular water. Electrolyte deficiency occurs from an inadequate intake of food, conditions that deplete water such as nausea and vomiting, or disease processes that cause an excess of electrolyte amounts. The 52-year-old with diarrhea would be the client most likely to have an electrolyte imbalance. The orthopedic client will not likely have an electrolyte imbalance. Myocardial infarction clients will occasionally have electrolyte imbalance, but this is the exception rather than the rule.
In which of the following medical conditions would administering IV normal saline solution be inappropriate? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Heart failure Pulmonary edema Renal impairment Explanation: Normal saline is not used for heart failure, pulmonary edema, renal impairment, or sodium retention. It is used with administration of blood transfusions and to replace large sodium losses, as in burn injuries.
Which could be a potential cause of respiratory acidosis?
Correct response: Hypoventilation Explanation: Respiratory acidosis is always due to inadequate excretion of CO2, with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma CO concentration, which causes increased levels of carbonic acid. In addition to an elevated PaCO2, hypoventilation usually causes a decrease in PaO2.
A nurse is reviewing a report of a client's routine urinalysis. Which value requires further investigation?
Correct response: Urine pH of 3.0 Explanation: Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3.0 is abnormal and requires further investigation. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.010 to 1.025, making this client's value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals. Red blood cells should measure 0 to 3 per high-power field; white blood cells, 0 to 4 per high-power field. Urine should be clear, with color ranging from pale yellow to deep amber.
The health care provider ordered an IV solution for a dehydrated patient with a head injury. Select the IV solution that the nurse knows would be contraindicated.
Correct response: b. 5% DW A solution of D5W is an isotonic IV solution that is contraindicated in head injury because it may increase intracranial pressure.
A volume-depleted patient would present with which of the following diagnostic lab results?
You Selected: Urinary output of 1.2 L/24 hours Correct response: BUN-to-creatinine ratio of 24:1 Explanation: A BUN-to-serum creatinine concentration ratio greater than 20:1 is indicative of volume depletion. The other results are within normal range.
A client is being treated in the ICU 24 hours after having a radical neck dissection completed. The client's serum calcium concentration is 7.6 mg/dL (1.9 mmol/L). Which physical examination finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?
Presence of Trousseau sign Explanation: After radical neck resection, a client is prone to developing hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia is defined as a serum value <8.6 mg/dL (<2.15 mmol/L). Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia include Chvostek sign, which consists of muscle twitching enervated by the facial nerve when the region that is about 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, just below the zygomatic arch, is tapped; and a positive Trousseau sign can be elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the upper arm to about 20 mm Hg above systolic pressure; within 2 to 5 minutes, carpal spasm (an adducted thumb, flexed wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, and extended interphalangeal joints with fingers together) will occur as ischemia of the ulnar nerve develops. Slurred speech and muscle weakness are signs of hypercalcemia.
The nurse teaches a client who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension about following a low-calorie, low-fat, low-sodium diet. Which menu selection would best meet the client's needs?
You Selected: mixed green salad with blue cheese dressing, crackers, and cold cuts Correct response: baked chicken, an apple, and a slice of white bread Explanation: Processed and cured meat products, such as cold cuts, ham, and hot dogs, are all high in both fat and sodium and should be avoided on a low-calorie, low-fat, low-salt diet. Dietary restrictions of all types are complex and difficult to implement with clients who are basically asymptomatic.
Which findings indicate that a client has developed water intoxication secondary to treatment for diabetes insipidus?
You Selected: Flaccidity and thirst Correct response: Confusion and seizures Explanation: Classic signs of water intoxication include confusion and seizures, both of which are caused by cerebral edema. Weight gain will also occur. Sunken eyeballs, thirst, and increased BUN levels indicate fluid volume deficit. Spasticity, flaccidity, and tetany are unrelated to water intoxication.
A patient has a serum osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg. The nurse knows to assess further for:
Correct response: Hyponatremia. Explanation: Decreased serum sodium is a factor associated with decreased serum osmolality. Dehydration and hyperglycemia are associated with increased serum osmolality; acidosis is associated with increased urine osmolality.
A client has a respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min. What effect does breathing faster have on arterial pH level?
