NUR 4770-Exam 2: Renal Practice Questions
38. When calculating the anion gap, the predominant cation is A. sodium. B. potassium. C. chloride. D. bicarbonate.
A. sodium.
18. Chloride plays a major role in maintaining A. cellular immunity. B. serum osmolality. C. bone strength. D. adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B. serum osmolality.
74. Which of the following conditions is associated between kidney failure and respiratory failure? (Select all that apply.) A. ARDS B. Lower GFR C. Increased urine output D. Decreased urine output E. Decreased blood flow to the kidneys
A. ARDS B. Lower GFR D. Decreased urine output E. Decreased blood flow to the kidneys
45. A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency. The patient reports that over the past few weeks, his urine output has decreased, and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites. A diagnosis of renal failure is made. The nurse would expect to see elevated values in the following laboratory results: (Select all that apply). A. BUN. B. creatinine. C. glucose. D. hemoglobin and hematocrit. E. protein.
A. BUN. B. creatinine. D. hemoglobin and hematocrit.
54. A patient who receives peritoneal dialysis is seen in the intensive care unit with a 3-day history of flulike symptoms, including muscle cramps and low blood pressure. Which complication of peritoneal dialysis is the most likely problem for this patient? A. Dehydration B. Peritonitis C. Fluid obstruction D. Hernias
A. Dehydration
63. What is a continuous venovenous hemodialysis filter permeable to? A. Electrolytes B. Red blood cells C. Protein D. Lipids
A. Electrolytes
25. Functions of the kidneys include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Formation of urine B. Blood pressure regulation C. Erythrocyte destruction D. Breakdown of prostaglandins E. Regulation of acid-base balance
A. Formation of urine B. Blood pressure regulation E. Regulation of acid-base balance
22. Complications of kidney function in older adults will occur with the presence of A. proteinuria. B. vasopressin. C. BUN. D. creatine.
A. proteinuria.
24. Which of the following factors stimulate the release of ADH? (Select all that apply.) A. Hypovolemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypothermia D. Opioids and oral hypoglycemics E. Severe physical and emotional stress
A. Hypovolemia D. Opioids and oral hypoglycemics E. Severe physical and emotional stress
2. Where does the concentration and dilution of urine occur? A. In the juxtamedullary nephrons B. In the cortical nephrons C. In the peritubular capillaries D. In the internal nephron
A. In the juxtamedullary nephrons
66. Which of the following diuretics maybe combined to work on different parts of the nephron? A. Loop and thiazide diuretics B. Loop and osmotic diuretics C. Osmotic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics D. Thiazide and osmotic diuretics
A. Loop and thiazide diuretics
8. A patient who is not on any medications is admitted to your unit with severe hypokalemia. Laboratory values taken upon admission to the ED are serum K+, 2.2 mEq/L; BUN, 15 mg/dL; and creatinine, 1.2 mg/dL. Urine output is averaging 45 mL/hr. The ED nurse reports that the patient received a total of 80 mEq of potassium over 4 hours via a right subclavian central venous line. After admission to your unit, the physician orders a repeat potassium level. The result is K+, 2.4 mEq/L. What other information would be beneficial at this time? A. Magnesium level B. Repeat creatinine level C. Calcium level D. Hemoglobin level
A. Magnesium level
69. A patient with renal failure reports all of the following during the medical history. Which is most likely to have precipitated the patient's renal failure? A. Recent computed tomography of the brain with and without contrast B. A recent bout of congestive heart failure after an acute myocardial infarction C. Twice-daily prescription of Lasix 40 mg by mouth D. A recent bout of benign prostatic hypertrophy and transurethral resection of the prostate
A. Recent computed tomography of the brain with and without contrast
44. Which of the following may be present in the patient with significant fluid volume overload? (Select all that apply.) A. S3 or S4 may develop. B. Distention of the hand veins will disappear if the hand is elevated. C. When testing the quality of skin turgor, the skin will not return to the normal position for several seconds. D. Tachycardia with hypotension may be present. E. Dependent edema may be present.
