Nutrition Exam 4 - Post Learning Questions
What food is highest in oxalate that might contribute to kidney stones? a. mayonnaise b. leeks c. chocolate d. eggs
c. chocolate
In the United States, one in _____ households experiences hunger or the threat of hunger. a. 20 b. 3 c. 14 d. 7
d. 7
People with advanced AIDS may experience diarrhea due to _____. a. changes in the intestinal lining b. increased tolerance for their medications c. suppressed gastric acid secretion d. Kaposi's sarcoma
a. changes in the intestinal lining
The cancer cachexia syndrome is accompanied by _____. a. decreased lean body mass b. increased appetite c. peripheral edema d. weight gain
a. decreased lean body mass
At what age does the RDA for iron increase in adolescents? a. 14 b. 15 c. 13 d. 16
a. 14
Ideally, a pregnant woman should take in how many carbohydrates per day to provide fuel for the fetal brain? a. 175 grams b. 225 grams c. 135 grams d. 100 grams
a. 175 grams
A diet to achieve a desirable blood cholesterol and lipoprotein profile includes a total fat intake of _____ percent of daily kcalories. a. 25 to 35 b. 10 to 20 c. 30 to 40 d. 40 to 45
a. 25 to 35
What statement describes the best approach to complementary food sources when a woman is breastfeeding? a. Additional food sources can be added to the diet when the infant is between 4 and 6 months. b. Cereals can be added to an infant's food intake at 1 year of age. c. Two foods at a time that are balanced should be added to the infant's diet once teeth have erupted. d. Foods that do not cause gas can be added to an infant's diet pattern after 2 months of age.
a. Additional food sources can be added to the diet when the infant is between 4 and 6 months
Which question would help determine the risk of malnutrition in an older adult as related to reduced social contact? a. Do you eat alone most of the time? b. Do you take three or more prescribed medications? c. Is it painful to eat? d. Do you have enough money to buy the food you need?
a. Do you eat alone most of the time?
Which statement best describes the relationship between diet and hyperactivity? a. Limited research suggests food additives such as artificial colors or sodium benzoate preservative (or both) may exacerbate hyperactive symptoms such as inattention and impulsivity. b. Research has clearly demonstrated a link between sugar intake and hyperactivity in boys, but the association does not appear to exist in girls. c. The elimination of candy and other sweetened products from the diet will also eliminate hyperactivity. d. The FDA has ruled out the possibility that food additives, including food colorings, are associated with hyperactivity.
a. Limited research suggests food additives such as artificial colors or sodium benzoate preservative (or both) may exacerbate hyperactive symptoms such as inattention and impulsivity
What nutritional problem can occur when a person has dental issues that affect their dietary choices? a. Nutrient deficiencies may occur if food groups are deleted, as they may be difficult to eat. b. Switching all foods to a softened consistency may delete nutrients. c. Individuals will tend to eat more if the food texture has been altered, leading to weight gain. d. Calcium levels will increase as individuals will tend to eat more puddings and soft-textured foods.
a. Nutrient deficiencies may occur if food groups are deleted, as they may be difficult to eat
What is one difference between the preeclampsia and eclampsia associated with pregnancy? a. Seizure activity occurs in eclampsia. b. Dependent edema occurs only in eclampsia. c. Blood pressure elevations occur in eclampsia. d. Maternal temperature is elevated in preeclampsia.
a. Seizure activity occurs in eclampsia
Which exercise pattern would help to safely improve endurance in an older adult? a. Start the process slowly and build up gradually to a minimum of 30 minutes of daily activity. b. Stay active at least every other day for 15 minutes. c. Be active for at least 60 minutes each day. d. Exercise to the point of discomfort, then slow down.