Correct response: Increases arterial pH Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis is always caused by hyperventilation, which is a decrease in plasma carbonic acid concentration. The pH is elevated above normal as a result of a low PaCO2.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The client is being treated for a serum potassium concentration of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L). Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct response: "I can use laxatives and enemas but only once a week." Explanation: The client is experiencing hypokalemia, most likely due to the diagnosis of bulimia. Hypokalemia is defined as a serum potassium concentration <3.5 mEq/L (3.5 mmol/L), and usually indicates a deficit in total potassium stores. Clients diagnosed with bulimia frequently suffer increased potassium loss through self-induced vomiting and misuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas; thus, the client should avoid laxatives and enemas. Prevention measures may involve encouraging the client at risk to eat foods rich in potassium (when the diet allows), including fruit juices and bananas, melon, citrus fruits, fresh and frozen vegetables, lean meats, milk, and whole grains. If the hypokalemia is caused by abuse of laxatives or diuretics, client education may help alleviate the problem.
The nurse is instructing a client with recurrent hyperkalemia about following a potassium-restricted diet. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional instruction?
Correct response: "I will not salt my food; instead I'll use salt substitute." Explanation: The client should avoid salt substitutes. The nurse must caution clients to use salt substitutes sparingly if they are taking other supplementary forms of potassium or potassium-conserving diuretics. Potassium-rich foods to be avoided include many fruits and vegetables, legumes, whole-grain breads, lean meat, milk, eggs, coffee, tea, and cocoa. Conversely, foods with minimal potassium content include butter, margarine, cranberry juice or sauce, ginger ale, gumdrops or jellybeans, hard candy, root beer, sugar, and honey. Labels of cola beverages must be checked carefully because some are high in potassium and some are not.
The weight of a client with congestive heart failure is monitored daily and entered into the medical record. In a 24-hour period, the client's weight increased by 2 lb. How much fluid is this client retaining?
Correct response: 1 L Explanation: A 2-lb weight gain in 24 hours indicates that the client is retaining 1L of fluid.
A nurse can estimate serum osmolality at the bedside by using a formula. A patient who has a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L would have a serum osmolality of:
Correct response: 280 mOsm/kg. Explanation: Serum osmolality can be estimated by doubling the serum sodium or using the formula: Na × 2 = glucose/18 + BUN/3. Therefore, the nurse could estimate a serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg by doubling the serum sodium value of 140 mEq/L.
A client experiencing a severe anxiety attack and hyperventilating presents to the emergency department. The nurse would expect the client's pH value to be
Correct response: 7.50 Explanation: The patient is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis is a clinical condition in which the arterial pH is >7.45 and the PaCO2 is <38 mm Hg. Respiratory alkalosis is always caused by hyperventilation, which causes excessive "blowing off" of CO2 and, hence, a decrease in the plasma carbonic acid concentration. Causes include extreme anxiety, hypoxemia, early phase of salicylate intoxication, gram-negative bacteremia, and inappropriate ventilator settings.
The nurse is reviewing lab work on a newly admitted client. Which of the following diagnostic studies confirm the nursing diagnosis of Deficient Fluid Volume? Select all that apply.
Correct response: An elevated hematocrit level Electrolyte imbalance Explanation: Dehydration is a common primary or secondary diagnosis in health care. An elevated hematocrit level reflects low fluid level and a hemoconcentration. Electrolytes are in an imbalance as sodium and potassium levels are excreted together in client with dehydration. The urine specific gravity, due to concentrated particle level, is high. Protein is not a common sign of dehydration. Ketones are always present in the urine.
The Emergency Department (ED) nurse is caring for a client with a possible acid-base imbalance. The physician has ordered an arterial blood gas (ABG). What is one of the most important indications of an acid-base imbalance that is shown in an ABG?
Correct response: Bicarbonate Explanation: Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are the main tool for measuring blood pH, CO2 content (PaCO2), and bicarbonate. An acid-base imbalance may accompany a fluid and electrolyte imbalance. PaO2 and PO2 are not indications of acid-base imbalance. Carbonic acid levels are not shown in an ABG.
