OBFinal
A neonate has been administered a prescribed dose of vitamin K. What outcome would most clearly indicate to the nurse that the medication has had the intended effect? 1 The infant remains free of bleeding 2 The infant's jaundice resolves 3 The infant's hemoglobin level increases 4 The infant remains free of infection
1
A newborn has scheduled heel sticks for bilirubin checks every 4 hours. The mother asks the nurse "what can be done to calm my baby after those heel pricks?" What is the nurse's most appropriate response? 1- "You can give your baby a sucrose solution by bottle for pain relief." 2- "Offer your baby a feeding of sterile water solution by bottle." 3- "The fussiness will go away shortly with tight swaddling." 4- "Your baby is not feeling pain but irritated with all the handling."
1
A postpartal patient is receiving heparin as treatment for thrombophlebitis. What should the nurse instruct the patient about breast-feeding during this time? 1 Breast-feeding can continue. 2 The baby will need weekly blood work. 3 The effect of anticoagulants is counteracted by infant gastric juices. 4 All anticoagulants pass in breast milk so breastfeeding will have to stop
1
A postpartal patient is receiving heparin as treatment for thrombophlebitis. What should the nurse instruct the patient about breast-feeding during this time? 1 Breast-feeding can continue. 2 The baby will need weekly blood work. 3 The effect of anticoagulants is counteracted by infant gastric juices. 4 All anticoagulants pass in breast milk so breastfeeding will have to stop.
1
When an infant is jaundiced, what is the nurse's main role in treatment? 1- Educate the caregiver 2- Comfort the infant 3- Feed the infant 4- Draw blood for analysis
1
A nurse is assigned to care for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia. The newborn is relatively large in size and shows signs of listlessness. What most likely occurred? 1- The infant's mother must have had a long labor. 2- The infant's mother probably had diabetes. 3- The infant may have experienced birth trauma. 4- The infant may have been exposed to alcohol during pregnancy.
2
A postpartum client is showing signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. What should the nurse do? 1 Start oxygen at 2 to 3 liters per minute via nasal cannula. 2 Raise the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. 3 Lay the client flat and start oxygen. 4 Sit the client up 90 degrees and call the RN.
2
The nurse assesses the client who is 1 hour postpartum and discovers a heavy, steady gush of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus. Which potential cause should the nurse question and report to the RN or primary care provider? 1 Uterine atony 2 Laceration 3 Perineal hematoma 4 Infection of the uterus
2
The nurse notes in a newborn's chart that the newborn has been diagnosed with physiologic jaundice. The nurse recognizes that physiologic jaundice is determined by what criteria? 1- The jaundice occurred within the first 24 hours after birth. 2- The bilirubin peaked between days 3 and 5 after birth. 3- The bilirubin level rose 6 mg/dL to 13 mg/dL over the last 24 hours. 4- The conjugated bilirubin is higher than the unconjugated bilirubin.
2
A newborn is diagnosed with ophthalmia neonatorum. The nurse understands that this newborn was exposed to which infection? 1- syphilis 2- Candida albicans 3- gonorrhea 4- human immunodeficiency virus
3
The nurse is responding to an infant crying and notes it is very high pitched and shrill. The nurse predicts this is most likely related to which situation? 1- Normal cry from pain 2- Tired and stress from delivery 3- Neurologic dysfunction 4- Cold stress cry
3
A nurse teaches a postpartum woman about her risk for thromboembolism. The nurse determines that additional teaching is required when the woman identifies which as a factor that increases her risk? 1 increase in clotting factors 2 vessel damage 3 immobility 4 increase in red blood cell production
4
The nurse is assisting a client who has just undergone an amniocentesis. Blood results indicate the mother has type O blood and the fetus has type AB blood. The nurse should point out the mother and fetus are at an increased risk for which situation related to this procedure? 1- Placental abruption 2- Preterm birth 3- Baby developing hemolytic anemia 4- Baby developing postbirth jaundice
4
The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize and report immediately? 1 Calf pain 2 Pyrexia 3 Edema 4 Dyspnea
4
The nurse is caring for a client within the first four hours after her cesarean birth. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to prevent thrombophlebitis? 1 Roll a bath blanket or towel and place it firmly behind the knees. 2 Limit oral intake of fluids for the first 24 hours to prevent nausea. 3 Assist client in performing leg exercises every two hours. 4 Ambulate the client as soon as her vital signs are stable.
4
A client has been admitted to the birthing suite in labor. She has been in labor for 12 hours and is dilated to 4 cm. The primary care provider notes that the client is in hypotonic labor. What does this mean? A- The uterine contractions may or may not be regular, but the quantity or quality or strength is insufficient to dilate the cervix. B- The uterine contractions are irregular, but the quantity or quality or strength is insufficient to dilate the cervix. C- The uterine contractions are regular, but the quantity or quality or strength is insufficient to dilate the cervix D- The uterine contractions may or may not be regular, but the quantity or quality or strength is sufficient to dilate the cervix.