A. S3 or S4 may develop. E. Dependent edema may be present.
71. A patient in acute renal failure presents with a potassium level of 6.9 mg/dL. He has had no urine output in the past 4 hours despite urinary catheter insertion and Lasix 40 mg intravenous push. Vital signs are as follows: HR, 76 beats/min; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/min; and BP, 145/96 mm Hg. He is given 100 mL of 50% dextrose in water and 20 U of regular insulin intravenous push. A repeat potassium level 2 hours later shows a potassium level of 4.5 mg/dL. What order would now be expected? A. Sodium Kayexalate 15 g PO B. Nothing; this represents a normal potassium level C. Lasix 40 mg IVP D. 0.9% normal saline at 125 mL/hr
A. Sodium Kayexalate 15 g PO
21. When renin eventually stimulates angiotensin II, the adrenal glands then secrete A. aldosterone. B. potassium. C. ADH. D. vasopressin.
A. aldosterone.
43. Causes of the presence of myoglobin could include (Select all that apply.) A. bleeding. B. traumatic damage to the skeletal muscle. C. asthmatic attack. D. rhabdomyolysis. E. cocaine abuse.
A. bleeding. B. traumatic damage to the skeletal muscle. D. rhabdomyolysis. E. cocaine abuse.
31. The most important assessment parameters for evaluating the patient's fluid status is to measure A. daily weights. B. urine and serum osmolality. C. intake and output. D. hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
A. daily weights.
75. To prevent catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI), the nurse should (Select all that apply.) A. insert urinary catheters using aseptic techniques. B. change the urinary catheter daily. C. review the need for the urinary catheter daily and remove promptly. D. flush the urinary catheter q8 hours to maintain patency. E. avoid unnecessary use of indwelling urinary catheters.
A. insert urinary catheters using aseptic techniques. C. review the need for the urinary catheter daily and remove promptly. E. avoid unnecessary use of indwelling urinary catheters.
15. The substance most responsible for maintaining the colloid osmotic pressure is A. intravascular plasma proteins. B. intracellular potassium. C. extracellular sodium. D. interstitial potassium.
A. intravascular plasma proteins.
27. Loss of albumin from the vascular space may result in A. peripheral edema. B. extra heart sounds. C. hypertension. D. hyponatremia.
A. peripheral edema.
52. To remove fluid during hemodialysis, a positive hydrostatic pressure is applied to the blood and a negative hydrostatic pressure is applied to the dialysate bath. This process is known as A. ultrafiltration. B. hemodialysis. C. reverse osmosis. D. colloid extraction.
A. ultrafiltration.
16. The primary waste product(s) that are measured to determine kidney function is/are A. urea and creatinine. B. creatinine. C. BUN and creatine. D. BUN, sodium, and potassium.
A. urea and creatinine.
11. The function of aldosterone is primarily A. excretion of potassium through the renal tubules. B. control of sodium and water. C. regulation of bicarbonate. D. reabsorption of sodium and potassium.
B. control of sodium and water.
29. Percussion of kidneys is usually done to A. assess the size and shape of the kidneys. B. detect pain in the renal area. C. elicit a fluid wave. D. evaluate fluid status.
B. detect pain in the renal area.
70. An alert and oriented patient presents with a pulmonary artery wedge pressure of 4 mm Hg and a cardiac index of 0.8. The BUN is 44 mg/dL, creatinine is 3.2 mg/dL, and BP is 88/36 mm Hg. Urine output is 15 mL/hr. Lungs are clear to auscultation with no peripheral edema noted. Which of the following treatments would the physician most likely order? A. Lasix 40 mg intravenous push B. 0.9% normal saline at 125 mL/hr C. Dopamine 15 μg/kg/min D> Transfuse 1 U of packed red blood cells
B. 0.9% normal saline at 125 mL/hr
65. To control azotemia, the recommended nutritional intake of protein is A. 0.5 to 1.0 g/kg/day. B. 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg/day. C. 1.7 to 2.5 g/kg/day. D. 2.5 to 3.5 g/kg/day.