The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with fluid volume excess (FVE). Which nursing assessments should the nurse include in the ongoing monitoring of the client? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm Intake and output, urine volume, and color Skin assessment for edema and turgor Explanation: To assess for FVE the nurse measures blood pressure, heart rate and rhythm, and breath sounds; inspects the skin to look for edema and turgor; and inspects neck veins. Intake and output, daily weight, urine volume and color, dyspnea, and thirst are assessments that will assist the nurse in identifying improvement or worsening of the fluid volume excess. In addition, the nurse will be able to identify potential fluid volume deficit from overtreatment of the fluid volume excess. Reference:
A 54-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital with a case of severe dehydration. The nurse reviews the patient's laboratory results. Which of the following results are consistent with the diagnosis? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 23 mg/dL Serum osmolality of 310 mOsm/kg Serum sodium of 148 mEq/L Urine specific gravity of 1.03 Explanation: Severe dehydration is associated with an increased BUN (N = 10 to 20 mg/dL), serum osmolality (N = 275 to 300 mOsm/kg), serum sodium (N = 135 to 145 mEq/L) and urine specific gravity (N = 1.01 to 1.025). Glucose and hematocrit levels would also be elevated but are within normal range for this question.
A patient complains of tingling in the fingers as well as feeling depressed. The nurse assesses positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. Which decreased laboratory results does the nurse observe when the patient's laboratory work has returned?
Correct response: Calcium Explanation: Calcium deficit is associated with the following symptoms: numbness and tingling of the fingers, toes, and circumoral region; positive Trousseau's sign and Chvostek's sign; seizures, carpopedal spasms, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, irritability, bronchospasm, anxiety, impaired clotting time, decreased prothrombin, diarrhea, and hypotension. Electrocardiogram findings associated with hypocalcemia include prolonged QT interval and lengthened ST.
The physician has prescribed 0.9% sodium chloride IV for a hospitalized client in metabolic alkalosis. Which nursing actions are required to manage this client? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Compare ABG findings with previous results. Maintain intake and output records. Document presenting signs and symptoms. Explanation: Metabolic alkalosis results in increased plasma pH because of accumulated base bicarbonate or decreased hydrogen ion concentrations. The result is retention of sodium bicarbonate and increased base bicarbonate. Nursing management includes documenting all presenting signs and symptoms to provide accurate baseline data, monitoring laboratory values, comparing ABG findings with previous results (if any), maintaining accurate intake and output records to monitor fluid status, and implementing prescribed medical therapy.
A 73-year-old female patient with cirrhosis of the liver is evaluated for clinical manifestations of FVE. Which of the following signs are consistent with that diagnosis? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Crackles Hematocrit level of 32% Blood pressure of 140/110 BUN of 8 mg/dL Explanation: The blood pressure is increased with FVE. Crackles are abnormal lung sounds found in fluid retention. Hematocrit and BUN may be decreased due to plasma dilution.
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess (FVE)? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Distended neck veins Crackles in the lung fields Shortness of breath Explanation: Clinical manifestations of FVE include distended neck veins, crackles in the lung fields, shortness of breath, increased blood pressure, and tachycardia.
A nurse reviews the results of an electrocardiogram (ECG) for a patient who is being assessed for hypokalemia. Which of the following would the nurse notice as the most significant diagnostic indicator?
Correct response: Elevated U wave Explanation: An elevated U wave is specific for hypokalemia. Flat or inverted T waves may also be present. The other tracings are consistent with hyperkalemia.
The nurse is caring for a client in heart failure with signs of hypervolemia. Which vital sign is indicative of the disease process?
Correct response: Elevated blood pressure Explanation: Indicative of hypervolemia is a bounding pulse and elevated blood pressure due to the excess volume in the system. Respirations are not typically affected unless there is fluid accumulation in the lungs. Temperature is not generally affected.
Which laboratory result does the nurse identify as a direct result of the client's hypovolemic status with hemoconcentration?
Correct response: Elevated hematocrit level Explanation: When hemoconcentration occurs due to a hypovolemic state, a high ratio of blood components in relation to watery plasma occurs, thus causing an elevated hematocrit level. A high white blood cell count and urine specific gravity is also noted. Other causes of an abnormal potassium level may be present.
A nurse is caring for an adult client with numerous draining wounds from gunshots. The client's pulse rate has increased from 100 to 130 beats per minute over the last hour. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?
Correct response: Extracellular fluid volume deficit Explanation: Fluid volume deficit (FVD) occurs when the loss extracellular fluid (ECF) volume exceeds the intake of fluid. FVD results from loss of body fluids and occurs more rapidly when coupled with decreased fluid intake. A cause of this loss is hemorrhage.
Before seeing a newly assigned client with respiratory alkalosis, a nurse quickly reviews the client's medical history. Which condition is a predisposing factor for respiratory alkalosis?