A
A client in week 38 of her pregnancy has an ultrasound performed at a routine office visit and learns that her fetus has not moved out of a breech position. Which intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client? A- external cephalic version B- trial labor C- forceps birth D- vacuum extraction
A
A mother in the active phase of labor has been contracting for 4 hours. The contractions are occurring infrequently and not lasting very long. When the nurse palpates the uterus during a contraction it feels soft. The nurse should anticipate receiving which prescription from the obstetric provider? A- Administer oxytocin B- Place in side-lying position C- Prepare for epidural anesthesia D- Obtain internal monitoring
A
A multipara client develops thrombophlebitis after birth. Which assessment findings would lead the nurse to intervene immediately? A dyspnea, diaphoresis, hypotension, and chest pain B dyspnea, bradycardia, hypertension, and confusion C weakness, anorexia, change in level of consciousness, and coma D pallor, tachycardia, seizures, and jaundice
A
A nurse in L&D is caring for a pt who is in the 2nd stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. promote active movement in & out of bed B. instruct the pt to take breaths & hold them for 10 sec while pushing C. assess maternal VS Q1hr D. assist the pt to the restroom
A
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A) BUN 25mg/dl B) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dl C) Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr D) Urine negative for ketones
A
A nurse is caring for a pt who is in labor and asks her partner to perform effleurage. The pt has on a monitor belt for elcetronic fetal monitoring. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide the pt's partner? A. lightly stroke the upper thighs B. steadily apply pressure to the sacrum C. gently massage the midabdominal area D. firmly squeeze both hips
A
A nurse is discussing contraceptive choices w/ a pt who has a Hx of thrombophlebitis Which of the following should the nurse recommend? A. Copper IUD B. Combination pill C. Vaginal ring D. Medroxyprogesterone injection
A
A nurse is providing care for a pt who is in the 2nd stage of labor. The FH tracing indicates multiple variable decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. prepare an amnioinfusion B. place the pt in a supine position C. admin O2 2L/min via nasal cannula D. give a glucocorticord
A
A nurse is providing care to a pt who is in labor. A FHR tracing shows early decelerations. What actions should the nurse take? A. continue to monitor the FHR B. elevate the pt's legs C. increase the rate of the maintenance IV fluid D. admin O2 via facemask
A
A nurse is teaching a class about how to use a diaphragm. Which of the following pieces of info should be included? A. Use spermicidal jelly whenever you use it B. Inset it about 8hr before sex C. you should remove it 30 min after sex
A
A patient is experiencing dysfunctional labor that is prolonging the descent of the fetus. Which teaching should the nurse prepare to provide to this patient? A- Oxytocin therapy B- Fluid replacement C- Pain management D- Increasing activity
A
A postpartum client who had a cesarean birth reports right calf pain to the nurse. The nurse observes that the client has nonpitting edema from her right knee to her foot. The nurse knows to prepare the client for which test first? A Venous duplex ultrasound of the right leg B Transthoracic echocardiogram C Venogram of the right leg D Noninvasive arterial studies of the right leg
A
A pt is scheduled to receive a spinal anesthetic. Which action should the nurse plan to perform? A. infuse 500mL bolus of 0.9% NaCl immediately prior to the procedure B. assess the FHR pattern for 10min prior to the procedure C. position the pt upright & erect on the edge of the bed prior to the procedure D. monitor VS Q15min after anesthetic is placed
A
A pt who has had 2 previous c-sections is in active labor when she suddenly complains of pain between her scapulae. Which should be the nurses priority action? A. notify the HCP STAT B. observe for abnormally high uterine resting tone C. decrease the rate of nonadditive IV fluid D. reposition the pt w/ her hips slightly elevated
A
A woman experiences an amniotic fluid embolism as the placenta is delivered. The nurse's first action would be to: A administer oxygen by mask. B increase her intravenous fluid infusion rate. C put firm pressure on the fundus of her uterus. D tell the woman to take short, catchy breaths.
A
A woman experiences an amniotic fluid embolism as the placenta is delivered. The nurse's first action would be to: A- administer oxygen by mask. B- increase her intravenous fluid infusion rate. C- put firm pressure on the fundus of her uterus. D- tell the woman to take short, catchy breaths.
A
A woman is 7 cm dilated and her contractions are 3 minutes apart. When she begins cursing at her birthing coach and the nurse, the nurse assesses the most likely explanation for the woman's change in behavior is that: A. labor has progressed to transition phase B. she lacked adequate preparation for labor C. woman would benefit from a different form of analgesia D. contractions have increased from mild to moderate intensity
A
A woman is in the hospital only 15 minutes when she begins to give birth precipitously. The fetal head begins to emerge as the nurse walks into the labor room. The nurse's best action would be to: A- place a hand gently on the fetal head to guide birth. B- ask her to push with the next contraction so birth is rapid. C- assess blood pressure and pulse to detect placental bleeding. D- attach a fetal monitor to determine fetal status.
A
After a birth complicated by a shoulder dystocia, the infant's Apgar scores were 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. The infant is now crying vigorously. The nurse in the birthing room should: a. palpate the infant's clavicles. b. encourage the parents to hold the infant. c. perform a complete newborn assessment. d. give supplemental oxygen with a small face mask.
A
An Rh positive client vaginally gives birth to a 6 lb, 10 oz (3,005 g) neonate after 17 hours of labor. Which condition puts this client at risk for infection? A length of labor B maternal Rh status C method of birth D size of the neonate
A
During a postpartum assessment, a woman reports her right calf is painful. The nurse observes edema & redness along the saphenous vein in the right lower leg. Based on this finding what does the nurse explain the probable Tx will involve? A. anticoagulants for 6 wks B. application of ice to the affected lef C. gentle massage of the affected leg D. passive leg exercises twice a day
A
How should the nurse intervene to relieve perineal bruising & edema following delivery? A. place an ice pack on the area for 12 hrs B. place a warm pack on the area for 24 hrs C. admin aspirin to relieve inflammation D. change the perineal pad frequently
A
In caring for the woman with DIC, which order should the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of blood b. Preparation of the client for invasive hemodynamic monitoring c. Restriction of intravascular fluids d. Administration of steroids
A
It is necessary for the mother to have a forceps delivery. To reduce complications from this procedure, the nurse should A- empty the mother's bladder. B- provide pain medication C- have anesthesia provider present. D- call the neonatologist.
A
Nurse is teaching a pt who has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? A. You will have a C-section prior to the onset of labor B. Your baby will receive erythromycin eye ointment after birth to treat the infection C. You should take oral metronidazole for 7 days prior to 37 weeks gestation D. You should schedule a C-section after your water breaks
A
One day after discharge, the postpartum patient calls the clinic complaining of a reddened area on her lower leg, temperature elevation of 37 ° C (99.8° F), rust-colored lochia, and sore breasts. From these symptoms, the nurse suspects? A. phlebitis B. puerperal infections C. late postpartum hemorrhage D. mastitis
A
One hour postdelivery the nurse notes the new mother has saturated three perineal pads. The nurse should A. check the fundus for position & firmness B, report to the dr stat C. change the pads & shart the time D. time how long it takes to soak 1 pad
A
One of the assessments performed in the delivery room is checking the umbilical cord for blood vessels. Which finding is considered to be within normal limits? a. 2 arteries & 1 vein b. 2 arteries & 2 veins c. 2 veins & 1 artery d. 1 artery & 1 vein
A
The dr performs an amniotomy on a laboring woman. What will be the nurses priority assessment immediately following this procedure? A. FHR B. fluid amt C. maternal BP D. DTRs
A
The health care provider is reluctant to provide pain medication to a patient delivering a preterm fetus. What should the nurse explain to the patient as the reason for the preterm fetus being more affected by medication? A. Affinity of the preterm fetus to fat-soluble drugs B. Inability of the immature liver to metabolize or inactivate drugs C. Affinity of the preterm fetus to drugs that are strongly bound to protein D. Inability of the preterm fetus to use drugs with a molecular weight over 1,000
A
The husband of a woman in labor asks What does it mean when the baby is at -1 station? After giving an explanation what statement by the husband indicates that teaching was effective? A. fetal head is above the ischial spines B. fetal head is below the ischial spines C. fetal head is engaged in the mothers pelvis D. fetal head is visible at the perineum
A
The nurse assesses a boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus & deviated to the side. What should the nurses next assessment be? A. fullness of the bladder B. amt of lochia C. BP D. level of pain
A
The nurse is teaching an antepartum class to first-time mothers. A mother asks the nurse if she should stay in bed when her contractions start. How should the nurse respond? A- "No, walking actually shortens the first stage of labor." B- "No, but you need to only walk for 15 minute intervals." C- "Yes, you don't want to risk having your water break while you are walking." D- "Yes, it is important so monitoring can be done for you and the baby."