B. 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg/day.
59. A patient has acute tubular necrosis. The following blood work was noted: complete blood count shows a white blood cell count of 11,000 mm3, a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL, and a hematocrit of 30%. His chemistry panel shows serum potassium, 4.5 mg/dL; serum sodium, 135 mg/dL; serum calcium, 8.5 mg/dL; BUN, 20 mg/dL; and creatinine, 1.5 mg/dL. What laboratory value(s) need(s) to be treated most immediately and why? A. Administration of 5% dextrose in water and insulin because the patient is hyperkalemic and needs this level reduced B. Administration of Epogen to treat anemia C. Administration of a broad-spectrum antibiotic to treat the elevated blood cell count D. Administration of a calcium supplement for low calcium
B. Administration of Epogen to treat anemia
20. For micturition to occur, stimulation from what receptor(s) will cause the parasympathetic messages to contract the detrusor muscle of the bladder? A. Bladder wall and ureters B. Bladder wall and urethra C. Ureters and urethra D. Urethra
B. Bladder wall and urethra
6. The following substances, among others, are found in a urine sample: urea, creatinine, sodium, chlorine, potassium, glucose, and bicarbonate ions. Which of the following could account for this abnormal finding? A. Blood pressure of 76/30 mm Hg B. Blood glucose of 456 mg/dL C. Blood glucose of 36 mg/dL D. Blood potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L
B. Blood glucose of 456 mg/dL
60. The patient is a gravida 6, para 1. She is admitted after a cesarean section after an amniotic embolus. Her heart rate (HR) is more than 150 beats/min with a systolic BP less than 80 mm Hg. Her temperature is 38°C, and her condition has caused her to develop prerenal azotemia. The patient was fluid resuscitated through a double-lumen catheter, which was placed into her right femoral access, and started on vasopressors with a fair response (BP, 80/50 mm Hg; HR, 122 beats/min). Because of her diagnosis and a concern regarding fulminating sepsis, the patient was begun on CVVH. Which of the statements best describes CVVH? A. Complete renal replacement therapy requiring large volumes of ultrafiltrate and filter replacement B. Complete renal replacement therapy that allows removal of solutes and modification of the volume and composition of extracellular fluid to occur evenly over time C. Involves the introduction of sterile dialyzing fluid through an implanted catheter into the abdominal cavity, which relies on osmosis, diffusion, and active transport to help remove waste from the body D. Complete renal replacement therapy that allows an exchange of fluid, solutes, and solvents across a semipermeable membrane at 100 to 300 mL/hr
B. Complete renal replacement therapy that allows removal of solutes and modification of the volume and composition of extracellular fluid to occur evenly over time
73. Which of the following medications is considered a loop diuretic? A. Acetazolamide (Diamox) B. Furosemide (Lasix) C. Mannitol D. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
B. Furosemide (Lasix)
56. A patient has been hospitalized for a subtotal gastrectomy. After the procedure, an infection developed that eventually had to be treated with gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. After 3 days of administration, oliguria occurred, and subsequent laboratory values indicated elevated BUN and creatinine levels. The patient is transferred to the critical care unit with acute tubular necrosis. Which dialysis method would be most appropriate for the patient's condition? A. Peritoneal dialysis B. Hemodialysis C. Continuous renal replacement therapy D. Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVH)
B. Hemodialysis
36. A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency. The patient reports that over the past few weeks, his urine output has decreased, and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites. A diagnosis of renal failure is made. Which of the following diagnostic tests would give the best information about the internal kidney structures, such as the parenchyma, calyces, pelvis, ureters, and bladder? A. Kidney-ureter-bladder (KUB) B. Intravenous pyelography (IVP) C. Renal ultrasonography (ECHO) D. Renal angiography
B. Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
48. Which of the following IV solutions is recommended for treatment of prerenal failure? A. Dextrose in water B. Normal saline C. Albumin D. Lactated Ringer solution
B. Normal saline
13. The mobilization of calcium from bone stores is accomplished through the influence of which hormone? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D. Erythropoietin
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
53. Which electrolytes pose the most potential hazard if not within normal limits for a person with renal failure? A. Phosphorous and calcium B. Potassium and calcium C. Magnesium and sodium D. Phosphorous and magnesium
B. Potassium and calcium
32. Which of the following parameters is indicative of volume overload? A. Central venous pressure of 4 mm Hg B. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 18 mm Hg C. Cardiac index of 2.5 L/min/m2 D. Mean arterial pressure of 40 mm Hg
B. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 18 mm Hg
47. Which of the following laboratory values is the most help in evaluating a patient for acute renal failure? A. Serum sodium B. Serum creatinine C. Serum potassium D. Urine potassium
B. Serum creatinine
34. Which of the following urine values reflects a decreased ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine? A. pH of 5.0 B. Specific gravity of 1.000 C. No casts D. Urine sodium of 140 mEq/24 hr
B. Specific gravity of 1.000
39. A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency. The patient reports that over the past few weeks, his urine output has decreased, and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites. A diagnosis of renal failure is made. The patient urinalysis has a specific gravity of 1.040. What could be the potential cause for this value? A. Volume overload B. Volume deficit C. Acidosis D. Urine ketones
B. Volume deficit
42. A patient has been on complete bed rest for 3 days. The health care provider has ordered for the patient to sit at the bedside for meals. The patient complains of feeling dizzy and faint while sitting at the bedside. The nurse anticipates that the patient is experiencing A. orthostatic hypertension. B. orthostatic hypotension. C. hypervolemia. D. electrolyte imbalance.