Correct response: Extreme anxiety Explanation: Extreme anxiety may lead to respiratory alkalosis by causing hyperventilation, which results in excessive carbon dioxide (CO2) loss. Other conditions that may set the stage for respiratory alkalosis include fever, heart failure, injury to the brain's respiratory center, overventilation with a mechanical ventilator, pulmonary embolism, and early salicylate intoxication. Type 1 diabetes may lead to diabetic ketoacidosis; the deep, rapid respirations occurring in this disorder (Kussmaul's respirations) don't cause excessive CO2 loss. Myasthenia gravis and opioid overdose suppress the respiratory drive, causing CO2 retention, not CO2 loss; this may lead to respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis.
Which nerve is implicated in the Chvostek's sign?
Correct response: Facial Explanation: Chvostek's sign consists of twitching of muscles supplied by the facial nerve when the nerve is tapped about 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, just below the zygomatic arch.
The surgical nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. The client reports tingling in her lips and fingers. She states that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse first suspect?
Correct response: Hypocalcemia Explanation: Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Sensations of tingling may occur in the tips of the fingers, around the mouth, and, less commonly, in the feet. Hypophosphatemia creates central nervous dysfunction, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia creates hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Signs of hyperkalemia include paresthesias and anxiety.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client with a serum phosphorus concentration of 5.0 mg/dL (1.61 mmol/L). The nurse anticipates that the client will also experience which electrolyte imbalance?
Correct response: Hypocalcemia Explanation: The client is experiencing an elevated serum phosphorus concentration. Hyperphosphatemia is defined as a serum phosphorus that exceeds 4.5 mg/dL (1.45 mmol/L). Because of the reciprocal relationship between phosphorus and calcium, a high serum phosphorus concentration tends to cause a low serum calcium concentration.
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with an arterial blood gas (ABG) of pH 7.5, a partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 26 mm Hg, oxygen (O2) saturation of 96%, bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 24 mEq/L, and a PaO2 of 94 mm Hg? You Selected:
Correct response: Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag. Explanation: The ABG results reveal respiratory alkalosis. The best intervention to raise the PaCO2 level would be to have the client breathe into a paper bag. Administering a decongestant, offering fluids frequently, and administering supplemental oxygen wouldn't raise the lowered PaCO2 level.
The nurse is caring for a geriatric client in the home setting. Due to geriatric changes decreasing thirst, the nurse is likely to see a decrease in which fluid location which contains the most body water?
Correct response: Intracellular fluid Explanation: About 60% of the adult human body is water. Most body water is located within the cell (intracellular fluid). Due to several physiological changes of aging, geriatric clients have less bodily fluids.
When caring for a client who has risk factors for fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which assessment finding is the highest priority for the nurse to follow up?
Correct response: Irregular heart rate Explanation: Irregular heart rate may indicate a potentially life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmia. Potassium, magnesium, and calcium imbalances may cause dysrhythmias. Weight loss is a good indicator of the amount of fluid lost, confusion may occur with dehydration and hyponatremia, and blood pressure is slightly lower than normal (though not life threatening); in each case, following up on potential cardiac dysrhythmias is a higher priority.
A nurse is assessing a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. Which finding requires further action?
Correct response: Jugular vein distention Explanation: Jugular vein distention requires further action because this finding signals vascular fluid overload. Tetanic contractions aren't associated with this disorder, but weight gain and fluid retention from oliguria are. Polyuria is associated with diabetes insipidus, which occurs with inadequate production of antidiuretic hormone.
Which sign suggests that a client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
Correct response: Jugular vein distention Explanation: SIADH secretion causes antidiuretic hormone overproduction, which leads to fluid retention. Severe SIADH can cause such complications as vascular fluid overload, signaled by jugular vein distention. This syndrome isn't associated with tetanic contractions. It may cause weight gain and fluid retention (secondary to oliguria).
With which condition should the nurse expect that a decrease in serum osmolality will occur?
Correct response: Kidney failure Explanation: Failure of the kidneys results in multiple fluid and electrolyte abnormalities including fluid volume overload. If renal function is so severely impaired that pharmacologic agents cannot act efficiently, other modalities are considered to remove sodium and fluid from the body.
The nurse is caring for a client with multiple organ failure and in metabolic acidosis. Which pair of organs is responsible for regulatory processes and compensation?