A
The nurse is teaching the mother about surgical incisions for a cesarean birth. What reason would the nurse give to the mother as to why a low transverse incision is preferable? A- The wound will be stronger. B- It requires less sutures. C- It leaves a better scar. D- There's less chance of bleeding.
A
The nurse observes on the fetal monitor a pattern of a 15-beat increase in the fetal heart rate that lasts 15-20 secs. What does this pattern indicate? A. a well oxygenated fetus B. compression of the umbilical cord C. compression of the fetal head D. uteroplacental insufficiency
A
The pregnant mother who has had no prenatal care comes to the labor and delivery department with ruptured membranes. The history of group B streptococcus (GBS) is unknown. The mother states she has no known drug allergies. The nurse will prepare to administer which drug to this mother? A- Penicillin G B- Vancomycin C- Cefdinir D- Doxycycline
A
Vaginal examination reveals the presenting part is the infants head, which is well flexed on the chest. What is this presentation? A. vertex B. military C. brow D. face
A
What are the 4 P's of the birth process? A. powers, passenger, passage, psyche B. powers, passenger, pathway, psyche C. powers, passes, pathway, physical D. powers, passenger, pathway, physical
A
What maneuver can assess the position and presentation of the fetus? A. Leopolds B. Goodall C. Chadwicks D. Braxton
A
Which assessment finding should convince the nurse to hold the next dose of mag sulfate? a. absence of DTR b. UOP of 100mL total for last 2hrs c. resp rate of 14 bpm d. decrease in BP
A
Which comment by a woman in her 1st trimester indicates ambivalent feelings? a. I wanted to become preg, but I'm scared about being a mom b. I haven't felt well since this preg began c. I'm concerned about the amt of Wt I've gained d. my body is changing so quickly
A
Which of the following findings should the nurse ID as the cause of late decelerations? A. uteroplacental insufficiency B. fetal head compression C. fetal ventricular septal defect D. umbilical cord compression
A
Which of the following meds should the nurse anticipate the Dr will prescribe for a pt 32 weeks w/ placenta previa & actively bleeding? a. betamethasone b. indomethacin c. nifedipine d. methylergonovine
A
While caring for a postpartum pt who had a vaginal delivery yesterday, the nurse assesses a firm uterine fundus & a trickle of bright blood. How does the nurse most likely feel & react to this finding? A. concerned & reports a probable cervical laceration B. attentive & massages the uterus to expel retained clots C. distressed & reports a possible clotting disorder D. satisfied w/ the normal early postpartum findings
A
A # of CV syst changes occur during preg? Which finding is considered norm during preg? a. cardiac output rises by 25% b. increased pulse rate c. increased BP d. decreased RBC production
B
A client appears to be resting comfortably 12 hours after giving birth to her first child. In contrast, she labored for more than 24 hours, the primary care provider had to use forceps to deliver the baby, and she had multiple vaginal examinations during labor. Based on this information what postpartum complication is the client at risk for developing? A- hemorrhage B- infection C- depression D- pulmonary emboli
B
A nurse is assisting w/ the care of a pt who is in labor. The nurse observes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. decrease the rate of the pt's maintenance IV fluid B. place the pt in a left lateral position C. apply O2 at 2L/min via nasal cannula D. prepare the pt for an amniocentesis
B
A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication? a) increased fetal movement b) leakage of fluid from the vagina c) upper abdominal discomfort d) urinary frequency
B
A nurse is caring for a client who had a cesarean birth 36 hours ago & is experiencing pain d/t gas. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend? A. sip a carbonated beverage throughout the day B. rock in a rocking chair C. lie flat in bed with the legs extended D. use a straw when drinking fluids
B
A nurse is caring for a pt who is in labor. The nurse decides to switch from intermittent auscultation to continuous fetal monitoring. Which of the following data can only be obtained from continuous electronic fetal monitoring> A. determination of a baseline B. determination of variability C. presence of accelerations D. presence of decelerations
B
A nurse is determining an Apgar score for a newborn who was born 1 minute ago. For which of the following findings should the nurse assign a score of 1? A. heart rate 116/min B. weak cry C. flaccid muscles D. no response to stimuli
B
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers on a pt who is in labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. ensure the pt has a full bladder B. stand at the pt's right side if the nurse is right handed C. assess the pt onto her back w/ knees extended D. palpate the outline of the fetus's head w/ the palms of the hands
B
A nurse observes a pattern of early decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which action should the nurse take? A. notify the provider B. document the findings & continue to monitor C. admin O2 via face mask D. assist w/ a sterile speculum exam
B
A pregnant woman is attending her second postpartum visit. Prenatal lab work indicates she is not immune to the rubella virus. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. provide the rubella vaccine immediately B. inform the woman she should get the vaccine in the hospital after delivery C. hold all immunizations until 1 month postpartum D. encourage the pt to decide whether or not to get the rubella vaccine prenatally
B
A primigravida whose labor was initially progressing normally is now experiencing a decrease in the frequency and intensity of her contractions. The nurse would assess the woman for which condition? A- a low-lying placenta B- fetopelvic disproportion C- contraction ring D- uterine bleeding
B
A pt is in preterm labor & is scheduled to undergo an amnio. The nurse should evaluate which of the following test to assess fetal lung maturity? a. AFP b. lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio c. Kleihauer- Betke test d. indirct coombs test
B
A pt requests an IUD. Which is a contraindication for this device? A. HTN B. menorrhagia C. Hx of multiple gestations D. Hx of thromboembolic Dz
B
A pt who is in labor has received epidural analgesia. The pt's BP is 88/50 and the FHR shows late decelerations. Which action should the nurse take? A. assist the pt to the bathroom to empty bladder B. increase the rate of the primary IV infusion C. position the pt in a semi-Fowler's position D. provide glucose via oral hydration/IV
B
A pt with polyhydramnios was admitted to a labor birth recovery postpartum suite. Her membranes rupture & the fluid is clear and odorless but the FH monitor indicates bradycardia & variable decelerations. Which action should be taken next? A. perform Leopold maneuvers B. perform a vaginal exam C. apply warm saline soaks to the vagina D. place the pt in a high Fowler position