B. orthostatic hypotension.
58. The most common site for short-term vascular access for immediate hemodialysis is the A. subclavian artery. B. subclavian vein. C. femoral artery. D. radial vein.
B. subclavian vein
40. A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency. The patient reports that over the past few weeks, his urine output has decreased, and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites. A diagnosis of renal failure is made. The nurse is assessing the peripheral edema. The nurse presses two fingers over the tibial area, and it takes 1 minute before the indention disappears. The nurse would chart the following result: A. +1 pitting edema. B. +2 pitting edema. C. +3 pitting edema. D. +4 pitting edema.
C. +3 pitting edema
7. To prevent acid-base disturbances, the ratio between carbonic acid and bicarbonate should be A. 10 mEq of carbonic acid to 20 mEq of bicarbonate. B. 20 mEq of carbonic acid to 10 mEq of bicarbonate. C. 1 mEq of carbonic acid to 20 mEq of bicarbonate. D. 20 mEq of carbonic acid to 1 mEq of bicarbonate.
C. 1 mEq of carbonic acid to 20 mEq of bicarbonate.
67. What is the dose for low-dose dopamine? A. 1 to 2 mcg/kg/min B. 1 to 2 mg/kg/min C. 2 to 3 mcg/kg/min D. 2 to 3 mg/kg/min
C. 2 to 3 mcg/kg/min
37. A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency. The patient reports that over the past few weeks, his urine output has decreased, and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites. A diagnosis of renal failure is made. The patient weight upon admission was 176 lb. The patient's weight the next day is 184 lb. What is the approximate amount of fluid retained with this weight gain? A. 800 mL B. 2200 mL C. 3600 mL D. 8000 mL
C. 3600 mL
61. The patient is a gravida 6, para 1. She is admitted after a cesarean section after an amniotic embolus. Her heart rate (HR) is more than 150 beats/min with a systolic BP less than 80 mm Hg. Her temperature is 38°C, and her condition has caused her to develop prerenal azotemia. The patient was fluid resuscitated through a double-lumen catheter, which was placed into her right femoral access, and started on vasopressors with a fair response (BP, 80/50 mm Hg; HR, 122 beats/min). Because of her diagnosis and a concern regarding fulminating sepsis, the patient was begun on CVVH. Identify three complications of CVVH therapy. A. Fat emboli, increased ultrafiltration, and hypertension B. Hyperthermia, overhydration, and power surge C. Air embolism, decreased inflow pressure, and electrolyte imbalance D. Blood loss, decreased outflow resistance, and acid-base imbalance
C. Air embolism, decreased inflow pressure, and electrolyte imbalance
64. A patient has sepsis and is placed on broad-spectrum antibiotics. Her temperature is 37.8°C. Her BUN level is elevated. She continues on vasopressor therapy. What other steps should be taken to protect the patient from inadequate organ perfusion? A. Increase net ultrafiltrate of fluid. B. Discontinue vasopressor support. C. Assess the patient for blood loss and hypotension. D. Notify the physician of access pressures.