Correct response: Lungs and kidney Explanation: The lungs and kidneys facilitate the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid. Carbon dioxide is one of the components of carbonic acid. The lungs regulate carbonic acid levels by releasing or conserving CO2 by increasing or decreasing the respiratory rate. The kidneys assist in acid-base balance by retaining or excreting bicarbonate ions.
The nurse is caring for a client undergoing alcohol withdrawal. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
Correct response: Magnesium Explanation: Chronic alcohol abuse is a major cause of symptomatic hypomagnesemia in the United States. The serum magnesium concentration should be measured at least every 2 or 3 days in clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal. The serum magnesium concentration may be normal at admission but may decrease as a result of metabolic changes, such as the intracellular shift of magnesium associated with intravenous glucose administration.
The nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes type I who is having severe vomiting and diarrhea. What condition that exhibits blood values with a low pH and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration should the nurse assess for?
Correct response: Metabolic acidosis Explanation: Metabolic acidosis is a common clinical disturbance characterized by a low pH (increased H+ concentration) and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration. Metabolic alkalosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a high pH (decreased H+ concentration) and a high plasma bicarbonate concentration. Respiratory acidosis is a clinical disorder in which the pH is less than 7.35 and the PaCO2 is greater than 42 mm Hg and a compensatory increase in the plasma HCO3 occurs. Respiratory alkalosis is a clinical condition in which the arterial pH is greater than 7.45 and the PaCO2 is less than 38 mm Hg.
A client has been diagnosed with an intestinal obstruction and has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. Which acid-base disturbance is this client at risk for developing?
Correct response: Metabolic alkalosis Explanation: Metabolic alkalosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a high pH and a high plasma biacarbonate concentration. The most common cuase of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and choloride ions. Gastric fluid has an acid pH, and loss of this acidic fluid increases the alkalinity of body fluids.
The nurse on a surgical unit is caring for a client recovering from recent surgery with the placement of a nasogastric tube to low continuous suction Which acid-base imbalance is most likely to occur?
Correct response: Metabolic alkalosis Explanation: Metabolic alkalosis results in increased plasma pH because of an accumulated base bicarbonate or decreased hydrogen ion concentration. Factors that increase base bicarbonate include excessive oral or parenteral use of bicarbonate-containing drugs, a rapid decrease in extracellular fluid volume and loss of hydrogen and chloride ions as with gastric suctioning. Acidotic states are from excess carbonic acid and hydrogen ions in the system. Respiratory alkalosis results from a carbonic acid deficit that occurs when rapid breathing releases more CO2 than necessary.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The client has a diet prescribed that is high in phosphate. What foods should you teach this client to include in his diet? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Milk Poultry Liver Explanation: If the client experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods such as milk and milk products, organ meats, nuts, fish, poultry, and whole grains should be encouraged.
Which of the following would be appropriate nursing interventions for a client with hypokalemia? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Offer a diet with fruit juices and citrus fruits. Monitor intake and output every shift. Explanation: Hypokalemia is a potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L. Nurses must have knowledge of this life-threatening imbalance. The nurse would complete appropriate interventions such as offering a diet containing sufficient potassium, which includes fruits and vegetables, and monitoring the intake and output. Approximately 40 mEq of potassium is lost for every liter of urine output.
A client presents with fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and leg cramps. The laboratory values are as follows sodium is 147 mEq/L (mmol/L) potassium is 3.0 mEq/L (mmol/L) chloride is 112 mEq/L (mmol/L) Magnesium is 2.3 mg/dL (0.95mmol/L) What laboratory value is consistent with the client's symptoms?
Correct response: Potassium 3.0 mEq/L (mmol/L) Explanation: Potassium is the major intracellular electrolyte. Hypokalemia (below 3.5 mEq/L) usually indicates a deficit in total potassium stores. Potassium deficiency can result in derangements in physiology. Clinical signs include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscles weakness, leg cramps, decreased bowel motility, and paresthesias. The sodium, chloride and magnesium levels are within normal limits.
A client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess first?
Correct response: Pulse Explanation: An elevated serum potassium level may lead to a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia, which the nurse can detect immediately by palpating the pulse. In addition to assessing the client's pulse, the nurse should place the client on a cardiac monitor because an arrythmia can occur suddenly. The client's blood pressure may change, but only as a result of the arrhythmia. Therefore, the nurse should assess blood pressure later. The nurse also may delay assessing respirations and temperature because these aren't affected by the serum potassium level.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. Upon assessment of the client, the nurse notes the client has severely depressed respirations. The nurse would expect to identify which acid-base disturbance?