B
A woman is 16 weeks pregnant with her first baby. She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. The best answer is a. you should have felt the baby move by now b. within the next month, you should start to feel fluttering sensations c. the baby is moving, but you can't feel it yet d. some babies are quiet and you don't feel them moce
B
A woman w/ severe preeclampsia is being treated w/ bed rest & IV Mag Sulfate. The drug classification of this med is: a. tocolytic b. anticonvulsant c.antihypertensive d. diuretic
B
An abortion in which the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called _______ abortion. a. inevitable b. missed c.incomplete d. threatened
B
Best nursing intervention for late decelerations on the fetal monitor. A. decrease the rate of the pt's maintenance IV fluid B. place the pt in a left lateral position C. apply O2 at 2L/min via nasal cannula D. prepare the pt for an amniocentesis
B
During a difficult labor of an infant in the face presentation, the nurse notes the infant has a large amount of facial edema with bruising and ecchymosis. Which assessment would be the priority for this infant? A- ability to arch the eyebrows B- patent airway C- ability to swallow fluids D- palpation of the anterior fontanels
B
During the exam for the 1st prenatal visit it is noted that Chadwicks sign is present. What is Chadwicks sign? a. bluish/purplish discolorations of the vulva, vagina & servix b. presence of early fetal movements c. darkening of the areola & breast tenderness d. palpation of the fetal outline
B
It is determined that the presenting part of the fetus is the buttocks. At delivery the fetus's hips are flexed and the knees are extended. The nurse would record this presentation as: A, complete breech B. frank breech C. double footling D. buttocks presentation
B
Physiologic anemia often occurs during preg d/t a. inadequate intake of iron b. dilution of hemoglobin concentration c. fetus establishing iron stores d. decreased production of erythrocytes
B
Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy is associated with A. frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia B. congenital anomalies in the fetus C. polyhydramnios D. hyperemesis gravidarum
B
The 1-day postpartum patient shows a temperature elevation, cough, and slight shortness of breath on exertion. What action should the nurse implement based on these symptoms? A. notify the charge nurse of a possible upper respiratory infection B. notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism C. document expected postpartum mucous membrane congestion D. medicate w/ antipyretic remedy for elevated temp
B
The condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment near/over the internal cervical os is a. abruptio placentae b. placenta previa c. hydatiform mole d. normal
B
The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by c-section because:: A. the buttocks are much larger than the head B. compression of the umbilical cord is more likely C. internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech D. postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the pt delivers vaginally
B
The nurse is caring for a pt who is not certain if she is in true labor. How might the nurse attempt to stimulate cervical effacement & intensify contractions in the pt? A. by offering the pt warm fluids to drink B. by helping the pt to ambulate in the room C. by seating the pt upright in a straight-back chair D. by positioning the pt on her right side
B
The nurse is preparing a mother for a planned cesarean birth. The nurse ascertains that the mother has previously had a deep vein thrombosis. Heparin is ordered prophylactically. The nurse determines this medication will be administered: A- 1 hour after birth. B- 8 hours after birth. C- 14 hours after birth. D- 24 hours after birth.
B
The nurse observes the pt bearing down w/ contractions & crying out, The baby is coming! What is the best nursing intervention? A. find the doctor B. stay with her & use call bell to get help C. send the woman's partner to locate a RN D. assist w/ deep breathing to slow labor process
B
The nurse preceptor explains that several factors are involved with the "powers" that can cause dystocia. She focuses on the dysfunction that occurs when the uterus contracts so frequently and with such intensity that a very rapid birth will take place. This is known as which term? A- hypertonic contractions B- precipitous labor C- hypotonic contractions D- none of the above
B
The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial Tx to involve what? A. corticosteroids to reduce inflammation B. IV therapy to correct fluid & electrolyte imbalances C. antiemetic medication to control N/V D. enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
B
What lab marker is indicative of DIC? a. bleeding time of 10mins b. presence of fibrin split products c. thrombocytopenia d. hyperfibrinogenemia
B
What laboratory marker is indicative of DIC? A. bleeding time of 10 minutes B. presence of fibrin slpit products C. thrombocytopenia D. hypofibrinogenemia
B
What marks the end of the 3rd stage of delivery? A. fully dilated cervix B. expulsion of the placenta & membranes C. birth of the infant D. engagement of the head
B
Which finding in the UA of a preg woman is considered a variation of norm? A. proteinuria b. glycosuria c. bacteria in the urine d. keotones in the urine
B
Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by c-section? A. marginal placenta previa B. complete placenta previa C. ectopic pregnancy D. eclampsia
B
Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by c-section? a. partial abruptio placentae b. total placenta previa c. ectopic preg d. eclampsia
B
Which of the following pts Wt gain should the nurse report? a. 4lb Wt gain & in 1st tri b. 8lb Wt gain & in 1st tri c. 15lb Wt gain & in 2nd tri D. 25lb Wt gain & in 3rd tri
B
Which pt is a candidate for oral contraceptives? A. Pt who smokes 2 packs a week B. Pt who is breastfeeding a 7 mo C. Pt taking anticonvulsant meds D. Pt who is taking anti-HIC protease inhibitors
B
A client has just given birth at 42 weeks' gestation. What would the nurse expect to find during her assessment of the neonate? A a sleepy, lethargic neonate B lanugo covering the neonate's body C peeling and wrinkling of the neonate's epidermis D vernix caseosa covering the neonate's body
C
A client who is in labor & is receiving an infusion of oxytocin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential adverse effects? A. diarrhea B. thromboembolism C. fetal asphyxia D. oliguria
C
A first-time dad is concerned that his 3-day-old daughter's skin looks "yellow." In the nurse's explanation of physiologic jaundice, what fact should be included? a. Physiologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life. b. Physiologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities between the mother and infant blood types. c. The bilirubin levels of physiologic jaundice peak between the second and fourth days of life. d. This condition is also known as "breast milk jaundice."