C. Assess the patient for blood loss and hypotension.
14. Which type of intravenous fluid will not create a shift of fluids within the vascular space? A. Hypertonic B. Hypotonic C. Isotonic D. Osmotic pressure
C. Isotonic
55. A patient has been hospitalized for a subtotal gastrectomy. After the procedure, an infection developed that eventually had to be treated with gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. After 3 days of administration, oliguria occurred, and subsequent laboratory values indicated elevated blood-urea-nitrogen and creatinine levels. The patient is transferred to the critical care unit with acute tubular necrosis. The patient is in the oliguric/anuric phase of acute tubular necrosis. Which statement best describes this phase? A. It is the period of time from insult until cell injury. A decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results and disrupts the integrity of the tubular epithelium. B. It is characterized by an increase in GFR in which the kidneys can clear volume and not solutes. C. It is referred to as the maintenance phase and lasts 5 to 8 days in a nonoliguric patient and 10 to 16 days in an oliguric patient. D. Renal function slowly returns to normal with a GFR at 70% to 80%.
C. It is referred to as the maintenance phase and lasts 5 to 8 days in a nonoliguric patient and 10 to 16 days in an oliguric patient.
72. A patient with chronic renal failure receives hemodialysis treatments 3 days a week. Every 2 weeks, the patient requires a transfusion of 1 or 2 U of packed red blood cells. What is the probable reason for this patient's frequent transfusion needs? A. Too much blood phlebotomized for tests B. Increased destruction of red blood cells because of the increased toxin levels C. Lack of production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell formation D. Fluid retention causing hemodilution
C. Lack of production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell formation
50. Which of the following IV solutions is contraindicated for patients with kidney or liver disease or in lactic acidosis? A. D5W B. 0.9% NaCl C. Lactated Ringer solution D. 0.45% NaCl
C. Lactated Ringer solution
28. Which of the following auscultatory parameters may exist in the presence of hypovolemia? A. Hypertension B. Third or fourth heart sound C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Vascular bruit
C. Orthostatic hypotension
51. To assess whether or not an arteriovenous fistula is functioning, what must be done and why? A. Palpate the quality of the pulse distal to the site to determine whether a thrill is present; auscultate with a stethoscope to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow. B. Palpate the quality of the pulse proximal to the site to determine whether a thrill is present; auscultate with a stethoscope to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow. C. Palpate gently over the site of the fistula to determine whether a thrill is present; listen with a stethoscope over this site to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow. D. Palpate over the site of the fistula to determine whether a thrill is present; check whether the extremity is pink and warm.
C. Palpate gently over the site of the fistula to determine whether a thrill is present; listen with a stethoscope over this site to appreciate a bruit to assess the quality of the blood flow.
46. An elderly patient is in a motor vehicle accident and sustains a significant internal hemorrhage. Which category of renal failure is the patient at the greatest risk of developing? A. Intrinsic B. Postrenal C. Prerenal D. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Prerenal
1. The initial filtering of the blood occurs in which structure? A. The distal tubule B. The proximal tubule C. The glomerulus D. The collecting tubule
C. The glomerulus
33. As serum osmolality rises, intravascular fluid equilibrium will be maintained by the release of A. ketones. B. glucagon. C. antidiuretic hormone. D. potassium.
C. antidiuretic hormone.
10. Ammonia, hydrogen, and ammonium are secreted in the A. loop of Henle. B. collecting duct. C. glomerulus. D. proximal tubule.
C. glomerulus.
9. The functional unit of the kidney is known as the A. Bowman capsule. B. glomerulus. C. nephron. D. distal tubule.
C. nephron.
17. Maintaining a normal range of serum potassium is important for A. fluid regulation. B. acid-base buffering. C. nervous impulse conduction. D. triggering ADH release.
C. nervous impulse conduction.
35. A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency. The patient reports that over the past few weeks, his urine output has decreased, and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites. A diagnosis of renal failure is made. The nurse suspects the main cause of ascites is A. hypervolemia. B. dehydration. C. volume overload. D. liver damage.