Correct response: Respiratory acidosis Explanation: Respiratory acidosis is always from inadequate excretion of CO2 with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma CO2 concentrations. Respiratory acidosis can occur in diseases that impair respiratory muscles such as myasthenia gravis.
A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Laboratory results reveal serum sodium level 130 mEq/L and urine specific gravity 1.030. Which nursing intervention helps prevent complications associated with SIADH?
Correct response: Restricting fluids to 800 ml/day Explanation: Reference: Hinkle, J. L., Cheever, K. H. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing , 14th ed Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2018, Chapter 13: Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Disturbance, p. 266.
What does the nurse recognize as one of the best indicators of the patient's renal function?
Correct response: Serum creatinine Explanation: Creatinine is the end product of muscle metabolism. It is a better indicator of renal function than BUN because it does not vary with protein intake and metabolic state.
A client with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps and distention is admitted to the health care facility. Which test result is most significant?
Correct response: Serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L Explanation: A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below normal, indicating hypokalemia. Because hypokalemia may cause cardiac arrhythmias and asystole, it's the most significant finding. In a client with a potential fluid volume imbalance, such as from vomiting, the other options are expected but none are as life-threatening as hypokalemia. A BUN level of 29 mg/dl indicates slight dehydration. A serum sodium level of 132 mEq/L is slightly below normal but not life-threatening. A urine specific gravity of 1.025 is normal.
A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
Correct response: Serum sodium level of 124 mEq/L Explanation: In SIADH, the posterior pituitary gland produces excess antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin), which decreases water excretion by the kidneys. This, in turn, reduces the serum sodium level, causing hyponatremia, as indicated by a serum sodium level of 124 mEq/L. In SIADH, the serum creatinine level isn't affected by the client's fluid status and remains within normal limits. A hematocrit of 52% and a BUN level of 8.6 mg/dl are elevated. Typically, the hematocrit and BUN level decrease.
The nurse is caring for a client with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Correct response: Shallow respirations Explanation: If hypermagnesemia is suspected, the nurse monitors the vital signs, noting hypotension and shallow respirations. The nurse also observes for decreased DTRs and changes in the level of consciousness. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), but also kidney disease. This type of client is associated with decreased DTRs, not increased DTRs.
Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to antagonize the effects of potassium on the heart for a patient in severe metabolic acidosis?
Correct response: Sodium bicarbonate Explanation: IV administration of sodium bicarbonate may be necessary in severe metabolic acidosis to alkalinize the plasma, shift potassium into the cells, and furnish sodium to antagonize the cardiac effects of potassium.
A patient with diabetes insipidus presents to the emergency room for treatment of dehydration. The nurse knows to review serum laboratory results for which of the diagnostic indicators?
Correct response: Sodium level of 150 mEq/L Explanation: Hypernatremia (normal serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L) is consistent with increased fluid loss and dehydration in diabetes insipidus.
To compensate for decreased fluid volume (hypovolemia), the nurse can anticipate which response by the body?
Correct response: Tachycardia Explanation: Fluid volume deficit, or hypovolemia, occurs when the loss of extracellular fluid exceeds the intake of fluid. Clinical signs include oliguia, rapid heart rate, vasoconstriction, cool and clammy skin, and muscle weakness. The nurse monitors for rapid, weak pulse and orthostatic hypotension.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with hyperchloremia. Which are signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Tachypnea Weakness Lethargy Explanation: The signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia are the same as those of metabolic acidosis: hypervolemia and hypernatremia. Tachypnea; weakness; lethargy; deep, rapid respirations; diminished cognitive ability; and hypertension occur. If untreated, hyperchloremia can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, dysrhythmias, and coma. A high chloride concentration is accompanied by a high sodium concentration and fluid retention.
A client with emphysema is at a greater risk for developing which acid-base imbalance?
Correct response: chronic respiratory acidosis Explanation: Respiratory acidosis, which may be either acute or chronic, is caused by excess carbonic acid, which causes the blood pH to drop below 7.35. Chronic respiratory acidosis is associated with disorders such as emphysema, bronchiectasis, bronchial asthma, and cystic fibrosis.