C
A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 min after birth and notes a heart rate of 136/min and respiratory rate of 36/min. The newborn has well-flexed extremities, responds to stimuli with a cry, and has blue hands and feet. Which Apgar score should the nurse assign to the newborn? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10
C
A nurse is assessing a pt who is in the 4th stage of labor. Which finding should the nurse expect? A. breast engorgement B. hypothermia C. urinary retention D. rupture of membranes
C
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 wks of gestation and is undergoing a nonstress test that reveals a variable deceleration in the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A) give the client orange juice B) Elevate the clients legs C) Have the client change position D) Establish IV access
C
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to receive IV oxytocin for the induction of labor. The pt has a Bishop score of 10. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. the pt will require dinoprostone for ripening of cervix B. the pt will experience lower back pain during labor C. the pt will experience a successful induction of labor D. the pt will require a vacuum/forceps assisted delivery
C
A nurse is caring for a pt in active labor who has a meconium staining of the amniotic fluid. The nurse notes a reassuring FHR tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A. prepare the pt for an ultrasound exam B. prepare the pt for an emergency c-section C. prepare equipment needed for newborn resuscitation D. perform endotracheal suctioning as soon as the fetal head is delivered
C
A nurse is caring for a pt in active labor whose fetus is in a persistent occiput posterior position. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote rotation of the fetal head? A. apply counterpressure to the pt's back B. place heat on the pt's lower back C. instruct the pt to squat during contractions D. encourage the pt to ambulate
C
A nurse is caring for a pt in the latent phase of labor who is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion. The pt is having contractions Q2min that last 100-110 sec and the FHR is reassuring. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. decrease the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid B. admin O2 via nonrebreather mask C. decreased the dose of oxytocin by half D. admin terbutaline 0.25 SQ
C
A nurse is caring for a pt who has an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following is a complication of the epidural block? A. N/V B. tachycardia C. hypotention D. resp depression
C
A nurse is caring for a pt who is in the 1st stage of labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse ID as a cause for concern? A. pink mucoid vaginal discharge B. brownish vaginal discharge C. contractions lasting 100 sec D. contractions occuring Q4-5mins
C
A nurse is caring for a pt who is receiving IV oxytocin for the induction of labor & notes repetitive early decelerations of the electronic EHR tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. increase the rate of IV fluid infusion B. discontinue the infusion of oxytocin C. re-evaluate the FHR tracing in 15mins D. request a prescription for an amniofusion
C
A nurse is caring for a pt who just had a spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse observes fetal bradycardia on the FHR tracing & a prolapsed umbilical cord. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. place the pt in an extreme Trendelenburg position B. increase the IV fluid infusion rate C. manually apply upward pressure intravaginally on the presenting part D. admin 8-10L/min of O2 via nonrebreather face mask
C
A nurse is discussing diaphragm use with a pt. Which statement made by the pt indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. I should clean it with alcohol after each use B. I should leave it in place for 4 hrs after intercourse C. I should replace it Q2years D. I should use a vaginal lube to insert it
C
A nurse is planning care for a pt who is scheduled to have prostaglandin E2 gel inserted for cervical ripening. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. assess FHR and contraction pattern Q15min after insertion B. thaw the frozen gel in warm water prior to insertion C. maintain the pt in a side-lying position for 30min after insertion D. initiate an oxytocin infusion for induction 1hr after gel insertion
C
A nurse is providing education about continuous heparin therapy for a client who is 18 hours postpartum and has developed a DVT. Which of the following statement should the nurse INCLUDE in the teaching? A. An adverse effect of this medication is drowsiness B. this medication will require frequent monitoring of WBC levels C. use a soft toothbrush to brush your teeth gently D. avoid taking acetaminophen while receiving this medication
C
A pregnant woman is experiencing nausea in the early morning. What recommendations would the nurse offer to alleviate this symptom? A. eat 3 well-balanced meals per day & limit snacks B. drink a full glass of fluid at the beginning of each meal C. have crackers handy at the bedside & eat a few before getting out of bed D. eat a bland diet
C
A woman arrives at the ED w/ complaints of bleeding & cramping. The initial nursing Hx is significant for a last menstrual period 6 wks ago. On sterile speculum exam, the PCP finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care would be based on a probable Dx of which type of spontaneous abortion? A. incomplete B. inevitable C. threatened D. septic
C
A woman reports that her last normal menstrual period began on August 5, 2013. Using Nägele's rule, her expected date of delivery would be? A. April 30, 2014 B. May 5, 2014 C. May 12, 2014 D. May 26, 2014
C
A woman who is 30 weeks of gestation arrives at the hospital with bleeding. Which differential diagnosis would not be applicable for this client? a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Spontaneous abortion d. Cord insertion
C
A woman who is 7 weeks preg tells the nurse that this is not her 1st preg. She has a 2yo & 1 previous spontaneous abortion. How would the nurse document the OB Hx using the TPLAM system? a. Gravida 2 para 20120 b. gravida 3, para 10011 c. gravida 3, para 10110 d. gravida 2, para 11110
C
A woman who is 7 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that this is not her first pregnancy. She has a 2-year-old son and had one previous spontaneous abortion. Using the TPAL system, the patient's obstetric history would be recorded as: a. gravida 2 para 20120. b. gravida 3 para 10011. c. gravida 3 para 10110. d. gravida 2 para 11110.