a. Start the process slowly and build up gradually to a minimum of 30 minutes of daily activity
Type 1 diabetes _____. a. always requires administration of exogenous insulin b. is associated with obesity and inactivity c. typically develops in individuals over 45 years of age d. is caused by insulin resistance
a. always requires administration of exogenous insulin
What would be most effective in preventing the cell and tissue damage that can give rise to cancer? a. antioxidant phytochemicals b. soluble fiber c. chromium d. iron
a. antioxidant phytochemicals
What is included as part of treatment for a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? a. aspirin b. digoxin c. calcium channel blockers d. nitroglycerin
a. aspirin
Mary is 20-week pregnant and has gestational diabetes. Her dietitian helped her change her meal plan 3 weeks ago to improve her blood glucose levels. What test would be most useful in determining recent improvements in her glycemic control? a. fructosamine test b. microalbuminemia test c. glycated hemoglobin test d. self-blood glucose monitoring
a. fructosamine test
An infant who was born at 38 weeks and weighs 2500 grams would be considered at _____. a. greater risk for health problems even though it is a term pregnancy b. less risk for health problems as the infant is appropriate for gestational age c. no risk, as the infant is considered to be a term infant d. high risk, as the birth is considered to be premature
a. greater risk for health problems even though it is a term pregnancy
A woman who breastfeeds her child for 24 months and provides complementary foods _____. a. has exceeded the recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics b. should immediately stop breastfeeding c. should continue to breastfeed the child until he is ready to attend preschool d. should not provide complementary foods at this time
a. has exceeded the recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics
Insulin may be delivered continuously using a(n) _____. a. insulin pump b. injection port c. insulin pen d. syringe
a. insulin pump
Pregnancy in all women is associated with _____. a. insulin resistance b. ketoacidosis c. hyperglycemia d. a reduced need for insulin
a. insulin resistance
What is a metabolic effect of the HIV treatment zidovudine? a. insulin resistance b. pancreatitis c. reduced blood levels of copper and zinc d. altered taste perception
a. insulin resistance
Which condition is more likely to be present at the time of diagnosis in type 1 diabetes than in type 2 diabetes? a. ketoacidosis b. hyperglycemia c. glycosuria d. diabetic coma
a. ketoacidosis
Right-sided heart failure is most likely to result in _____. a. liver enlargement b. pulmonary edema c. limb weakness d. shortness of breath
a. liver enlargement
Sarcopenia refers to _____. a. loss of muscle mass b. impaired balance c. decreased GI motility d. increased muscle density
a. loss of muscle mass
Patients with suppressed immunity might best be put on a _____. a. low microbial diet b. clear liquid diet c. regular diet with oral supplements d. regular diet with small, frequent meals
a. low microbial diet
The focus of nutrition care following a stroke is to _____. a. maintain nutrition status and health despite disabilities b. build bone tissue to prevent osteoporosis c. promote an approximate 15 percent weight loss d. prevent electrolyte disturbances
a. maintain nutrition status and health despite disabilities
When a woman drinks alcohol during pregnancy, she causes damage indirectly through _____. a. malnutrition b. physical impairment c. intoxication d. injury
a. malnutrition
What is a modifiable risk factor for CHD? a. smoking b. increasing age c. family history of CHD d. male gender
a. smoking
Weighted utensils are most often used for which condition? a. tremors and spasticity b. muscle weakness c. limited range of motion d. dysphagia
a. tremors and spasticity
Normally, the healthy liver removes ammonia from circulation and converts it to _____. a. urea b. protein c. creatinine d. nitrogen
a. urea
Patients with heart failure who have persistent or recurrent fluid retention may need to limit fluid intake to less than _____ per day. a. 4 liters b. 2 liters c. ½ liter d. 1 liter
b. 2 liters
A pregnant woman needs a regular source of vitamin B12-fortified foods or a supplement that provides _____ daily. a. 4.8 micrograms b. 2.6 micrograms c. 48 milligrams d. 26 milligrams
b. 2.6 micrograms
Cancer cachexia occurs in as many as _____ percent of people with cancer before they die. a. 60 b. 50 c. 70 d. 80
b. 50
Prerenal factors account for ____ percent of cases of acute kidney injury. a. 5 to 10 b. 60 to 70 c. 25 to 40 d. 10 to 20
b. 60 to 70
Children and adolescents are classified as being overweight when they are above the _____ percentile on the growth chart. a. 95th b. 85th c. 75th d. 90th
b. 85th
Normal blood pressure for adults is considered to be _____. a. <115/60 mm Hg b. <120/80 mm Hg c. <105/55 mm Hg d. <130/84 mm Hg
b. <120/80 mm Hg
A normal glycated hemoglobin value in a person without diabetes is _____. a. 6 to 8 percent b. <6 percent c. >10 percent d. 8 to 10 percent
b. <6 percent
What is the difference between food allergy and food intolerance? a. Food allergies are caused by a cross-contamination of food products. b. An antigen reaction occurs if there is a food allergy. c. Epinephrine release is increased with food intolerance episodes. d. Minimal gastrointestinal symptoms are associated with food intolerance.