A nurse is caring for a client in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect hypertonic glucose, insulin infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat:
Correct response: hyperkalemia. Explanation: Hyperkalemia is a common complication of acute renal failure. It's life-threatening if immediate action isn't taken to reverse it. Administering glucose and regular insulin, with sodium bicarbonate if necessary, can temporarily prevent cardiac arrest by moving potassium into the cells and temporarily reducing serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia don't usually occur with acute renal failure and aren't treated with glucose, insulin, or sodium bicarbonate.
A client reports muscle cramps in the calves and feeling "tired a lot." The client is taking ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) for hypotension. Based on these symptoms, the client will be evaluated for which electrolyte imbalance?
Correct response: hypokalemia Explanation: Hypokalemia causes fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, cardiac dysrhythmias, leg cramps, muscle weakness, and paresthesias. Many diuretics, such as ethacrynic acid (Edecrin), also waste potassium. Symptoms of hyperkalemia include diarrhea, nausea, muscle weakness, paresthesias, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Signs of hypocalcemia include tingling in the extremities and the area around the mouth and muscle and abdominal cramps. Hypercalcemia causes deep bone pain, constipation, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, polyuria, thirst, pathologic fractures, and mental changes.
A client with cancer is being treated on the oncology unit for bilateral breast cancer. The client is undergoing chemotherapy. The nurse notes the client's serum calcium concentration is 12.3 mg/dL (3.08 mmol/L). Given this laboratory finding, the nurse should suspect that the
Correct response: malignancy is causing the electrolyte imbalance. Explanation: The client's laboratory findings indicate hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia is defined as a calcium concentration >10.2 mg/dL (>2.6 mmol/L).The most common causes of hypercalcemia are malignancies and hyperparathyroidism. Malignant tumors can produce hypercalcemia through a variety of mechanisms. The client's calcium level is elevated; there is no indication that the client's diet is lacking in calcium-rich food products. Hyperaldosteronism is not associated with a calcium imbalance. Alcohol abuse is associated with hypocalcemia.
Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, a nurse should assess for hyperkalemia as indicated by:
Correct response: muscle weakness. Explanation: Muscle weakness, bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, and paresthesia of the hands, feet, tongue, and face are findings associated with hyperkalemia, which is transient and results from transient hypoaldosteronism when the adenoma is removed. Tremors, diaphoresis, and constipation aren't seen in hyperkalemia.
The nurse is analyzing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client diagnosed with severe pneumonia. Which of the following ABG results indicates respiratory acidosis?
Correct response: pH: 7.20, PaCO2: 65 mm Hg, HCO3-: 26 mEq/L Explanation: Respiratory acidosis is a clinical disorder in which the pH is less than 7.35 and the PaCO2 is greater than 42 mm Hg and a compensatory increase in the plasma HCO3- occurs. It may be either acute or chronic. The ABG of pH: 7.32, PaCO2: 40 mm Hg, HCO3-: 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis. The ABGs of pH: 7.50, PaCO2: 30 mm Hg, and HCO3-: 24 mEq/L indicate respiratory alkalosis. The ABGs of pH 7.42, PaCO2: 45 mm Hg, and HCO3-: 22 mEq/L indicate a normal result/no imbalance. Reference:
The calcium concentration in the blood is regulated by which mechanism?
Correct response: • Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Explanation: The serum calcium concentration is controlled by PTH and calcitonin. The thyroid hormone, adrenal gland, or androgens do not regulate the calcium concentration in the blood.
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?
Correct response: • pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg Explanation: In respiratory acidosis, ABG analysis reveals an arterial pH below 7.35 and partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) above 45 mm Hg. Therefore, the combination of a pH value of 7.25 and a PaCO2 value of 50 mm Hg confirms respiratory acidosis. A pH value of 7.5 with a PaCO2 value of 30 mm Hg indicates respiratory alkalosis. A ph value of 7.40 with a PaCO2 value of 35 mm Hg and a pH value of 7.35 with a PaCO2 value of 40 mm Hg represent normal ABG values, reflecting normal gas exchange in the lungs.
A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Laboratory results reveal serum sodium level 130 mEq/L and urine specific gravity 1.030. Which nursing intervention helps prevent complications associated with SIADH?