C
A womans prepregnant weight is determined to be average for her height. What will the nurse advise the woman regarding recommended weight gain during pregnancy? a. 10 to 20 pounds b. 15 to 25 pounds c. 25 to 35 pounds d. 28 to 40 pounds
C
At her initial prenatal visit a woman asks, "When can I hear the babys heartbeat?" At what gestational age can the fetal heartbeat be auscultated with a specially adapted stethoscope/fetoscope? A. 4 wks B. 12 wks C. 18 wks D. 24 wks
C
At what gestational age can the fetal heartbeat be auscultate w/ a specially adapted stethoscope/fetoscope? a. 4 wks b. 12 wks c. 18 wks d. 24 wks
C
At what point in prenatal development do the lungs begin to produce surfactant? a. 17 weeks b. 20 weeks c. 25 weeks d. 30 weeks
C
During the second prenatal visit, the nurse attempts to locate the fetal heartbeat with an electronic Doppler device. How early might fetal heart tones be detected with an electronic Doppler device? A. 4 wks B. 8 wks C. 10 wks D. 14 wks
C
Immediately after giving birth to a full-term infant, a client develops dyspnea and cyanosis. Her blood pressure decreases to 60/40 mm Hg, and she becomes unresponsive. What does the nurse suspect is happening with this client? A- placental separation B- aspiration C- amniotic fluid embolism D- congestive heart failure
C
Labor dystocia is an abnormal progression of labor. It is the most common cause of primary cesarean birth. When is it most common for labor dystocia to occur? A- Fourth stage of labor B- Third stage of labor C- Second stage of labor D- First stage of labor
C
Methotrexate is recommended as part of the tx plan for which ob comp? a. complete hydatidiform mole b. missed abortion c. unruptured preg d. abruptio placentae
C
On an Apgar evaluation, how is reflex irritability tested? A tightly flexing the infant's trunk and then releasing it B dorsiflexing a foot against pressure resistance C flicking the soles of the feet and observing the response D raising the infant's head and letting it fall back
C
Teaching of IUD. Which is correct? A. If you lose Wt you will need to have it refitted B. An IUD provides protection from certain STIs C. Risk for ectopic preg increases D. Don't use if you want to have children later
C
The experienced labor and birth nurse knows to evaluate progress in active labor by using which simple rule? A- 2 cm/hour for cervical dilation B- 1/2 cm/hour for cervical dilation C- 1 cm/hour for cervical dilation D- 1/4 cm/hour for cervical dilatio
C
The mother-baby nurse must be able to recognize what sign of thrombophlebitis? a. visible varicose veins b. positive Homans sign c. local tenderness, heat & swelling d. pedal edema in the affect leg
C
The nurse is caring for a woman in the 1st stage of labor. What will the nurse remind the pt about contractions during this stage of labor? A. they get the infant positioned for delivery B. they push the infant into the vagina C. they dilate & efface the cervix D. they get the mother prepared for true delivery
C
The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to the pt. This hazardous drug is most often used for which obstetric complication? A. complete hydatidiform mole B. missed abortion C. unruptured ectopic pregnancy D. abruptio placentae
C
The nurse teaches the parents of a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia about home phototherapy using bilirubin lights. Which statement indicates that the teaching was successful? A. "We'll place the lights so that they are about 5 inches above our baby at all times." B. "We will turn him every ½ hour to make sure that his whole body is exposed." C. "We'll take off the patches on his eyes when we're feeding him so he can look at us." D. "We should see reddened areas on his skin, which means the treatment is working."
C
The patient who is 28 weeks preg shows a 10 lb weight gain from 2 wks ago. What is the nurses initial action? a. assess food intake b. weigh the pt again c. take the BP d, notify the Dr
C
What are the potential side effects of an epidural anesthetic for a laboring pt. Which of the following effects is a side effect? A. newborn resp depression at birth B. impaired ability of the neonate to maintain body temp C. impaired placental perfusion D. decreased FHR variability
C
What contraction duration and interval does the nurse recognize could result in fetal compromise? A. duration shorter than 30 seconds, interval longer than 75 seconds B. duration shorter than 90 seconds, interval longer than 120 seconds C. duration longer than 90 seconds, interval shorter than 60 seconds D. duration longer than 60 seconds, interval shorter than 90 seconds
C
What foods are high in DHA and are thought to enhance brain development? a. fried fish b. olive oil c. red meat d. leafy green vegetables
C
What is the best nursing action to implement when late decelerations occur? A. reposition the pt to supine B. decrease the flow of IV fluids C. increase O2 to 10 L/min D. prepare to increase oxytocin drip
C
What is the function of contractions during the 2nd stage of labor? A. align the infant into the proper position for delivery B. dilate & efface the cervix C. push the infant out of the mothers body D. separate the placenta from the uterine wall
C
What is the most important nursing intervention during the 4th stage of labor? A. monitor the frequency & intensity of contractions B. provide comfort measures C. assess for hemorrhage D. promote bonding
C
When can fetal heart tones be heard? a. 4 wks b. 8 wks c. 10 wks d. 14 wks
C
When reviewing the medical record of a postpartum client, the nurse notes that the client has experienced a third-degree laceration. The nurse understands that the laceration extends to which area? A- superficial structures above the muscle B- through the perineal muscles C- through the anal sphincter muscle D- through the anterior rectal wall
C
Which intervention would be most effective if the FHR drops following a spontaneous rupture of the membranes? A. apply O2 at 8-10L/min B. stop the Pitocin infusion C. position the pt in the knee-chest position D. increase the main line infusion to 150 mL/hr
C
While caring for a laboring woman the nurse notices a pattern of variable decelerations in FHR w/ uterine contractions. What is the nurses initial action? A. stop the oxytocin infusion B, increase the IV flow rate C. reposition the woman on her side D. start O2 via nasal cannula
C
While discussing L&D during a prenatal visit, a primigravida asks the nurse when she should go to the hospital. The best response is: A. when you feel increased fetal movement B. when contractions are 10 mins apart C. when membranes have ruptured D. when abdominal/groin discomfort occurs
C
Why is it important for the nurse to thoroughly assess maternal bladder and bowel status during labor? A- If the woman has a full bladder, labor may be uncomfortable for her B- If the woman's bladder is distended, it may rupture. C A full bladder or rectum can impede fetal descent. D- A full rectum can cause diarrhea.
C
Why is the relaxation phase between contractions important? A. Laboring woman needs to rest B. Uterine muscles fatigue w/out relaxation C. Contractions can interfere w/ fetal oxygenation D. Infant progresses toward delivery at these times
C
A 32 yo primigravida is admitted w/ a dx of ectopic preg. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that a. bed rest & analgesics are the recommended tx b. she will be unable to conceive in future c. a D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception d. hemorrhage is the major concern
D
A laboring client in the latent phase is experiencing uncoordinated irregular contractions of low intensity. How should the nurse respond to complains of constant cramping pain? A. you are only 2cm dilated so you should rest & save your energy for when the contractions get stronger B. let me take off the monitor belts & help you get into a more comfortable position C. you must breathe more slowly & deeply so there is greater O2 supply for your uterus, that will decrease the pain D. I have notified the dr that you are having a lot of discomfort. let me rub your back & see if that helps
D
A laboring client is experiencing dysfunctional labor or dystocia due to the malfunction of one or more of the "four Ps" of labor. Which scenario best illustrates a power problem? A- The fetus is macrosomic. B- The mother is fighting the contractions. C- The mother has a small pelvic opening. D- Uterine contractions are weak and ineffective.
D
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and has had no cervical change in the last 4 hr. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A) Let me help you into a comfortable pushing position so you can begin bearing down. B) I am going to call the doctor to get a prescription for medication to ripen your cervix. C) I will give you some IV pain medicine to strengthen your contractions. D) Your provider will insert an intrauterine pressure catheter to monitor the strength of your contractions.