b. An antigen reaction occurs if there is a food allergy
Which diet is most appropriate for a post-liver transplant patient? a. high-sugar snacks to prevent hypoglycemia b. high-kcalorie, high-protein snacks and supplements c. fluid and protein restriction d. regular oral diet with no supplements
b. high-kcalorie, high-protein snacks and supplements
Which of these is an appropriate action for a type 1 diabetic patient who is preparing for strenuous activity? a. Inject insulin immediately prior to the activity. b. Consume some carbohydrate if blood glucose is <100 mg/dL just prior to the activity. c. Avoid injecting insulin for several hours prior to the activity. d. Aim for a blood glucose level >250 mg/dL prior to the activity.
b. Consume some carbohydrate if blood glucose is <100 mg/dL just prior to the activity
Which statement best describes the appropriate timing of breastfeeding? a. The majority of food obtained by an infant occurs in the last few minutes of nursing. b. Crying is considered to be a late indicator that the infant is hungry. c. Breastfed infants typically eat three times a day because they are more content. d. As infants age, they require more frequent breastfeeding.
b. Crying is considered to be a late indicator that the infant is hungry
What is the best approach for the treatment of metabolic syndrome? a. Gastric bypass or similar surgeries are the preferred treatments. b. Dietary and lifestyle changes should be tried first. c. Treatment should include aggressive doses of medication. d. Insulin is an indispensable part of treatment.
b. Dietary and lifestyle changes should be tried first
Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between breastfeeding and HIV infection? a. Mothers who are HIV positive cannot transmit the virus to their infants through breastfeeding. b. HIV-positive women in developing countries should breastfeed unless safe formula is available. c. Infants should not receive antiretroviral treatment or other medications to manage HIV unless they are formula fed. d. HIV-positive women in the United States can safely breastfeed their infants.
b. HIV-positive women in developing countries should breastfeed unless safe formula is available
A cirrhosis patient has developed ascites. What is one significance of this condition? a. It indicates that the condition has stabilized. b. It can cause malnutrition due to early satiety. c. It is adaptive because it reduces portal hypertension. d. It may cause mental disturbances.
b. It can cause malnutrition due to early satiety
How does infant formula compare to breast milk? a. Breast milk has more protein than infant formula. b. Nutrient composition is similar in that fat is the predominant ingredient. c. Both have an equal amount of carbohydrate. d. Infant formula has less carbohydrate than breast milk.
b. Nutrient composition is similar in that fat is the predominant ingredient
Which statement best describes the nutrient needs of an older adult? a. Older adults should continue to rely on the thirst mechanism as a significant factor in preventing dehydration. b. Older adults should maintain a moderate fat intake. c. Energy needs increase so protein levels can be decreased. d. Fiber recommendations range from 20 to 25 grams per 1000 kilocalories.
b. Older adults should maintain a moderate fat intake
Which statement best describes bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)? a. BSE is a rapidly progressing and fatal illness that has decimated many beef herds. b. People who eat contaminated beef develop a disease similar to BSE. c. BSE is not transmissible to humans. d. People who eat dairy products from affected herds develop a similar disease to BSE.
b. People who eat contaminated beef develop a disease similar to BSE
Which statement is accurate concerning energy and nutrient needs during pregnancy? a. During the third trimester, 340 kcalories per day are required. b. The protein RDA is increased by an additional 25 grams per day. c. The folate RDA requirement during pregnancy is 400 micrograms per day. d. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids should be limited.
b. The protein RDA is increased by an additional 25 grams per day
Which statement accurately describes reproductive health prior to pregnancy? a. Men with diets high in zinc have markedly decreased sperm numbers. b. Women should consume 400 micrograms per day of synthetic folate. c. Excess body fat in women is associated with increased fertility. d. Overweight men have higher sperm counts.