Restricting fluids to 800 ml/day Explanation: Excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) disturbs fluid and electrolyte balance in SIADH. The excessive ADH causes an inability to excrete dilute urine, retention of free water, expansion of extracellular fluid volume, and hyponatremia. Symptomatic treatment begins with restricting fluids to 800 ml/day. Vasopressin is administered to clients with diabetes insipidus a condition in which circulating ADH is deficient. Elevating the head of the bed decreases vascular return and decreases atrial-filling pressure, which increases ADH secretion, thus worsening the client's condition. The client's sodium is low and, therefore, shouldn't be restricted.
The nurse has been assigned to care for various clients. Which client is at the highest risk for a fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
You Selected: A 66-year-old client who had an open cholecystectomy with a T-tube placed that is draining 125 mL of bile per shift. Correct response: An 82-year-old client who receives all nutrition via tube feedings and whose medications include carvedilol and torsemide. Explanation: The 82-year-old client has three risk factors: advanced age, tube feedings, and diuretic usage (torsemide). This client has the highest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The 45-year-old client has the risk factor of surgery, the 79-year-old client has the risk factor of advanced age, and the 66-year-old client has the risk factors of age and the bile drain, but none of these are the client at the highest risk.
The nurse is called to a client's room by a family member who voices concern about the client's status. On assessment, the nurse finds the client tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. The nurse also identifies 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this client's signs and symptoms?
You Selected: Hyponatremia Correct response: Hyperchloremia Explanation: The signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia are the same as those of metabolic acidosis: hypervolemia and hypernatremia. Tachypnea; weakness; lethargy; deep, rapid respirations; diminished cognitive ability; and hypertension occur. If untreated, hyperchloremia can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, dysrhythmias, and coma. A high chloride level is accompanied by a high sodium level and fluid retention. With hypocalcemia, you would expect tetany. There would not be edema with hyponatremia. Signs or symptoms of hypophosphatemia are mainly neurologic. Reference
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of hyponatremia. What nursing intervention is appropriate to include in the plan of care for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
You Selected: Monitoring neurologic status Encouraging the use of salt substitute instead of salt Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise Restricting tap water intake Correct response: Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise Monitoring neurologic status Restricting tap water intake Explanation: For patients at risk, the nurse closely laboratory values (i.e., sodium) and be alert for GI manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramping. The nurse must be alert for central nervous system changes, such as lethargy, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Neurologic signs are associated with very low sodium levels that have fallen rapidly because of fluid overloading. For a patient with abnormal losses of sodium who can consume a general diet, the nurse encourages foods and fluids with high sodium content to control hyponatremia. For example, broth made with one beef cube contains approximately 900 mg of sodium; 8 oz of tomato juice contains approximately 700 mg of sodium. If the primary problem is water retention, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium.
When administering IV replacement of 5% dextrose in water with potassium chloride, what should the nurse do first?
You Selected: Prime tubing using sterile technique. Correct response: Evaluate laboratory results for electrolytes. Explanation: IV solutions are prescribed based upon the fluid and electrolyte status of the client, so laboratory results should be monitored first. Safety recommendations are for standard premixed solutions. If solutions are not premixed, additives are completed by the pharmacy, not at the bedside. Potassium chloride is never given by IV push because this could be fatal. Administration guidelines require no more than 10 mEq (10 mmol/L) of potassium chloride be infused per hour on a general medical-surgical unit. An infusion device or pump is required for safe administration.
A client with a deficient fluid volume is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and lactated Ringer's solution at 125 ml/hour. Which assessment finding indicates the need for additional I.V. fluids?
You Selected: serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L Correct response: dark amber urine Explanation: Normally, urine appears light yellow; dark amber urine is concentrated and suggests decreased fluid intake. The serum sodium level normally ranges from 135 to 145 mEq/L. A temperature of 37.6° C (99.6° F) is only slightly elevated and doesn't indicate a fluid volume deficit. Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid volume overload, not deficient fluid volume.
Which food should the nurse teach a client with heart failure to limit when following a 2-gram sodium diet?
You Selected: whole wheat bread Correct response: canned tomato juice Explanation: Canned foods and juices such as tomato juice are typically high in sodium and should be avoided in a sodium-restricted diet. Canned foods and juices in which sodium has been removed or limited are available. The nurse should teach the client to read labels carefully. Apples and whole wheat breads are not high in sodium. Hamburger would have less sodium than canned foods or tomato juice.