D
A nurse is caring for a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect? A. extended periods of sleep B. poor muscle tone C. RR 50/min D. exaggerated reflexes
D
A nurse is caring for a pt who is at 39 weeks & shows signs of labor. Which finding will alert the nurse that the pt is in true labor. A. contractions felt in upper abdomen B. sm amount of bloody discharge C. contractions occurring Q2-10min D. changes in cervical dilation/effacement
D
A nurse is caring for a pt who is in active labor & receiving an oxytocin infusion. The nurse notes tachysytole w/ a Category I FHR tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. discontinue oxytocin infusion and apply O2 B. increase oxytocin infusion rate by 2mu/min C. admin terbutaline 0.25 SQ D. reposition the pt in a side-lying position & continue to monitor
D
A nurse is caring for a pt who is in labor. Which method will determine the frequency of the pt's contractions? A. palpating the firmness of the uterus during a contraction B. calculating the time from the end of each contraction to the beginning of the next C. measuring the time from the beginning of a contraction to the end of that same contraction D. evaluating the time from the beginning of a contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
D
A nurse is monitoring the FHR tracings. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. baseline FHR 110-130/min B. moderate baseline variability C. accelerations in response to fetal stim D. late decelerations w/ fetal bradycardia
D
A nurse is reviewing the lab findings for 4 pts. Which should be reported to the public health department? A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Ticomoniasis C. Candidiasis D. Gonorrhea
D
A nurse is teaching a client who is Rh negative about RHo(D) immune globulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) I will receive this medication if my baby is Rh-negative B) I will receive this medication when I am in labor C) I will need a second dose of this medication when my baby id 6wks old D) I will need this medication if I have an amniocentesis
D
A nursing student is helping the nursery nurses with morning vital signs. A baby born 10 hours ago via c-section is found to have moist lung sounds. What is the best interpretation of these data? A. the nurse should notify the Dr stat for this emergency situation B. the neonate must have aspirated surfactant C. if this baby was born vaginally it could indicate a pneumothorax D. the lungs of a baby delivered by c-section may sound moist for 24 hours after birth
D
A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called a. total b. partial c. complete d. marginal
D
A postpartal woman is developing a thrombophlebitis in her right leg. Which assessments would the nurse make to detect this? A Bend her knee, and palpate her calf for pain. B Ask her to raise her foot and draw a circle. C Blanch a toe, and count the seconds it takes to color again. D Assess for pedal edema.
D
A pt asks the nurse why Chadwicks sign occurs during preg. What would the nurse explain as cause of Chadwicks sign? a. enlargement of the uterus b. progesterone action on the breasts c. increasing activity of the fetus d. vascular congestion in the pelvic area
D
A woman has been in labor for the past 8 hours, and she has progressed to the second stage of labor. However, after 2 hours with no further descent, the provider diagnoses an "arrested descent." The woman asks, "Why is this happening?" Which response is the best answer to this question? A- "Maybe your uterus is just tired and needs a rest." B- "It is likely that your body has not secreted enough hormones to soften the ligaments so your pelvic bones can shift to allow birth of the baby." C- "Maybe your baby has developed hydrocephaly and the head is too swollen." D- "More than likely you have cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) where baby's head cannot make it through the canal."
D
A woman in labor is experiencing hypotonic uterine dysfunction. Assessment reveals no fetopelvic disproportion. Which group of medications would the nurse expect to administer? A- sedatives B- tocolytics C- uterine stimulants D- corticosteroids
D
A woman is prescribed Coumadin (warfarin) to treat DVT. What will the nurse instruct the pt is the antidote for warfarin overdose? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K
D
A woman tells the nurse that she is quite sure she is pregnant. The nurse recognizes which as a positive sign of pregnancy? A. amenorrhea B. uterine enlargement C. HCG detected in urine D. fetal heartbeat
D
At 1 & 5 mins of life a newborns Apgar score is 9. What does the nurse understand that a score of 9 indicates? A. newborn will require resuscitation B. newborn may have physical disabilities C. newborn will have above average intelligence D. newborn is in stable condition
D
At a prenatal visit a primigravida asks the nurse how she will know her labor has started. The nurses knows that what indicates the beginning of true labor? A. contractions that are relieved w/ walking B. discomfort in the abdomen & groin C. a decrease in vaginal discharge D. regular contractions becoming more frequent & intense
D
At what age is a woman who becomes pregnant for the first time described as an elderly primia? a. After 25 years old b. After 28 years old c. After 30 years old d. After 35 years old
D
In which situation is a D&C indicated? a. complete abortion at 8wks b. incomplete abortion at 16wks c. threatened abortion at 6wks d. incomplete abortion at 10wks
D
Pt is 37 weeks preg & is at a routine visit the nurse notices fetal heart rate has dropped to 120 from 160 earlier in preg. What is the nurses 1st action? a. ask pt if taking a sedatice b. notify Dr c. turn the pt to R side d. record rate as a normal finding
D
The nurse assesses a positive Homans sign when the patients leg is flexed & foot sharply dorsiflexed. Where does the pt report that the pain is felt? A. groin B. achilles tendon C. top of the foot D. calf of the leg
D
The nurse explains that the softening of the cervix & vagina is a probable sign of preg. What is the appropriate term for this sign? a. Chadwicks b. Hegars c. McDonalds d. Goodells
D
The nurse explains that the softening of the cervix & vagina is a probable sign of pregnancy. What is the appropriate term for this sign? A. Chadwicks B. Hegars C. McDonalds D. Goodells
D
The nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis for a woman in the 4th stage of labor. What is the most appropriate nursing Dx? A. pain related to increasing frequency & intensity of contractions B. fear related to the probable need for c-section C. dysuria related to prolonged labor & decreased intake D. risk for injury related to hemorrhage
D
The nurse is admitting a term, large-for-gestational-age neonate weighing 4,610 g (10 lb, 2 oz), born vaginally with a mid-forceps assist, to a 15-year-old primipara. What would the nurse anticipate as a result of the birth? A fracture of the tibia B fracture of the femur C fracture of a rib D midclavicular fracture
D
The nurse is caring for a client who is in the latent phase of labor & is experiencing low back pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. instruct the pt to pant during contractions B. position the pt supine w/ legs elevated C. encourage the pt to soak in a warm bath D. apply pressure to the pt's sacral area during contractions
D
The nurse is caring for a woman who had a c-section birth yesterday. Varicose veins are visible on both legs. What nursing action is the most appropriate to prevent thrombus formation? A. have the woman sit in a chair for meals B. monitor VSs every 4 hrs & report any changes C. tell the woman to remain in bed with her legs elevated D. assist the woman with ambulation for short periods of time
D
The nurse is monitoring the uterine contractions of a woman in labor. The nurse determines the woman is experiencing hypertonic uterine dysfunction based on which contraction finding? A- well coordinated B- poor in quality. C- brief. D- erratic.