b. Women should consume 400 micrograms per day of synthetic folate
A fruity odor in the breath of a person experiencing ketosis reflects the presence of _____ in the blood. a. glucose b. acetone c. protein d. fructose
b. acetone
People with nephrotic syndrome often have _____. a. pancreatitis b. altered blood lipids c. liver disease d. gastroesophageal reflux
b. altered blood lipids
An older person who has a vitamin B12 deficiency is most likely to suffer from _____. a. increased vascular volume b. atrophic gastritis c. iron-deficiency anemia d. osteoporosis
b. atrophic gastritis
An impacted gallstone within the bile duct can cause a condition that results in severe pain, sepsis and fever, known as _____. a. cholecystitis b. bacterial cholangitis c. cholelithiasis d. peritonitis
b. bacterial cholangitis
When triglycerides accumulate in the liver, the liver _____. a. purges them b. becomes inflamed c. turns into scar tissue d. becomes smaller
b. becomes inflamed
Patients with heart failure may be prone to _____ because of frequent diuretic use. a. edema b. constipation c. kidney disease d. liver disease
b. constipation
Which symptoms are most likely associated with mild lead toxicity in a child? a. swollen lymph nodes and easy bruising b. diarrhea, irritability, and fatigue c. abdominal pain, constipation, and rectal bleeding d. pinpoint rash, fever, and hair loss
b. diarrhea, irritability, and fatigue
Cholesterol gallstones are most likely to be associated with _____. a. pancreatitis b. gastric bypass surgery c. sickle-cell anemia d. biliary tract infections
b. gastric bypass surgery
Patients who practice intensive insulin therapy for their type 1 diabetes _____. a. need only one or two daily injections of insulin b. give themselves multiple daily injections of several types of insulin or use an insulin pump c. use insulin in conjunction with antidiabetic agents d. take oral insulin in between two daily insulin injections
b. give themselves multiple daily injections of several types of insulin or use an insulin pump
An adipocyte hormone that promotes insulin sensitivity and glucose tolerance is called _____. a. lipopectin b. resistin c. adiponectin d. fibrin
c. adiponectin
Bone disease is a frequent complication of chronic kidney disease. Which condition is most likely to lead to osteodystrophy? a. a suppressed immune system b. increased secretion of parathyroid hormone c. anemia due to diminished erythropoietin d. defects in platelet functioning
b. increased secretion of parathyroid hormone
Rapid correction of hyperkalemia with acute kidney injury may require the use of _____, which drives extracellular potassium into cells. a. sodium b. insulin c. phosphorus d. protein
b. insulin
Atherosclerosis can lead to poor blood circulation in the legs, causing fatigue and pain when walking. This condition is known as _____. a. an aneurysm b. intermittent claudication c. an embolism d. angina pectoris
b. intermittent claudication
Once dialysis is initiated in a client with chronic kidney disease, the protein recommendation _____. a. emphasizes the addition of nonessential amino acid sources b. is less restrictive c. remains the same d. is more restrictive
b. is less restrictive
Inadequate blood supply within a tissue due to obstructed blood flow is known as _____. a. an embolus b. ischemia c. atherosclerosis d. a thrombus
b. ischemia
What condition develops when bile pigments accumulate in the blood? a. diaphoresis b. jaundice c. ascites d. hepatic coma
b. jaundice
A person who has rheumatoid arthritis may find that increasing amounts of _____ in the diet may help to improve symptoms. a. fiber b. omega-3 fatty acids c. sodium d. protein
b. omega-3 fatty acids
The hormones responsible for assisting with lactation are produced in the _____. a. intestine b. pituitary gland c. pancreas d. breasts
b. pituitary gland
People who have limited hand dexterity may be helped by _____. a. dishes with suction cups b. plate guards c. slotted openings d. cut-out cups
b. plate guards
A person's perceived physical and mental well-being defines his or her _____. a. life span b. quality of life c. potential life d. longevity
b. quality of life
Radiation to the head and neck frequently causes _____. a. chronic blood clots b. reduction in the amount of saliva c. malabsorption d. fluid and electrolyte imbalances
b. reduction in the amount of saliva
Diet therapy for the nephrotic syndrome includes a diet that is _____. a. restricted in sodium and high in protein b. restricted in sodium and low in saturated fat c. low in saturated fat and low in protein d. high in protein and low in saturated fat
b. restricted in sodium and low in saturated fat
Which HIV drug's mode of action is to inhibit HIV's protease enzyme, which destroys HIV gene products? a. lamivudine b. ritonavir c. enfuvirtide d. efavirenz
b. ritonavir
Results of clinical trials have shown that the greatest benefits to blood pressure control occurred in groups who followed the DASH diet and lowered their _____ intakes. a. potassium b. sodium c. calcium d. fat