C. volume overload.
26. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate fluid volume excess? A. Venous filling of the hand veins greater than 5 seconds B. Distended neck veins in the supine position C. Presence of orthostatic hypotension D. Third heart sound
D. Third heart sound
68. Laboratory results come back on a newly admitted patient. They are as follows: serum BUN, 64 mg/dL; serum creatinine, 2.4 mg/dL; urine osmolality, 210 mOsm/kg; specific gravity, 1.002; and urine sodium, 96 mEq/L. The urine output has been 120 mL since admission 2 hours ago. These values are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses? A. Prerenal failure B. Postrenal failure C. Oliguric renal failure D. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
3. Which of the following, if found in the urine, suggests damage to the glomerular membrane? A. Creatinine B. Bicarbonate ions C. Sodium D. Albumin
D. Albumin
4. If the patient's blood pressure drops, which of the following will help maintain adequate glomerular pressure? A. Constriction of the afferent arteriole B. Dilation of the efferent arteriole C. Dilation of the collecting tubule D. Constriction of the efferent arteriole
D. Constriction of the efferent arteriole
5. Which of the following is most indicative of renal failure? A. Elevated blood-urea-nitrogen B. Congestive heart failure C. Peripheral edema D. Elevated creatinine
D. Elevated creatinine
62. he patient is a gravida 6, para 1. She is admitted after a cesarean section after an amniotic embolus. Her heart rate (HR) is more than 150 beats/min with a systolic BP less than 80 mm Hg. Her temperature is 38°C, and her condition has caused her to develop prerenal azotemia. The patient was fluid resuscitated through a double-lumen catheter, which was placed into her right femoral access, and started on vasopressors with a fair response (BP, 80/50 mm Hg; HR, 122 beats/min). Because of her diagnosis and a concern regarding fulminating sepsis, the patient was begun on CVVH. Why would this therapy be chosen for this patient? A. Hyperdynamic patients can better tolerate abrupt fluid and solute changes. B. It is the treatment of choice for patients with diminished renal perfusion who are unresponsive to diuretics. C. It is indicated for patients who require large-volume removal for severe uremia or critical acid-base imbalances. D. It is indicated for hemodynamically unstable patients, who are often intolerant of the abrupt fluid and solute changes that can occur with hemodialysis.
D. It is indicated for hemodynamically unstable patients, who are often intolerant of the abrupt fluid and solute changes that can occur with hemodialysis.
23. Which electrolyte abnormality is evident early in the course of kidney failure? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Phosphorus
D. Phosphorus
12. Which of the following conditions would result in an increased release of renin? A. Increased release of angiotensin I B. Increased release of angiotensin II C. Increased amount of sodium in the distal convoluted tubule D. Reduced pressure in the glomerulus
D. Reduced pressure in the glomerulus
19. Which electrolytes are cations? A. Sodium, potassium, and chloride B. Sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate C. Bicarbonate, chloride, and calcium D. Sodium, potassium, and magnesium
D. Sodium, potassium, and magnesium
49. One therapeutic measure for treating hyperkalemia is the administration of dextrose and regular insulin. How do these agents lower potassium? A. They force potassium out of the cells and into the serum, lowering it on a cellular level. B. They promote higher excretion of potassium in the urine. C. They bind with resin in the bowel and are eliminated in the feces. D. They force potassium out of the serum and into the cells, thus causing potassium to lower.
D. They force potassium out of the serum and into the cells, thus causing potassium to lower.
30. Differentiating ascites from distortion caused by solid bowel contents in the distended abdomen is accomplished by A. assessing for bowel sounds in four quadrants. B. palpation of the liver margin. C. measuring abdominal girth. D. the presence of a fluid wave.
D. the presence of a fluid wave.
57. A patient has been hospitalized for a subtotal gastrectomy. After the procedure, an infection developed that eventually had to be treated with gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. After 3 days of administration, oliguria occurred, and subsequent laboratory values indicated elevated BUN and creatinine levels. The patient is transferred to the critical care unit with acute tubular necrosis. The fluid that is removed each hour is not called urine; it is known as A. convection. B. diffusion. C. replacement fluid. D. ultrafiltrate.
D. ultrafiltrate.
41. The patient complains of a metallic taste and loss of appetite. The nurse is concern that the patient has developed A. glycosuria. B. proteinuria. C. myoglobin. D. uremia.
D. uremia.