D
The obstetric provider has informed the nurse that she will be performing an amniotomy on the pt to induce labor. What is the nurses highest priority intervention after the amniotomy is performed? A. applying clean linens under the woman B. Take the pts VS C. performing a vaginal exam D. assess the FHR
D
What does the nurse note when measuring the frequency of a laboring womans contractions? A. how long the pt states the contractions last B. Time between the end of one contraction & the beginning of the next C. Time between the beginning & end of one contraction D. The time between the beginning of one contraction & the beginning of the next
D
What is folic acid thought to decrease the incidence of in fetal development? a. structural heart defects b. limb deformities c. craniofacial deformaties d. neural tube defects
D
What is the most appropriate statement from the nurse when coaching the laboring woman w/ a fully dilated cervix to push? A. at the beginning of a contraction hold your breath & push for 10 secs B. take a deep breath & push between contractions C. begin pushing when a contraction starts & continue for the duration of the contraction D. at the beginning of a contraction take 2 deep breaths & push w/ the 2nd exhalation
D
Which finding by the nurse on a vaginal exam would be a concern if a spontaneous rupture of the membranes occur? A. cephalic presentation B. left occiput position D. dilation 2 cm D. presenting part at 3 station
D
Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the fetus of a woman in labor is in hypertonic uterine dysfuction? A- lack of cervical dilation past 2 cm B- fetal buttocks as the presenting part C- reports of severe back pain D- contractions most forceful in the middle of uterus rather than the fundus
D
Which is a med the provide witl Rx to hasten fetal lung maturity? a. calcium gluconate b. indomethacin c. nifedipine d. betamethasone
D
While assessing a patient who is the the 4th stage of labor, the nurse suspects bladder distention. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate w/ bladder distention? A. fundus is at midline B. fundus is below the umbilicus C. bladder is resonant w/ percussion D. bladder fluctuates w/ palpation
D
Why should the nurse encourage the mother to void during the 4th stage of labor? A. full bladder could interfere w/ cervical dilation B. full bladder could obstruct progress of infant thru birth canal C. full bladder could obstruct the passage of placenta D. full bladder could predispose the mother to uterine hemorrhage
D
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse request the provider see first? A) A client who is at 11 wks of gestation and reports abdominal cramping B) A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation and reports tingling and numbness in her right hand C) A client who is at 20 wks of gestation and reports constipation for the past 4 days D) A client who is at 8 wks of gestation and reports having three bloody noses in the past week
a
A nurse in a prenatal clinic who reports that her menstrual period is 2 wks late. The client appears anxious and asks the nurse if she is pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A) You can miss your period for several other reasons, describe your typical menstrual cycle. B) If you have been sexually active and havent used protection, it is likely that you are pregnant. C) Lets check to see if you have any other signs of pregnancy, have you noticed any abdominal enlargement yet? D) Because you have missed your period, you should try taking a home pregnancy test before you start worrying.
a
A nurse is calculating a clients expected DOB using Naegele's rule. The client tells the nurse her last menstrual cycle started November 27th. Which of the following dates is the clients expected DOB? A) Sept 3rd b) Sept 20th c) august 3rd D) august 20th
a
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. The nurse should plan to prepare the client for which of the following diagnostic tests? A) biophysical profile b) amniocentesis C) cordocentesis D) Kleihauer-Betke test
a
A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for an amniocentesis. For which of the following reasons should the nurse prepare the client for an ultrasound? A) to estimate fetal weight B) to locate a pocket of fluid C) to determine multiparity D) to pre-screen for fetal anomalies
b
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is receiving heparin via a continuous IV infusion for thrombophlebitis in her left calf. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A) administer aspirin for pain B) maintain the client on bed rest C) massage the affected leg every 12hr D) apply cold compresses to the affected calf
b
A nurse is caring for a prenatal client who has parvovirus B19 ( fifth disease). Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a) administer antiviral medication b) schedule an ultrasound examination C) administer haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine d) schedule an indirect coombs' test
b
A nurse is assessing a client who is in labor and notes early decelerations on the fetal monito. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the early decelerations? A) prolapsed umbilical cord B) placenta previa C) fetal head compression D) maternal hypotension
c
A nurse is caring for a client who is anemic at 32 wks of gestation and is in preterm labor. The provider prescribed betamethasone 12 mg IM. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse expect? A) decreased uterine contractions B) an increase in the clients hemoglobin levels C) a reduction in respiratory distress in the newborn D) increased production of antibodies in the newborn
c
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who is to undergo phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan? A) feed the newborn 1 oz of water every 4 hr B) Apply lotion to the newborn's skin three times per day C) Remove all clothing from the newborn except the diaper D) Discontinue therapy if the newborn develops a rash
c
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 35wks gestation about clinical manifestations of potential pregnancy complications to report to the provider. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include? a) shortness of breath when climbing stairs b) swelling of feet and ankles at the end of the day C) headache that is unrelieved by analgesia D) braxton hicks contractions
c
A nurse is teaching a client who is in preterm labor about terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) I will get injections of the medication once daily until my labor stops b) my blood sugar may be low while I'm on this medication c) I will have blood tests because my potassium might decrease d) my bp may increase while I'm on this medication
c
A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation asks the nurse how she will know when she is in labor and should go to the hospital. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a) you will feel the contractions primarily in your upper abdomen b) you will feel extremely fatigued when your labor starts c) your breasts will begin to excrete colostrum d) you will notice blood-tinged discharge from your vagina
d
A nurse is planning care for a client who is to undergo a nonstress test. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) maintain the client NPO throughout the procedure B) place client in a supine position C) instruct the client to massage the abdomen to stimulate fetal movement D) Instruct the client to press the provided button each time fetal movement is detected
d
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 wks gestation about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A) I should increase my protein to 60 grams daily B) I should drink 2 L of water each day C) I should increase my overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories D) I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day
d
A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Brush your teeth immediately after eating B) Eat foods served at a warm temp C) Drink a glass of water with each meal D) Eat high carb foods
d