b. sodium
Uncontrolled diabetes in early pregnancy raises the risk of _____. a. macrosomia in infants b. spontaneous abortions c. a low measure of intelligence in infants d. respiratory distress in infants
b. spontaneous abortions
Immediately following a myocardial infarction, an individual is most often placed on _____. a. the DASH diet b. thrombolytic drugs c. a high-protein diet d. statin medications
b. thrombolytic drugs
Weight gain within the first year of life for an infant can most accurately be described as _____. a. immediately showing a steady increase following birth b. tripling c. doubling d. being four times heavier than the birth weight
b. tripling
The skin of a person with renal failure becomes dry, scaly, and itchy. These are symptoms of _____. a. acidosis b. uremic syndrome c. nephrotic frost d. high homocysteine levels
b. uremic syndrome
In general, the adolescent growth spurt begins at about age _____ in males. a. 13 to 14 b. 10 to 11 c. 12 to 13 d. 11 to 12
c. 12 to 13
The diet for someone with renal insufficiency should contain _____ milligrams of sodium per day. a. 3000 to 4000 b. 1000 to 2000 c. 2000 to 3000 d. 500 to 1000
c. 2000 to 3000
For children born in the United States in the year 2000, the risk of developing type 2 diabetes sometime in their lives is estimated to be _____ for boys. a. 50 percent b. 10 percent c. 30 percent d. 20 percent
c. 30 percent
How many glasses of water or other beverages should older adults drink daily to prevent dehydration? a. 9 b. 10 c. 6 d. 13
c. 6
Recent studies have shown that which group of adolescents are at highest risk for vitamin D deficiency? a. Asian Americans b. Hispanic Americans c. African Americans d. Middle Eastern Americans
c. African Americans
Which substance has been shown to counteract cognitive decline in older adults? a. zinc b. sodium c. DHA d. beta amyloid
c. DHA
To add kcalories and protein to the diet of a cancer client, you would suggest that he or she _____. a. use milk instead of cream on cereal b. drink large amounts of water c. add chopped nuts to salads, pasta dishes, and baked goods d. serve vegetables plain rather than with cheese sauce
c. add chopped nuts to salads, pasta dishes, and baked goods
Macrosomic infants are more likely to be _____. a. born to women who are underweight b. colicky c. delivered by cesarean section d. no more than 6 pounds at the time of delivery
c. delivered by cesarean section
By the time the pregnancy has reached a gestational age of 8 weeks, which organ system has still not passed its critical period of development? a. arms b. heart c. ears d. legs
c. ears
When the kidneys detect reduced oxygen in the blood, they release _____. a. macrocytes b. reticulocytes c. erythropoietin d. hemoglobin
c. erythropoietin
What is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? a. a decreased risk of blood clots in the dialysis catheter b. less risk of infection c. fewer dietary restrictions d. a decreased risk of catheter displacement
c. fewer dietary restrictions
Ingestion of food contaminated with Clostridium botulinum results in _____. a. foodborne impurity b. foodborne infection c. food intoxication d. food contamination
c. food intoxication
A major concern to prevent complications for the post-transplant patient is _____. a. fluid retention b. weight gain c. food safety d. steatorrhea
c. food safety
Which prenatal weight gain pattern, based on prepregnancy weight, should be followed for a woman who is of normal weight? a. gaining 2 pounds per week throughout pregnancy b. gaining 5 pounds in the first trimester c. gaining about 1 pound a week after the first trimester d. gaining 2 to 3 pounds a week after the first trimester
c. gaining about 1 pound a week after the first trimester
Neural tube defects are more likely to occur in pregnant women who _____. a. are currently being treated for seizure disorders b. live in a temperate climate c. have a medical history of type 2 diabetes d. are within a normal BMI range
c. have a medical history of type 2 diabetes
To improve nutrient intake and compensate for weight loss during cancer treatment, clients should be encouraged to _____. a. save favorite foods for times when they are feeling ill b. consume large meals quickly c. include nutrient-dense foods d. eat extra food immediately after treatment
c. include nutrient-dense foods
Alcohol consumed in moderation can protect against CHD by _____. a. promoting inflammation b. raising LDL c. inhibiting clot formation d. lowering blood pressure
c. inhibiting clot formation
How should hepatitis C be treated? a. anti-inflammatory drugs b. surgical resection of the liver c. interferon alfa d. immunosuppressants
c. interferon alfa
The predominant type of diabetes _____. a. accounts for 70 to 75 percent of cases b. is usually associated with ketoacidosis c. is often asymptomatic d. develops most often during childhood or adolescence
c. is often asymptomatic
Hepatic encephalopathy treatments include _____. a. more aromatic amino acids b. protein restriction to < 0.8/kg of body weight c. lactulose to reduce the amount of ammonia absorbed d. diuretics to increase ammonia excretion
c. lactulose to reduce the amount of ammonia absorbed
The redistribution of fat that can occur as a complication of HIV infections is called _____. a. thrush b. osteodystrophy c. lipodystrophy d. lipoma
c. lipodystrophy
The functional unit of the kidneys is the _____. a. renal tubule b. glomerulus c. nephron d. collecting duct
c. nephron
Which condition is a risk factor for gallstones? a. being male b. long-term enteral nutrition c. obesity d. being of African ancestry
c. obesity
A person with nephrotic syndrome is prone to infections due to losses of _____. a. vitamin D b. excess sodium c. plasma proteins d. white blood cells
c. plasma proteins
A person who has gout should avoid eating foods that are high in _____. a. sodium b. dairy c. purines d. lactose
c. purines
Patients with cirrhosis may develop _____, which can cause excessive bleeding if ruptured. a. sinusoids b. collaterals c. varices d. ascites
c. varices
Protein requirements for a patient undergoing hemodialysis are _____ daily. a. 1.0 to 1.2 g/kg b. 0.75 to 1.0 g/kg c. 0.6 to 0.75 g/kg d. 1.2 to 1.4 g/kg
d. 1.2 to 1.4 g/kg
In the United States, the average protein intake for people with diabetes is about _____ of the energy intake. a. 20 percent b. 8 percent c. 26 percent d. 15 percent
d. 15 percent
Which statement describes a strategy for growing old healthfully? a. Choose energy-dense foods for most meals. b. Go out at night and enjoy evening activities as much as possible. c. For men, discuss the benefits of testosterone therapy. d. Control depression through activities and friendships.
d. Control depression through activities and friendships
What foodborne infection has onset in 1 to 8 days and is characterized by severe bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting lasting 5 to 10 days? a. Salmonella b. norovirus c. toxoplasma d. E.coli
d. E.coli
How does malnutrition affect pregnancy? a. Malnourished women are more likely to conceive than healthy-weight women. b. Fetal development in malnourished women proceeds at a slower pace but with no residual deficits. c. Healthy women have more implantation problems with pregnancy than malnourished women. d. Malnourished women who have had problem pregnancies are at an increased risk for stillbirths during subsequent pregnancies.
d. Malnourished women who have had problem pregnancies are at an increased risk for stillbirths during subsequent pregnancies
Which stress response are women more likely to manifest? a. Know when to hold and when to fold. b. Fight or flight. c. Win at all costs. d. Tend and befriend
d. Tend and befriend
The best policy regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy is to _____. a. abstain during the first trimester and drink no more than two drinks per day thereafter b. drink at the same levels as prepregnancy c. drink beer or wine with meals but abstain from hard liquor d. abstain from alcohol consumption entirely
d. abstain from alcohol consumption entirely
The most common causes of cirrhosis in the United States are _____. a. drug-induced liver injury and hepatitis A infection b. chronic alcohol abuse and inherited disorders c. toxic chemicals and bile duct blockages d. alcoholic liver disease and hepatitis C infection
d. alcoholic liver disease and hepatitis C infection
Which type of anemia develops from a failure of stem cells to develop into red blood cells? a. sickle-cell anemia b. hemolytic anemia c. hemorrhagic anemia d. aplastic anemia
d. aplastic anemia
Most kidney stones are composed of _____. a. struvite b. cystine c. uric acid d. calcium oxalate
d. calcium oxalate
Which measurement is a characteristic of metabolic syndrome? a. VLDLs of 100 mg/dL or higher b. blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg or higher c. waist circumference of greater than 38 inches in men and 32 inches in women d. fasting plasma glucose of 100 mg/dL or higher
d. fasting plasma glucose of 100 mg/dL or higher
For pregnant women, poverty and hunger nearly doubles the risk of _____. a. gestational hypertension b. cesarean section c. preeclampsia d. gestational diabetes
d. gestational diabetes
What might be used to treat fluid depletion from HIV-associated diarrhea? a. thickened fruit juices b. foods with soluble fiber c. milk or milkshakes d. liberal use of salty broths and soups
d. liberal use of salty broths and soups
What criteria is included when considering an adolescent candidate for weight loss surgery? a. failed cognitive-behavioral therapy for weight loss b. BMI over 30 c. previous inpatient treatment for weight loss d. physical maturity
d. physical maturity
An accumulation of fatty deposits, smooth muscle cells, and fibrous connective tissue is known as _____. a. atheroma b. fatty streaks c. lipoprotein aggregates d. plaque
d. plaque
Erythropoietin is often administered to patients with chronic renal failure to _____. a. prevent bone loss b. decrease blood pressure c. bind phosphorus d. treat anemia
d. treat anemia
